HESI Pharm Quiz 1

A client develops a seizure disorder as a result of a traumatic fall. During a clinic visit, the client states, "I have not had a seizure in 2 years. When can I stop taking my antiseizure medications?" Which response would the nurse provide? 1 "A gradual reduction in seizure medication may be considered." 2 "You will require medication for the rest of your life." 3 "The medication probably will be discontinued at this visit." 4 "A minimum of 10 years without seizures is necessary before discontinuation of medications is considered."

"A gradual reduction in seizure medication may be considered."

A client is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis, and the health care provider prescribes a combination of rifampin and isoniazid. The nurse evaluates that the teaching regarding the medications is effective when the client reports which action as most important? 1 "Report any changes in vision." 2 "Take the medicine with my meals." 3 "Call my doctor if my urine or tears turn red-orange." 4 "Continue taking the medicine even after I feel better."

"Continue taking the medicine even after I feel better."

A client is admitted to the hospital for a subtotal thyroidectomy. When discussing postoperative medication therapy with the client, which advice will the nurse include in the teaching? 1 "You will be taking iodine daily to increase the formation of thyroid hormone." 2 "After your body adjusts to postsurgical status, you will be weaned off this medication." 3 "The propylthiouracil that is prescribed will stimulate the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone." 4 "If you develop palpitations, nervousness, or tremors, the dose of thyroid hormone may need to be decreased."

"If you develop palpitations, nervousness, or tremors, the dose of thyroid hormone may need to be decreased."

A client with cancer experiences severe nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy. The client wants to know if it is true that smoking marijuana will help. How will the nurse respond? 1 "Nurses are not allowed to discuss illegal substances with clients." 2 "Marijuana is effective for nausea and vomiting if it is injected." 3 "Marijuana is not proven to be effective in preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting." 4 "There are some tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)-based medications that contain marijuana control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting in some people."

"There are some tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)-based medications that contain marijuana control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting in some people."

The health care provider prescribes haloperidol 0.5 mg intramuscularly (IM). The haloperidol is available in a vial that contains 2 mg/mL. How much solution will the nurse administer? Record your answer using two decimal places. Include a leading zero if applicable. ___ mL

0.25

A client is to receive 0.22 g of zinc sulfate by mouth. Each tablet contains 110 mg. How many tablets will the nurse administer? Record your answer using a whole number. _____ tablets

2

A client has an intravenous (IV) solution of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) 250 mL to which 100 mg of morphine is added. The health care provider prescribes 14 mg of morphine per hour for end-of-life palliative treatment of a client. At how many milliliters per hour will the nurse set the IV pump? Record your answer using a whole number. ___ mL/h

35

Intravenous (IV) fluid replacement of 7200 mL during the first 24 hours has been prescribed for a client with severe burns. Fifty percent of fluid replacement will be administered in the first 8 hours; then the remaining 50% given over the next 16 hours. How many milliliters per hour will the nurse infuse during the first 8 hours? Record your answer using a whole number. ___ mL/h

450

Ceftriaxone 2.5 g intravenous piggyback (IVPB) every 8 hours is prescribed. The pharmacy sends a vial labeled 5 grams per 10 mL. How many milliliters of ceftriaxone will the nurse add to the IVPB solution? Record your answer using a whole number. ___ mL

5

At 10:00 AM the nurse hangs a 1000-mL bag of 5% dextrose in water (D 5W) with 20 mEq of potassium chloride to be administered at 80 mL/h. At noon the health care provider prescribes a stat infusion of an intravenous (IV) antibiotic of 100 mL to be administered via piggyback over 1 hour. How much longer than expected will it take the primary bag to empty if the nurse interrupts the primary infusion for infusion of the antibiotic? 1 15 minutes 2 30 minutes 3 45 minutes 4 60 minutes

60 minutes

A client is scheduled for an adrenalectomy. Which action would the nurse expect in the plan of care? 1 Provide a low-protein diet. 2 Administer parenteral corticosteroids. 3 Collect a preoperative 24-hour urine specimen. 4 Withhold all medications 48 hours before surgery.

Administer parenteral corticosteroids.

Prednisone is prescribed for a client with an exacerbation of colitis. Which explanation would the nurse provide for administering prednisone? 1 The client will be protected from getting an infection. 2 Symptoms associated with the colitis will decrease slowly over time. 3 Although the medication causes anorexia, weight loss may not occur. 4 Although the medication decreases intestinal inflammation, it will not cure the colitis.

Although the medication decreases intestinal inflammation, it will not cure the colitis.

During the administration of an antibiotic, the client becomes restless and flushed, and begins to wheeze. Which action will the nurse take after stopping the antibiotic infusion? 1 Check the client's temperature. 2 Take the client's blood pressure. 3 Obtain the client's pulse oximetry. 4 Assess the client's respiratory status.

Assess the client's respiratory status.

Which B vitamin deficiency will result in Wernicke encephalopathy? 1 B3 (niacin) 2 B1 (thiamine) 3 B2 (riboflavin) 4 B6 (pyridoxine)

B1 (thiamine)

The nurse administers a parenteral preparation of potassium slowly to avoid which complication? 1 Metabolic acidosis 2 Cardiac arrest 3 Seizure activity 4 Respiratory depression

Cardiac arrest

Why would lactulose be prescribed for a client with a history of cirrhosis of the liver? 1 The desire to drink alcohol is decreased. 2 Diarrhea is controlled and prevented. 3 Elevated ammonia levels are lowered. 4 Abdominal distension secondary to ascites is decreased.

Elevated ammonia levels are lowered.

The nurse prepares to administer extended-release metformin to an older adult who has asked that it be crushed because it is difficult to swallow. Which rationale will prompt the nurse to ask the provider for a different form of metformin? 1 This medication has a wax matrix frame that is difficult to crush. 2 The medication has an unpleasant taste, which most clients find intolerable if crushed. 3 If crushed, this medication irritates mucosal tissue and can cause oral and esophageal ulcer formation. 4 Extended-release formulations are designed to be released slowly and crushing the tablet will prevent this from occurring.

Extended-release formulations are designed to be released slowly and crushing the tablet will prevent this from occurring.

A client who receives NPH insulin every morning reports feeling nervous at 4:30 PM. The nurse observes that the client's skin is moist and cool. Which condition is the client likely experiencing? 1 Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic state 2 Ketoacidosis 3 Glycogenesis 4 Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Which mechanism of action explains how hydrochlorothiazide increases urine output? 1 Increases the excretion of sodium 2 Increases the glomerular filtration rate 3 Decreases the reabsorption of potassium 4 Increases renal perfusion

Increases the excretion of sodium

A client with hyperthyroidism is to receive methimazole. Which information would the nurse provide? 1 Initial improvement will take several weeks. 2 Few side effects are associated with this medication. 3 This medication may be taken at any time during the day. 4 Large loading doses are used initially to normalize thyroid function.

Initial improvement will take several weeks.

The postoperative prescriptions for a client who had repair of an inguinal hernia include docusate sodium daily. Before discharge, the nurse instructs the client about which potential side effect? 1 Rectal bleeding 2 Fecal impaction 3 Nausea and vomiting 4 Mild abdominal cramping

Mild abdominal cramping

Which medication for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease would be contraindicated in the pregnant client? 1. Ranitidine 2. Misoprostol 3. Esomeprazole 4. Calcium carbonate

Misoprostol

Which independent nursing action would be included in the plan of care for a client after an episode of ketoacidosis? 1 Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia resulting from treatment 2 Withholding glucose in any form until the situation is corrected 3 Giving fruit juices, broth, and milk as soon as the client is able to take fluids orally 4 Regulating insulin dosage according to the client's urinary ketone levels

Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia resulting from treatment

A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving packed red blood cells. Which nursing action is important when administering the transfusion? 1 Assessing the client for fluid overload 2 Monitoring the client's response, particularly within the first 10 minutes 3 Assuring that the transfusion flows at a consistent rate during the procedure 4 Having the client tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) before administering the blood transfusion

Monitoring the client's response, particularly within the first 10 minutes

A client who had a myocardial infarction receives 15 mg of morphine sulfate for chest pain. Fifteen minutes after receiving the medication, the client complains of feeling dizzy. Which action will the nurse take? 1 Determine if this is an allergic reaction. 2 Elevate the client's head and keep the extremities warm. 3 Place the client in the supine position and take the vital signs. 4 Tell the client that this is not a typical sensation after receiving morphine sulfate.

Place the client in the supine position and take the vital signs.

Which responses indicate that the client receiving total parenteral nutrition is experiencing hyperglycemia? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Polyuria 2 Polydipsia 3 Paralytic ileus 4 Respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min 5 Serum glucose of 105 mg/dL (5.8 mmol/L)

Polyuria Polydipsia Respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving azathioprine, cyclosporine, and prednisone before receiving a kidney transplant. Which medication action would the nurse identify as the purpose of these medications? 1 Stimulate leukocytosis 2 Provide passive immunity 3 Prevent iatrogenic infection 4 Reduce antibody production

Reduce antibody production

A client is diagnosed with Parkinson disease and receives a prescription for levodopa therapy. Which mechanism of action would the nurse identify for this medication? 1 Blocks the effects of acetylcholine 2 Increases the production of dopamine 3 Restores the dopamine levels in the brain 4 Promotes the production of acetylcholine

Restores the dopamine levels in the brain

A client is scheduled for a bilateral adrenalectomy. Which rationale describes why steroids are administered to the client? 1 To foster accumulation of glycogen in the liver 2 To increase the inflammatory action to promote healing 3 To facilitate urinary excretion of salt and water after surgery 4 To compensate for sudden lack of these hormones after surgery

To compensate for sudden lack of these hormones after surgery

A client with laryngeal cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory report is most important for the nurse to monitor when considering the effects of chemotherapy? 1 Platelets 2 Hemoglobin level 3 Red blood cell count 4 White blood cell count

White blood cell count