HESI study questions (adaptive quizzing)

Which value indicates a normal vaginal pH? 1 4.2 2 6.8 3 7.5 4 9.3

1. Normal vaginal pH ranges from 3.5 to 5. Clients with a higher vaginal pH (6.8, 7.5, and 9.3) are more prone to infections.

In which position would the nurse place a 1-year-old infant with a distended abdomen admitted with Hirschsprung disease? 1 Prone 2 Sitting 3 Supine 4 Lateral

4. In the lateral position the distended abdomen does not press against the diaphragm, facilitating lung expansion. The prone position is difficult to assume with a distended abdomen; also, the weight of the body will limit lung expansion. The sitting position is not conducive to easy breathing and is difficult to assume with abdominal distention. The distended abdomen will press against the thighs and then the diaphragm, which will hinder full lung expansion. The supine position will interfere with respiration because the abdominal distention will exert pressure against the diaphragm.

Which of these acitons would the nurse perform to provide preventive and primary care to adults during a health camp? Select all that apply. 1. Discussing vaccinations 2 Discussing family planning 3 Mentioning adult daycare services 4 Instructing health camp about self-care at home 5 Instructing health camp about road safety measures

1, 2, 5. While providing preventive and primary care, the nurse may discuss vaccinations and family planning. Road safety is also part of primary health care. Daycare services and home self-care are part of restorative care.

Which temperament would an easy child display? Select all that apply. 1 Is open and adaptable to change 2 Requires a more structured environment 3 Is regular and predictable in his or her habits 4 Displays a mild to moderately intense mood that is typically positive 5 Displays a mild but passive resistance to novelty or changes in nature

1, 3, 4. An easy child is open and adaptable to change, is regular and predictable in his or her habits, and displays a mild to moderately intense mood that is typically positive. A difficult child requires a more structured environment. A slow-to-warm up child responds with mild but passive resistance to novelty or changes in routine.

Which developmental skill would the nurse determine as exceeding the expectations of fine motor milestones for a 3-year-old child? 1 The child uses scissors to cut out pictures. 2 The child draws a circle with facial features. 3 The child builds a tower using 9 to 10 cubes. 4 The child places small pellets in a narrow-necked bottle.

1. Using scissors to cut out pictures is a fine motor skill that is usually achieved in 4-year-old children, not in a 3-year-old child. A 3-year-old child can draw a circle with facial features, build a tower using 9 to 10 cubes, and place small pellets in a narrow-necked bottle.

Which assessments would the nurse include for a client with spine injuries who wears a body jacket brace? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Inspection of pin sites 2 Development of cast syndrome 3 Signs of compartment syndrome 4 Auscultation for bowel sounds 5 Skin over the thoracic bony prominences

2, 3, 5. A client with a severe spine injury due to an accident would benefit from application of a body jacket brace, which immobilizes and supports the thoracic and lumbar spine. After application of the brace, the nurse would assess the client for t he development of cast symdrome. This condition occurs when a brace is tightly applied, compressing the superior mesenteric artery against the duodenum. A window in the brace may be left over the umbilicus. The nurse would monitor the reduction of bowel sounds to prevent abdominal pressure and pain. The nurse would assess the areas of pressure over bony prominences such as the iliac crest and then adjust or remove the brace based upon any complications. A client with an external fixator will need pin sites assessed. A client with a lower extremity case must regularly be assessed for signs of compartment syndrome and increased pressure at the heel, anterior tibia, head of fibula, and malleoli.

Which developmental milestone would the nurse anticipate for a 15-month-old child? 1 Using a straw to drink 2 Drinking well from a cup 3 Chewing food with mouth closed 4 Spilling small amounts of food when using a spoon

2. The nurse would anticipate that a 15-month-old toddler can drink well from a cup. The use of a straw to drink liquids and chewing food with the mouth closed is an expectation for the 24-month-old toddler. Spilling small amounts of food when using a spoon is an expectation for a 36-month-old toddler.

Which findings would the nurse expect when examining the laboratory report of a preschooler with rheumatic fever? 1 Negative C-reactive protein 2 Increased reticulocyte count 3 Positive antistreptolysin titer 4 Decreased sedimentation rate

3. A positive antistreptolysin titer is present with rheumatic fever because of a previous infection with streptococci. An increased reticulocyte count is usually related to a decrease in mature red blood cells caused by hemorrhage or blood dyscrasias; it is unrelated to an infectious or inflammatory process. A positive, not a negative, C-reactive protein will be present; this is indicative of an inflammatory process. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate will be increased, not decreased, indicating the presence of an inflammatory process.

After her baby's birth a client wishes to begin breast-feeding as soon as possible. How can the nurse best assist the client at this time? 1 Giving the infant a bottle first to evaluate the sucking reflex 2 Positioning the infant to grasp the nipple to express colostrum 3 Leaving the infant and parents alone to promote attachment behaviors 4 Touching the infant's cheek adjacent to the nipple to elicit the rooting reflex

Stimulating the rooting reflex effectively encourages the newborn to turn toward the breast in preparation for suckling. Giving the neonate a bottle may interfere with the infant's learning to accept the breast. For milk to be expressed the infant must grasp the entire areola, which contains the secretory ducts. At first the mother should be supervised to help ensure a successful experience.

Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client? 1 Jealousy 2 Stubbornness 3 Procrastination 4 Companionship

3. Procrastination, or a delay completing chores or activities, is a source of stress for 5-year-old clients. Jealousy, stubbornness, and companionship are sources of stress for 3- and 4-year-old clients.

A client has an abdominal cholecystectomy for treatment of a gangreous gallbladder. Consider the location of the surgical site, the nurse would assess the client for which postoperative complication? 1 Atelectasis 2 Hemorrhage 3 Paralytic ileus 4 Wound infection

1: Subcostal incisional pain causes the client to splint and avoid deep breathing, which impedes air exchange in the alveoli. The location of the incision does not increase risk of hemorrhage. Paralytic ileus can be a postoperative problem, but is unrelated to the site of incision. The subcostal incision site is not specifically vulnerable to infection.

Which education would the nurse give the parents of a preschool-aged client to promote school readiness? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Recommending a full-day program for the child 2 Bringing a toy to assist the child with adjustment 3 Sitting with the child in class until acclimation occurs 4 Introducing the child to the teacher before the first day 5 Providing personal information, such as the name of the child's pet, to the teacher

2, 4, 5. To assist the preschool-aged client with school readiness, the nurse should recommend that the child bring a toy to help with adjustment. Introducing the child to the teacher before the first day and providing personal information to the teacher, such as the name of the child's pet, are also recommended. A half-day, not full-day, program is often recommended to assist with this transition. Staying with the child is appropriate; however, the parent should be available but inconspicuous.

Which statements would the nurse include when educating parents of preschoolers about safety? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 "Have your child sleep on his or her back or side." 2 "Teach your children physical safety rules." 3 "Allow your children to be friendly to strangers." 4 "Remove doors from unused refrigerators and freezers." 5 "Avoid instructing children to cross roads and walk in parking lots."

2, 4. The nurse would educate parents to teach their children about basic physical safety rules such as the proper use of safety scissors, never running with an object in their mouth or hand, and never attempting to use the stove or oven unassisted. The nurse would also instruct parents to remove doors from unused refrigerators and freezers because if a child cannot freely exit from appliances, asphyxiation can occur. Having a child sleep on his or her back or side helps reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome. This advice is helpful for infants rather than preschoolers. Preschoolers should be instructed not to talk to strangers to reduce the risk of injury and stranger abduction. Preschoolers should be taught how to cross roads and walk in parking lots to acquaint them to traffic rules and lower the risk of car accidents.

Which topical agent would be beneficial in preventing new lesions and treating preexisting acne? 1 Doxycycline 2 Azelaic acid 3 Isotretinoin 4 Azithromycin

2. Azelaic acid, a topical antibacterial, is used to prevent new lesions and treat existing acne. Doxycycline and isotretinoin may both be used to treat acne, but these are administered orally, not topically. Azithromycin is not a medication of choice for treating acne.

Which synovial movement is decribed as turning the sole away from the midline of the body? 1: Pronation 2: Eversion 3: Adduction 4: Supination

2. Eversion is a synovial joint movement that describes turning the sole outward away from the midline of the body. Pronation is a synovial joint movement that describes turning the palm downward. Adduction is a movement toward midline. Supination is turning the palm upward.

Which parent education would the nurse provide the parents of an infant who will have a myringotomy procedure? 1 It takes several days to heal, leaving some scar tissue. 2 It provides immediate relief of pressure in the middle ear. 3 It widens the perforation in the eardrum, allowing drainage. 4 It may result in permanent perforation of the tympanic membrane.

2. The incision for drainage produces relief of pressure and results in immediate relief of pain. This incision does not leave a scar, because healing by primary intention occurs within 24 hours. A myringotomy is performed to prevent the trauma of perforation. The incision is small and heals spontaneously within 24 hours.

Which interventions by the nurse help make a successful referral process? Select all that apply. 1 Make the referral after client discharge 2 Select a suitable rehabilitation center for the client 3 Explain the need for referral to the client and family 4 Provide the referral with adequate client information 5 Determine what the referral recommends for client care

3, 4, 5. Clients are discharged from health care facilities as soon as their conditions allow. They often need referrals for continuing care from another provider. It is important for the nurse to explain the need for the referral to the client and family. The nurse must coordinate with the referral and provide all necessary client information to prevent duplication of effort or exclusion of important information. The nurse must determine the referral recommendations for client care and include it in the treatment plan. Discharge planning starts as soon as the client is admitted to the health care facility. The nurse must plan for the referral as soon as possible, not after the client is discharged. The nurse would involve the client and family in the referral process. The client and family would be allowed to select a suitable rehabilitation center

The nurse is planning to teach activities of daily living to a developmentally disabled 3-year-old child. Which activity would the nurse plan to teach to the child first? 1 Dressing 2 Toileting 3 Self-feeding 4 Hair combing

3. According to the principles of growth and the development of skills, feeding is taught first, and this is no different for a child who is developmentally disabled. Dressing, toileting, and hair combing are more difficult skills than self-feeding.

When discussing standards for involuntary admission to a mental health facility, which factor is related to safety? 1 Mental illness 2Severe disability 3Currently cutting 4 Needs treatment

3. The client who is a danger to others or to himself or herself is a safety factor that would necessitate involuntary admission to a mental health facility. This would include the client who is cutting. Having a mental illness, a severe disability, and an inability to know that treatment is required are reasons for involuntary admission but are not safety factors.

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect in a 3-year-old child newly diagnosed with a Wilms tumor? 1 Periorbital edema 2 Projectile vomiting 3 Abdominal swelling 4 Low-grade temperature

3. Wilms tumor is a nephroblastoma that is first observed as a firm, painless intra-abdominal mass located on one side of the abdomen. Periorbital edema is a sign of glomerulonephritis, not Wilms tumor. Projectile vomiting is indicative of central nervous system problems or a gastrointestinal obstruction, not Wilms tumor. A low-grade fever is a nonspecific sign of many illnesses, not necessarily Wilms tumor.

A nurse is caring for a child with a cardiac malformation associated with left-to-right shunting. What does the nurse consider the major characteristic of this type of congenital disorder? 1 Increased hematocrit 2 Severe growth retardation 3 Clubbing of fingers and toes 4 Increased blood flow to the lungs

4. With a left-to-right shunt, blood flows through a defect in the ventricular wall of the heart and is shunted from the higher pressure left side to the lower pressure right side. The increased blood flow from the right ventricle results in an increased blood flow to the lungs. Polycythemia and an increased hematocrit are not common in children with a left-to-right shunt. Severe growth retardation is not common in children with a left-to-right shunt. Clubbing is a more common finding in children with a right-to-left shunt.

Which information about skin care would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client who is receiving radiation therapy? 1: "Cover the area with a sterile gauze dressing" 2: "Put warm compresses on the site once a day" 3: "Limit lying on the back and unaffected side when sleeping" 4: "Avoid applying lotions and powders over the area"

4: Lotions and powders can cause a skin reaction on irradiated areas and should be avoided. Gauze and tape may irritate the skin further and should be avoided. Warm compresses are contraindicated because they may precipitate skin breakdown. The client can assume a position of comfort.

According to Erikson's theory, which psychosocial developmental changes are observed in middle childhood? Select all that apply. 1 The child is highly imaginative 2 The child is able to trust others 3 The child is engaged in tasks and activities 4 The child can differentiate between industry and inferiority 5 The child develops self-control and independence

According to Erikson's theory, psychosocial developmental changes observed in middle childhood are that the child is engaged in tasks and activities, and that the child can differentiate between industry and inferiority. Erikson's theory says that preschool children are highly imainative. A child is able to trust others at the infancy stage. A child develops self-control and independence at the toddler stage.

Which parent teaching would the nurse provide to minimize regurgitation in an infant with cleft lip? 1 Offer thickened formula 2 Burp frequently during feedings 3 Place child in an infant seat during feedings 4 Position the child on the side with bottle propped

Because of the cleft (opening) in the lip, infants with this condition tend to suck in excessive air; burping helps prevent regurgitation of formula. Thickened formula is given to infants with reflux problems, such as vomiting after each feeding. This infant should be held during feedings, not positioned in an infant seat. The bottle should never be propped, because aspiration may occur.

The researcher who calculates the risk-benefit and concludes there were no harmful effects associated with a survery of diabetic clients was applying which principle? 1 Human dignity 2 Human rights 3 Beneficence 4 Utilitarianism

Beneficence is defined as the promotion of well-being and abstaining from the injuring of others, as well as doing good and being kind and charitable. In this situation, the possible benefits outweigh the possible harm for the clients participating in a research study. Human dignity and human rights are underlying principles of research ethics but are not directly related to the risk-benefit ratio here. Utilitarianism relates to the ethical doctrine that virtue is based on utility, and that conduct would be directed toward promoting the greatest good for the greatest number of people.

Which question would the nurse ask a client who has developed pneumonia when assessing risk factors? 1 Are you diabetic 2 Have you traveled recently 3 What do you use for contraception 4 D you have a history of IV drug abuse

Chronic diseases such as diabetes are a risk factor for developing infections such as pneumonia. Travel history inquiry would apply to infections such as malaria. Contraception would be explored in sexual barrier devices for sexually transmitted infections. IV drug abuse would be explored to assess risk of exposure to blood-borne pathogens such as Hepatitis B.

Which information regarding nursing theories is accurate? 1 Prescriptive theries do not provide guidance for specific nursing interventions 2 Descriptive theories describe, relate, and in some situations predict, nursing phenomena 3 Middle-range theries provide the structural framework for broad, abstract ideas about nursing 4 Grand theories are aciton-oriented and test the validity and predictability of a nursing intervention

Descriptive theories describe, relate, and in some situations predict, nursing phenomena. Prescriptive theories are action-oriented and test the validity and predictability of a nursing intervention. Middle-range theories do not provide guidance for specific nursing interventions. Grand theories provide the structural framework for broad, abstract ideas about nursing

Which parts of a client's body would the nurse assess for the presence of tophi (urate deposits)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct 1 Feet 2 Ears 3 Chin 4 Buttocks 5 Abdomen

Feet and ears. Clients with gout may develop deposits of monosodium urate in their tissues (tophi). Also, urate crystals form in the synovial tissue, typically the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe. Uric acid tends to precipitate and form deposits at various sites, including cartilaginous tissue such as the ears. Urate deposits will not form at the chin, buttocks, and abdomen because the blood flow is ample, and it is not cartilaginous tissue.

A client exhibits oligohydramnios at 36 weeks' gestation. For which newborn complication would the nurse monitor? 1 Spina bifida 2 Imperforate anus 3 Tracheoesophageal fistula 4 Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

Oligohydramnios is associated with IUGR; risk factors for IUGR include inadequate maternal nutrition and other high-risk conditions such as diabetes and preeclampsia. Spina bifida does not affect amniotic fluid volume; it is associated with an increased alpha-fetoprotein level. Imperforate anus does not affect amniotic fluid volume. Tracheoesophageal fistula is often associated with polyhydramnios, which is excessive amniotic fluid.

A burn client is receiving the open method for wound treatment. Which information will the nurse explain to the client? 1 "Bathing will not be permitted." 2 "Dressings will be changed daily." 3 "Personal protective equipment will be worn by staff." 4 "Room temperature will be kept below 72°F [22.2°C]."

Personal protective equipment (disposable hats, masks, gowns, and gloves) are essential for the prevention of infection in clients with the open method of treatment. Hydrotherapy in a large tank tub may be used to clean burn wounds. Dressings are not used with the open method. Clients are more comfortable with a room temperature of 85°F (29.4°C).

A nursing student is recalling the hierarchy of evidence available for conducting research. In which order would the nurse give priority to the findings of a study? 1. Well-designed case control studies 2.Single descriptive or qualitative studies 3.Opinions of authorities or expert committees 4.One well designed randomized controlled trial (RCT) 5.Well-designed controlled trials without randomization 6.Systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies 7.Systematic reviews and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (RCTs)

Priority is given to findings of systematic reviews and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials. Next is one well-designed RCT. Then it is well-designed controlled trials without randomization. Then well-designed case control studies to look for evidence. Then systematically review qualitative studies. Then sungle descriptive or qualitative studies. Last is the opinions of authorities or expert committees.

Which action would the nurse take when caring for a 3-month-old infant who is receiving intravenous (IV) fluids via an antecubital vein? 1 Monitoring for infiltration behind the infant's elbow 2 Applying arm boards to prevent bending at the elbows 3 Checking both of the infant's pupils for dilation every hour 4 Telling the parents why they cannot hold the infant during IV therapy

The extremity should be placed in an arm board so that the child will not bend the elbow and restrict the flow of IV fluids. First the flow of fluid must be ensured; then the nurse would inspect often for signs of infiltration at the IV insertion site, not the elbow. Pupil responses are unrelated to dehydration and fluid replacement. The parents can be taught how to hold their infant while an IV infusion is being administered.

Which term would the nurse use to describe the decreased appetite that often occurs during the toddler stage of development? 1 Physiologic bulimia 2 Psychologic bulimia 3 Physiologic anorexia 4 Psychologic anorexia

The nurse would use the term physiologic anorexia to describe the decreased appetite that occurs during the toddler stage of development. Physiologic bulimia, psychologic bulimia, and psychologic anorexia are not accurate medical terminology for this phenomenon.

In which position would the nurse place an infant while the infant is receiving intermittent nasogastric tube feedings? 1 Prone 2 Semi-Fowler 3 Left side-lying 4 Supine with the head turned

The semi-Fowler position limits the potential for aspiration; because the infant will be partially upright, fluid is held within the stomach by gravity. The prone position permits gastric reflux and may lead to aspiration. The left side-lying position allows gastric reflux and may lead to aspiration. The supine position with the head turned allows gastric reflux and may lead to aspiration.

An older adult client undergoing cancer therapy reports diffused redness and large blisters on the skin with evident systemic toxicity. Which intervention would be a priority to include in the plan of care for this client? 1 Discontinue the medication. 2 Monitor body temperature. 3 Monitor fluid and electrolyte balance. 4 Administer topical antibacterial medication.

Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a rare acute medication reaction that manifests as diffused redness and large blisters on the skin. Older adult clients on chemotherapy are at greater risk for TEN. The medication should be immediately discontinued to reduce further damage to the skin. Monitoring the body temperature is not a priority intervention in this client. The client should be monitored for hypothermia and fluid and electrolyte balance to provide systemic support and prevent secondary infections. Topical antibacterial medications are administered to suppress the bacterial growth until healing occurs.

While assessing a client's skin, the nurse notices that the client's skin is dry. Which is the probable cause of this condition? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Use of hard soap 2 Frequent bathing 3 Use of tanning pills 4Presence of an allergy 5 Use of petroleum products

1 and 2; the use of hard soap and frequent bathing may result in dry skin. A skin allergy may result in skin rashes but not dry skin. Using tanning pills and petroleum products may result in skin cancer.

Which strategy would the nurse recommend to a parent about helping a stressed preschooler? 1 "Offer to help your child with self-care." 2 "Prepare your child to be ready for a new sibling." 3 "Start sending your child to a preschool." 4 "Consult a specialist if your child begins sucking his or her thumb."

1. In times of stress, preschoolers may regress and prefer that their parents assume self-care such as feeding, dressing, or holding them. Preschoolers get stressed about the birth of a new sibling. The mother should not plan to send her child to preschool because the new location will increase the child's stress. During times of stress, preschoolers may begin thumb sucking. This is considered a normal coping behavior.

Which developmental milestones would the nurse recognize as age-appropriate for a 4-year-old child? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 The child tends to be selfish and impatient. 2 The child takes pride in his or her accomplishments. 3 The child tells family tales to others with no restraint. 4 The child is eager to do things correctly and please others. 5 The child tries to follow rules during associative play but cheats to avoid losing.

1, 2, 3. Four-year-old children tend to be selfish and impatient, and they take pride in their accomplishments. They may tell family tales to others with no restraint. A 5-year-old child is usually eager to do things correctly and please others. A 5-year-old also tries to follow rules during associative play but may cheat to avoid losing.

Which nursing interventions are examples of the nurse as a caregiver? Select all that apply. 1 Encouraging the client to exercise daily 2 Setting goals for the client to reduce weight 3 Arranging for the client to meet a spiritual advisor 4 Evaluating the client's understanding of prescribed diet 5 Demonstrating the procedure to self-administer insulin

1, 2, 3.The nurse acts as a caregiver by encouraging the client to exercise daily. The nurse's role as a caregiver involves helping the client maintain and regain health. As a caregiver, the nurse also sets goals and helps the client and family achieve them. The duties of a caregiver involve restoring a client's emotional, spiritual, and social well-being. The nurse arranges for the client to meet a spiritual advisor to meet the client's spiritual needs. The nurse as an educator evaluates the client's understanding of prescribed diet. As an educator, the nurse demonstrates the procedure for administering insulin injection. The nurse also reinforces and evaluates learning.

Which activities would the nurse be prepared to perform as a member of a disaster preparedness team if a disaster were to occur? Select all that apply. 1 Triage 2 Palliative Care 3 Home visits to newborns 4 Decontamination procedures 5 Evaluation of disaster plan

1, 4, 5. If a disaster were to occur, the nurse may be required to work with hospitals and community disaster preparedness groups. The nurse must be prepared to triage mass casualties. The nurse may also be involved in decontamination procedures in case of a biological attack. The nurse must evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of the disaster management plan. The nurse provides palliative care to clients whose health status does not improve. This is not an aspect of working on a disaster preparedness team. The nurse provides community-based care by visiting the homes of newborns especially those of high-risk mothers.

While assessing a client's hair, the nurse notices that the client has head lice. The nurse teaches the client about hair hygiene and lice control. Which statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 "I will clean my comb in ammonia water." 2 "I should use lindane-containing shampoo." 3 "I should shampoo my hair in a tub or shower." 4 "I should use a dilute vinegar solution to loosen the nits." 5 "I should use a shampoo treatment once every 24 hours."

1, 4, 5. Lindane may be used to treat lice and scabies, but it may cause serious side effects. CLients with lice are instructed NOT to wash their hair in a tub or shower because this may cause the lice to migrate to other sites. Ammonia water should be used to clean combs and hair accessories to enhance lice control. Nits are loosened by dilute vinegar solutions. Shampooing should be continued once every 24-48 hours.

The preschool-age client is learning sociocultural mores. Which developmental milestone would the nurse suspect in this client? 1 The child is developing a conscience. 2 The child is learning about gender roles. 3 The child is developing a sense of security. 4 The child is learning about the political process.

1. Learning the sociocultural mores of the family implies that the child is developing a conscience. This does not imply that the child is learning gender roles, developing a sense of security, or learning about the political process.

Which statements are accurate regarding chronic aspirin poisoning? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Chronic aspirin poisoning is often mistaken for viral illness. 2 Acute ingestion of aspirin is always more serious than chronic ingestion. 3 Peritoneal dialysis is used in the treatment of severe cases of aspirin poisoning. 4 Acute ingestion of aspirin causes severe toxicity when the dosage is 200 to 250 mg/kg. 5 Chronic ingestion of aspirin occurs when an amount greater than 100 mg/kg per day is ingested for more than 2 days.

1, 5. Chronic aspirin poisoning is characterized by subtle onset and nonspecific symptoms and is often mistaken for viral illness. Chronic ingestion of aspirin occurs when an amount greater than 100 mg/kg per day is ingested for more than 2 days. Chronic ingestion of aspirin can be more serious than acute ingestion. Hemodialysis, and not peritoneal dialysis, is used in the treatment of severe cases of aspirin poisoning. Acute ingestion of aspirin causes severe toxicity when the dosage is 300 to 500 mg/kg.

Which steps are taken by the nurse during the implementation phase of medication research? Select all that apply. 1 Obtaining necessary approvals 2 Selecting data collection methods 3 Determining implications for nursing 4 Selecting research design and methodology 5 Recruiting subjects and collecting data obtained from the study

1, 5. During the implementation phase of the nursing process, the nurse obtains necessary approvals required for the research study. The implementation phase also involves the recruitment of subjects and the collection of data obtained from a study. During the planning phase of the research process, the nurse selects the data collection methods. During the evaluation phase, the nurse determines the implications for nursing. During the planning phase of the research process, the nurse selects research design and methodologies.

Which theory is appropriate for the nurse providing discharge teaching for a client with a hand fracture on ways to bathe, dress, groom, and eat independently? 1 Orem's theory 2 Peplau's theory 3 Nightingale's theory 4 Neumans theory

1, Orem's theory focuses on a client's self-care needs and managing his or her self problems. According to Orem's theory, the nurse identifies goals to assist the client and help perform self-care. The goal of nursing is to increase a client's ability to do his or her activities independently. Peplau's thery develops an interaction between nurse and client. Nightingale's theory facilitates the reparative processes of the body by manipulating a client's environment. Neuman's theory is based on stress and a client's reaction to the stressor. Neuman considers any internal and external factors as stressors that affect the client's stability.

Which is a similarity between evidence-based practice and quality improvement? 1 Both receive funding from internal sources 2 Both use data sources from multiple studies 3 Both need approval of the Institutional Review Board 4 Both are conducted by researchers employed for this purpose

1. Both evidence-based practice (EBP) and quality improvement (QI) are funded by internal sources. EBP uses information from multiple research studies; in contrast, QI collects data from client records. EBP does not require the Institutional Review Board approval; QI sometimes may require Institutional Review Board approval. EBP and QI are carried out by practicing nurses and possibly other members of the health care team. Research studies are carried out by researchers.

Which type of abuse or neglect would the nurse suspect in a 5-year-old child with genital discharge and recurrent urinary tract infections? 1 Sexual abuse 2 Physical abuse 3 Physical neglect 4 Emotional neglect

1. Genital discharge and recurrent urinary tract infections are signs of sexual abuse in children. Bruises, burns, fractures, or dislocation may indicate physical abuse. Malnutrition and poor hygiene may indicate physical neglect. Enuresis and sleep disorders may indicate emotional neglect.

Which assessment findings would the nurse expect in a 3-year-old child with tetralogy of Fallot? 1 Clubbing of fingers 2 Increased temperature 3 Slow, irregular respirations 4 Subcutaneous hemorrhages

1. Hypoxia leads to poor peripheral circulation; clubbing occurs as a result of additional capillary development and tissue hypertrophy of the fingertips. A fever is not expected unless the child has an infection or is dehydrated; the data do not indicate this. The child's respiratory rate will be increased, not decreased. The child's problems are related to decreased oxygenation, not to a clotting deficiency that would produce subcutaneous hemorrhages.

The parent of a toddler who has frequent temper tantrums asks how to limit this acting-out behavior. Which would the nurse recommend? 1 Ignore the tantrum whenever possible. 2 Restrain the child whenever a tantrum begins. 3 Move the child to a quiet area as soon as a tantrum begins. 4 Visit the clinic to request medication to control the tantrum.

1. Ignoring the temper tantrum as long as the child is not causing self-harm avoids reinforcement of the behavior. The parents should remain nearby to provide a sense of security. Restraining the child will probably worsen the behavior associated with the tantrum. Moving the child to a quiet area may be impossible; tantrums often involve lying on the floor, kicking, and screaming loudly. Medication is not the treatment of choice.

Which type of immunity would a 4-year-old child develop during the course of an infection with varicella? 1 Active natural immunity 2 Active artificial immunity 3 Passive natural immunity 4 Passive artificial immunity

1. In active natural immunity, the infected child's immune system responds to the invading organism (varicella) by producing antibodies specific to the antigen. Passive natural immunity is acquired by the fetus from the mother. Active artificial immunity is acquired by the injection of antigens; after this, the child develops antibodies. Passive artificial immunity is acquired through the injection of antibodies.

In which stage does the nurse teach the parent about child impulse control and cooperative behaviors, accrding to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development? 1 Initiative versus guilt 2 Intimacy versus isolation 3 Autonomy versus shame and doubt 4 Generavity versus self-absorption and stagnation

1. In the initiative versus guilt stage, the nuse advises the parent to teach the child impulse control and cooperative behaviors. This helps avoid risks of altered growth and development. In the intimacy versus isolation stage, the nurse tries to understand the needs of a young adult. The autonomy versus sense of shame and doubt stage models empathetic guidace that provides support for and understanding the challenges of this stage. In the generavity versus self-absorption and stagnation stage, the nurse assists physically ill adults in choosing creative ways to foster social development.

Which education would the nurse provide to the parents of a preschooler? 1 They need around 1800 calories in a day. 2 Their caloric needs are half of what adults need. 3 They become choosy about food around 5 years of age. 4 Their physical growth is faster than their cognitive development.

1. Preschoolers need approximately 1800 calories on a daily basis. Preschooler caloric needs far exceed half of adult caloric needs, which average 2000 calories per day. Preschoolers are overly particular about their food at 4 years of age. At the age of 5 years, they typically become more interested in eating different foods. The physical growth of preschoolers is slower than their cognitive and psychosocial development.

Which statement by the nurse indicates effective learning regarding a rapid-improvement event (RIE)? 1 It is very intense, usually weeklong event. 2 It is done by an individual to evaluate a problem 3 It is appropriate to use when a minor problem exists 4 It takes a long time to measure the effect of changes in this event

1. Rapid-cycle improvement, or a rapid-improvement event (RIE), is a quality improvement model that is very intense and usually lasts for a week. It is a group activity in which people get together to evaluate a problem with the purpose of making radical changes to the current process. It is appropriate to use when a serious problem exists that greatly affects client safety and needs to be solved quickly. In this event, changes are made within a very short time. The effects of the changes are measured quickly, and the results are evaluated.

Which nursing intervention best meets a major developmental need of a newborn in the immediate postoperative period? 1 Giving a pacifier to the infant 2 Putting a mobile over the infant's crib 3 Providing the infant with a soft, cuddly toy 4 Warming the infant's formula before feeding

1. Sucking is soothing during infancy. A newborn is too young to focus well on a mobile; in addition, the newborn will be placed in a side-lying position after surgery and would not be able to see a mobile. A newborn is not developmentally capable of enjoying a soft, cuddly toy. Warming the infant's formula before feeding does not satisfy a developmental need.

Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs would the nurse need to follow for a client brought to the ER with severe breathing difficulty? 1 First level 2 Second level 3 Third level 4 Fourth level

1. The first level includes physiological needs like air, water and food. Because the client has difficulty breathing, sufficient air would be provided as the first step of nursing intervention.

Which statement by the nursing student describes Leininger's theory? 1 Incorporate the client's traditions, values, and beliefs intoo the plan of care 2 Determine why a client is unable to meet biological, psychological, developmental, or social needs 3 Determine which demands are causin problems for a client and assess how well he or she is adapting to them 4 Establish effective nurse-client communication when obtaining nursing histories, providing education, or counseling clients and their families.

1. The main idea of Leininger's theory is cultural diversity, and the goal of nursing care is to provide the client with culturally specific nursing care. The nurse needs to incorporate the client's cultural traditions, values, and beliefs into the plan of care according to Leininger's theory. When following Orem's self-care deficit theory, the nurse needs to determine why a client is unable to meet biological, psychological, developmental, or social needs to help him or her perform self-care. When following the Roy adaptation model, the nurse needs to determine which demands are causing problems for a client and assesses how well he or she is adapting to them. When following Peplau's theory, the nurse needs to establish effective nurse-client communication while obtaining nursing histories, providing education, or counseling clients and their families.

Which language milestones would the nurse expect in preschoolers? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Starting to understand riddles and jokes 2 Wanting to know the reason behind an event 3 Having a vocabulary of 8000 to 14,000 words 4 Knowing that words may have arbitrary meanings 5 Unable to distinguish between phonetically similar words

2, 3, 5. Preschoolers start to question "Why?" and "How come?" Their vocabulary increases rapidly, with an average of 8000 to 14,000 words. Preschoolers get confused between phonetically similar sounds. They are not able to understand the difference between die and dye or wood or would. School-aged children (not preschoolers) are able to understand riddles and jokes. School-aged children (not preschoolers) clearly understand that words have arbitrary meanings.

Which actions would be included in the safety plan for a woman in crisis, who is emotionally and physically abused by her husband? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Limiting contact with the abuser 2 Determining a safe place to go in an emergency 3 Memorizing the domestic violence hotline number 4 Obtaining a bank loan to finance leaving the abuser 5 Arranging for a family member to assist her in leaving

2, 3. It is important that the client have a safe place to go and a plan for getting there. The client needs to know the hotline number if there is an emergency. It is best to memorize the number because if it is written down the abuser may find it. Any change, especially one in which the abuser becomes angry, may cause the woman to experience more abuse. Although the client will require money to leave the abusive situation, it is best to save money a little at a time rather than try to obtain a loan and alert the abuser of the desire to leave. It is not advisable to tell a family member about the plan to leave because the person may tell the abuser.

A client reports diminished sensations of pain, touch, and temperature on the skin. The nurse touches the skin and finds it cool. Which skin changes would the nurse relate to the client's findings? 1 Degenerated elastic fibers 2 Decreased blood flow to the skin 3 Increased melanocytes in basal layer 4 Decreased activity of the apocrine glands

2. Decreased blood flow to the skin may cause diminished sensations of pain, touch, and temperature. The skin may also feel cold. Degeneration of elastic fibers may cause increased wrinkling and sagging of the breasts. Increased melanocytes in the basal layers may cause solar lentigines. Decreased activity of the apocrine glands may be related to uneven skin color and dry skin.

.Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client admitted to the high-risk prenatal unit at 35 weeks' gestation with a diagnosis of complete placenta previa? 1 Applying a pad to the perineal area 2 Having oxygen available at the bedside 3 Allowing bathroom privileges with assistance 4 Educating the client regarding the intensive care nursery

2. If hemorrhage should occur, oxygen is necessary to prevent maternal and fetal compromise. A perineal pad is not necessary; close monitoring is required. The client admitted with a complete placenta previa is usually on complete bed rest. It is too soon to discuss the neonatal intensive care unit, because this may ultimately be unnecessary.

An older client is found to have a thin white ring around the margin of the iris. Which condition is this? 1 Cataract 2 Arcus senilis 3 Conjunctivitis 4 Macular degeneration

2. In older clinets, the iris becomes faded and a thing white ring appears around the margin. A cataract is a condition involving increased opacity of the lens that blocks light rays from entering the eye. The presence of redness indicates allergic or infectious conjunctivitis. Macular degeneration os marked by a blurring of central vision caused by progressive degeneration of the retinal center.

The RN is teaching a student about Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development. Which information provided by the RN regarding postconventional reasnoning in Kohlberg's theory needs correction? 1. An individual starts to wonder what an ideal society would be like 2 Emphasis is given on social rules and a community-centered approach 3 An individual finds a balance between basic human rights and obligations and societal rules and regulations 4 An individual moves away from moral decisions based on authority or conformity to groups to define their own moral values and principles

2. In the conventional reasoning level, emphasis is given on social rules and a community-centered approac. In the postconventional reasoning level, an individual begins thinking about what an ideal society would be like. In the postconventional reasoning level, an individual finds balance between basic human rights and obligations and societal rules and regulations. An individual moves away from moral decisions based on authority or conformity to groups to define their own moral values and principles.

Which medication therapy lowers a child's resistance to varicella? 1 Anticonvulsant 2 Systemic steroid 3 Antihypertensive 4 Topical antibiotic

2. Individuals who are taking steroids have lowered resistance and may become fatally ill if exposed to the varicella virus. Anticonvulsants and antihypertensives do not lower body resistance; therefore, they do not increase susceptibility. Topical antibiotics do not affect body resistance because topical antibiotics do not have systemic effects.

Which rationale would lead the nurse to question an order for a tap water enema for a 6-month-old infant with suspected Hirschsprung disease? 1 Necessary nutrients could be lost. 2 It could cause a fluid and electrolyte imbalance. 3 It could increase the fear of intrusive procedures. 4 The result could cause shock from a sudden drop in temperature.

2. Tap water enemas are hypotonic and are contraindicated; they may cause increased absorption of fluid through the bowel and may upset the balance of fluid in the body. Such enemas also interfere with the potassium ion balance; this electrolyte can be lost by way of the large intestine. The enema removes waste products from the bowel, not nutrients. Fear of intrusive procedures is typical of preschoolers, not infants. The temperature of the water is regulated, so shock from a temperature drop is not a concern.

Which statement made by the parent of an infant receiving phototherapy for jaundice would cause concern? 1: "I keep track of the number of wet diapers." 2: "My baby's skin is dry, so I applied a little lotion" 3: "I placed my baby under the lights dressed only in a diaper" 4: "I closed my baby's eyes before placing the mask over them"

2: Lotions, creams, and ointments should not be applied to an infant's skin during phototherapy because it can absorb heat and cause burns. The infant should be placed under the phototherapy lights dressed only in a diaper. The number of wet or soiled diapers is monitored because it is an indicator of hydration status. The eyes of the infant should be closed before placing the mask over the eyes to prevent scratching of the cornea.

The nurse prepares to instruct a client experiencing decreased and difficult urination about an ordered cystoscopy. Identify the primary purpose of the ordered diagnostic. 1 To ascertain the size of the kidneys 2 To ascertain the protein content in urine 3 To ascertain the presence of urethral wall abnormalities 4 To ascertain the total amount of catecholamines excreted

3. Cystoscopy is a procedure in which a diagnostician uses a cystoscope to visualize and examine the inner walls of the urinary bladder and ureter. The health care provider introduces the cystoscope into the client's ureter to detect the presence of urethral wall abnormalities or occlusions. Radiography or ultrasonography of the kidneys enables visualization of the kidneys to determine their size. A 24-hour urine test analyzes the levels of various components in the urine and is recommended to ascertain the protein content in urine. The total amount of catecholamines excreted in urine can also be measured through 24-hour urine sample testing.

A client has a small pustule at a hair follicle opening with minimal erythema on the scalp. Which condition would the nurse suspect? 1 Furuncle 2 Cellulitis 3 Folliculitis 4 Carbuncle

3. Folliculitis is the condition that forms a small pustule at the hair follicle opening; it has minimal erythema and is most commonly seen on the scalp, beard, and extremities. A furuncle is a condition in which there is a tender erythematous area around the hair follicle. Cellulitis is the condition in which there is a hot, tender, erythematous, and edematous area on the skin with diffuse borders. A carbuncle is the condition in which many pustules appear in an erythematous area, most commonly at the nape of the neck.

Which medication is used to treat acne vulgaris in adolescents but is contraindicated in pregnancy? 1 Tretinoin 2 Adapalene 3 Isotretinoin 4 Benzoyl peroxide

3. Isotretinoin through the placental barrier and exhibits teratogenic effects, so it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Tretinoin is not harmful when used topically. Adapalene and benzoyl peroxide are safe medications for topical use during pregnancy.

The nursing instructor asks the student to describe the fine motor skills of a 3-year-old child. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further learning? 1 A child of 3 years can easily turn doorknobs 2 A child of 3 years is able to turn the pages of a book 3 A child of 3 years is able to draw simple stick figures 4 A child of 3 years can skip on alternate feet, jump rope, and skate.

4. A child of 5 years is still unable to skip on alternate feet, jump rope, or skate. Hence, when the student says that a toddler of 3 years old can skip on alternate feet, jump rope, and skate, it indicates a need for further teaching. By 3 years, children are able to turn doorknobs and turn the pages of a book one at a time. They are also able to draw simple stick people.

A client's IV cannula insertion site has become red, swollen, and warm to the touch. Purulent drainage is also noted. Which intervention would be implemented? 1: Temporarily slow the infusion rate to a "keep vein open" rate 2 Elevate the extremity slightly above the level of the client's heart 3 Frequently apply cold and warm compresses to the site 4 Clean the site with alcohol, remove the cannula, and save for culture.

4. A client with redness, swelling, and warmth with purulent drainage at the insertion site may have an infection. The nurse should clean the site immediately with alcohol and remove the catheter (if vesicant medications were not infusing) because of the obvious development of an infection. The nurse would also save the catheter for obtaining a culture of the organism. Temporarily slowing the infusion is not recommended because doing so may lead to a systemic spread of the infection. Elevating the extremity may help with phlebitis, with thrombosis, or with ecchymosis and hematoma. Application of cold and warm compresses may reduce the pain in a client with thrombophlebitis. However, the comprehensive initial reaction is to clean the site with alcohol, remove the cannula, and save for culture. The nurse would then insert another intravenous cannula at a different location.

Which theoretical explanation underlies the development of anorexia nervosa in a female adolescent? 1 The adolescent acts out aggressive impulses, and this results in feelings of guilt and loss of control. 2 There is an unconscious wish to punish a parent for dominating the adolescent's life and interfering with peer relations. 3 The adolescent is unable to deal with peer pressures and desires to be thin and attractive to increase peer acceptance. 4 The adolescent struggles with dependence and independence, and there is inaccurate perception of body image.

4. Inaccurate perception of body image and a struggle between dependence and independence are theoretical explanations for the development of anorexia nervosa. Acting out and the wish to punish a domineering parent do not play a role in the development of anorexia nervosa. Peer acceptance and social attitudes are likely to influence the desire to be thin.

A client reports redness, itching, burning, and pain in the palms and elbows and has demarcated, silvery, scaling plaques in the area. Which medication would the nurse expect to find in the client's chart? 1 Oral famciclovir 2 Intravenous ceftriaxone 3 Topical benzoyl peroxide 4 Intralesional injection of corticosteroids

4. Psoriasis is an autoimmune chronic dermatitis that is sharply demarcated with silvery, scaling plaques with reddish colored skin most often on palms and elbows. The main goal is to reduce inflammation and suppress rapid turnover of epidermal cells. Intralesional injection of corticosteroids is beneficial in treating chronic plaques. Famciclovir is an antiviral that may be used to treat infections such as herpes zoster. Intravenous ceftriaxone may be used to treat severe cases of Lyme disease that include cardiac, arthritic, and neurologic symptoms. Topical benzoyl peroxide is an antimicrobial that may be used to treat conditions such as acne vulgaris.

Which client requires examination of the sclera near the iris? 1 Client A with an increased urochrome level 2 Client B with an increased serum carotene level 3 Client C with bleeding from the vessels into the tissue 4 Client D with an increase in total serum bilirubin level

4. The increased level of total serum bilirubin in client D may be associated with jaundice, so the sclera nearest to the iris is examined. The increased urochrome level in client A may relate to uremia or chronic kidney disease. A yellow-orange coloration is generalized on the body but is absent in the sclera and mucous membranes. In client B, increased serum carotene level is observed due to increased ingestion of carotene-containing foods during pregnancy and during thyroid deficiency. The nurse would examine for a yellow-orange coloration on the palms, soles, ears, and nose, although this coloration would not be noted in the sclera and mucous membranes. The bleeding in client C is assessed by comparing the affected area with the same area on the unaffected body side to check for swelling or skin darkening.

The nurse is educating adolescents on using sunscreen to reduce skin cancer risk. Which statement by an adolescent requires correction by the nurse? 1 "I'll use sunscreen without lanolin." 2 "Sunscreen will be applied every 2 hours." 3 "I can use sunscreen with an alcohol-free base." 4 "I will use sunscreen with a sun protective factor (SPF) of 10."

4. The nurse will recommend using sunscreen with an SPF of at least 15, not 10. Adolescents using sunscreen without lanolin, with an alcohol-free base, and applying it every 2 hours do not need correction by the nurse.

The nurse explains to the parent of a 2-year-old child that the toddler's negativism is expected at this age. Which need is this behavior meeting? 1 Trust 2 Attention 3 Discipline 4 Independence

4. The toddler is in Erikson's stage of acquiring a sense of autonomy. The negativism is the result of the child's need for self-expression and for testing the environment. Trust is the developmental goal achieved in infancy. Although the need for attention is a factor, toddlers assert themselves in an attempt to attain more autonomy. Children do not assert themselves to obtain discipline.

Which stage of life does the child dressing on his oor her own and self-feeding belong to according to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development? 1 Initiative versus guilt 2 Trust versus mistrust 3 Industry versus inferiority 4 Autonomy versus shame and doubt

According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, autonomy verses sense of shame and doubt stage is seen in children ages 1 to 3 years. By this age, the child is more accomplished in some basic self-care activities such as walking, feeding, and toileting. The child who is learning to dress himself or herself and self-feed is in the autonomy verses sense of shame and doubt stage. In the initiative versus guilt stage, the child likes to pretend and try out new roles. Fantasy and imagination allow them to explore their environment. In the trust versus mistrust stage, the infant requires a consistent caregiver who is available to meet his or her needs. From this basic trust in caregivers comes trust in himself or herself, in others, and in the world. Industry versus inferiority is seen in school-age children (6-11 years). In this stage, children will apply themselves to learning socially productive skills and learning to play with peers.

Which statement is true regarding toddlers? 1 Toddlers grow about 4.2 cm each year. 2 Toddlers develop a sense of autonomy. 3 Toddlers are aware of the danger of water. 4 Toddlers gain approximately 2 to 4 lb (0.9-1.8 kg) each year.

According to Erikson, a sense of autonomy emerges during toddlerhood. Children strive for independence by using their developing muscles to do everything for themselves and becoming the master of their bodily functions. The average toddler grows 6.2 cm per year. Toddlers' lack of awareness regarding the danger of water and their newly developed walking skills make drowning a major cause of accidental death in this age group. Toddlers gain approximately 5 to 7 lb (2.3-3.2 kg) each year.

The RN is instructing a student to search for evidence in the scientific literature regarding the use of pepeprmint gum after abdominal surgery to reduce nausea and vomiting. The nursing student used the PICOT format to create questions to be used when researching. Which question helps in comparison of interest? 1 What problem is the client experiencing? 2 How much time is required to show the effectiveness of peppermint gum? 3 What is the result of using peppermint gum in clients who underwent abdominal surgery? 4 What is the current standard intervention for reducing nausea in clients after abdominal surgery?

In the PICOT format, the question about the current standard helps in comparison if interest because the query gives a better idea of which intervention is worthwhile to use in practice. To identify a client's population of interest, the questions "What problem is the client experiencing?" is important. Thequestion "What is the result of using peppermint gum in clients who underwent adominal surgery?" helps identify the outcome of the intervention of interest.

What time is appropiate for the nurse manager to schedule a 30-minute nursing education class? 1 On each employee's day off 2 At the overlap of each shift 3 During the first part of each shift after report 4 Any day of the week after staff member's lunch breaks

Scheduling the class at the half-hour overlap of each shift economically and conveniently accomodates the most staff members while ensuring that there are enough nurses present to care for clients. Scheduling an education session when some staff are not reimbursed for their time contributes to low morale and resetment. If the class is scheduled during the first half hour of a shift after report, client care may be jeopardized. The nurses on the previous shift will have left, and the unit will be understaffed during the class. Scheduling the class any day of the week after staff lunch provides education only to staff members working on the day shift; more than one class needs to be scheduled.

An assessment of a client reporting severe nighttime itching reveals burrows in the flexor surfaces of the wrists and in the anterior axillary folds. Which treatment is appropriate for this client? 1 Antipruritic lotion 2 Y-Benzene hexachloride 3 Permethrin 5% topical lotion 4 Spinosad 0.9% topical suspension

Severe itching, especially at night, and the presence of burrows in the flexor surface of the wrists and in the anterior axillary folds indicate scabies, which is caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. Treatment involves the use of permethrin 5% topical lotion for one overnight application and a second application 1 week later. This treatment can yield 95% eradication of the condition. Antipruritic lotion is required in cases of intense burning, local pain, swelling, and itching. Y-Benzene hexachloride is a common treatment for pediculosis. In cases of pediculosis involving the scalp, spinosad 0.9% topical suspension may be helpful.