I-I-I MEDS EAQ

The nurse teaches the parent of an infant prescribed nystatin in for oral thrush how to prevent aggravation of the condition. Which statement by the parent indicates need for further teaching?

"I should boil the pacifier for at least 20 minutes on alternate days." "I should apply the medication at least 20 minutes before feeding." "I should boil the reusable nipples for at least 5 minutes after washing."

Which information would the nurse provide when administering the first dose of prednisone prescribed to a client with an exacerbation of colitis?

"Prednisone is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process" Prednisone inhibits phagocytosis and suppresses other clinical phenomena of inflammation; this is a symptomatic treatment that is not curative.

A new mother asks the nurse administering erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to her newborn why her baby must be subjected to this procedure. What is the best response by the nurse? "It will keep your baby from going blind." "This ointment will protect your baby from bright lights." "There is a law that newborns must be given this medicine." "This antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections."

"This antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections."

Which effect has resulted in the avoidance of tetracycline use in children under 8 years old? - birth defects - Allergic responses - Severe nausea and vomiting - Permanent tooth discoloration

- Permanent tooth discoloration

Which medication does the nurse expect in a prescription for a client suffering from the skin condition depicted in the image? 1. Acyclovir 2. Macrolides 3. Ketoconazole 4. Cephalosporin

1. Acyclovir Rationale: The skin condition depicted in the images is herpes zoster which is a viral infection. This medication is used in treating this condition. The macrolides are antibiotics used in situations in which they're allergic reactions to the medication. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that is used in the treatment of fungal infections. Cephalosporin is an antibacterial medication that is used in the treatment of bacterial infections.

Which medication increases the risk for upper gastrointestinal bleeding? 1. Aspirin 2. Ibuprofen 3. ciprofloxacin 4. acetaminophen 5. methylprednisolone

1. Aspirin 2. Ibuprofen 5. methylprednisolone

For which client would the nurse need to contact the health care provider based upon the clients condition and treatment after viewing the medication reconciliation documents for four clients? 1. Client A- Condition: Enterococcus faecalis associated UTI Treatment: Streptomycin 2. Client B- Condition: Staphylococcus epidermidis associated osteomyelitis Treatment: Vancomycin 3. Client C- Condition: Streptococcus pneumoniae associated pneumococcal pneumonia Treatment: cefotaxime 4. Client D- Condition: Klebsiella pneumoniae associated pneumonia Treatment: Meropenem

1. Client A- Condition: Enterococcus faecalis associated UTI Treatment: Streptomycin Enterococcus faecalis can cause a UTI, which is treated with penicillin G or ampicillin. Faecalis client A is resistant to streptomycin, vancomycin, gentamicin and should be corrected by the nurse. Everything else is correct.

Which class of medication would a nurse expect to be prescribed to prevent the development of cerebral edema after craniotomy to remove a brain tumor? 1. Glucocorticoids 2. Anticholinergics 3. Anticonvulsants 4. antihypertensive

1. Glucocorticoids Has an anti-inflammatory action

Which hormones are involved in building and maintaining healthy bone tissue? Select all that apply. 1. insulin 2. thyroxine 3. glucocorticoids 4. growth 5. parathyroid

1. Insulin 3. glucocorticoids 4. growth hormone glucocorticoids: regulate protein metabolism to reduce or intensify the organic matrix of bone. growth: increase length of bone

A 5-year-old child is given fluoroquinolones. Which potential adverse effect unique to pediatric clients should the nurse anticipate? 1. Tendon rupture 2. Cartilage erosion 3. Staining of developing teeth 4. Central nervous system toxicity

1. Tendon rupture Fluoroquinolones may cause tendon rupture in children. Nalidixic acid can cause cartilage erosion, and tetracycline can cause staining of developing teeth. Hexachlorophene may cause central nervous system toxicity in infants.

Which instruction with the nurse include in providing medication teaching to a client prescribed TRIMETHOPRIN-SULFAMETHOXAZOLE for cystitis? 1.Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily 2.Drink two glasses of orange juice daily 3.Take the medication with meals 4.Take the medication until symptoms subside

1.Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily

The primary healthcare provider instructs the nurse to administer a high dose of acyclovir 60 mg/kg/day to a neonate with a body weight of 4.4 lb. What dose does the nurse administer to the neonate each day? Record your answer using a whole number. _______ mg

120

Which antimicrobial drugs are safe during breast-feeding? Select all that apply. 1Penicillins 2Macrolides 3Tetracycline 4Cephalosporins 5Chloramphenicol

1Penicillins 2Macrolides 4Cephalosporins ephalosporins are considered safe drugs during breast-feeding as they are least likely to affect the infant. Tetracycline and chloramphenicol should be avoided during breast-feeding.

use of which medication with the nurse identifies potential risk for hearing impairment in a child? 1. Amoxicillin 2. Gentamicin 3. Clindamycin 4. Ciprofloxacin

2. Gentamicin -can be ototoxic because of its effects on the 8th cranial nerve

Which medication would be prescribed when a client reports vaginal itching and the Primary Health care provider confirms that the client has candidiasis? select all that apply. 1. Tinidazole 2. Miconazole 3. Fluconazole 4. Clotrimazole 5. Metronidazole

2. Miconazole 3. Fluconazole 4. Clotrimazole

The nurse is assessing four clients with infections in the mouth. Which client can be treated by nystatin as an oral suspension? 1Client A with Trench Mouth 2Client B with Moniliasis 3Client C with cold sores 4Client D with Parotitis

2Client B with Moniliasis Moniliasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections. Therefore client B can be treated with nystatin. Client A, with trench mouth, can be treated by a topical application of antibacterial and mouth irrigations with chlorhexidine. Client C, with cold sores, can be treated with antiviral medications. Client D, with parotitis, can be treated with adequate fluid intake and antibacterial medication.

Which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for a client reporting inflammatory lesions on the face and diagnosed with an inflammatory disorder of the sebaceous glands? Select all that apply 1. Bacitracin 2. Mupirocin 3. Clindamycin 4. Erythromycin 5. Metronidazole

3 Clindamycin 4 Erythromycin Clindamycin and erythromycin are topical antibiotics used in the treatment of acne vulgaris, which occurs due to inflammation of the sebaceous glands. Bacitracin is an over-the-counter topical antibiotic used in the treatment of dermatologic problems. Mupirocin is used in the treatment of superficial Staphylococcus infections such as impetigo. Topical metronidazole is used in the treatment of rosacea and bacterial vaginosis.

Which initial action would the nurse take when caring for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin who reports ringing in both ears? 1 Notify the primary healthcare provider. 2 Consult an audiologist. 3 Stop the infusion. 4 Document the finding and continue to monitor the client.

3 Stop the infusion.

Which explanation would the nurse provide to a client with gastric ulcer disease who asked the nurse why the health care provider has prescribed metronidazole? 1 To augment the immune response 2 To potentiate the effect of antacids 3 To treat Helicobacter pylori infection 4 To reduce hydrochloric acid secretion

3 To treat Helicobacter pylori infection 2/3rds of clients with gastric ulcer disease are found to have H. Pylori infecting the mucosa and interfering with its protective function.

The health care provider prescribed 500MG of cephalexin by mouth every six hours for 10 days for a client with mastitis. The Primary Health care provider has given the client 24 sample tablets of 250MG a piece. how many days should this supply last?

3 days

A 12-year-old boy sustained several tick bites while camping and may have Lyme disease. What is the most appropriate response when he asks what is Lyme disease? 1. "I can see that you're concerned. Tell me what you want to know." 2. "The infection is caused by a spirochete. It can be cured with penicillin." 3. "The tick bites gave you an infection. There is medication that will treat it." 4. "You sound upset. Don't worry—we have medicine that will make you better."

3. "The tick bites gave you an infection. There is medication that will treat it."

A nurse is transcribing a practitioner's orders for a group of clients. Which order should the nurse clarify with the practitioner? 1. Discharge in am 2. Blood glucose monitoring ac and bedtime 3. Erythromycin 250 mg TIW 4. Dalteparin 5000 international units Sub-Q BID

3. Erythromycin 250 mg TIW

The primary health care provider has prescribed an intravenous (IV) piggyback to be administered every four hours. The prescription is: 1200 mg antibiotic to be added to 50 mL D5W. After the nurse dilutes the powdered medication with the correct amount of saline, the resulting solution contains 1 gram of drug per 3 mL. How much antibiotic solution should be added to the 50 mL of D5W? Record your answer using one decimal place. ___ mL

3.6 3.6 mL is the correct amount of volume to be added to the piggyback solution. Use ratio and proportion to solve the problem. 1200 mg = 1.2 grams 1.2 grams : 1 gram :: x mL : 3 mL 1 x = 3 X 1.2 x = 3.6 mL

Which client statement provides evidence that the client understands the instructions for the prescribed high-dose ampicillin? 1"I should take this medication with meals." 2"I can stop taking this medication when I feel better." 3"I will miss eating my yogurt while taking this medication." 4"I must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication."

4"I must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication Because penicillin in high doses is nephrotoxic, keeping hydrated helps flush the kidneys as the drug is excreted. It should be taken on an empty stomach for best absorption. Stopping this medication when the client feels better is contraindicated; completing the medication treatment as prescribed prevents the development of resistant strains of bacteria. Dietary restrictions are not imposed while this medication is taken

Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching was effective regarding intravenous gentamicin therapy 1). "I should drink lots of water if I am retaining urine." 2). "I should use eyeglasses if I develop vision problems." 3). "I should stop the medication when the symptoms have subsided." 4). "I should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider.

4). "I should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider.

A practitioner prescribes penicillin G benzathine suspension 2.4 million units for a client with a sexually transmitted infection. The medication is available in a multidose vial of 10 mL in which 1 mL = 300,000 units. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? Record your answer using a whole number. ___ mL

8 mL

Which adverse effect would the nurse monitor for in an infant receiving a sulfonamide?

A. Kernicterus

Which substance history of a severe allergic reaction results in avoidance of the cephalosporins such as cefazolin, cefditoren, cefotetan, and ceftriaxone? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Milk B. Aspirin C. Calcium D. Penicillin E. Strawberries

A. Milk B. Aspirin C. Calcium D. Penicillin

Which action would the nurse take when a client receiving an infusion of penicillin reports having an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin in the past? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. -notifying rapid response -measuring O2 level -administering epinephrine -inserting an indwelling catheter -assessing the respiratory pattern

ALL

Which assessment would the nurse perform before administering a dose of vancomycin to a client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Creatinine Trough level Hearing ability Intravenous site Blood urea nitrogen

ALL

A prescription for 6MG of intramuscular dexamethasone twice a day for two days, is issued to a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and having regular labor contractions. The client asked why she needs this medicine. Which reason would the nurse give the client regarding the reason the medication was prescribed? Promotes sleep May stop contractions Relaxes uterine muscles Accelerates fetal lung maturity

Accelerates fetal lung maturity

Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with herpes zoster? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Acyclovir B. Silvadene C. Gabapentin D. Wet compresses E. Contact isolation

All A client with herpes zoster would receive antiviral medications such as acyclovir. Silvadene can be applied to open vesicles. Gabapentin can be used to treat the nerve pain associated with herpes zoster. Wet compresses can be applied to the vesicles to relieve discomfort. Herpes zoster is highly contagious, and the client would be placed in contact isolation precautions.

The nurse notes an older adult's admission orders include gentamicin for the treatment of osteomyelitis. Which laboratory reports will the nurse review before beginning the medication?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine Electrolytes and urinalysis -increases risk of nephrotoxicity so you need to asses renal function -dehydration can further increase nephrotoxicity so you need check hydration status

A client with adrenal insufficiency reports feeling weak and dizzy, especially in the morning. What should the nurse determine is the most probable cause of these symptoms? A. A lack of potassium B. Postural hypertension C. A hypoglycemic reaction D. Increased extracellular fluid volume

C. A hypoglycemic reaction

A client's laboratory report shows altered serum calcium concentration. Which hormones are responsible for this condition? Select all that apply.

Calcitonin Parathyroid hormone calcitonin (pushes calcium back into bone)Parathyroid hormone (stimulates osteoclasts which breaks down bone and puts calcium into the serum)

Which client receiving antibiotic therapy would the nurse identify at risk for Achilles tendon rupture? Client A: Gentamicin Client B: Ciprofloxacin Client C: Cefazolin Client D: Tobramycin

Client B: Ciprofloxacin

Which instruction should the nurse give a client who is on oral extended-release ciprofloxacin therapy for urinary tract infection? A. Chew the medication along with food B. Take a walk in morning sunlight C. Stop the drug after symptoms subside D. Refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid

D. Refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid

Which anti-infective agent may lead to blindness if not used correctly by the client in prescribed amounts? A) Bromfenac B) Natamycin C) Trifluridine D) Gentamicin

D: Gentamicin Rationale:Gentamicin is an antiinfective agent that can lead to blindness if not used in prescribed amounts. The nurse should instruct clients to take this only as prescribed, because bacterial and fungal eye infections may worsen rapidly and can lead to blindness if not treated adequately. Bromfenac is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory (NSAID) agent and does not lead to blindness. Natamycin is an antifungal agent and trifluridine is a topical antiviral agent; both do not cause blindness.

Which treatment strategies would benefit a client diagnosed with chlamydia?

Doxycycline azithromycin

A client reports fever, cough, muscle aches, night sweats, and chest pain. The laboratory reports of the client indicate the presence of Coccidioides organisms in the respiratory tract. Which drug is beneficial for the client?

Fluconazole

Which assessment findings during the administration of intravenous penicillin prompt the nurse to stop the infusion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct Hives Itching Skin rash Shortness of breath Nausea

Hives Itching Skin rash Shortness of breath

Which action would the nurse take to avoid Redman syndrome when preparing to administer vancomycin infusion?

Infuse slowly

which mechanism of action applies to penicillin?

Inhibits cell wall synthesis of susceptible pathogen

The nurse is teaching the parents of a child prescribed a high dose of oral prednisone for asthma. Which information is critical for the nurse to include when teaching about this medication?

It should be stopped gradually Gradual weaning from Prednisone is necessary to prevent adrenal insufficiency or adrenal crisis. It depresses the immune system thereby increasing susceptibility to infection. The medication usually suppresses growth period a moon face may occur but it is not critical, life threatening side effect.

Which medication is the first line medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who is diagnosed with a Clostridium dificile infection

Metronidazole

Which prescription would the nurse anticipate being written for a client experiencing vaginal discharge with a fishy order who was diagnosed bacterial vaginosis?

Metronidazole

Which medication used to treat bacterial vaginosis may be responsible for clients or port of an unpleasant metallic taste, nausea and vomiting? Tinidazole Miconazole Clotrimazole Metronidazole

Metronidazole Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis. Common side effects include an unpleasant metallic taste in the mouth, furry tongue, central nervous system reactions, and urinary tract disturbances. Tinidazole is used to treat trichomoniasis. Miconazole and clotrimazole are used to treat candidiasis.

which action will the nurse take after receiving a urine culture and sensitivity report that reveals a client has vancomycin resistant enterococcus and after notifying the primary healthcare?

Move the client to a private room. Why? to decrease transmission to others. -contact not droplet precaution -foley catheter = additional infection

A child is prescribed an IV antibiotic. Within 10 minutes of the antibiotic infusion, the child's face and neck are flushed, but the remainder of the body is unchanged. The nurse checks the child's record. Which action would the nurse take next?

Notify the primary healthcare provider after stopping the infusion.

A client on immunosuppressive therapy is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. Which medication might have led to this condition?

Prednisone Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses inflammatory responses. A side effect of prednisone is the development of peptic ulcers. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that may cause anemia. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that may cause nephrotoxicity and hypertension. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressant that may cause hemorrhagic cystitis.

A child recovering from a severe asthma attack is given oral prednisone 15 mg twice daily. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Preventing exposure of the child to infection Explanation:Prednisone reduces the child's resistance to certain infectious processes and, as an antiinflammatory drug, masks infection. The child will self-limit activity depending on respiratory status. The eosinophil count is often consistently increased in children with asthma. The child will need adequate hydration to help loosen and expel mucus.

Which action will the nurse take when it is time to administer the vancomycin to client with a continuous IV drip?

Start a second IV line for the vancomycin and continue the heparin as prescribed THEY ARE NOT COMPATIBLE

Which action would the nurse take when a client develops a maculopapular rash on the upper extremities and audible wheezing during the administration of intravenous vancomycin?

Stop the infusion

What information would the nurse provide to the client diagnosed with chlamydia prescribed doxycycline? Select all that apply 1. Report worsening symptoms 2. Refrain from sexual relations 3.Use barrier protection devices 4. Contact partners to be tested 5. Take the entire course of antibiotics

all

Which prescribed medication would the nurse probably prepare educational materials for when caring for a pregnant women with the body temperature of 103 and a clinical manifestation of coccidiodomycosis?

amphotericin B This drug is safe for pregnant women because it will not affect the fetus

After completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. Which med is indicated for treatment of this condition? a. acyclovir b. vidarabine c. nystatin d. fluconazole

c. nystatin

How would the nurse reply when a client prescribed a tetracycline class med asks why milk and antacids should be avoided before and after dosing? a. "taking these together can lead to kidney impairment" b. "the pairing of these substances leads to tooth staining" c. "severe diarrhea can occur when taking these substances together" d. "this can lead to decreased absorption of the med you need"

d. "this can lead to decreased absorption of the medication you need"

For which medication would the nurse monitor the serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, when administered to a client receiving therapy for extensive burn wounds?

gentamicin sulfate

A pregnant client with an infection tells the nurse that she has taken tetracycline for infections on other occasions and prefers to take it now. What does the nurse advise regarding the reason tetracycline is avoided during pregnancy? it affects breastfeeding adversely. Tetracycline causes fetal allergies. It increases fetal tolerance to the medication. it alters the development of fetal teeth buds

it alters the development of fetal teeth buds

Which client statement indicates effective learning of their osteomyelitis treatment with ciprofloxacin therapy? o "I should go to my primary health care provider's clinic for a weekly dressing change." o "I should stop taking the medication as soon as my symptoms begin to decrease." o "I should not remove the soiled dressing without someone's assistance." o "I should contact my primary health care provider if white patches appear in my mouth."

o "I should contact my primary health care provider if white patches appear in my mouth." Ciprofloxacin causes adverse effects like formation of whitish-yellow or curd-like lesions in the mouth and itching in the perianal area. The client's statement regarding the primary health care provider should be contacted in case of white patches in the mouth indicates effective learning. Clients should change their dressings once soiled, not weekly. The client must take the antibiotic even after the symptoms have subsided and feels better. If the client abruptly discontinues this medication, medication resistance may develop. There are no restrictions as to who should change the dressing; the client can also change the dressing as needed.