IAHSS (full study guide)

Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications? A. Anything that one can inject, inhale, or absorb into the body that is designed to improve a condition. B. Remedies or cures. C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter. D. Controlled substances.

C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter.

During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual. A. 2 to 4 feet. B. 4 to 6 feet. C. 6 to 10 feet. D. 10 feet or more.

B. 4 to 6 feet.

Which of the following statements best describes employees? A. Medical staff contracted by the facility. B. All staff directly employed by the facility. C. Volunteers who donate their time. D. Contracted persons.

B. All staff directly employed by the facility.

Define ADA. A. Americans with Discounts Act. B. Americans with Disabilities Act. C. America without Discomfort Act. D. Americans with Disabilities Action.

B. Americans with Disabilities Act.

Which of the following are credentialed to admit patients to the hospital? A. Interns. B. Attending physicians. C. Hospitalists. D. Residents

B. Attending physicians.

When should reports be written? A. By the end of the week. B. By the end of the shift. C. By the end of the month. D. By the end of the next day.

B. By the end of the shift.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? A. Forming. B. Ending. C. Norming. D. Storming

B. Ending.

What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction. A. Leave their offices, go out the closest door, and assemble in the street. B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them. C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed. D. Stay inside their office and out of the away.

B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them.

Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview? A. Impartiality. B. Impatience. C. Sensitivity. D. Confidentiality.

B. Impatience.

Which is the most common location where missing patients are found. A. Hiding under the bed. B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance. C. In the gift shop. D. Looking for the morgue.

B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about customers' perceptions of their experience? A. Interaction is subject to personal interpretation. B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated. C. Interaction is affected by body language. D. Interaction is affected by all of your actions.

B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated.

Which of the following does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). D. The Joint Commission.

B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)

Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy? A. Housekeeping. B. Licensed pharmacist. C. Pharmacy secretary. D. Pharmacy technician.

B. Licensed pharmacist.

Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? A. Heroin, marijuana, methadone. B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone. C. Codeine, Vicodin, Oxycontin. D. Darvon, Valium, Xanax.

B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone.

Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol. A. Hearing, documentation and memory. B. Observation, perception and memory. C. Perception, memory and documentation. D. Time, memory and perception.

B. Observation, perception and memory.

Generally, a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal. B. Observes and reports. C. Enters the area with the police. D. Leaves the area unattended.

B. Observes and reports.

What should the most primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image. B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services. D. Cost-effectiveness.

B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility.

What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention? A. To cause pain to a subject refusing your directions. B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject. C. To stop people running from you. D. To show fellow staff members you are effective at your job.

B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject.

Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use while providing good customer service. A. Acknowledge the customer's needs. B. Use inappropriate body language. C. Provide alternatives. D. Say thank you.

B. Use inappropriate body language.

Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? A. Be aware of the visitor's emotional state. B. Use sarcasim. C. Treat the visitor with respect. D. Show empathy.

B. Use sarcasm.

Which of the following is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit? A. During meal delivery and consumption. B. Voluntary hospitalization. C. During the transportation of the patient. D. Involuntary hospitalization.

B. Voluntary hospitalization.

Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public? A. Clean uniform. B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers. C. Well cared for uniform. D. Shined footwear.

B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers.

A warrant is issued by whom? A. A law enforcement officer. B. a judicial officer. C. A prosecutor. D. A defense attorney.

B. a judicial officer.

Which of the following is NOT true about video surveillance? A. Should be recorded at all times. B. Should be fully functional at all times. C. Dummy cameras are accepted methods of surveillance. D. Should be monitored if possible.

C. Dummy cameras are accepted methods of surveillance.

Which of the following is not an example of an external costumer? A. Patients. B. Vendors. C. Employees. D. Regulatory agencies.

C. Employees.

The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years. B. Every six months. C. Every year. D. Monthly.

C. Every year.

Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? A. Short wait periods. B. Calm atmosphere. C. Food selection. D. Attire.

C. Food selection.

Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility. B. Mostly female staff. C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open.

C. High percentage of technical and professional staff.

Which of the following is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents.? A. Security incident report. B. Supplemental security report. C. Investigation security report. D. Auto accident report.

C. Investigation security report.

Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable. B. Must be prudent. C. Must be able to inflict pain. D. Must be defensible.

C. Must be able to inflict pain.

Which agency provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence? A. Centers for Medicare And Medicaid Services (CMS) B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS). C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). D. The Joint Commission.

C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician A. Clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone. B. only patient information of interest to the security officer. C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. D. None of the above.

C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer.

All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? A. Eight. B. Three. C. Six. D. Four.

C. Six.

Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication? A. 57 percent. B. 49 percent. C. 89 percent. D. 94 percent.

D. 94 percent.

In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient? A. Picking up or returning patient's valuables. B. Investigating lost or stolen property. C. Helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills. B. good communication skills. C. Tolerance. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability? A. Excessive use of force. B. False arrest. C. Malicious prosecution. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following is true of behavioral patients in emergency departments? A. Often have longer lengths of stays due to placement issues. B. Must be managed with both situational control and empathy. C. Are often placed in retrofitted areas. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

What is your primary goal on using tactical evaluation? A. To determine where to approach a subject. B. To determine the legality of intervening between two people who are fighting. C. To determine if the design of a waiting room in conducive to security needs. D. To determine the level of threat.

D. To determine the level of threat.

Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? A. Strong communication skills. B. Compassion. C. Ability to speak loudly. D. Ability to express care and understanding.

C. Ability to speak loudly.

What is a misdemeanor? A. A crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year. B. A violation of the municipal code. C. Any offense other than a felony. D. A violation of the state's penal code.

C. Any offense other than a felony.

Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis. B. Risk assessments. C. Bench-marking. D. Evaluation surveys.

C. Bench-marking.

Which of the following may union members NOT do during picketing? A. Carry signs. B. Protest management decisions. C. Block entrances to the building. D. Congregate outside the facility.

C. Block entrances to the building.

The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? A. Take an interest in the job. B. Look for ways to improve safety. C. Call a routine duty a waste of time. D. Look for ways to improve recommended procedures.

C. Call a routine duty a waste of time.

Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous. B. Routine. C. Conspicuous. D. Foot.

C. Conspicuous.

What is the key factor in tactical deployment? A. Availability of other officers. B. Waiting for supervisor. C. Control of distance. D. Time.

C. Control of distance.

A security officer should carry a notebook for all of the following reasons except which one? A. To write down all the facts for an incident report. B. To keep a list of emergency telephone numbers. C. To note safety hazards. D. To keep track of food orders.

D. To keep track of food orders.

Which of the following is a role of the National Center for Missing children and Exploited Children? A. Provide things that healthcare organizations can do to "harden the target". B. Develop a profile of the typical kidnapper. C. Provide suggested training for nursing, security, and other personal. D. None of the above. E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

Security officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients. B. Visitors. C. Employees. D. Physicians. E. All the above.

E. All the above.

To be successful, teams need which of the following? A. Access to resources. B. Clearly defined boundaries. C. Access to people who know. D. Clearly defined purposes and goal. E. all of the above.

E. all of the above.

Which of the following is in a medical record? A. Information about physical health. B. Information about family relationships. C. Information about sexual behavior. D. Information about substance abuse. E. all of the above.

E. all of the above.

Which of the following is a professional attribute? A. Image. B. Posture. C. Attitude. D. Initiative. E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

In which year was the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) enacted? A. 1970. B. 1972. C. 1968. D. 1984.

A. 1970.

The average length of a patient stay in an acute care hospital is how long? A. 25 to 30 days B. 3 to 6 days. C. 10 to 12 days D. 15 to 20 days.

A. 25 to 30 days

Which of the following is NOT an ongoing or functional work team? A. A project team. B. A natural work team. C. A management team. D. A process improvement team.

A. A project team.

The general rule for keeping reports is how long? A. At least five to seven years. B. Permanently. C. At least ten years. D. At least three to five years.

A. At least five to seven years.

In criminal law, how must guilt be determined. A. Beyond a reasonable doubt. B. By the preponderance of evidence. C. By that degree of proof which is more probable than not. D. By the prosecutor..

A. Beyond a reasonable doubt.

Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of Directors. B. Department leaders. C. Assistant administrators. D. Vice presidents.

A. Board of Directors

Which of the following is NOT a type of mental heath unit? A. Closed caption. B. Open. C. Closed. D. Outpatient.

A. Closed caption.

Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for? A. Crime prevention through environmental design. B. Crime prevention through experimental. Design. C. Campus prevention through environmental design. D. Critical performance through environmental design.

A. Crime prevention through environmental design.

What is the relationship between employees and management sometimes called? A. Employee relations. B. Confidentiality. C. Family interaction. D. Tense conversation.

A. Employee relations.

Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? A. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety. (IAHSS) B. National Fire Protection Agency. (NFPA) C. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) D. Department of Public Health.

A. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety. (IAHSS)

Which of the following types of questions should NOT be used in an interview? A. Leading. B. Open ended. C. Includes an option. D. Specific.

A. Leading.

Which one of these is an example of something you should do while patrolling? A. Let employees know you are in the area. B. Get careless. C. Be a hero unnecessarily. D. Get separated from your equipment.

A. Let employees know you are in the area.

Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of program? A. Strong and effective. B. A program that works in a small part of the facility. C. Generally effective. D. Strong and simple.

A. Strong and effective.

Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)" C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers. (ASHE).

A. The Joint Commission.

What is the force continuum? A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force. B. The force that officers use on non-compliant persons. C. A form used to report on incidents involving use of force. D. None of the above.

A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force.

Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service? A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even though though the customer,s wants were not met. C. To make the customer think no one cares about the concern raised by the customer. D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling.

A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling.

Which type of unit takes a patient who no longer requires specific medical treatment on an inpatient basis but cannot be returned home? A. Transition unit. B. Intensive care unit. C. Medical surgical unit. D. Step-down unit.

A. Transition unit.

Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background. B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility. D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft.

A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization. B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions. C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes. D. Active participation on teams can engage employees.

C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes.

In any trial, who is the trier of law? A. The prosecutor. B. The defense attorney. C. The judge. D. The jury.

C. The judge.

When speaking with a patient, visitor or staff member, you should always be mindful of what characteristics of your speech? A. Timing, velocity and character. B. Tenor, vibration, and cannon. C. Tone, variation, and cadence. D. Tempo, variation and candor.

C. Tone, variation, and cadence.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service? A. More job satisfaction. B. Less stress and hassle. C. Trying to impress your supervisor. D. More job success.

C. Trying to impress your supervisor.

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is a division of which of the following? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Services (OSHA)" C. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) D. Long term acute care (LTAC) hospital.

C. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS

Which of these actions is a HIPPA violation? A. You observe a victim being brought into the emergency department suffering from a gunshot wound. You hear medical staff comments about the victim's condition. You tell the paramedic from the ambulance about the victim's condition. B. You are on duty signing in visitors at the hospital. You have a patient census for reference. You leave to direct a visitor and leave the patient census in plain view for passers-by. C. You have finished your shift and throw the old patient census in the trash. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? A. No clearly defined purpose or goals. B. Lack of employee buy-in to teams. C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement. D. Any of the above.

D. Any of the above.

Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer. B. Internal customer. C. Non-paying external customer. D. Anyone with whom you interact.

D. Anyone with whom you interact.

A good report writer has a balanced blend of which of these? A. Awareness, skills, know-how. B. Opinions, skills, knowledge. C. Outlook, skills, knowledge. D. Attitude, skills, knowledge.

D. Attitude, skills, knowledge.

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life. B. Expense. C. Discomfort and restrictiveness. D. Avoiding or minimizing injury.

D. Avoiding or minimizing injury.

Which ofthe following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight. B. Portable radio. C. Handcuffs. D. CPR pocket mask.

D. CPR pocket mask.

Which of the following is NOT an IAHSS course. A. Basic certification for the healthcare security officer. B. Advanced certification for the healthcare security officer. C. Supervisory certification for healthcare security personal. D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer? A. Bad attitude. B. Dishonesty. C. Impoliteness. D. Confidence.

D. Confidence.

Which of these conditions make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients? A. Age and ethnicity. B. Reputation of the healthcare organization. C. Short wait periods. D. Drug and alcohol impairment.

D. Drug and alcohol impairment.

How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged. B. Encouraged. C. Encouraged but monitored. D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism.

D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism.

Which of the following is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing? A. Gather information. B. Record information. C. Write the report. D. Examine the report.

D. Examine the report.

When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? A. Rush to the affected unit and interview the parent. B. Call the National center for Missing and Exploited Children. C. Grab the department's camera and take pictures of everyone who exits the emergency department. D. Immediately go to the property's exits, doors, garages, etc.. Stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in.

D. Immediately go to the property's exits, doors, garages, etc.. Stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in.

Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations in Chapter one? A. Propriety or for-profit. B. Not-for-profit. C. Government-supported. D. Individual healthcare.

D. Individual healthcare.

Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report? A. Insurance company. B. Corporate attorney. C. Law enforcement. D. Newspaper.

D. Newspaper.

Who is the patient's advocate during a hospital stay? A. Physician. B. Social services. C. Admitting clerk. D. Nurse.

D. Nurse.

Which of these departments in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports? A. Administration. B. Human resources. C. Public relations. D. Nutrition services.

D. Nutrition services.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug diversion method? A. Fraudulent prescription. B. Falsify a patient's chart. C.keep unused drugs after surgery. D. Obtain a prescription from your physician.

D. Obtain a prescription from your physician.

Which type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? A. Selective. B. Directed. C. Vehicle. D. Routine.

D. Routine.

Which of the following does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or a behavioral patient care unit? A. 24/7 coverage. B. Supplementation by police. C. As-needed coverage D. Security has no role in these areas.

D. Security has no role in these areas.

Which governing body's legal statute governs whether an interview may be tape-recorded? A. Federal. B. City. C. Town. D. State.

D. State.

What is the definition of crowd control? A. Techniques used to manage lawful public assemblies. B. Allowing First Amendment activities. C. Allowing Demonstrations. D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies.

D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies.

In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? A. Patient's parents or legal guardians. B. Nursing staff. C. Attending physician. D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so.

D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation? A. Event has been resolved. B. All leads are exhausted. C. The property was recovered. D. The situation was corrected.

D. The situation was corrected.

Which statement best describes the ways to secure the medical records department? A. Keep the doors locked. B. Require all medical records to be signed out. C. Only allow physicians to access the department. D. Use one of the following access control systems: Lock and key, combination locks, badge readers with access cards, bio-metrics.

D. Use one of the following access control systems: Lock and key, combination locks, badge readers with access cards, bio-metrics.

Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community. B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships. C. Improving communications. D. Using the security vehicle to go off site.

D. Using the security vehicle to go off site.