Imaging Procedures Lange MV
Which of the following exams requires catheterization of the ureters? Retrograde urogram cystogram voiding cystogram
Retrograde urogram
Venous, or deoxygenated blood, is returned to the heart via the 1. Inferior vena cava 2. Superior vena cava 3. Coronary sinus
all 3.
pylorus
stomach labeled.
The space between the arachnoid and dura matter is the A. subarachnoid B. subdural space C. epidural space
subdural space
Thoracic and lumbar z-joints are in a oblique position. The thoracic requires a _________ oblique projection and a lumbar requires a ___________ oblique projection.
70, 45.
RAO RAO gets spine out of way and the heart superimposes a homogenous density over sternum.
A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions? -AP - RAO -LPO -LAO
kyphotic curve is formed by the sacral and thoracic.
A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. Sacral vertebrae 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Lumbar vertebrae
Ewing sarcoma
A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is -Ewing Sarcoma -multiple myeloma -echondroma -osteochondroma
The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in A-medial oblique B-lateral oblique C-AP D-lateral
A- medial oblique
flattening of the diaphragm is caused by A. Emphysema B. Empyema C. Atelectasis D. Pneumonia
A. Emphysema traps air and overexpands lungs.
Lateral projection of scapula
Acromion and scapulae are not superimposed and inferior angle is not superimposed on ribs.
lateral projection of elbow
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? -AP -Lateral
C4
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? -foramen magnum -trachea -pharynx -C4
The usual prep for an upper GI series includes A. Clear fluids 8 hour prior to exam B. NPO after midnight C. enemas until clear before exam D. light breakfast at the day of exam.
B. NPO after midnight
2 and 3 only
Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when 1. The patient is in the AP erect position 2. respiration is suspended at the end of full exhalation 3. the patient is in the recumbent position
lateral oblique foot
CR perpendicular to the base of the 3rd metatarsal. Navicular bone more clearly shown
Towne method
Demonstrates occipital bone, Dorsum Sellae and Clinoid process.
LPO LPO because stomach is on left side posterior to body. LPO= fundus and double contrast of pylorus and D. Bulb. The RAO would demonstrate a barium filled pylorus and duodenum.
During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely -AP erect -PA -RAO -LPO
The lesser tubercle in profile and superimposed epicondyles.
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. suprimposed epicondyles
1 and 2 only atalantoaxial and radioulnar joints
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint
emphysema
Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions? -pneumonia -Emphysemas
Cholecystokinin
Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbaldder?
2 and 3 only 1 is incorrect because BOTH joints need to be supported.
Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required
1/2 inch distal to the nasion
In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed
lateral projection of knee would have all 3.
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed
1 and 2 only
In the AP projcetion of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is verticle 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia 3. calcaneus is well visualized
AP projection
Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the -AP -Lateral -Axial -Lordotic
1 and 2 only
Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? 1. Bell-Thompson scale 2. Bucky tray 3. Cannula
right ventricle
Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the -left atrium -right atrium -Left ventricle -right ventricle
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering he room for an examination in
PA projection of paranasal sinuses
Petrous ridges in lower third orbit
1, 2 and 3
Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out? 1. Have patient empty the bladder 2. Review the patient's allergy history 3. Check the patient's creatinine level
emergency and trauma radiography
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
weight-bearing Weight Bearing are used for Acromioclavicular joints.
Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following except -weight bearing -RAO -LAO -PA
pedicles and laminae only
Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body
1 and 2 only
Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. zygoma
cecum and appendix The sigmoid is on the opposite side or LLQ.
Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid
anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR.You want this to happen. If not, it will result in rotation distortion. If the tube is angled, elongation will happen. If the CR is not parallel to to bodypart it will appear foreshortened or smaller.
Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when
The Judet method demonstrates
acetabulum
Metacarpalphalangeal Joint (MCP)
carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
atrial systole
contraction of the atria
Bones of the foot
tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges
1 and 2 only
which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to exretory urography? 1. Creatinine 2. Blood urea nirtogen (BUN) 3. Red blood cells (RBCs)
fourth lumbar vertebra
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the -costal margin -umbilicus -xiphoid tip -4th lumbar
toward the affected side
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees -toward the affected side -away from the affected side -with the arm in external rotation
the recumbent position(blood flows against gravity) espophageal varices are enlarged veins.
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in -erect -anatomic -fowler -recumbent
1, 2 and 3
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the IR 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation
a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical
To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that
CR is directed perpendicular to the IR
To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the
must be supported parallel to the IR
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
intussusception(telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another.)
Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? -regional enteritis(chrons disease, inflammed GI tract -intussusception -Appendicitis(inflammation of appendix) -Ulcerative Colitis
oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees
Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
left scaroiliac joint
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO positon with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
radial styloid process
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones? -radial styloid process -metacarpals -distal interphalangeal joints
angel the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplanter projection of the foot?
All 3 are valid.
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Thransthoracic latera
LAO (affected sideaway from IR)and RPOd(affected side adjacent to IR)
Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. RAO 2. LAO 2. RPO
1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial
erect
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?
LPO
Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
dorsal decubitus position = on back Don't confuse with prone or Ventral Decubitus position
Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest? -Ventral Decub -Dorsal Decub
lateral decubitus, affected side up= affected side up for AIR.
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity? -Lateral decub, affected side up -lateral decub, affected side down - AP supine
tangential(sunrise) patella
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation? -tangential -Lateral -Tunnel
RPO
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?
30-degree RPO 45 degree is best for L1 to L4.
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation? -AP -Lateral -30 RPO -45 LPO
LAO
Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
patient AP with 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace? -30-35 cephalad -30-35 caudad -angle
lateral oblique
Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
AP and scapular Y
Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?
45-degree internal rotation/medial
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibofibular articulation? -AP -45 internal rotation -45 external rotation
10 to 15 degrees caudal
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
Facial bones. this is a Waters position.
With the PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37-degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?
completely within the orbits
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids -below the orbits -above the orbits -completely within the orbits
15 to 30 degrees caudad remember it is 15-30 cephalad for a AP.
With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?A
trendelenburg position
With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the
Coyle method for coronoid process
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? -radial head -coronoid process -ulnar head
Rami
With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? -symphysis -Rami -body -angle
first metacarpal
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
AP oblique, medial rotation
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition?
Hysterosalpingogram
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
IVU
Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?
1, 2 and 3
Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. Obesity 2. Smoking 3. Stress
arteries, arterioles, cappillaries, venules, veins
Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?
sphenoidal
Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Water's method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?
submentovertical (SMV)
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process? -AP Axial -lateral -parietoacanthial -Submentovertical
1 and 2 only Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders and ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm. The airfilled trachea will be visible. The esophagus will not be visible without contrast.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. The esophagus is visible in the midline
Avulsion fracture(small bony fragment pulled from a bony process because of a forceful pull of the attached ligament or tendon)
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process? -avulsion -Torus(greenstick) -Comminuted(splintered) -compound(perforated skin)
use restraint only when necessary
Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients?
1 and 2 only
Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? 1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. Stent Placement 3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints
1, 2 and 3
Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. Use of PA position 2. Use of breast shields 3. Use of compensating filtration
1 and 2 only Think biliary only.
For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Patency of the biliary ducts 2. Biliary tract calculi 3. Duodenal calculi
AP projection, left lateral decubitus position Normally the AP erect is best, but if a patient must lay down use this one. It puts air over the liver(located on the right side of body)
Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
1 and 2 only
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured anterior tibia
myleogram
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examiantions?
junctions of skull
Bregma and others
The intervertebral joints of the t-spine are demonstrated with the
MSP parallel to the IR.
hematemesis
The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is
1 and 2 only
Types of mechanical obstruction found in pediatric patients include 1. volvulus 2. intussusception 3. paralytic ileus
ventricular systole
contraction of ventricles
Floor of cranium
-2 Temporals -1 Sphenoid -1 Ethmoid
A postvoid image of the urinary bladder is requested at teh completion of an intravenous urogram and may be helpful in demonstrating 1. residual urine 2. prostate enlargement 3. ureteral tortuosity
1 and 2
Chest radiography should be performed using 72 inch SID in order to 1. visualize vascular markings 2. obtain better lung detail 3. maximize mag of heart
1 and 2 only 3 is wrong b/c long SID minimizes magnification of the heart.
inspiration/expiration may demonstrate 1. pneumothorax 2. foreign body 3. bronchitis
1 and 2 only bronchitis would not show.
Radiographic indications of atelectasis 1. decreased radiographic density/increased brightness on affected side 2. elevation of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side. 3. flattening of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side.
1 and 2 only. the collapsed lung would increase the density of the tissue and elevate the hemidiaphragm.
The thoracic vertebrae are unique in that they have 1. costovertebral 2. costotransverse 3. costochondral
1 costovertebral and 2 costotransverse only. costochondral explains the anterior rib articulated with cartilage.
In the AP projection of the knee, the 1. patella is visualized through the femur 2. CR is directed 1/2 inch distal to patellar base 3. CR is directed 3-5 degrees cephalad when the distance between the tabletop and ASIS is 17 cm
1 only CR would be directed 1.2 inch below the apex.
Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of A. Pleural Effusion B. ascites C. bronchitis D. Emphysema
1. Pleural Effusion Fluid in lungs causes blunting.
To demonstrate the p. apices below the level of the clavicles in the AP position, the CR should be directed 15-20 Caudad 15-20 Cephalad
15 to 20 cephalad would project the clavicles above the apices.
Scapular Y demonstrates 1. lateral projection of shoulder 2. anterior or posterior dislocation 3. an oblique projection of shoulder
2 and 3 only the coronal plane is 60 degree to IR.
Which of the following will provide air or fluid levels when the erect cannot be taken? 1. AP trendelburg 2. dorsal decub 3. lateral decub
2 and 3 only. CR must be parallel to ground. a 3 way study is normally needed. this includes AP recumebent, AP erect, left lateral decub.
AP projection of the Coccyx requires that the CR be 1. 15 degree Cephalad 2. 2 inches above the pubic symphysis 3. midline at the level of the lesser trochanter
2 only. it would be 10 caudad.
Oblique projection of the t-spine would include 1. intervertebral joints 2. Z-joints 3. Intervertebral foramina
2. zjoints only. The other 2 would be seen on a lateral.
Order of studies include 1. Barium Enema 2. Intravenous urogram 3. upper GI
213 2. Intravenous urogram 1. Barium Enema 3. upper GI
Foreign body and soft tissue only A lateral projection could could additional injury.
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue
to the level of the laryngeal prominence
A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed
1 and 2 only
A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1. Radial head 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid process
1 and 2 only a sponge has nothing to do with scatter radiation.
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral porjection of the lumbarsacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR
Which position are barium filled pyloric canal and duodenal bulb best demonstrated during a GI series? A. RAO B. Left Lateral C. Recumbent PA D. Recumbent AP
A. RAO
During a GI examination, the lateral recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will demonstrate a. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach b. medial and lateral aspects of the stomach c. double-contrast body and antral portions
A. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach medial and lateral would be visualized in AP.
To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during IV urography, it is helpful to 1. use a 15º AP Trendelenburg position. 2. apply compression to the proximal ureters. 3. apply compression to the distal ureters. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
A. use a 15 degree AP trendelenburg position.
Which double contrast position is best for left and right colic flexures?
AP Erect
2 and 3 only This includes ankle only.
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear
metformin should be withheld 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies metformin lowers blood sugar levels by improving the way your body handles insulin.
All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except -Patients should stop metformin before procedure -Meformin should be witheld 48 hours before contrast study -meformin given after renal fxn studies have been re-evaluated and found okay.
the femoral neck
All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except
right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double- contrast examinations of the large bowel except -lateral rectum -AP axial rectosigmoid -right and left lateral decubitus abdomen -RAO and LAO abdomen
The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR(false) The MSP must be perpendicular to the IR.
All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except -the oml is perpendicular to the IR -the petrous pyramids fill the orbits -the MSP is parallel to the IR -The CR is perpendicular to the IR and exits the nasion.
single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions. It would need to be double contrast.
All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except -large bowel should be empty before study -retained fecal material can obscure pathology -single contrast studies help demonstrate intraluminal lesions
The main stem bronchi enter the lung fissure. They enter into the hilum.
All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except -the main stem bronchi enter the lung fissure -The right lung has 2 fissures -The left lung has 1 fissure
intertrochanteric line
All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except -linea apsera -interchanteric line
AP erect, both shoulders
An acromioclavicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection
Towne method
An anteroposterior 30 degree angle projection utilized for head work
contrecoup
An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as -blowout(floor of orbit) -le Fort(severe bilateral maxillary fractures) -Contrecoup -Contracture(shortening of muscle fibers)
hilus
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the -hilus -carina -root -epiglottis
right main stem bronchus(it is wider than the left. The left is more angled).
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the -right main stem bronchus -left main stem bronchus -esophagus
midcoronal plane
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
0 degrees (perpendicular)
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
2 and 3 only magnification is controlled by OID and SID.
Central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening or self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures
cathartics and cleansing enemas
Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be
NPO after midnight
Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be
1 and 3 only All 3 fat pads are demonstrated in a true lateral only. The 3 are anterior(located anterior to distal humerus, posterior within the olecranon fossa, and supinator located by proximal radius.)
Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90-degree flexion 3. less than 90-degree flexion
superior vena cava
Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the
1, 2 and 3
For the AP projection of the scapula, the 1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body 2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated 3. exposure is made during quiet breathing
midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface
For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter
gastric or bowel mucosa polypoid lesions are seen better with barium and air.
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the -position of organ -size and shape of organ -gastric or bowel mucosa -diverticula
1, 2 and 3 Breathing, body habitus, and position all matter.
During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may very depending on 1. the respiratory phase 2. body habitus 3. patient position
1 and 2 only the filling of ureters and the renal pelvis.
During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces
Right lateral decubitus
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? -AP -Right lateral decubitus -Left lateral decubitus
transverse colon
During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?
2 and 3 only It would depress the diaphragm.
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera
subarachnoid space
During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the -subdural space -subarachnoid space -epidural space
1 and 2 only Don't elevate shoulders. Depress them instead.
Elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include 1. Weight evenly distributed on feet 2. Elevation of the chin 3. Shoulders elevated and rolled forward
1 and 2 only
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum
Dorsal decubitus position
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries? -trendelburg position -Erect -Dorsal decubitius position
CR parallel to floor If it was angled it would appear distorted.
How should a mobile chest exam be performed to demonstrate air fluid levels on a patient seated semi upright about 70 degrees? CR directed 20 cephalad CR directed 20 caudad CR parallel to floor
1, 2 and 3 exam of uterus and cavities
Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position
subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the
occipital bone
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbiomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated? -Occipital -Frontal -Basal Foramina
abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
In the AP axial projection, or bilateral "frog-leg" position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR?
15 degrees caudad to C4
In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed
intervertebral foramina nearest the IR
In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the -Intervertebral foramina nearest the IR -Intervertebral foramina farthest from IR
1 and 3 only The talofibular joint is not visible.
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed
1 and 2 only
In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 2. metatarsals are superimposed 3. talofibular joint should be visualized
-1 only the vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the -vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed -acromion and coracoid process are superimposed -inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs.
1 only The vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs
2 and 3 only
The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. planter surface 2. anterior surface 3. dorsum
tangential metatarsals/toes
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
talofibular joint is best with the 15/20 degree medial oblique. Showing the whole mortise as well.
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
Internal rotation place in lateral position. Greater Tubercle will be superimposed with humeral head.
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head? -Internal -External -AP -Neutral
lateral oblique foot. LOF is good for 1 and 2 metatarsals and spaces. a medial oblique would be best for a sinus tarsi.
In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated? -lateral oblique foot -medial oblique foot -lateral foot
compound
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? -closed -compound -compression -depressed
1, 2 and 3
Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? 1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus 2. Suspected large bowel obstruction 3. Preoperative patients
1, 2 and 3
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate 1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s) 2. air in the pleural cavity 3. foreign body
What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient? RAO LAO Left Lateral Decub PA erect
LAO
parietoacanthal (Water's method) projection
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
2 and 3 only
Shoulder arthrography is performed to 1. evaluate humeral luxation 2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum
male pelvis vs female pelvis
Male = narrow (greater propensity for location and elevation) Female = wider *Difference in which width of sacrum
AP projection
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
Settegast Method
Method used to demonstrate the patella and the femoropatella joint space
2 and 3 only
Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. internal disk lesions 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord 3. posterior disk herniation
Metaphysis (long bone)
The portion of the long bone which it lengthens/grows is -diaphysis(primary ossification center) -epiphysis(secondary ossification center) -metaphysis -apophysis(bony projection without independent ossification center)
1 and 2 only
Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantar flexion 2. abduct 3. oblique
hiatal hernia
The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate
2 only
The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis
2 and 3 only The cervical IV foramina are only present in obliqued.
The CR is parallel it the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s) 1. Lateral cervical spine 2. Lateral thoracic spine 3. Lateral lumbar spine
2 and 3 only
The act of expiration will cause the 1. diaphragm to move inferiorly 2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly 3. diaphragm to move superiorly
aspiration
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as
pelvis
The innominate bone is located in the
bregma
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the -diploe -bregma -pterion
thyroid cartilage
The laryngeal prominence is formed by the
30 degree oblique L5S1 is best for 30. L1 L4 is best for 45 degrees.
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n) -30 degree -45 degree
2 and 3 only
The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. Parallel to the central ray (CR) 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body
hypersthenic
The body habitus having short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach is the
a patent ductus arteriosus(persisit and requires surgical closure)
The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is -arterial septal defect(small hole in septum) -ventricular septal defect(hole that allows O2 in) - a patent ductus arteriosus -coarctation of the aorta(narrow aorta)
pulse
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxationof the heart are called
laminae vertebral arch is formed by 2 pedicles and 2 laminae
The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the -transverse process -laminae -vertebral arches
the nose
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view? -eye -nose -body -neck
eye is the pedicle
The lumbar vertebral pedicle is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? -body -eye -ear
1 and 2 only only a synovial will have a cavity.
The type(s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. Fibrous 2. Cartilaginous 3. Synovial
Hughston Method
knee flexed 40 degrees, CR 15-20 degrees to lower leg
1 and 2 only
The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s) 1. The male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. the male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. The female coccyx is more vertical
The occipital bone
The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except
2 and 3 only
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries
skeletal
The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?
right iliac region The ileocecal valve, cecum, and appendix are located in lower right abdomen.
The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?
nasopharynx
The most proximal protion of the pharynx is the -laryngopharynx -nasopharynx -epiglottis -oropharynx
gender
The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is
metaphysis
The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
serosa outer to inner are Serosa(outermost), muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa(inntermost).
The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the
avoid superimposition on the apices
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to -avoid superimposition of apices -keep MSP parallel
tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method
The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is -PA wrist, radial deviation -tangential wrist, Gaynor hart method
lateral oblique elbow
The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection
apposition=used to describe alignment or misalignment
The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as -angulation -apposition -luxation -sprain
Anterior rim of the right acetabulum. RPO to see acetabulum= Judet method. Oblique 45 degrees.
The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. Left iliac wing 3. posterior rim of right acetabulum
sternal angle is at T5
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the -T2 -T3 -T5
in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and
distal
The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is
turned outward
The term valgus refers to
midsaggittal plane 20 degree to IR. For the intervertebral spaces a lateral position is used.
The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the -coronal plane 90 to IR -midsaggittal plane 20 to IR
yellow marrow red marrow is located in proximal/distal parts of long bones.
The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is -red marrow -yellow marrow
1 and 3 only The MSP must be parallel to IR.
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
paralytic
The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed -paralytic -mechanical -sterile
1 and 2 only
To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should 1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure 2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm 3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105 degree F) to aid in retention
1 and 2 only SID is unrelated to scatter radiation.
To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended? 1. close collimation 2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. decreased SID
direct the CR 5-7 cephalad
To see knee-joint space the radiographer should -direct the CR 5-7 Cephalad -direct the CR 5-7 Caudad
25 to 30 degrees LPO
To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned
respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is -crushed tracheal rings -respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
2 and 3 only Lateral and scaphoid
Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? 1. Medial carpals 2. lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid
2 and 3 only. Epicondyles would be parallel for an AP not a lateral.
Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly
spondylolisthesis spondylitis = inflammation of vertebra Spondylosis = degeneration of vertebra
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it? -Spondylitis -Spondylyloysis -Spondylolithesis
High and horizontal
What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient? -high and vertical -high and horizontal
trochlea
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint? -radial head -capitulum -trochlea
Lateral decubitus, affected side DOWN= Down for fluids.
What position is best for fluid levels in peritoneal cavity? - Lateral decub, affected side up -Lateral decub affected side down
axial plantodorsal projection
What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the planter surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?
dome of the acetabulum
What structure is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis? -dome of acetabulum -femoral neck -greater trocahnter -iliac crest
1, 2 and 3 a 15 angle will lower the pp in the lower 3rd. 2 and 3.
When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids
1 and 2 only 2 exposures must be made, hence 1 and 2 if elbow is in partial flexion.
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular
1 and 3 The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal and the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized.
Which is true regarding a PA projection for the paranasal sinuses? -the OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal -the petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits -the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized.
cardiac apex
Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?
1 and 2 only
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low
heart, trachea, and esophagus are all included.
Which of the following are mediastinal structures? 1. Heart 2. Trachea 3. Esophagus
2 and 3 only
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? 1. The heads of the first row of phalanges 2. The cuboid 3. The cuneiforms
1 and 2 only Condyloid and sellar
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. condyloid 2. sellar 3. Gomphosis
1 and 3 only
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. talotibial 2. talocalcaneal 3. talofibular
hepatic flexure/right colic flexure LPO demonstrates the hepatic flexure farthest from the IR.
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position? -hepatic/right colic flexure -splenic/ left colic flexure -sigmoid colon -ileocecal valve
1 and 2 only
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Patella
2 and 3 only
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. pubis
inferior costal margin(they are at the same plane as L2-3)
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-3? -inferior costal margin -greater trochanter -ASIS
1 and 2 only 1 is a camp coventry 2 is a Beclere 3 is a PA Patella.
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa 2. supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint
Osgood-Schlatter disease(Patellar tendon pulls tibial tuberosity away from tibia) common in adolescents
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? -ewing sarcoma(bone tumor) -Osgood-Schlatter disease -Gout(arthritis) -Exostosis(bony growth arising from surface)
Hydronephrosis(collection of urine in renal pelvis because of obstruction)
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral or stricture? -pyelonephrosis(renal pelvis condition) -nephroptosis(drooping kidneys) -hydronephrosis -cystourethritis(inflammation of bladder and urethra)
1, 2 and 3
Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities 2. A fiberoptic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters
2 and 3 only use tube and log roll.
Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colle's fracture? 1. Transverse fracture of the radial head 2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. Posterior or backward displacement
C-3 to 7 cervical bodies.
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine? 1. C3-7 cervical bodies 2. Intervertebral foramina(seen in oblique 45 degree) 3. zygpophyeal joints(seen in lateral)
tibial plateau is proximal to the intercondyloid fossa. The TP is distal to the tibial condyles and tuberosity.
Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibal plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity
1. Patellar Surface
Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera
1 and 3 only the bony thorax includes 24 ribs, and sternum
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax? 1. Manubrium 2. clavicles 3. 24 ribs
1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. The IOML is parallel to the IR 2. The MSP is parallel to the IR 3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM
1 and 2 only Avoid if dislocation is suspected.
Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected
pulmonary embolism(blockage can cause much strain on right ventricle)
Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? -pneumothorax(air in cavity) -pulmonary embolism -atelectasis(collapsed lung) -Hypoxia(low O2)
flexion and extension laterals
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
1 and 3 only
Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? 1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician 2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.
one and 3 only. An axiolateral should be included. This is a cross table.
Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient with a traumatic hip injury? 1. physician should manipulate leg 2. AP axiolateral projection should be avoided. 3. pelvis should be included in projection
AP or PA through the foramen magnum
Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
AP (medail) oblique
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
medial oblique 15-20 degrees
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise? -medial oblique 15-20 degrees -lateral oblique 15-20 degrees
lateral oblique
Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?
PA oblique scapular Y
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation? -tangential -AP axial -transthoracic lateral -PA oblique Scapular Y
2 and 3 only
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles by perpendicular to the IR? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Internal rotation shoulder
retrograde urography
Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?
1 and 2. The clavicular body and the AC joint.
Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. Clavicular body 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Sternocostal joint
horizontal beam lateral do not move a patient at all if fracture is suspected.
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine? -Oblique cervical spine -AP cervical spine, recumbent -horizontal beam lateral -laterals in extension and flexion
1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? 1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR 2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs 3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field.
1 and 3 only OML is elevated 15 degrees and the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized. This is also known as a Caldwell. in this projection the orbits would fill the lower third of the orbits, not fill them.
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal 2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized
1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true? 1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated 2. Sterile technique is observed 3. MRI can follow x-ray
1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position 2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation 3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions
1, 2 and 3 All 3 are valid for the ball catcher position.
Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is (are) correct? 1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up
1 and 2. The scapular borders are superimposed and an oblique shoulder is obtained. The coronal is 60 degrees from IT, the midsaggittal is 30 degrees.
Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true? 1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR 2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained
2 and 3 only
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbaldder 3. Hepatic flexure
jugular notch
Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae?
1 and 2 only
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1
angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad Body is hypersthenic. High transverse stomach so tube must be angled.
Which of the following techniques would provide a posterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surface of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach? -place patient in RAO 35-40 position -Place in Lateral position -angle 35-45 cephalad -angle 35-45 caudad
AP erect
Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
AP abdomen
Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?
a postpubertal adolescent
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?
Internal rotation AKA lateral position.
Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? -AP -External rotation -Internal rotation -Neutral position
diarthrodial
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
atrial systole includes left ventricle via bicuspid valve and right ventricle via tricuspid valve. 2 and 3. The mitral valve is the same as the bicuspid valve.
atrial systole includes -right ventricle via mitral valve -left ventricle via the bicuspid valve -right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
Sutures of the skull
coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, squamous
Dextrocardia
displacement of the heart to the right
mild side effects of intravenous admin of water soluble iodinated contrast agents include flushed feeling bitter taste urticaria
flushed feeling and bitter taste.
Which of the following barium/air filled strx are demonstrated in RAO? Splenic flexure Hepatic flexure Sigmoid colon ileocecal valve
hepatic flexure closest to IR.
plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
in which of the following positons/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? -dorsoplantar projection of the foot -plantodorsal projection of the os calcis -medial oblique position of the foot -lateral foot
merchant position
in which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant) 2. prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) 3. prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)
Camp Coventry method
intercondylar fossa projection most safe for unsteady patient
The upper expanded part of the ureter is the hilum.
is false.
acromioclavicular joint
joint where acromion and clavicle meet ( joint where highest part of shoulder meets collarbone)
during routine IVU, the oblique position demonstrates kidney on the side up parallel to the IR kidney on the side up perpendicular to the IR
kidney on the side up parallel to the IR.
The apex of the heart is formed by the Left atrium right atrium left ventricle right ventricle
left ventricle
apex of heart
lower tip of the heart(left ventricle)
Beclere method
proper name for AP axial projection of intercondylar fossa of knee using a curved cassette
sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from lungs to heart.
pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aortic valve
right iliac region
see anatomy for more
lateral projection of scapula
see for anatomy of lateral scapula, note vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
Posterior ribs
see ribs
Caldwell Method criteria:
shows orbit rims, maxillae, septim, zygomatics, nasal spine equal orbits to lateral border symmetric petrous ridges at lower 1/3 of the orbits demonstrates ETHMOID SINUSES
Medial Oblique Foot
shows the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal.
Caldwell view
to see frontal sinus
voiding cystourethrogram(the functional study of urination)
which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux? -retrograde urogram(demonstrates anatomy of urinary tract) -intravenous urogram(fxn of urinary tract but not urethra) -voiding cystourethrogram
