Immunology Practice Questions

ACIP recommends the hepatitis A vaccine be administered to all children starting at which age? A. 12 months B. 6 months C. 11 years D. 5 years

A

Based on the adult immunization schedule, at what age is the live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) no longer recommended? A. 65 years B. 19 years C. 27 years D. 50 years

D

The whooping cough associated with pertussis occurs in this stage of disease: A. Catarrhal B. Convalescence C. Initial D. Paroxysmal

D

How is streptococcus pneumoniae primarily transmitted? A. Respiratory droplets or secretions B. Direct contact with an open wound C. Spores in the environment D. Fecal-oral route

A

Which of the following scenarios is an appropriate shared clinical decision-making for meningococcal vaccine? A. Healthy 16 year old who received meningococcal B vaccine B. 29 year old with asplenia who receives MenB vaccine C. 2-year old with complement deficiency who received MenACWY D. 25 year old microbiologist who receives MenACWY

A

A 9 year-old was just diagnosed with asplenia. This child is up to date on all routinely recommended vaccines. Which additional vaccine does this child need? A. Hib B. MenACWY C. MenB D. PCV13

B

DTaP is recommended to be administered using which of the following schedules? A. 7-10 years B. 2, 4, 6, 12-15 months, 4-6 years C. 2, 4, 12-15 months D. 11-12 years

B

If an 11 year old child never got the hepatitis B vaccine series, what is the minimum amount of time that must occur between dose 1 and dose 3 when getting this child caught up? A. 6 months B. 16 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 4 weeks

B

Which of the following is TRUE for the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)? A. PPSV23 relies on T-cell to mount an immune response B. PPSV23 should not be given to children less than 2 years of age C. PPSV23 is routinely recommended for all children D. PPSV23 is a live vaccine

B

Although the primary series for Hib varies between 2-3 doses, all vaccines are recommended to have a booster dose at age: A. A booster is not recommended B. 4-6 years C. 12-15 months D. 2 years

C

What is the recommended timing for Tdap during pregnancy? A. 13-26 weeks B. 1-12 weeks C. 27-36 weeks D. Before pregnancy

C

For which of the following conditions are both PCV13 and PPSV23 recommended? A. Chronic liver disease B. Diabetes C. Alcoholism D. Asplenia

D

Options to increase influenza vaccine effectiveness include: A. Administer in combination with pneumococcal vaccination to boost titer levels. B. Administer high dose influenza vaccination to children ages 2-8 years to ensure appropriate immune response. C. Avoid vaccination in July and August to minimize chances of suboptimal immunity later in the season. D. Receive one influenza vaccination in the fall and one in the spring.

C

Which of the following are true regarding the influenza virus? A. People exposed are contagious within minutes of exposure. B. Only Type B influenza has surface antigens of hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA). C. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets that contain the virus. D. It cannot be transmitted from surfaces.

C

Which of the following diseases have been eradicated worldwide, allowing vaccination to be discontinued? A. Polio B. Tetanus C. Smallpox D. Mumps

C

Using shared clinical decision-making, which of the following recommendation is most appropriate for a 65-year-old living in a skilled nursing facility with multiple co-morbid conditions? This patient has no record of receiving either pneumococcal vaccine and is immune competent. A. PPSV23 only B. PPSV23 now, 1 year later PCV13 C. PCV13 only D. Give PCV13 now, then give PPSV23 one year later.

D

Post-vaccination testing for hepatitis b immunity is recommended for which of the following? A. Adolescents B. Health-care workers C. Men who have sex with men D. IV drug users

B

What is youngest age that hepatitis B vaccine is recommended in infants and children? A. 4 weeks B. At birth C. 6 months D. 1 year

B

Which of the following is true regarding varicella zoster transmission? A. Covering the lesions will prevent chance of transmission to others. B. Period of contagiousness: 1-2 days before rash to 4-7 days later. C. The incidence of varicella disease has remained unchanged since vaccinations became available. D. It is not respiratory transmitted

B

Which vaccine technology listed below is an ingredient added typically to inactivated vaccines to boost its immune response by targeting pathogen recognition receptors that are expressed on dendritic cells to trigger a pro-inflammatory response? Though this technology creates a more robust immune response, it can also increase local site reactions and systemic reactions, such as fevers, chills, and body aches. A.Attenuation B. Adjuvants C. mRNA technology D. Conjugation

B

he community pharmacist, while filling discharge orders from the hospital, recognizes a patient's need for receiving the pneumococcal vaccine during a transition of care to a personal care home. This is an example of what part of the patient care process? A. Implement B. Assess C. Access D. Follow-up, Monitor, and Evaluate

B

When storing vaccines in the refrigerator, pharmacists should: A. Keep vaccines and food on separate shelves. B. Store vaccines on the bottom of the refrigerator. C. Use water bottles to help stabilize temperatures. D. Use dorm-style units.

C

A young adult presenting with swelling of the parotid glands most likely has which of the following diseases: A. Congenital Rubella B. Rubella C. Measles D. Mumps

D

When counseling the parent of a 1-year-old receiving the MMR vaccine, they should be told that their child may get a measles-like rash after how long from vaccination? A. Immediately B. 48 hours C. 6 weeks D. 1 week

D

The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends routine vaccination with the meningococcal conjugated quadrivalent vaccine (MenACWY) in which of the following age groups? A. 11-12 years of age B. 4-6 years of age C. 7-8 years of age D. 2-3 years of age

A

male patient presents to the pharmacy for a shingles vaccine appointment. The patient is a new patient to the pharmacy. Which of the following information would be most appropriate to collect as part of the patient care process? A. Patient's age, current health, vaccine history, and allergies B. Patient's age, eye color, and allergies C. Patient's age and vaccine history D. Current health and allergies

A

Which of the following is the most common type of tetanus? A. Cephalic B. Generalized C. Local D. Neonatal

B

Which of the following vaccines is used as a booster every 10 years? A. DT B. Td C. DTaP D. DTaP-IPV

B

A child received the MMR vaccine when he was 9 months of age before moving out of the country with his parents. He is now 4 years old and about to enter Kindergarten. How many, if any, doses of MMR should the child receive now? A. 1 B. None C. 2 D. 3

C

An adolescent received his first meningococcal conjugate quadrivalent (MenACWY) vaccine at age 13 years, when should he receive his booster dose? A. 14 years B. 20 years C. 16 years D. No booster is needed

C

nder the direction of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, the Healthy People initiative has identified the following as a goal for 2030: A. Increase the proportion of persons who are vaccinated annually against seasonal influenza B. Achieve 95% vaccination for all vaccines on the annual published vaccine schedule C. Develop a single system nationwide for vaccine tracking D. Maintain all goals from 2020 as all goals were achieved

A

A 25-year-old female comes to the pharmacy inquiring about the 9vHPV series. What would be the recommended vaccination series? A. 1 dose administered intramuscularly B. 2 doses administered intramuscularly at 0 and 6-12 months C. Patient is not eligible to receive the vaccine due to age D. 3 doses administered intramuscularly at 0, 1-2, 6 months

D

A 3-year old child recently underwent a splenectomy. Previous to the surgery, the child was up to date on all pediatric vaccinations. According to the CDC, which of the following vaccines should be recommended? A.PCV20 B. PCV15 C. PCV13 D. PPSV23

D

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is best categorized as what type of vaccine? A. Live attenuated vaccine B. Inactivated conjugate vaccine C. Inactivated recombinant vaccine D. Inactivated polysaccharide vaccine

D

Star Pharmacy has been providing influenza vaccines for years and is now implementing a Hepatitis B vaccine program in their pharmacy next month. A crucial step in the Pharmacists' Patient Care Process for this vaccine is: A. Purchase the hepatitis B vaccine. B. Review staffing levels. C. Plan a large marketing event. D. Create a reminder and recall system.

D

What type of vaccine is meningococcal quadrivalent vaccine? A. Conjugate B. Polysaccharide C. Viral vector D. Recombinant

A

Which of the following is a clinical feature of hepatitis B but not hepatitis A? A. Chronic infection B. Dark urine C. Jaundice D. Fulminant hepatitis

A

Which of the following symptoms are usually associated with influenza? A. Sneezing B. Chills C. Nausea/vomiting D. Normal temperature

B

A healthy 70-year-old female who received PPSV23 at 65-years of age is inquiring about pneumococcal vaccination. Which of the following should you recommend? A. PCV13 B. PCV13 now and then PPSV23 1 year later C. No pneumococcal vaccination is recommended. D. PPSV23

C

Which of the following factors does not need to be considered when utilizing shared decision-making to evaluate the need to vaccinate an adult (27-45 years of age) with 9vHPV vaccine? A. Patient's immunocompetency B. Patient's sexual history, including lifetime sexual partners. C. Patient current relationship status D. HPV antibody test results

D

Which of the following is TRUE of the emergency use authorization process? A. Used when approved or licensed alternatives are too expensive B. Clinical trial data are not required C. Risks are not evaluated until long-term safety data is available D. Manufacturers must include a plan for safety monitoring

D

During a public health declared mumps outbreak, a 21-year-old college student with a history of 2 MMR vaccine doses as a child wants to know if she needs a dose of MMR now. Which of the following is the best response? A. Yes, since there is a declared mumps outbreak. B. No, as a third dose of MMR is only for measles outbreaks. C. Yes, since all college students should have 3 doses of MMR. D. No, as a third dose of MMR is only for rubella outbreaks.

A

The whooping cough associated with pertussis occurs in this stage of disease: A. Paroxysmal B. Catarrhal C. Convalescence D. Initial

A

Which of the following complications are correctly matched to the associated condition? A. Postherpetic neuralgia-herpes zoster B. Zoster ophthalmicus-varicella zoster C. Ramsey hunt syndrome-varicella zoster D. Pneumonia-herpes zoster

A

A young adult presenting with swelling of the parotid glands most likely has which of the following diseases: A.Measles B. Rubella C. Mumps D. Congenital Rubella

C

Opportunities for Advocacy and Collaboration include: A. Replace services offered by the local health department so they don't have to offer immunizations B. Membership in state Immunization coalition to serve as an expert on policy and practice issues affecting pharmacy C. Discussion with other health care professionals on ways to set prices for vaccines to increase revenue D. There is no need for advocacy since the vaccine schedules dictate what people need to receive

B

The National Vaccine Advisory Committee 2013 Standards for Adult Immunization Practice and the 2016 International Pharmaceutical Federation global report identify pharmacists as: A. Integral to increasing vaccination rates B. Medication dispensers C. Not a member of the healthcare team D. Only facilitators

A

What percentage of HPV infections are cleared by the body and do not develop to CIN2 or CIN3? A. 70% B. 38% C. 54% D. 92%

A

Which of the following is a potential long term complication from meningococcal disease? A. Amputations B. Photophobia C. Headache D. Stiff neck

A

Which of the following is true regarding risk for COVID-19? A. There has not been an association between number of comorbid conditions and increase in death. B. Older adults and people with underlying medical conditions are some of the patients at highest risk for severe disease and complications. C. Coronary atherosclerosis and other heart disease patients have the highest risk of death. D. In the workforce, only healthcare professionals are flagged as at high risk for exposure.

B

Which of the following is true regarding the recombinant herpes zoster vaccination? A. It cannot be given to someone who has had the varicella vaccine. B. It is indicated for prevention of herpes zoster and its complications in patients ≥50 years of age. C. It should not be given to someone who previously received the zoster vaccine live. D. It is approved as a treatment of herpes zoster if administered within 48 hours of onset of symptoms.

B

Which of the following vaccines contains a synthetic adjuvant? A. Havrix B. Heplisav C. Recombivax D. Engerix

B

Which of the following vaccines listed is a live attenuated vaccine? A. Hepatitis A B. Varicella (VAR) C. Recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV) D. Hepatitis B

B

A 10 year-old child received one dose of the hepatitis A vaccine at 1 year of age, but never returned for a second dose. Which of the following is true regarding the need for a second dose of the hepatitis A vaccine for this child? A. No further doses of hepatitis A vaccine are required B. Wait until the child is 18 years of age and give the second dose if there are other risk factors C. Give 1 dose now as catch up D. Restart the series and give 2 doses , 6 months apart

C

An electronic prescription for glipizide 10mg is received by a pharmacist for a new patient. The prescription indicates a diagnosis of E11, Type 2 diabetes mellitus. In addition to filling the prescription, the pharmacist could assess the patient for potential immunizations to recommend. What form of assessment is the pharmacist utilizing? A. Mass screening B. Occurrence-based screening C. Diagnosis-based screening D. Procedure-based screening

C

Which of the following correctly describes current ACIP recommendations? A. The varicella zoster vaccine should be given at birth. B. The herpes zoster vaccine should be given to patients ≥40 years. C. The varicella zoster vaccine should be given at 12-15 months and 4-6 years of age. D. Patients ≥ 13 years without prior evidence of immunity should only receive one dose of varicella zoster vaccine.

C

Which of the following individuals are contraindicated from receiving the MMR vaccine? A. 30-year-old with asplenia B. 50-year-old with a low platelet count C. 23-year-old in her 3rd trimester D. 75-year-old with COPD

C

Which of the following patient scenarios regarding influenza vaccination is correct? A. A 5-year-old who received one dose of influenza vaccination when they were 3 years old, should receive only one dose this year. B. A 40-year-old who is allergic to eggs would be contraindicated to receive Flublock (RIV4). C. An annual influenza vaccination is recommended for 2 years and older due to being a polysaccharide vaccination. D. A 65-year-old patient with thimerosal allergy would be eligible to receive adjuvanted inactivated Fluad or high dose inactivated Fluzone.

D

Which of the following is one of the five guidelines identified by the APhA Board of Trustees in 2019 to assist pharmacists in incorporating immunization activities into their practice? A. Prevention B. Solidarity C. Quantity D. Power

A

Which of the following is true regarding the use of mRNA in vaccine technology? A. mRNA is the genetic blueprint that tells your body how to make a particular protein subunit of a virus which, after being produced, will elicit an immune response. B. mRNA vaccine technology elicits its immune response and protects the host by altering the host's DNA. C. mRNA is extremely stable in a host's body. D. mRNA vaccine technology requires replication similar to a live attenuated vaccine.

A

Which of the following are true regarding vaccine efficacy and safety for the live varicella vaccine and the recombinant zoster vaccine? A. Systemic grade 3 reactions (preventing normal activities) were lower after dose 2 for the recombinant zoster vaccine. B. Both vaccines have over 90% effectiveness in prevention of disease after two doses. C. Postherpetic neuralgia was not reduced in patients >70 years of age receiving the recombinant zoster vaccine. D. Injection site pain for both vaccines was <5%.

B

Which of the following statements best meets the definition of precaution? A. The risk of vaccinating outweighs the benefits from the vaccine and the patient cannot be vaccinated. B. A compelling indication for the patient to receive a vaccine. C. A condition that may alter or diminish the patient's response or may increase the patient's risk of a serious reaction to a vaccine. D. Condition that will likely result in a severe, life-threatening event if the patient receives the vaccine.

C

Counseling on vaccine safety should include: A. Nasal congestion is common with the influenza vaccine administered intramuscularly. B. Injection site pain should resolve within 5-10 minutes post vaccination. C. A history of severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) to a previous dose or component of influenza vaccine is no longer a contraindication. D. Fever, chills, malaise could occur within 6-12 hours post vaccination and may last up to 1-2 days.

D

Which of the following statements is false regarding polysaccharide and conjugated vaccines? A. Conjugated vaccines link a polysaccharide to a protein that stimulates a wider immune response. B. Conjugated vaccines can be used in children as young as 2 months of age because they stimulate both B cell and T helper cell immune responses. C. Polysaccharide vaccines use carbohydrates found in the external capsule of the bacteria as antigens. D. Polysaccharide vaccines stimulate B cell or humoral responses only, reserving their use for patients over 2 years of age. E. The conjugate protein used, such as diphtheria, can also provide adequate protection against itself in addition to the polysaccharide.

E