Initial Tower Cab, Block 3
FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester FSS, and ___. A. Academy Approach B. Academy Center C. Fort Worth Center D. Academy Tower
A. Academy Approach
What is an example of the phraseology used to tell a pilot what routing to expect beyond a short-range clearance limit if the route differs from what was filed? A. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA VICTOR TEN TULSA B. EXPECT VICTOR TEN TULSA C. EXPECT TO BE CLEARED VIA VICTOR TEN TULSA D. EXPECT TO BE CLEARED TO TULSA ON VICTOR TEN
A. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA VICTOR TEN TULSA
At Academy Tower, Ground Control must pass requests to close VFR flight plans to ___ for relay to the FSS. A. Flight Data B. Clearance Delivery C. Local Control D. Approach Control
A. Flight Data
The phraseology used to assign a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) is ___. A. (SID name and number) DEPARTURE B. DEPARTURE, FLY (runway heading) C. DEPART (direction) D. TURN LEFT/RIGHT
A. (SID name and number) DEPARTURE
When does assumption of the position take place? A. After the specialist being relieved makes a statement that responsibility has been assumed B. After the relieving specialist makes a statement that responsibility has been assumed C. When the specialist being relieved completely answers any questions asked by the relieving specialist D. When the relieving specialist completes the sign-on process
B. After the relieving specialist makes a statement that responsibility has been assumed
What is always included when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS dispatcher? A. Airport of arrival B. Airport of departure C. Route assignment D. Flight strip data
B. Airport of departure
When should radio communications of an aircraft under your control be transferred? A. After the aircraft enters the receiving controller's area of jurisdiction B. Before the aircraft enters the receiving controller's area of jurisdiction C. Upon leaving the receiving controller's area of jurisdiction D. Immediately upon entering your area of jurisdiction
B. Before the aircraft enters the receiving controller's area of jurisdiction
At AAC Airport, what is the correct phraseology to taxi an aircraft from Spartan Aviation, that is requesting an intersection departure? A. CESSNA ONE SEVEN TWO PAPA TANGO, ACADEMY GROUND, RUNWAY ONE ZERO LEFT AT FOXTROT, TAXI VIA INDIA-JULIETT-BRAVO, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY ONE SIX B. CESSNA ONE SEVEN TWO PAPA TANGO, ACADEMY GROUND, RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT AT CHARLIE, TAXI VIA GOLF-BRAVO, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY ONE SIX C. CESSNA ONE SEVEN TWO PAPA TANGO, ACADEMY GROUND, RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT, TAXI VIA GOLF-BRAVO HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY ONE SIX, INTERSECTION DEPARTURE APPROVED D. CESSNA ONE SEVEN TWO PAPA TANGO, ACADEMY TOWER, RUNWAY ONE ZERO LEFT AT FOXTROT, TAXI VIA FOXTROT
B. CESSNA ONE SEVEN TWO PAPA TANGO, ACADEMY GROUND, RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT AT CHARLIE, TAXI VIA GOLF-BRAVO, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY ONE SIX
What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via J104? A. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JAY ONE OH FOUR B. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JAY ONE ZERO FOUR C. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JET TEN FOUR D. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JAY ONE HUNDRED AND FOUR
B. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JAY ONE ZERO FOUR
Ground Control must obtain approval from ___ before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway. A. the supervisor B. Local Control C. the aircraft operator D. Clearance Delivery
B. Local Control
Who must be notified of a departing aircraft that is being taxied to a nonactive runway? A. Team Supervisor B. Local Control C. Departure Control D. Cab Supervisor
B. Local Control
In an emergency situation, an Alert #2 would indicate a(n) ___. A. minor difficulty B. major difficulty C. accident D. oil leak
B. major difficulty
Problems may occur during the position relief briefing when there is heavy reliance on ___. A. checklists B. memory C. training D. written notes
B. memory
Helicopter ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and ___. A. is faster B. minimizes air turbulence C. is easier for the pilot D. keeps the helicopter higher out of the way of ground traffic
B. minimizes air turbulence
When a MARSA procedure is taking place, a controller will provide separation between participating military aircraft and ___. A. aircraft from a different branch of the military B. nonparticipating IFR aircraft C. nonparticipating VFR aircraft D. other military aircraft
B. nonparticipating IFR aircraft
Which of the following consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, extending across the width of the taxiway? A. Emergency holding position markings B. Taxiway holding position markings C. Runway holding position markings D. Intersection holding position markings
C. Runway holding position markings
When you receive information that an emergency landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard, inform the pilot of the ___. A. current density altitude B. nearest airport that has an explosive K9 unit C. safest or least congested airport areas D. nearest runway to the bomb rescue unit
C. safest or least congested airport areas
An aircraft ID may contain up to ___ characters. A. five B. six C. seven D. eight
C. seven
When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for ___. A. all other aircraft under your control jurisdiction B. the aircraft responding to the RA only C. the aircraft responding to the RA and all other aircraft under your control jurisdiction D. all aircraft in Class E airspace
C. the aircraft responding to the RA and all other aircraft under your control jurisdiction
Hold For Release (HFR) instructions are ___. A. issued in the order in which the requests were made B. forwarded to the receiving facility C. used to inform a controller that a departure clearance is not valid D. used to sequence a departure by assigning departure clearance items
C. used to inform a controller that a departure clearance is not valid
What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports an NAVAID malfunction? A. Issue a NOTAM to inform aircraft of the outage B. Report the outage to the appropriate Air Traffic Division Office C. Attempt to repair the NAVAID D. Request a report from a second aircraft
D. Request a report from a second aircraft
During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist verify correctness of information received? A. Preview the position B. Verbal briefing C. Assumption of position responsibility D. Review the position
D. Review the position
An example of the phraseology used to add a transition onto a SID is ___. A. STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE, TRANSITION VIA SPARTA B. TRANSITION VIA SPARTA, STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE C. SPARTA TRANSITION, STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE D. STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE, SPARTA TRANSITION
D. STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE, SPARTA TRANSITION
Departure information for departing aircraft includes braking action for the runway in use when ___. A. the condition of the runway is fair B. piles of snow lie along the edges of the movement area C. the information is reported by arriving aircraft D. braking action advisories are in effect
D. braking action advisories are in effect
Do not issue ___ instructions dependent upon the movement of arrival aircraft on the runway. A. taxi B. proceed C. hold D. conditional
D. conditional
When operating in VFR conditions with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top, aircraft must ___. A. maintain radio contact with ATC at all times B. be in a radar coverage area at all times C. be equipped with transponder and DME equipment D. fly an appropriate VFR altitude for the direction of flight
D. fly an appropriate VFR altitude for the direction of flight
Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ___ helicopters. A. parked B. air taxiing C. running D. hover-taxiing
D. hover-taxiing
A list of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called a ___. A. Status Information Area B. handwritten note C. Standard Operating Procedure D. position relief checklist
D. position relief checklist
Avoid clearances that ___. A. hold aircraft short of taxiways B. taxi aircraft across active runways C. allow helicopters to hover-taxi across an active runway D. require super or heavy jet aircraft to use greater than normal taxiing power
D. require super or heavy jet aircraft to use greater than normal taxiing power
When a taxi clearance to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct ___. A. route B. call sign C. taxiway assignment D. runway assignment
D. runway assignment
A taxi clearance to an assigned takeoff runway authorizes the aircraft to cross all taxiways ___. A. and active runways B. and non active runways C. and runways along the route D. the taxi route intersects
D. the taxi route intersects
In an emergency situation, an Alert #3 would indicate a(n) ___. A. minor difficulty B. major difficulty C. accident D. oil leak
C. accident
Control formation flights as ___. A. a single aircraft B. a MARSA procedure C. an imminent situation D. a heavy jet/B757
A. a single aircraft
During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist review the SIA? A. Preview the position B. Verbal briefing C. Assumption of position responsibility D. Review the position
A. Preview the position
When an emergency occurs on the airport proper, ___. A. control other air and ground traffic to avoid conflicts in the area where the emergency is being handled B. call the appropriate ARTCC and have traffic metered so as to relieve traffic congestion in the emergency area C. issue a NOTAM to restrict arrivals and departures D. advise rescue units to stand by
A. control other air and ground traffic to avoid conflicts in the area where the emergency is being handled
The Status Information Area (SIA) ___. A. displays current position-related information B. standardizes a method for carrying out position relief C. lists items to be covered during a position relief briefing D. ensures that the relieving controller is not subject to excessive workload
A. displays current position-related information
Helicopter movement above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL, is called ___. A. hover-taxiing B. air taxiing C. ground taxiing D. taxiing
A. hover-taxiing
When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT ___. A. issue control instructions contrary to that advisory B. issue control instructions C. clear the aircraft to land until the RA is no longer in effect D. transfer control of the aircraft to another controller
A. issue control instructions contrary to that advisory
Whenever an arriving aircraft is inside the ILS Outer Marker (OM) or the fix used in lieu of the OM, do not authorize vehicles/aircraft to operate in the ILS critical area when conditions are a reported ceiling ___ feet or visibility ___ miles. A. less than 800; less than 2 B. less than 1,000; less than 3 C. 800; 2 D. 1,000; 3
A. less than 800; less than 2
A controller's responsibility for applying Traffic Management initiatives and programs do NOT have priority over ___. A. maintaining separation of aircraft B. coordinating transfer of control aircraft with other controllers C. maintaining tower/TRACON equipment D. performing additional services
A. maintaining separation of aircraft
SVFR operations in weather less than VFR minima are authorized when ___. A. requested by the pilot B. operationally advantageous C. specified in a Letter of Agreement D. requested in Class A airspace
A. requested by the pilot
When giving or receiving a position relief briefing, a specialist should NOT ___. A. rush B. take written notes C. point out inaccuracies D. ask questions
A. rush
After the relieving specialist indicates to the specialist being relieved that the position has been previewed, ___ may begin. A. verbal briefing B. position handoff C. sign-on/off procedures D. equipment checks
A. verbal briefing
Controllers are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priority duties, radar limitations, traffic volume, and ___. A. workload B. Traffic Management initiatives C. scheduled meal breaks D. coverage of additional services in an LOA or facility directive
A. workload
What is the minimum ground visibility required for fixed-wing SVFR operations (excluding scheduled air carrier)? A. 1/2 SM B. 1 SM C. 2 SM D. 3 SM
B. 1 SM
If the altimeter is 29.89, what is the lowest usable flight level? A. 180 B. 190 C. 200 D. 210
B. 190
At Academy Tower, an emergency with low hydraulic pressure is considered an Alert #___. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
B. 2
Issue the measured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded down to the nearest ___ feet to any pilot who requests and to all military aircraft. A. 10 B. 50 C. 100 D. 500
B. 50
Aircraft assigned an EDCT should depart as close as possible to the EDCT but NO earlier than ___ minutes before and NO later than ___ minutes after the EDCT. A. 3; 30 B. 5; 5 C. 10; 20 D. 15; 15
B. 5; 5
When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated for an aircraft under your control? A. When the other controller is on a break B. Prior to entering the other controller's airspace C. Immediately upon entering the other controller's airspace D. Upon exiting the other controller's airspace
B. Prior to entering the other controller's airspace
Who conducts the verbal briefing? A. The relieving specialist B. The specialist being relieved C. The supervisor D. Both the supervisor and the relieving specialist
B. The specialist being relieved
One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delays is ___. A. flight cancellation B. altitude C. runway construction D. speed control
B. altitude
Which of the following is NOT a use of CRU-X information? A. generate supporting documents for Time and Attendance purposes B. assign a specialist to update the Status Information Area C. record the OJTI, evaluator time, and premium pay D. determine position responsibility
B. assign a specialist to update the Status Information Area
What should be specified when NOT included in the SID? A. Route B. Separation C. Altitude D. ATIS
C. Altitude
Which of the following is an example of the correct phraseology used to request an aircraft to hold short of a runway? A. CESSNA FOUR NOVEMBER BRAVO, HOLD AT RUNWAY TWO EIGHT LEFT AT TAXIWAY ALPHA B. AMERICAN SIX THIRTEEN, STOP AT RUNWAY ONE ZERO LEFT AT TAXIWAY FOXTROT C. CHEYENNE THREE FOUR TANGO, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT AT TAXIWAY CHARLIE FOR LANDING TRAFFIC D. PIPER SIX PAPA MIKE, STOP SHORT OF RUNWAY ONE ZERO RIGHT AT TAXIWAY GOLF
C. CHEYENNE THREE FOUR TANGO, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT AT TAXIWAY CHARLIE FOR LANDING TRAFFIC
What is an example of the phraseology used for an abbreviated departure clearance? A. CLEARED TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT VIA FLIGHT PLAN ROUTE, MAINTAIN ONE ONE THOUSAND B. CLEARED VIA FLIGHT PLAN ROUTE TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT, MAINTAIN ONE ONE THOUSAND C. CLEARED TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT AS FILED. MAINTAIN ONE ONE THOUSAND D. CLEARED AS FILED TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT, MAINTAIN ONE ONE THOUSAND
C. CLEARED TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT AS FILED. MAINTAIN ONE ONE THOUSAND
When the Academy FDIO is OTS, what action must be taken by the FD position? A. Find an alternate source for weather B. Write out GI messages by hand C. Copy/request IFR clearances D. Include the outage on the next ATIS
C. Copy/request IFR clearances
At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checklist from ___. A. Flight Data B. Clearance Delivery C. Local Control D. Flight Service
C. Local Control
A ___ must be made for any occurrence involving air traffic services for which the collection of associated safety-related data and conditions is mandatory. A. Minimum Delay Report B. Unsatisfactory Report C. Mandatory Occurrence Report D. Comprehensive Electronic Data Analysis
C. Mandatory Occurrence Report
When you believe an aircraft is experiencing a communications failure, broadcast clearances through an available means of communication, including the voice feature of ___. A. ATIS B. ARTS C. NAVAIDs D. ASDE
C. NAVAIDs
When can you assume control of an aircraft being transferred to you? A. Prior to the aircraft entering your area of jurisdiction unless an alternate procedure is specified in an LOA or facility directive B. When workload permits C. Only after the aircraft enters your area of jurisdiction unless specifically coordinated or specified in an LOA or facility directive D. Only after the supervisor/CIC has approved the transfer
C. Only after the aircraft enters your area of jurisdiction unless specifically coordinated or specified in an LOA or facility directive
Before observing the operational situation and work environment that you are to relieve, you should review the ___. A. facility's Standard Operating Procedures B. orders pertaining to the position C. Status Information Area D. position log
C. Status Information Area
Ground Control must ensure stripmarking is completed for instructions or ___ issued or received. A. coordination B. authorization C. clearances D. messages
C. clearances
Do not issue the word ___ in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. A. taxi B. proceed C. cleared D. hold
C. cleared
Both specialist are equally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the ___. A. Status Information Area B. position relief checklist C. position relief briefing D. handwritten notes
C. position relief briefing
What is the purpose of the four-step position relief briefing process? A. To ensure that the most qualified person relieves the position B. To ensure that traffic continues to flow during the position relief briefing C. To ensure complete transfer of information D. To ensure that the SIA is updated
C. To ensure complete transfer of information
What is an example of the phraseology used for amending an altitude in a previously issued clearance? A. UNITED SIX SIXTY SIX, CHANGE ALTITUDE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO B. UNITED SIX SIXTY SIX, CANCEL PREVIOUS ALTITUDE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO. C. UNITED SIX SIXTY SIX, AMEND ALTITUDE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO. D. UNITED SIX SIXTY SIX, AMEND CLEARANCE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO.
C. UNITED SIX SIXTY SIX, AMEND ALTITUDE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO.
When are traffic advisories NOT provided to an aircraft? A. When the aircraft is in Class E airspace or omission is requested by the pilot B. Any time the aircraft is in VFR flight conditions C. When the aircraft is in Class A airspace or omission is requested by the pilot D. When the pilot states the phrase HAVE NUMBERS
C. When the aircraft is in Class A airspace or omission is requested by the pilot
When must you issue a safety alert? A. Once every hour B. When, in your judgment, the pilot of an aircraft is inexperienced and may not be capable of anticipating unsafe situations C. When you observe an aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft D. Only when flight conditions are IFR
C. When you observe an aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft
An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and ___. A. issuance of traffic advisories B. updating of flight plans C. issuance of safety alerts D. maintenance of NAVAIDs
C. issuance of safety alerts
Request a readback of runway hold short instructions when ___. A. it is requested by the local controller B. a taxi clearance to an assigned runway has been made C. it is not received from the pilot/vehicle operator D. FRC appears on the flight progress strip
C. it is not received from the pilot/vehicle operator
A determination can be made as to whether an aircraft on the ground has an operable receiver, but NO transmitter, by asking the pilot to ___. A. rock the wings B. transmit on emergency frequency C. move the rudders D. make a hand signal
C. move the rudders
When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine the ___. A. nature and cost of special handling desired B. cause of and possible solution to the equipment malfunction C. nature and extent of special handling desired D. model and manufacturer of malfunctioning equipment
C. nature and extent of special handling desired
What phraseology is used to amend a previously issued clearance? A. CLEARED TO NEW ROUTING VIA (amended information) B. CLEARED TO CHANGE ROUTE VIA (amended information) C. CHANGE ROUTE TO READ (amendment to route) D. (Amendment to route), REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED
D. (Amendment to route), REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED
What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via V14? A. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VEE ONE FOUR B. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA VEE FOURTEEN C. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VICTOR FOURTEEN D. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA VICTOR FOURTEEN
D. CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA VICTOR FOURTEEN
Local Control must verbally specify a runway to be crossed preceded by the word(s) ___. A. APPROVED B. CLEARED C. APPROVED AS REQUESTED D. CROSS
D. CROSS
What is the phraseology used to issue the time a pilot can expect to start engines when gate hold procedures are in effect? A. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (time) B. WILL ADVISE OF ENGINE START UP AT (time) C. START ENGINES AT (time) D. EXPECT ENGINE START (time)
D. EXPECT ENGINE START (time)
Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Clearance Delivery position? A. Issuing departure clearances B. Passing the strip when clearance has been issued C. Conducting and receiving position relief briefings D. Ensuring separation of aircraft
D. Ensuring separation of aircraft