ITA FINAL
T/F: Intra-abdominal pressure provided by contraction of the diaphragm, pelvic floor muscles, and transverse abdominis converts the trunk into a strong structure that protects the spine.
True
T/F: It can take more than a year for an injured part to achieve maximal tensile strength.
True
T/F: Joint mobilization for mobility gains are usually included in phase II of the rehabilitation program.
True
T/F: Not everyone with a sprained ankle will go through the same rehabilitation program.
True
T/F: Periodic measurement of girth, range of motion, muscle strength, endurance, power, and cardiovascular fitness will determine if progress is occurring in the therapeutic exercise program.
True
T/F: Phase II of a therapeutic exercise program focuses on regaining any deficits in range of motion and stimulating proprioception.
True
T/F: Plasticity relates to the ability of a substance to undergo a permanent change in size or shape.
True
T/F: Poor core stability can reduce the body's efficiency during movement.
True
T/F: Proprioception and balance training must be incorporated into a rehabilitation program to help the athlete maintain postural stability.
True
T/F: Range of motion and flexibility are terms that are commonly used interchangeably but do not mean the same thing.
True
T/F: Rhythmic stabilization uses an isometric contraction of the agonist muscles, followed by an isometric contraction of the antagonist muscles.
True
T/F: The GTO inhibits muscle contraction if a stretch is applied slowly
True
T/F: The mental aspects of how an individual deals with an injury are a critical yet often neglected factor in the rehabilitation process.
True
T/F: The multifidus contracts when the transverse abdominis activates in normal persons, but this is not usually the case in persons with a history of back pain.
True
T/F: The number of capillaries in a wound decreases during the remodeling phase.
True
T/F: The primary goal of the third phase of rehabilitation is to fully restore strength, endurance and power of the injured part, as well as the entire body.
True
T/F: The sequence of progressive exercises lies on a continuum that begins with flexibility and ROM exercises and progresses to strengthening and balance exercises and finally to coordination, agility, plyometric, and performance-specific exercises.
True
The growth of new blood vessels is called ________________.
angiogenesis
Which phase of plyometric training is characterized by all the exercises having a longer transition time from eccentric to concentric muscle action? a. Submaximal phase b. Preparatory phase c. Maximal phase
b. Preparatory phase
Which of the following can be defined as the movement of a body part though an arc of motion with active muscular contraction against a graded resistance? a. AROM b. RROM c. AAROM d. PROM
b. RROM
You have a patient assume a prone-lying position and prop symmetrically on his forearms. You apply manual resistance in several directions at the shoulder girdles as you ask the patient to hold (maintain) the symmetrical position. This technique is known as: a. Repeated contractions. b. Rhythmic stabilization. c. Recurrent facilitation. d. Agonist-contraction
b. Rhythmic stabilization.
Which of the following motions occur when one point on one surface meets a new point on the opposing surface? a. Swing b. Roll c. Spin d. Glide
b. Roll
What plane of movement should plyometric exercises begin in before progression? a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Plane of movement does not matter when beginning plyometric exercise d. Transverse
b. Sagittal
Which of the following is an individual with a high body mass index is more likely to have range of motion limitations from? a. Scar tissue formation b. Soft tissue approximation c. Bony block d. Loose bodies
b. Soft tissue approximation
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: Cybex, Biodex
isokinetic
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: Provides muscle overload throughout ROM
isokinetic
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: Joint angle maintained
isometric
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: static strength
isometric
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: Exercises multiple joints simultaneously
isotonic
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: Free weights
isotonic
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: Resistance is greatest in the muscle's midrange
isotonic
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: Variable speed through a ROM
isotonic
isometric, isotonic, isokinetic: elastic tubing
isotonic
difference between local and global muscles
local: stabilization, global: movement
__________________________ are specialized afferent nerve endings that respond to mechanical stimulation such as pressure, tension, and vibration.
mechanoreceptors
_____________ respond to the stretch of a muscle. Its stimulation results in muscle ________________.
muscle spindles, contraction
Joint mobilization is usually initiated in a ___________-packed position to produce the most effective results.
open
active cell for bone
osteocyte
_______________________ principle is the name of the principle in which the body must perform more work than it is used to in order to see progressive benefits?
overload
misfeasance
performing an act that is legal but not properly performed
battery
physical contact with somebody without consent
F/T: To maintain stability after impact, an athlete's center of gravity should be shifted toward the oncoming force.
true
T/F: A factor that determines muscle output is the number of muscle fibers activated.
true
T/F: A factor that determines muscle strength is the joint's angle.
true
T/F: A factor that determines muscle strength is the muscle's cross-sectional size.
true
T/F: A factor that determines muscle strength is the muscle's fiber arrangement.
true
T/F: A factor that determines muscle strength is the muscle's length.
true
T/F: All PNF extremity movements incorporate rotation and diagonal patterns.
true
T/F: An athlete can increase his stability by increasing the size of the supporting base, centralizing his line of gravity within the base of support, and lowering his center of gravity.
true
T/F: Each strengthening exercise should have a goal and a reason for inclusion in a therapeutic exercise program.
true
T/F: Eccentric contractions are critical for deceleration of limb motion, especially during high-velocity dynamic activities.
true
T/F: Generally, the faster the rate of muscle contraction, the greater the internal resistance, so the muscle cannot produce as much external force as it can when the muscle contracts more slowly.
true
T/F: Irrespective of the type of base, stability is increased if an athlete's supporting base is enlarged in the direction in which force is being received or applied.
true
T/F: It is recommended that the athlete be able to squat 60% of his or her body weight for five repetitions before instituting an aggressive plyometric program.
true
T/F: Low-resistance, high-repetition strengthening exercises are commonly used in the early phases of rehabilitation to reduce the application of excessive stress.
true
T/F: More shear stress is placed on the knee in open-chain terminal extension than in closed-chain terminal extension.
true
T/F: Pain should be avoided during therapeutic exercise programs for strengthening.
true
T/F: Recovery from isometric activity occurs more rapidly than from isotonic activity.
true
T/F: Strength improves because of the production of an overload of exercise resistance for the muscles.
true
T/F: The goal of the amortization phase is to rapidly move from eccentric to concentric motion to facilitate the transfer of elastic energy in order to increase force production.
true
T/F: The greater the force resisted, the more quickly muscle fatigue occurs.
true
True or False? The results of a manual muscle test (MMT) are negated if the contraction causes pain.
true
At the time an injury occurs, there is a brief period of ____________________ followed by _______________________ .
vasoconstriction, vasodilation
Primary mechanisms of hemostasis in response to an injury include ________________ in response to pain, ________________ that lasts for several seconds to minutes, and a platelet response caused by the release of serotonin and thromboxane that leads to a temporary _________________.
vasospasm, vasoconstriction, platelet plug
Which of the following tests requires the patient to stand with feet together and arms at the side with eyes open and then closed for 20 seconds each? A. Romberg test B. Balance Error Scoring System test C. Single-leg stance test D. Functional reach test
..
__________ is the ability to detect movement.
...
_______________ the body's ability to detect and sense limb position and movement providing a conscious awareness of motion and location of body parts in space
...
Identify the three primary factors related to increased tensile strength of the scar matrix during scar maturation.
1. Collagen transition 2. increased number of stronger collagen cross-links 3. linear alignment of collagen fibers
Which of the following is not a distal attachment site for the external oblique? A. Thoracolumbar fascia B. Linea alba C. Iliac crest D. Pubis
A. Thoracolumbar fascia
Which type of collagen has large fiber sizes, a large number of intermolecular cross links, and an organized fiber orientation? A. Type I B. Type III C. Type II
A. Type I
A soccer player sees that an opponent is about to collide with her. To maintain balance, she would use which of the following types of neuromuscular control? A. anticipatory B. adaptive C. reactive
A. anticipatory
The continual, simultaneous processes of collagen production and collagen degradation is termed: A. collagen turnover B. fibrolysis C. collagen synthesis D. fibrogenesis
A. collagen turnover
Progression of a rehabilitation program coincides with the A. healing of the tissue B. physician's personal preferences C. age of the patient D. type of injury sustained
A. healing of the tissue
A key muscle that provides stability to the spine is the A. transverse abdominis B. trapezius C. quadriceps group
A. transverse abdominis
the progression of events leading to secondary hypoxic/ischemic injury once a soft tissue injury
1. Vasodilation and increased cell permeability result in exudation and increased blood viscosity 2. Edema formation - fluid collection outside of vessels in interstitial spaces due to vascular and cellular responses 3. Increased interstitial pressure - excess fluid (edema) creates increased pressure 4. Ischemia - increased pressure reduces the flow of blood 5. Hypoxia - decreased blood supply lowers available oxygen 6. cellular necrosis - inadequate oxygen levels results in tissue death
Synthesis of Type III collagen begins within ______ hours after injury with significant deposition in the damaged area within _____ days.
24, 4
Which of the following is an example of using the "cause of the cause" principle? A. A baseball pitcher complaining of shoulder pain should be treated for the factors that cause the shoulder pain, such as dysfunctional mechanics, rather than just treating the shoulder pain B. When a football player tears his Achilles tendon, all objective findings should be grouped together to look for a common cause instead of considering each finding individually C. When considering the history of a tennis player with hip pain, each part of her history is equally important and all parts, no matter how insignificant, should be considered when evaluating her and making a diagnosis D. A long jumper complaining of knee pain should be treated with a combination of therapeutic exercise and therapeutic modalities to return to activity as soon as safely possible.
A. A baseball pitcher complaining of shoulder pain should be treated for the factors that cause the shoulder pain, such as dysfunctional mechanics, rather than just treating the shoulder pain
Which of the following would not be marked as an error when taking the Balance Error Scoring System test? A. Abducting hip 15 degrees B. Taking a hand off the hip C. Opening eyes D. Rear foot coming up off the ground
A. Abducting hip 15 degrees
To develop a plan of treatment, the rehabilitation clinician must identify the patient's rehabilitation diagnosis. A differential diagnosis is the basis from which the rehabilitation diagnosis is selected. The clinician must be able to ____________ to create a differential diagnosis. A. All of the these B. recognize signs, symptoms, and causes of various diagnoses C. use deductive reasoning to identify the correct rehabilitation diagnosis D. compare the patient's signs, symptoms, and history with those of known conditions
A. All of the these
Which of the following does not serve as a distal attachment for the internal oblique? A. Anterior superior iliac spine B. Iliopsoas fascia C. Inguinal ligament D. Iliac crest
A. Anterior superior iliac spine
Failure to receive informed consent from an athlete before providing treatment could result in A. Battery B. Gross negligence C. Misfeasance D. Malpractice
A. Battery
How often must a patient be evaluated after the initial evaluation? A. Before and after every subsequent treatment B. At least once per week C. At least three times per week D. Before every subsequent treatment
A. Before and after every subsequent treatment
As related to the biological events of connective tissue repair, substances such as serotonin, histamine, and prostaglandins are most accurately described as: A. Chemical mediators B. Growth factors C. Coagulation factors D. Vitamins
A. Chemical mediators
Which of the following is not true about the psoas major muscle? A. Contraction decreases spinal compression B. Provides stability to the spine during hip flexion C. Contributes to static pelvic posture affecting the lumbar spine D. Provides stability to the pelvis during hip flexion
A. Contraction decreases spinal compression
__________ are found near the musculotendinous junction and they monitor muscle __________. A. Golgi tendon organs; tension B. Muscle spindles; stretch C. Muscle spindles; tension D. Golgi tendon organs; stretch
A. Golgi tendon organs; tension
Following an injury or surgery, when should the rehabilitation process be initiated? A. Immediately after B. When pain subsides C. 24 hours later D. 3 to 4 days later
A. Immediately after
What is the correct progression order of fracture healing? A. Inflammation, soft callus formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling B. Inflammation, hard callus formation, soft callus formation, bone remodeling C. Inflammation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling, soft callus formation D. Inflammation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation, soft callus formation
A. Inflammation, soft callus formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling
Which of the following muscles acting on the core has attachments from spinous process to spinous process? A. Interspinales B. Multifidus C. Longissimus D. Intertransversarii
A. Interspinales
Of the following, which is true regarding collagen? A. It is synthesized by fibroblasts. B. It is the principal component of ground substance. C. It is formed by the conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen. D. Type III is stronger than Type I
A. It is synthesized by fibroblasts.
When performing core stability, which of the following is incorporated with static stability? A. Maintaining posture B. Coordination of endurance C. Production of movement D. Coordination of flexibility
A. Maintaining posture
Treatment outcomes can be used to __________________. A. Rationalize treatment and evaluate the effectiveness of a facility's or individual's treatment B. Evaluate the effectiveness of a facility's or individual's treatment C. Establish national evaluation of care D. Rationalize treatment
A. Rationalize treatment and evaluate the effectiveness of a facility's or individual's treatment
Which of the following muscles does not make up the abdominal wall? A. Rectus abdominis B. Transverse abdominis C. External obliques D. Internal obliques
A. Rectus abdominis
Which of the following systems primarily provides feedback regarding the body's position in space relative to other body parts? A. Somatosensory B. Auditory C. Visual D. Vestibular
A. Somatosensory
Which of the following is not true regarding the feedback and feed forward mechanisms of the somatosensory system? A. The feedback mechanism has no delay in motor response B. Feedback requires sensory information to be used by the CNS to coordinate muscle activity C. Feedback is a reactive response while feed forward is a preparatory response D. Feed-forward allows you to tense your muscles to prevent injury based on your prior knowledge
A. The feedback mechanism has no delay in motor response
Mechanoreceptors are located throughout the body in muscles, tendons, and joints to provide sensory awareness of: A. The position of a joint B. The rate of movement at a joint C. The temperature of a joint D. The pain in a joint
A. The position of a joint
Which of the following is not true concerning the rectus abdominis muscle? A. The primary function is stabilization of the core. B. The muscle is sectioned by intramuscular tendons. C. It has a proximal attachment on the xiphoid process. D. It has a distal attachment on the pubic rami.
A. The primary function is stabilization of the core.
During the repair process following tissue injury, the newly developing collagen fibrils are: A. Thin and unorganized B. Laid down in alignment exactly replicating the fibers that were damaged C. Slow to be deposited D. Ready to withstand normal stresses by 3 weeks
A. Thin and unorganized
List each factor associated with the SAID Principle. SAID principle - Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands
Ability of the body to adapt to stress and overload imposed on it overtime Too much stress indications Healing progresses - exercise intensity increases
When an injury causes cell membranes to rupture, what happens as a direct result of intracellular proteins entering the extracellular matrix? A. Neutrophils cause vasodilation B. Mast cells release histamine C. Injured cells release cytokines D. Monocytes migrate to the injured area
B. Mast cells release histamine
When writing short-term treatment goals for a patient, what's the maximum amount of time it should take to achieve the goal? A. 1 week B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 4 weeks
B. 2 weeks
Angiogenesis and the formation of a new vascular network begins to form in the tissue matrix at what time period? A. 24-48 hours B. 48-72 hours C. 7-10 days D. 2-4 months
B. 48-72 hours
An individual can move into phase 3 of the rehabilitation program when what percentage of normal passive and active range of motion is achieved? A. 70% B. 80% C. 60% D. 90%
B. 80%
Input for the overall motor system is required from all but which of the systems? A. Visual B. Auditory C. Somatosensory D. Vestibular
B. Auditory
Which of the following is not true about the thoracolumbar fascia? A. Provides stabilization B. Has its distal attachment on the anterior superior iliac spine C. Has its proximal attachment on L1 to L4 spinous processes D. Provides proprioceptive feedback
B. Has its distal attachment on the anterior superior iliac spine
_________ is the first chemical mediator to appear during the inflammatory stage of tissue healing. A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. Bradykinin D. Heparin
B. Histamine
When defining core stability, which of the following is not true concerning local stability? A. Involves deep, intrinsic muscles of abdominal wall B. Involves prime movers of trunk flexion C. Involves muscles associated with segmental stability of the lumbar spine D. All are true about local stability.
B. Involves prime movers of trunk flexion
Which of the following is not suggested when performing core stabilization exercises? A. Focus on strength and endurance of core muscles B. Isolate and work on one muscle at a time C. Avoid loaded end range of motions D. Encourage abdominal bracing during activity
B. Isolate and work on one muscle at a time
Which of the following areas does not need to be addressed before starting a core strengthening program? A. Core flexibility B. Lower extremity endurance C. Lower extremity flexibility D. Core endurance
B. Lower extremity endurance
Which type of collagen has smaller fiber size, few intermolecular cross links, and a more randomized fiber organization? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III
C. Type III
Which of the following statements is true of joint mechanoreceptors? A. Merkel's corpuscles respond to deep pressure faster than Pacinian corpuscles B. Meissner's corpuscles in the skin are activated by light touch C. Pacinian corpuscles in the joint respond to noxious stimuli D. Ruffini's corpuscles respond to extreme mechanical, thermal, or chemical energy
B. Meissner's corpuscles in the skin are activated by light touch
Which of the following is not a joint receptor located within the ligaments and capsule surrounding joints? A. Free nerve endings B. Merkel cells C. Ruffini receptors D. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Merkel cells
Which of the following muscles can improve core stability the most when strengthened? A. Rectus abdominis B. No individual muscle can adequately stabilize the core. C. Erector spinae D. Obliques
B. No individual muscle can adequately stabilize the core.
Which aspect of the somatosensory system is being tested when a patient's eyes are closed, the clinician places the ankle in plantar flexion, and the patient correctly identifies that the ankle has been placed in a plantar flexed position? A. Neither kinesthesia or proprioception B. Proprioception C. Both kinesthesia and proprioception D. Kinesthesia
B. Proprioception
What muscle is considered the forgotten muscle of the core? A. Iliocostalis B. Quadratus lumborum C. Transverse abdominis D. Longissimus
B. Quadratus lumborum
Discussions on how to progress an athlete through a rehabilitation program should be based on: A. The desire and compliance of the athlete B. The healing process C. The range of motion of the joint D. The strength of the musculature
B. The healing process
What three things belong in the same part of a SOAP note? A. The strength testing results, the joint specific testing results, and the patient's treatment plan B. The patient's diagnosis, the problem list, and the treatment goals C. The patient's chief complaint, the neurological examination results, and the special test results D. The patient's past medical history, the mechanism of injury, and the findings from palpation
B. The patient's diagnosis, the problem list, and the treatment goals
Mechanoreceptors are located throughout the body in muscles, tendons, and joints to provide sensory awareness of: A. The temperature of a joint B. The position of a joint C. The pain in a joint D. The rate of movement at a joint
B. The position of a joint
What system is most important in maintaining balance when the environment surrounding the patient is static? A. Vestibular B. Visual C. Somatosensory D. Auditory
B. Visual
Which of the following systems primarily provides feedback regarding the patient's position in space? A. Somatosensory B. Visual C. Vestibular D. Auditory
B. Visual
Which of the following indicates that a rehabilitation activity has been more than the patient's injury can tolerate? A. increased pain in the area B. all of these C. new swelling developed after the treatment session D. a decrease in performance ability since the last treatment session
B. all of these
Phase IV of a rehabilitation program coincides with the _____________ phase(s) of healing. A. early proliferation B. remodeling C. late proliferation D. inflammation
B. remodeling
Which of the following systems primarily provides feedback regarding the position of the head? A. Visual B. Somatosensory C. Vestibular D. Auditory
C. Vestibular
At most, how long can the remodeling/maturation phase of tissue healing typically take? A. 18 months B. 12 months C. 24 months D. 6 months
C. 24 months
Which of the following components should be focused on when designing a rehabilitation program for the core? A. Neuromuscular control B. Muscular endurance C. All components should be focused on. D. Muscular strength
C. All components should be focused on.
Which of the following muscles is not activated during the abdominal bracing technique? A. External oblique B. Internal oblique C. All three are activated by the abdominal bracing technique. D. Transverse abdominis
C. All three are activated by the abdominal bracing technique.
Which of the following structures does not contain proprioceptive fibers? A. Joint B. Tendon C. Bone D. Muscle
C. Bone
What is the main function of the multifidus muscles? A. Flexion B. Side bending C. Extension D. Rotation
C. Extension
What muscle is responsible for flexion, side bending, and rotation to the opposite side? A. Transverse abdominis B. Rectus abdominis C. External oblique D. Internal oblique
C. External oblique
Which of the following muscles is not activated during the abdominal hollowing technique? A. Transverse abdominis B. Internal oblique C. External oblique D. All three are activated by the abdominal hollowing technique.
C. External oblique
Which of the following time periods accurately portrays the typical duration of the fibroblastic repair phase? A. From 4 days to 3 weeks B. From time of injury to 4 days C. From 4 days to 6 weeks D. From 6 weeks to 2 years
C. From 4 days to 6 weeks
Which of the following statements is true of the maturation-remodeling phase of healing? A. It is the shortest phase of healing. B. It involves the initial formation of a delicate connective tissue called granulation tissue. C. It involves a decrease in Type III collagen fibers and an increase in Type I fibers. D. It is characterized by a decrease in the tensile strength of the scar matrix.
C. It involves a decrease in Type III collagen fibers and an increase in Type I fibers.
When asking about the characteristics of symptoms, the athletic trainer should determine A. Previous injuries, congenital abnormalities, and family history B. Limitations in sport, occupational, and ADL's C. Location, onset, severity, frequency, and duration D. Location, onset, limb position, and direction of force
C. Location, onset, severity, frequency, and duration
Which of the following statements is not true regarding mechanoreceptors? A. The information sent from mechanoreceptors is used to make voluntary motor control decisions B. Mechanoreceptors send information through monosynaptic pathways to the spinal cord C. Mechanoreceptors send information through monosynaptic pathways to the brain D. The information sent from mechanoreceptors is used to make unconscious motor control decisions
C. Mechanoreceptors send information through monosynaptic pathways to the brain
Which of the following muscles acting on the core has proximal attachments to the spinous processes and progress distally to attach at different sites on the mamillary process, iliac crest, and sacrum? A. Interspinales B. Intertransversarii C. Multifidus D. Longissimus
C. Multifidus
How is muscle healing different from other types of soft tissue healing? A. Surgery is usually required to make the ends of ruptured muscle stay close together. B. Satellite cells make collagen unnecessary, so it is not present in healing muscle tissue. C. Muscle fibers are regenerated at the same time that scar tissue forms. D. There is no scar tissue formation in muscle as long as healing muscle tissue is not disturbed.
C. Muscle fibers are regenerated at the same time that scar tissue forms.
The feed forward mechanism of the somatosensory system incorporates ____ experience in the production of a motor response for ____ muscle activity. A. Current; reactionary B. Current; preparatory C. Past; preparatory D. Past; reactionary
C. Past; preparatory
What are the two primary functions of neutrophils? A. Cause vasodilation and increased blood vessel permeability B. Release of oxygen and cause swelling C. Phagocytosis and release of cytokines
C. Phagocytosis and release of cytokines
Which of the following is a correct list of nutrients needed for normal fracture healing? A. Calcium, amino acids, vitamin A, vitamin D B. Calcium, phosphorus, vitamin B, vitamin C C. Protein, phosphorus, calcium, vitamin D D. Protein, calcium, vitamin A, vitamin C
C. Protein, phosphorus, calcium, vitamin D
Which of the following tests requires the patient to maintain balance while standing on one leg with progressive challenges to the visual and somatosensory systems? A. Romberg test B. Functional reach test C. Single-leg stance test D. Balance Error Scoring System test
C. Single-leg stance test
Which muscle is not one of the primary muscles strengthened through bridging exercises? A. Obliques B. Lumbar erector spinae C. Transverse abdominis D. Multifidus
C. Transverse abdominis
If the healing process is not a factor, progressing a patient is based on: A. How easy the exercise is for the patient to perform B. Whether or not the exercise is painful C. Whether or not the patient achieves the objectives of the exercise or task D. How the patient feels
C. Whether or not the patient achieves the objectives of the exercise or task
The role of the clinician in the psychological recovery following injury is to A. keep the program easy and the same from patient to patient B. tell the patient you know what she is feeling C. be an active listener throughout the rehab process D. identify the clinician's goals for the patient to achieve during rehab
C. be an active listener throughout the rehab process
The most significant effect of histamine is to A. stimulate clotting B. increase capillary membrane permeability C. cause vasodilation D. attract neutrophils
C. cause vasodilation
Standard of care is defined as A. committing an act that is not one's responsibility to perform B. committing an act that is one's responsibility to perform but using the wrong procedure C. committing an act that another minimally competent professional would do in the same circumstances D. failing to perform one's legal duty of care
C. committing an act that another minimally competent professional would do in the same circumstances
Chemicals responsible for vascular permeability include A. histamine, fibrinolysin, serotonin B. serotonin, histamine, factor VIII C. histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin D. prostaglandin, histamine, fibrinolysin E. prostaglandins, factor VIII, serotonin
C. histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin
Tissue that has any ability to regenerate includes A. ligament B. tendon C. muscle
C. muscle
During the objective examination, the clinician tries to A. provide relief to the patient B. obtain an accurate history C. produce a comparable sign D. all of these
C. produce a comparable sign
A hiker trips on a tree root in a hiking trail. To regain balance, the hiker uses which of the following types of neuromuscular control? A. anticipatory B. adaptive C. reactive
C. reactive
What is the purpose or objective(s) of immediate vasoconstriction following soft tissue damage? A. to increase the permeability of involved capillary membrane B. to promote the invasion of neutrophils into the damaged tissue C. to minimize the loss of red blood cells D. to increase hemophilia
C. to minimize the loss of red blood cells
________ activities produce forceful movement, create less shear stress in joints, and have more joint stability than __________ activities.
CKC, OKC
CO-FIVR-P
Choice Order Frequency Intensity Volume Rest Progression
Concurrent shift
Concentric and eccentric contractions at opposite ends of a muscle during CKC movement
What abdominal muscle is recruited more when performing the dead bug exercises? A. Rectus abdominis B. Internal oblique C. External oblique D. All are recruited equally.
D. All are recruited equally.
Which of the following is not a movement that the multifidi perform when contracted? A. Extension B. Rotation C. Side bending D. Flexion
D. Flexion
Which of the following is NOT an indicator of being overly aggressive with exercise? A. Spasm B. Swelling C. Pain D. Increased flexibility
D. Increased flexibility
What muscle is responsible for flexion, side bending, and rotation to the same side? A. Transverse abdominis B. External oblique C. Rectus abdominis D. Internal oblique
D. Internal oblique
Which aspect of the somatosensory system is being used when a patient's eyes are closed, yet they can detect when the clinician passively moves their elbow? A. Both kinesthesia and proprioception B. Proprioception C. Neither kinesthesia and proprioception D. Kinesthesia
D. Kinesthesia
If a muscle is immobilized in a shortened position, which of the following will occur? A. Immediate improved flexibility when immobilization is removed B. Enlargement of muscles C. Increase in muscle protein D. Loss of contractile function
D. Loss of contractile function
Which of the following is an intersegmental muscle? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Psoas C. Quadratus lumborum D. Multifidus
D. Multifidus
______________ are located in muscles and they relay information to the central nervous system regarding muscle ________________. A. Muscle spindles; tension B. Golgi tendon organs; stretch C. Golgi tendon organs; tension D. Muscle spindles; stretch
D. Muscle spindles; stretch
The process of ingesting microorganisms, other cells, or foreign particles commonly performed by monocytes is called: A. Permeability B. Margination C. Proliferation D. Phagocytosis
D. Phagocytosis
A side bridge strengthens all but which of the following muscles? A. External oblique B. Internal oblique C. Quadratus lumborum D. Rectus abdominis
D. Rectus abdominis
Which of the following muscles does not have an attachment of the thoracolumbar fascia? A. Internal oblique B. Latissimus dorsi C. Transverse abdominis D. Rectus abdominis
D. Rectus abdominis
Identify the joint mechanoreceptor that is most active in the end ranges of motion. A. Meissner's corpuscles B. Merkel's corpuscles C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Ruffini's corpuscles
D. Ruffini's corpuscles
How long does it take for a ruptured tendon to return to preinjury tensile strength? A. 8 to 12 weeks B. 4 weeks C. Up to 1 year D. Ruptured tendon will never return to preinjury tensile strength
D. Ruptured tendon will never return to preinjury tensile strength
What is a function of Schwann cells following peripheral nerve injury? A. They provide nutrients to the area so that conditions are optimal for angiogenesis to occur. B. They protect the damaged peripheral neurons from being injured by the inflammatory response. C. They become new peripheral neurons to replace the dead or damaged neurons. D. They divide to increase the likelihood that an injured neuron will contact them and regenerate.
D. They divide to increase the likelihood that an injured neuron will contact them and regenerate.
When defining core stability, which of the following is not a global stability muscle? A. Obliques B. Paraspinals C. Rectus abdominis D. Transverse abdominis
D. Transverse abdominis
The tensile strength of a wound is directly related to the A. types of leukocytes in the area B. size of the inflammation C. number of neutrophils in the area D. amount of collagen present
D. amount of collagen present
The prominent phagocyte at the end of acute inflammation is the A. basophil B. T lymphocyte C. neutrophil D. macrophage
D. macrophage
What receptors assist position sense when joint and ligament proprioceptors are damaged following an injury? A. Golgi tendon organs B. Pacinian corpuscles C. cutaneous receptors D. muscle spindles
D. muscle spindles
Approximation of wound ends during wound contraction is attributed to the activity of which cell? A. fibroblasts B. mast cells C. leukocytes D. myofibroblasts E. actomyosin
D. myofibroblasts
_____________ is the ability to determine the position of a joint in space. A. kinesthesia B. traction C. atrophy D. proprioception
D. proprioception
Which of the following is a distinguishing functional and structural characteristic of granulation tissue? A. linear collegen fiber orientation B. resorption of new blood vessels C. synthesis of type I collagen D. synthesis of type III collagen E. pale avascular scar tissue
D. synthesis of type III collagen
Prehabilitation is used A. to educate the patient on what to expect following surgery B. when surgery is not an option for the patient C. as a means of preventing the need for surgery D. to minimize the patient's atrophy so postoperative strength is greater than it would have been without an intervention
D. to minimize the patient's atrophy so postoperative strength is greater than it would have been without an intervention
Closed kinetic chain (CKC)
Distal segment of the extremity cannot move independently
Open kinetic chain (OKC)
Distal segment of the extremity is free to move without causing motion at another joint
The appropriate order in which deficiencies are addressed in a rehabilitation program is A. Flexibility exercises, strength exercises, function progression activities, and performance-specific activities B. Strength and mobility exercises, performance-specific activities, and functional drills C. Performance-specific activities, strength and flexibility exercises, and functional exercises D. Cardiovascular exercise, flexibility and range of motion exercises, strength and endurance exercises, Functional and performance-specific activities E. Flexibility and range of motion exercises, strength and endurance exercises, balance, coordination and agility, functional activities, and performance-specific activities
E. Flexibility and range of motion exercises, strength and endurance exercises, balance, coordination and agility, functional activities, and performance-specific activities
Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase II
Establishing core stability Reestablishing neuromuscular control Neuromuscular control Restoring postural control and stability Restoring range of motion Passive range of motion Flexibility Stretching technique Active assisted and active range of motion Resisted range of motion Proprioception and kinesthesia Regaining proprioception
T/F: As long as the clinician is consistent, the patient's position during range-of-motion measurements is inconsequential.
False
T/F: Collagen fibers arranged in varied fashion have greater strength than those arranged in a linear fashion.
False
T/F: Following an injury, early motion through partial weight-bearing exercise can interfere with proper joint lubrication.
False
T/F: Informed consent is only required in the treatment of minors.
False
T/F: It is important to include flexibility exercises in phase I of a rehabilitation program so contractures following an injury are avoided.
False
T/F: Modalities should be included throughout an entire rehabilitation program.
False
T/F: Nutrition plays little if any role in the healing process.
False
T/F: Proprioceptors are important for body movement and activity but not for static functions such as standing.
False
T/F: Rehabilitation of an athlete should center on recovery of the affected part only.
False
T/F: Short-term goals change little during the course of a therapeutic exercise program.
False
T/F: Stages of healing occur in a coordinated fashion with distinct stages and timelines.
False
T/F: The GTO acts to protect the muscle from sudden stretches, but the muscle spindle permits such a stretch.
False
T/F: The rectus abdominis is an example of a global muscle, while the quadratus lumborum is an example of a local muscle.
False
T/F: The spine obtains the majority of its stability from its supporting ligaments.
False
T/F: The term chemotaxis refers to the process in which cells stimulate chemicals that repel specific cells in a particular area.
False
T/F: Tissue temperature affects creep, so cold applied before stretching will increase the stretch's effectiveness
False
T/F: When having someone perform new coordination activities in a therapeutic exercise program, the clinician should have the patient continue to work at that activity after fatigue and decreased accuracy have occurred.
False
Three components of PNF
Flexion-extension, Abduction-adduction, Internal rotation-external rotation
FITT-VPP
Frequency Intensity Time Type Volume Progression Pattern
_________________ detect tension within a muscle and so respond to both contraction and stretch. Its stimulation results in muscle __________________.
GTO, relaxation
An athlete sustained a grade 2 lateral ankle sprain three (3) weeks ago. It was given proper immediate and follow-up care. What physiological changes will take place during this next phase of healing? (Select all that apply) I. Increased tensile strength of the healing tissue II. Fibrogenesis III. Wound contraction IV. Alignment of collagen fibers along lines of stress V. Transition of collagen deposition from Type III to Type I VI. Reduction in overall vascularity to healing tissue VII. Coagulation VIII. Phagocytosis IX. Collagen synthesis X. Reduction of fibroblasts XI. Permeability changes XII. Increased number of collagen cross-links
I. Increased tensile strength of the healing tissue IV. Alignment of collagen fibers along lines of stress V. Transition of collagen deposition from Type III to Type I VI. Reduction in overall vascularity to healing tissue X. Reduction of fibroblasts XII. Increased number of collagen cross-links
Which of the following biological events occur during the phase of soft tissue repair referred to as fibroplasia: (Select all that apply) I. collagen synthesis II. angiogenesis III. platelet adherence IV. Granulation tissue formation V. wound contraction
I. collagen synthesis II. angiogenesis IV. Granulation tissue formation V. wound contraction
Pelvic neutral is: (Select all that apply) I. the position in which the spine should always be placed II. one of the first positions taught to a patient with a weak core III. a position that provides no support for the spine
I. the position in which the spine should always be placed II. one of the first positions taught to a patient with a weak core
he optimal time to begin therapeutic exercise is usually during the proliferative phase of healing due to what development at the healing site? (Select all that apply.) I. Chemical mediation II. Neovascularization III. Transition of collagen deposition from Type III to Type I IV. Increased number of collagen cross-links V. Proliferation of fibroblasts VI. Permeability changes VII. Formation of granulation tissue VIII. Wound contraction IX. Coagulation X. Alignment of collagen fibers along lines of stress XI. Phagocytosis XII. Fibrosis
II. Neovascularization V. Proliferation of fibroblasts VII. Formation of granulation tissue VIII. Wound contraction XII. Fibrosis
Sherrington
Impulses from peripheral stretch receptors has major influence on alpha motor neurons, Modify input to influence motor neuron excitability
OKC characteristics
Increased acceleration forces Decreased resistance forces Increased distraction and rotational forces Increased deformation of joint and muscle mechanoreceptors Greater shear forces Great moment forces (1 joint in motion) Isolation exercise use contraction of specific muscle or muscle group that produces single plane or occasionally multiplanar movement
Characteristics of CKC
Increased joint compressive forces Increased joint congruency (stability) Decreased shear forces Decreased acceleration forces Stimulation of proprioceptors Large resistance forces Enhanced dynamic stability
Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase IV
Plyometric exercise Understanding integrated functional movement Functional testing Sport specific functional testing Criteria for full recovery
Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase III
Restoring muscular strength, endurance and power Functional progression Stabilization phase Strength phase Strength Dynamic Isokinetic exercise Power phase
Inhibition
Results in decreased excitability, Can be critical in treatment of muscle spasticity
Facilitation
Results in increased excitability, Used to aid functioning of weak muscles
What is the mnemonic device used to represent the principle in which the body, given stressors on the human system, whether biomechanical, physiological, neurological, or metabolic, adjusts and becomes better at withstanding the new stress?
SAID
T/F: A long-term goal of any rehabilitation program is to return the athlete to participation as quickly and as safely as possible.
True
T/F: A prognosis is a prediction of the course of the condition.
True
T/F: A therapeutic exercise program begins with patient assessment.
True
T/F: Abdominal bracing provides for better recruitment of core muscles than abdominal hollowing, and it also provides for greater pelvic and spinal stability.
True
T/F: An important element to be included before and after any treatment is an assessment to determine the appropriateness of that treatment.
True
T/F: Clinicians have an ethical responsibility to keep accurate and factual records.
True
T/F: Connective tissue surrounding muscle, tendons, and ligaments is viscoelastic, so it has both plastic and elastic qualities.
True
T/F: Creep is time dependent, so a load that is applied for a longer time is more effective in causing a change in tissue length than a quickly applied load.
True
T/F: Dead bug and bird dog exercises are designed to promote core muscle activation during arm and leg movements.
True
T/F: Eccentric contractions are critical for deceleration of limb motion, especially during high-velocity dynamic activities.
True
T/F: Full range of motion of an affected body part is a major criterion before the athlete returns to participation.
True
T/F: Functional progressions must be incorporated into a rehabilitation program to help the athlete achieve normal range of motion, adequate strength, and neuromuscular control.
True
T/F: Growth factors influence fibrin-plug formation, angiogenesis, and collagenase production.
True
T/F: Hip muscles play a role in providing core stability because they are attached to the pelvis. Hip muscles play a role in providing core stability because they are attached to the pelvis.
True
T/F: How aggressive the clinician can be during the objective examination is based on the findings of the subjective examination.
True
T/F: If a patient's hip flexors are tight, the hip extensors will probably be weak.
True
Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase I
Using therapeutic modalities Using medication Control swelling Protection Restricted activity Optimal loading ICE Control pain Pain scale
tort
a wrong done to an individual
When designing a lower extremity plyometric program, the starting volume should be ____ foot contacts and progress up to ____ foot contacts? a. 40 to 80; 200 b. 80 to 100;300 c. 40 to 80; 300 d. 80 to 100; 200
a. 40 to 80; 200
Which of the following is not a true statement about motor units within muscles? a. A single motor unit is comprised of both slow- and fast-twitch fibers. b. Muscles responsible for fine motor movements are composed of motor units with few muscle fibers. c. Muscles responsible for gross movement are composed of motor units with a large number of fibers. d. When a motor unit is activated, all muscle fibers associated with that unit will contract.
a. A single motor unit is comprised of both slow- and fast-twitch fibers.
Your patient attempts to strengthen his triceps by positioning his shoulder at the end of range of shoulder and elbow extension. He reports weakness and inability to extend his shoulder more in this position. His report may best be explained by which of the following? a. Active insufficiency of the triceps b. Active insufficiency of the biceps c. Passive insufficiency of the biceps d. Passive insufficiency of the triceps
a. Active insufficiency of the triceps
In which phase of the stretch shortening cycle does a brief but strong isometric contraction occur? a. Amortization phase b. Eccentric phase c. Concentric phase
a. Amortization phase
According to the Concave-Convex Rule, in what direction should the glide be applied when increasing dorsiflexion of the talocrural joint? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Inferior d. Superior
a. Anterior
During an examination of a patient who has a history of episodic falls, you observe the patient performing functional tasks to determine how she loses her balance. You note that the patient becomes unsteady whenever she picks up objects from the floor or reaches for objects in a kitchen cupboard. These findings most likely indicate a control deficit in: a. Anticipatory balance b. Static balance c. Reactive balance
a. Anticipatory balance
Which of the following best describes how gliding joint mobilization techniques are applied to the treatment plane? a. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the same direction of the glide. b. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the opposite direction of the glide. c. Application is perpendicular to the treatment plane. d. Application can be either perpendicular or parallel.
a. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the same direction of the glide.
Why does an individual assume an adaptive posture? a. Avoid pain b. Lift weights c. Walk correctly d. Stretch muscles
a. Avoid pain
Which of the following muscles would be considered the antagonist when attempting to achieve full knee extension? a. Biceps femoris b. Gluteus maximus c. Rectus femoris d. Iliacus
a. Biceps femoris
Which of the following PNF techniques utilizes autogenic inhibition by placing the tight muscle group on stretch and then having the patient perform a concentric contraction of the antagonist muscle group through its full range of motion? a. Contract-relax b. Contract-hold c. Hold-relax with agonist contraction d. Hold-relax
a. Contract-relax
Based on current evidence, what type of stretching should be performed before activity that requires high muscular force? a. Dynamic stretching b. Ballistic stretching c. Static stretching d. PNF stretching
a. Dynamic stretching
Which of the following types of resistance exercise is being completed when an individual lowers themselves from a pull-up? a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isometric d. Isokinetic
a. Eccentric
Which phase of the stretch shortening cycle occurs when the agonist muscle is being stretched or loaded, stimulating the muscle spindles? a. Eccentric phase b. Concentric phase c. Amortization phase
a. Eccentric phase
Which of the following tissue properties describes a tissue's ability to stretch and return to its original resting length? a. Elasticity b. Failure c. Extensibility d. Permeability
a. Elasticity
A patient is holding a piece of elastic tubing with both hands in front of the body. Both elbows are flexed to 90°, and both upper arms are held gently against the sides of the patient's chest. Instruct the patient to internally and externally rotate both shoulders simultaneously in this position. This activity strengthens the: a. External rotators concentrically and eccentrically. b. Internal rotators concentrically and eccentrically. c. External rotators concentrically and the internal rotators eccentrically. d. Internal rotators concentrically and the external rotators eccentrically.
a. External rotators concentrically and eccentrically.
The typical pattern of muscle activation associated with an ankle strategy to correct forward body sway is: a. Gastrocnemius is activated first, then the hamstrings, followed by the paraspinals. b. Paraspinals are activated first, then hamstrings, followed by the gastrocnemius c. Gastrocnemius and hamstrings are activated simultaneously, followed by the paraspinals. d. Hamstrings, gastrocnemius, and paraspinals are activated simultaneously.
a. Gastrocnemius is activated first, then the hamstrings, followed by the paraspinals.
Which of the following is not an accurate characteristic of gliding as an arthrokinematic motion? a. Gliding occurs in the opposite direction of a movement when the moving surface is concave. b. Gliding and translation are terms used to describe the application of a passive sliding motion. c. Gliding occurs in the opposite direction of a movement when the moving surface is convex. d. With a high amount of articular congruency, gliding will be the predominant accessory motion.
a. Gliding occurs in the opposite direction of a movement when the moving surface is concave.
What term refers to muscle fibers that split longitudinally and do not equate to additional strength? a. Hyperplasia b. Myogenesis c. Hypertrophy
a. Hyperplasia
A patient had surgery and 8 weeks of rehabilitation for carpal tunnel syndrome. You notice that the patient's thenar eminence is almost the same size as that of the uninvolved hand. This change is due to which of the following adaptive changes? a. Hypertrophy of muscle fibers b. Hyperplasia of muscle fibers c. Fiber-type transformation d. Increased recruitment of motor units
a. Hypertrophy of muscle fibers
When a muscle is shortened, what occurs to the reciprocal muscles? a. Lengthened b. Hypertrophy c. Strengthened d. Tightened
a. Lengthened
Which of the following is not an example of submaximal plyometrics for the lower extremity? a. Lunging b. Jump squats c. Skipping d. Hurdle jumps
a. Lunging
Passive ROM and grade I or II joint-mobilization techniques are appropriate during the acute stage of soft tissue healing. What do these interventions have in common when used during this stage? a. Maintain fluid dynamics and nutrition in a joint b. Include movements into tissue resistance c. Used to increase ROM d. Affect muscle, ligament, and capsular tissue around the site of injury equally
a. Maintain fluid dynamics and nutrition in a joint
Where in the functional range of motion is a muscle strongest? a. Middle range b. End range c. Functional range of motion does not affect a muscle's strength. d. Beginning range
a. Middle range
A patient that presents with decreased active range of motion but normal passive range of motion is more likely to have which of the following? a. Muscle weakness b. Musculotendinous limitation c. Tight ligaments d. Joint derangement
a. Muscle weakness
The position in a joint's ROM during which it is under the least amount of stress is called the a. Open-packed position b. Close-packed position c. Relaxed position d. Neutral position
a. Open-packed position
What term describes traditional voluntary joint movements or physiological joint movements? a. Osteokinematics b. Manipulations c. Accessory movements d. Arthrokinematics
a. Osteokinematics
End feel is typically assessed as part of which range of motion testing? a. PROM b. AROM c. RROM d. AAROM
a. PROM
What is the term for the point where the length limits of a musculotendinous unit are reached? a. Passive insufficiency b. Active insufficiency
a. Passive insufficiency
Which of the following is true when considering Grades III and IV joint mobilization oscillations? a. Performed to increase tissue mobility b. Performed to increase synovial fluid movement c. Performed to decrease pain d. Performed near the beginning of the range of motion
a. Performed to increase tissue mobility
To increase flexion of the shoulder, position the patient in the supine position, stabilize the scapula, and: a. Place the glenohumeral joint in the resting position and apply a posterior glide of the humeral head. b. Place the glenohumeral joint in the resting position and apply an anterior glide of the humeral head. c. Place the shoulder in 90° flexion and apply an inferior glide of the humeral head. d. Place the shoulder in neutral (along the patient's side) and apply long-axis traction of the humerus.
a. Place the glenohumeral joint in the resting position and apply a posterior glide of the humeral head.
Your patient had a cast removed last week following a distal tibiofibular fracture. He now has limited motion of the ankle and foot. Which of the following joint-mobilization techniques would you use to increase ankle dorsiflexion? a. Posterior glide of talus on tibia b. Dorsal glide of calcaneus on talus c. Anterior glide of talus on tibia d. Plantar glide of navicular on talus
a. Posterior glide of talus on tibia
What is the term for the muscles that primarily function to support the body against the forces of gravity? a. Postural b. Antagonistic c. Agonistic d. Phasic
a. Postural
Which of the following is defined as the independent and interdependent alignment of all components of the human movement system? a. Posture b. Functional efficiency c. Neuromuscular control d. Arthrokinematics
a. Posture
Each of the following is true about joint mobilization/manipulation techniques except: a. Techniques involve the application of accessory joint movements but not physiological movements. b. Techniques can be applied to restore or maintain joint play. c. Techniques can be applied using gliding or oscillation techniques that involve low or high amplitudes and velocities. d. They are appropriate to use if a joint is painful or inflamed to decrease or inhibit the perception of pain.
a. Techniques involve the application of accessory joint movements but not physiological movements.
Which of the following is not true about Type I muscle fibers? a. Type I fibers use oxygen and glycogen for energy. b. Type I fibers require more time to generate maximal force than do Type II fibers. c. Postural muscles contain a large number of Type I fibers. d. Type I fibers are more resistant to fatigue than are Type II fibers.
a. Type I fibers use oxygen and glycogen for energy.
A soccer player sees that an opponent is about to collide with her. To maintain balance, she would use which of the following types of neuromuscular control? a. anticipatory b. adaptive c. reactive
a. anticipatory
Which of the following is the order of the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle? a. eccentric, amortization, concentric b. concentric, eccentric, amortization c. amortization, concentric, eccentric
a. eccentric, amortization, concentric
You are passively stretching the hip flexors of a patient in the position of prone hip extension and knee flexion. You later note that the patient demonstrates greater hip extension passive range of motion (PROM) when you allow the knee to be straight during the stretching procedure. The reason for the improved hip extension PROM may best be explained by ____________________. a. elimination of passive insufficiency that occurred during the original position b. elimination of active insufficiency that occurred during the original position c. elimination of both active and passive insufficiency that occurred during the original position d. activation of passive insufficiency that occurred in the second position
a. elimination of passive insufficiency that occurred during the original position
Muscle endurance is improved primarily through a therapeutic exercise program that emphasizes a. lower resistance, higher repetitions b. higher resistance, higher repetitions c. lower resistance, lower repetitions d. higher resistance, lower repetitions
a. lower resistance, higher repetitions
Control of postural sway is maintained by a. muscle action b. gravity c. vestibular action
a. muscle action
A hiker trips on a tree root in a hiking trail. To regain balance, the hiker uses which of the following types of neuromuscular control? a. reactive b. anticipatory c. adaptive
a. reactive
When the Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are stimulated, they cause the muscle to a. relax b. stiffen c. feel pain d. contract
a. relax
__________________ is the ability to control the direction of the body or a body segment during rapid movement.
agility
Which of the following represents correct strength guidelines for initiating preparatory plyometric exercise of the upper extremity? a. 15 push-ups with elbows at 90 degrees in 30 seconds b. 10 push-ups with elbows at 90 degrees in 15 seconds c. 15 push-ups with elbows at 90 degrees in 15 seconds d. 10 push-ups with elbows at 90 degrees in 30 seconds
b. 10 push-ups with elbows at 90 degrees in 15 seconds
According to the DeLorme-Watkins protocol, what weight would be used for the second set of an individual whose 10RM is 200 pounds? a. 50 pounds b. 150 pounds c. 100 pounds d. 200 pounds
b. 150 pounds
What manual muscle grade would be given to a patient who could complete full range of motion against gravity? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
b. 3
According to guidelines, before initiating maximal plyometric exercise the athlete should be able to perform five squats in ____ seconds with ____ % of body weight. a. 10; 60 b. 5; 60 c. 10; 90 d. 5; 90
b. 5; 60
Which of the following is not true when considering rolling as a form of arthrokinematics? a. Rolling always occurs in combination with sliding and spinning. b. A roll always occurs in the opposite direction of the swing. c. Isolated rolling will result in joint compression d. Rolling occurs when two surfaces are incongruent.
b. A roll always occurs in the opposite direction of the swing.
Which of the following can be described as the movement of a body part through an arc of motion by means of external force and active muscular contraction? a. RROM b. AAROM c. PROM d. AROM
b. AAROM
Which of the following should be performed first when assessing a patient's range of motion? a. RROM b. AROM c. PROM d. AAROM
b. AROM
When applying manual resistance to the upper extremity using the D1 extension pattern (PNF), the muscle groups being facilitated (strengthened) are the shoulder extensors and the: a. Abductors, external rotators, and wrist and finger extensors. b. Abductors, internal rotators, and wrist and finger extensors. c. Adductors, external rotators, and wrist and finger flexors. d. Adductors, internal rotators, and wrist and finger flexors.
b. Abductors, internal rotators, and wrist and finger extensors.
What is the term for the point where the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap and maximum tension cannot be produced? a. Passive insufficiency b. Active insufficiency
b. Active insufficiency
What is the appropriate progression of range of motion exercises during an evaluation? a. Resistive, passive, active b. Active, passive, resistive c. Order does not matter during an evaluation. d. Passive, active, resistive
b. Active, passive, resistive
To strengthen the posterior tibialis using manual resistance, have the patient assume a long sitting position on a table or mat. Support and hold the lower leg with one hand and: a. Apply resistance to the dorsal and lateral surfaces of the foot at the fifth metatarsal as the patient dorsiflexes and everts the ankle and foot. b. Apply resistance to the plantar and medial surfaces of the foot at the first metatarsal as the patient plantar flexes and inverts the ankle and foot. c. Apply resistance to the dorsal and medial surfaces of the foot at the first metatarsal as the patient dorsiflexes and inverts the ankle and foot. d. Apply resistance to the plantar and lateral surfaces of the foot at the fifth metatarsal as the patient plantar flexes and everts the ankle and foot.
b. Apply resistance to the plantar and medial surfaces of the foot at the first metatarsal as the patient plantar flexes and inverts the ankle and foot.
Which of the following statements is true about velocity and strength during concentric isotonic testing? a. As velocity increases, force increases b. As velocity decreases, force increases c. As velocity decreases, force decreases d. As velocity increases, force stays the same
b. As velocity decreases, force increases
____________ is the ability to control the forces that make an athlete stable. a. Strength b. Balance c. Inertia
b. Balance
Which of the following plyometric exercises involves the patient jumping off one platform or box, landing on the floor, and jumping onto another box? a. Depth jump b. Box jump c. Squat jump d. Tuck jump
b. Box jump
In which phase of the stretch shortening cycle does the alpha motor neuron increase activation of the muscle? a. Eccentric phase b. Concentric phase c. Amortization phase
b. Concentric phase
What lower extremity PNF pattern begins with the knee extended, the ankle plantarflexed, and the hip extended, abducted, and internally rotated? a. D2 Flexion b. D1 Flexion c. D1 Extension d. D2 Extension
b. D1 Flexion
What upper extremity PNF patterns starting position is described by the following: The shoulder is extended, abducted, and internally rotated with the elbow and fingers extended and the wrist in a neutral position? a. D1 Extension b. D1 Flexion c. D2 Flexion d. D2 Extension
b. D1 Flexion
What upper extremity PNF patterns starting position is described by the following: The shoulder is extended, adducted, and internally rotated with the elbow and fingers flexed and the wrist in a neutral position? a. D2 Extension b. D2 Flexion c. D1 Flexion d. D1 Extension
b. D2 Flexion
Which of the following is not a proper exercise example for the preparatory phase of plyometric progression? a. Low skipping b. Double leg hops c. Explosive squats d. Jump rope
b. Double leg hops
What tissue property is best illustrated by stretching a rubber band and then observing its ability to return to its original length when the external stretching force is removed? a. Failure b. Elasticity c. Extensibility d. Plasticity
b. Elasticity
A posterior glide of the head of the femur on the surface of the acetabulum increases which of the following hip motions? a. Flexion and external rotation b. Flexion and internal rotation c. Extension and external rotation d. Extension and internal rotation
b. Flexion and internal rotation
Which of the following represents a proper plyometric exercise progression? a. Forward/backward hops; hops with twists; lateral hops; zig-zag hops b. Forward/backward hops; lateral hops; zig-zag hops; hops with twists c. Lateral hops; forward/backward hops; zig-zag hops; hops with twists d. Lateral hops; forward/backward hops; hops with twists; zig-zag hops
b. Forward/backward hops; lateral hops; zig-zag hops; hops with twists
To determine the point of tissue resistance and how sensitive a joint is, you would use which of the following grades of sustained mobilization? a. Grade I b. Grade II c. Grade IV d. Grade III
b. Grade II
Which of the following PNF techniques is performed when a clinician attempts to lengthen a patient's hamstring muscle group by asking the patient to perform and hold an isometric contraction against their resistance for several seconds and then following the isometric contraction, the clinician attempts to passively stretch the hamstring group further thus finding the new end-range of motion? a. Hold-relax with agonist contraction b. Hold-relax c. Contract-hold d. Contract-relax
b. Hold-relax
Which of the following techniques utilizes an isometric contraction of the antagonist muscle group against the clinician's resistance followed by a concentric contraction of the agonist muscle group to the new end range of motion? a. Hold-relax b. Hold-relax with agonist contraction c. Contract-relax d. Contract-hold
b. Hold-relax with agonist contraction
In what way does mobilization with movement (MWM) differ from passive mobilization techniques? MWM: a. Is appropriate for hypomobile or hypermobile joints. b. Integrates active movements by the patient during the mobilization procedure to reduce the barrier of pain during the technique. c. Uses only joint distraction techniques to mobilize joints. d. Is performed only in the midrange of available motion to ensure patient comfort.
b. Integrates active movements by the patient during the mobilization procedure to reduce the barrier of pain during the technique.
When an agonist muscle becomes overactivated, what is the effect it has on the antagonist muscle? a. It becomes stronger. b. It becomes weaker. c. It has no effect on the antagonist.
b. It becomes weaker.
Which of the following is a true statement about the neurophysiological model of plyometrics? a. The stretch reflex stimulates the Golgi tendon organs. b. It is based on the use of kinetic energy c. Messages sent via Ia fibers synapse with the alpha motor neuron to cause decreased muscle tension. d. Muscle tension must be utilized quickly through an eccentric contraction.
b. It is based on the use of kinetic energy
Which of the following is not an indication for joint mobilization? a. Muscle guarding b. Joint hypermobility c. Muscle spasm d. Joint pain
b. Joint hypermobility
Which of the following is true regarding isokinetic exercise? a. Slow-velocity training is more appropriate for carryover to functional activities than medium and fast velocities. b. Load is dependent on the velocity of limb movement through the arc of motion. c. Joint compressive forces increase with increased velocity of exercise. d. Depending on the type of isokinetic dynamometer used, the rate of limb movement may range from 0° to 500° per minute.
b. Load is dependent on the velocity of limb movement through the arc of motion.
Which phase of plyometric training is characterized by minimal ground contact time and low repetitions? a. Preparatory phase b. Maximal phase c. Submaximal phase
b. Maximal phase
According to the length-tension relationship, where do muscles develop their peak force production? a. End of range of motion b. Midrange of motion c. Beginning of range of motion d. Position throughout range of motion has no effect on force production.
b. Midrange of motion
Which of the following can be defined as using an external force to move a body part through an arc of motion? a. AAROM b. PROM c. RROM d. AROM
b. PROM
Neural tension techniques, which are aimed at decreasing adverse mechanical tension on nerves, are performed by slowly elongating the tissue through what type of motion? a. The type of motion does not matter when performing neural tension techniques. b. Passive range of motion c. Active-assistive range of motion d. Active range of motion
b. Passive range of motion
Which of the following terms best describes movements that a patient can control actively/voluntarily? a. Component movement b. Physiological movement c. Accessory movement d. Joint play
b. Physiological movement
Incorporating which of the following into rehabilitation will result in increased explosive strength or power? a. Machine weights b. Plyometrics c. Isokinetic training d. Free weights
b. Plyometrics
Your patient has a forward shoulder posture with associated joint restrictions throughout the shoulder complex. In which of the following directions should you apply mobilization of the sternoclavicular joint to improve the patient's posture? a. Inferior b. Posterior c. Superior d. Anterior
b. Posterior
Which of the following conditions occurs as a result of a secondary mover compensating for a primary mover? a. Altered length-tension relationship b. Synergistic dominance c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Altered force-couple relationship
b. Synergistic dominance
Your patient's knee was immobilized in a long leg cast for more than a month. To improve knee ROM, you have been treating the knee with a grade III posterior glide of the tibia with the knee in the resting position. To progress the procedure for which this treatment was intended, you could: a. Position the tibia in a resting position, then externally rotate the tibia and apply a grade III posterior glide. b. Take the joint to the end of the range of flexion, internally rotate the tibia, and apply a sustained grade III distraction c. Use a grade IV posterior glide oscillation technique in the resting position. d. Take the joint to the end of the range of flexion, position the tibia in external rotation, and apply a grade III sustained posterior glide.
b. Take the joint to the end of the range of flexion, internally rotate the tibia, and apply a sustained grade III distraction
A disadvantage of isotonic training is that a. it only permits concentric contractions b. a muscle can only move a load through the ROM with as much force as the muscle provides at its weakest point c. the expense of the equipment d. it does not permit exercise of multiple joints simultaneously
b. a muscle can only move a load through the ROM with as much force as the muscle provides at its weakest point
Ligament and tendon tissue obtain their strength primarily from a. elastin b. collagen c. ground substance d. reticulin
b. collagen
Ligament and tendon tissue obtain their extensibility primarily from a. reticulin b. elastin c. ground substance d. collagen
b. elastin
The recommended frequency for plyometric exercise routines is no more than a. daily b. every other day c. once a week d. twice daily
b. every other day
When a muscle contracts, the opposing muscle is inhibited to allow movement to occur at the joint. This is called a. cocontraction b. reciprocal inhibition c. autogenic inhibition d. negative work
b. reciprocal inhibition
The ______________ is the smallest contractile element of a muscle. a. myosin b. sarcolemma c. actin d. sarcomere
b. sarcolemma
The SAID principle addresses which aspect of strength and conditioning? a. volume b. specificity c. intensity d. synergy
b. specificity
______________ is the body's ability to maintain equilibrium by controlling the body's center of gravity over its base of support.
balance
negligence
breach of one's duty of care
In general, larger athletes over ____ pounds should only perform submaximal exercise or be monitored closely while performing-high intensity plyometric exercise. a. 200 b. 180 c. 220
c. 220
Larger athletes, those over ____ pounds, must only perform submaximal exercise or be monitored closely while performing-high intensity plyometric exercise. a. 180 b. 240 c. 220 d. 200
c. 220
An exercise that involves weight bearing through an extremity is considered: a. Isokinetic b. An open kinetic chain exercise c. A closed kinetic chain exercise
c. A closed kinetic chain exercise
You are having a patient perform manual resistance exercise in a PNF pattern, specifically the D2 flexion pattern for the upper extremity. As the patient flexes the shoulder and brings the arm overhead against your resistance, what other muscle groups at the shoulder are being strengthened? a. Adductors and internal rotators b. Adductors and external rotators c. Abductors and external rotators d. Abductors and internal rotators
c. Abductors and external rotators
What is dynamic posture? a. Inability to maintain posture while standing on one leg b. Ability to maintain posture while standing c. Ability to maintain posture during functional activities
c. Ability to maintain posture during functional activities
Your patient has a painful right wrist from typing a very large report. You find that she has full active and passive ROM and normal strength. Of the following mobilization techniques, which is most appropriate for managing this patient's signs and symptoms? a. Sustained grade III glides b. Joint mobilization using these grades of sustained or oscillation techniques is not appropriate for this patient at this time. c. Anterior-posterior grade II oscillations d. Sustained grade III distractions
c. Anterior-posterior grade II oscillations
Which of the following best describes how gliding joint mobilization techniques are applied to the treatment plane? a. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the opposite direction of the glide. b. Application is perpendicular to the treatment plane. c. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the same direction of the glide. d. Application can be either perpendicular or parallel.
c. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the same direction of the glide.
Which of the following terms is used to describe the movement that occurs between joint surfaces during voluntary joint movement? a. Manipulations b. Osteokinematics c. Arthrokinematics
c. Arthrokinematics
Which of the following describes an inappropriate procedure for safe and effective application of joint mobilization techniques? a. Combine a grade I distraction with a grade III sustained glide b. Initiate joint mobilization procedures with the joint in the resting position of the joint c. Combine a grade III distraction with a grade III sustained glide d. Stabilize one of the articulating bones while applying the mobilization force close to the joint
c. Combine a grade III distraction with a grade III sustained glide
What lower extremity PNF pattern begins with the knee flexed, the ankle dorsiflexed, and the hip flexed, adducted, and externally rotated? a. D1 Flexion b. D2 Extension c. D1 Extension d. D2 Flexion
c. D1 Extension
What upper extremity PNF patterns starting position is described by the following: The shoulder is flexed, abducted, and externally rotated with the elbow and fingers extended and the wrist in a neutral position? a. D1 Flexion b. D1 Extension c. D2 Extension d. D2 Flexion
c. D2 Extension
What lower extremity PNF pattern begins with the knee extended, the ankle plantarflexed, and the hip extended, adducted, and externally rotated? a. D1 Flexion b. D2 Extension c. D2 Flexion d. D1 Extension
c. D2 Flexion
Which of the following lifting protocols allows the patient to exercise to their maximum levels while allowing for daily fluctuations in their strength? a. DeLorme-Watkins b. All of the above c. DAPRE d. Oxford
c. DAPRE
Which of the following plyometric exercises involves the patient dropping to the ground from a raised platform or box, and then immediately jumping up? a. Squat jump b. Box jump c. Depth jump d. Tuck jump
c. Depth jump
Which of the following tissue properties allows a muscle or tendons to take on a new length when stretched? a. Elasticity b. Plasticity c. Extensibility d. Permeability
c. Extensibility
Moving the proximal row of carpals on the radius in a volar direction increases which wrist motion? a. Radial deviation b. Ulnar deviation c. Extension d. Flexion
c. Extension
Which of the following motions is defined as the same point of one surface contacting new points on the opposing surface? a. Roll b. Spin c. Glide d. Swing
c. Glide
Which of the following is a false statement about joint mobilization? a. When the therapist passively moves the articulating surface in the direction in which the slide of the bone normally occurs, the technique is called glide. b. Joint mobilization is safer than passive angular stretching through an arc motion because it avoids the compressive forces that occur during passive angular stretching through the range c. Grade III joint techniques can be used safely and effectively to increase the range of motion (ROM) during an acute flare of arthritis when there is loss of motion. d. Gliding or traction techniques are used to treat painful symptoms during the acute and early subacute stages when applied at a low, nonstretch dosage.
c. Grade III joint techniques can be used safely and effectively to increase the range of motion (ROM) during an acute flare of arthritis when there is loss of motion.
Of the following, which is the most effective way to improve muscle endurance? a. Have the patient train by using isometric exercises against resistance b. Have the patient train on an isokinetic dynamometer at fast speeds only c. Have the patient train using dynamic exercise against submaximal loads over progressively longer time periods d. Have the patient exercise against maximal resistance for a limited number of repetition
c. Have the patient train using dynamic exercise against submaximal loads over progressively longer time periods
Which of the following best describes ballistic stretching? a. Low intensity, short duration b. High intensity, long duration c. High intensity, short duration d. Low intensity, long duration
c. High intensity, short duration
As part of a patient's balance training program, you have her walk across a balance beam or on a line drawn on the floor. The motor strategy this patient is most likely retraining is the: a. Stepping strategy b. Suspensory strategy c. Hip strategy d. Ankle strategy
c. Hip strategy
ithin 1 week of beginning resistance exercise of the shoulder external rotators as a component of a rehabilitation program after a shoulder injury, your patient, Mr. K, is able to increase the level of resistance by using a heavier grade of elastic tubing. This improvement in muscle performance is due primarily to which of the following adaptive changes? a. Hyperplasia of muscle fibers b. Increased recruitment of motor units c. Hypertrophy of muscle fibers d. Fiber-type transformation
c. Hypertrophy of muscle fibers
concentric or eccentric: Works to accelerate a limb
concentric
concentric or eccentric: angle at associated joint decreases
concentric
Which of the following does not occur during the first 4 to 6 weeks of resistance training? a. Increase in the firing rate of the motor nerves b. Increased efficiency through better synchronization when activating the motor units c. Increase in strength due to muscle hypertrophy d. Increase in muscular efficiency through recruitment of more motor units
c. Increase in strength due to muscle hypertrophy
A long-axis distraction of the humerus provides which direction of gliding? a. Superior b. Anterior c. Inferior d. Posterior
c. Inferior
Maximum muscle loading at a fixed speed with accommodating resistance throughout the entire range of motion is characterized by what method of exercise? a. Isometric b. Plyometric c. Isokinetic d. Isotonic
c. Isokinetic
Increasing static strength and decreasing atrophy can best be accomplished by using what method of exercise? a. Plyometric b. Isotonic c. Isometric d. Isokinetic
c. Isometric
Which of the following best describes recommended stretch guidelines for therapeutic procedures involving shortened soft tissues? a. High intensity, short duration b. High intensity, long duration c. Low intensity, long duration d. Low intensity, short duration
c. Low intensity, long duration
Joint mobilization techniques are thought to be safer than passive angular stretching using physiological ROM to increase mobility of capsular and ligamentous structures because: a. Mobilization techniques replicate the less traumatic rolling motion of the bone surfaces. b. Mobilization techniques are applied only in the resting positions of joints, not end-range positions. c. Mobilization techniques direct forces specific to the involved capsular and ligamentous tissues without causing compressive damage to the articular cartilage. d. A therapist has a better mechanical advantage (leverage) over the tight structures when using mobilization techniques.
c. Mobilization techniques direct forces specific to the involved capsular and ligamentous tissues without causing compressive damage to the articular cartilage.
Which of the following techniques combines the application of sustained accessory joint movements by a therapist and active end-range physiological movements performed by the patient? a. Facilitative mobilization techniques b. Manipulative thrust techniques c. Mobilization with movement techniques d. Muscle energy techniques
c. Mobilization with movement techniques
A patient has mild joint swelling and pain during active ROM, but resisted tests of the muscles that cross the swollen joints do not cause pain. Your goal is to maintain or possibly increase strength through the available ROM. The most appropriate choice of exercise is: a. Eccentric/concentric, closed-chain exercise against body weight throughout the ROM. b. Muscle setting exercises at the end of the ROM. c. Multiple-angle isometric exercise against resistance d. High-velocity isokinetic exercise.
c. Multiple-angle isometric exercise against resistance
Shoulder flexion, knee extension, and ankle inversion are examples of what? a. Arthrokinematics b. Manipulations c. Osteokinematics
c. Osteokinematics
Which type of range of motion should be performed early in the rehabilitation process of a postsurgical patient? a. AAROM b. AROM c. PROM d. RROM
c. PROM
According to the DAPRE protocol, a patient's working weight is based on what? a. Percentage of the patient's 1RM b. Percentage of the patient's 15RM c. Percentage of the patient's 6RM d. Percentage of the patient's 10RM
c. Percentage of the patient's 6RM
________ is the position of the body and the relative arrangement of body parts for a specific activity. a. Static b. Balance c. Posture d. Sway
c. Posture
________ is the position of the body and the relative arrangement of body parts for a specific activity. a. Sway b. Static c. Posture d. Balance
c. Posture
Which of the following aspects is most important when incorporating plyometric exercise into the rehabilitation program? a. Level of neuromuscular control b. Adequate strength c. Proper technique and execution d. Amount of joint range of motion
c. Proper technique and execution
What advantage does resistive range of motion have over manual muscle testing? a. Resistive range of motion utilizes eccentric muscle contractions, which place more stress on the muscle tissue b. Resistive range of motion tests a single muscle through the entire range of motion c. Resistive range of motion can determine weakness at more than one point in the range of motion d. Resistive range of motion can determine if pain is coming from contractile tissue or from inert tissue
c. Resistive range of motion can determine weakness at more than one point in the range of motion
Which of the following is not true when considering muscle spindles? a. Especially sensitive to rapid change in length b. When stimulated can cause reflexive contraction of the muscle c. Responds to change in muscle tension d. Located within the muscle belly
c. Responds to change in muscle tension
What plane of movement should plyometric exercises begin in before progression? a. Transverse b. Frontal c. Sagittal
c. Sagittal
Based on current evidence, what type of stretching should be performed after activity that requires high muscular force? a. Ballistic stretching b. PNF stretching c. Static stretching d. Dynamic stretching
c. Static stretching
Which of the following is not true when considering the mechanical model of plyometrics? a. Model is based on the musculotendinous junction. b. If energy is not used quickly, it will be dissipated as heat. c. The elastic components of actin and myosin provide resistance to a passive stretch. d. It is described like a rubber band as the quicker the stretch the faster the return to original shape.
c. The elastic components of actin and myosin provide resistance to a passive stretch.
Of the following, which is the best definition of an "8 RM"? a. The greatest amount of resistance (load) a patient can lift or lower through the available ROM in 8 seconds b. The number of sets (bouts) of a specific exercise a patient can perform for 8 repetitions c. The greatest amount of resistance (load) a patient can lift or lower through the available ROM for 8 repetitions (no more, no less) d. The number of repetitions of a particular exercise a patient can perform in 8 seconds against a specific load (amount of resistance)
c. The greatest amount of resistance (load) a patient can lift or lower through the available ROM for 8 repetitions (no more, no less)
Which of the following is a false statement about joint arthrokinematics? a. If a moving joint surface is convex, sliding of that surface is opposite that of its swinging bone. b. Movement of the head of the radius against the capitulum during pronation/supination is called spin. c. The more congruent the joint surfaces are, the more rolling of one joint surface on the other occurs. d. In normal ovoid joints, rolling and sliding both occur.
c. The more congruent the joint surfaces are, the more rolling of one joint surface on the other occurs.
Which of the following bones represents the concave portion of the given joint? a. Humerus of the humeroradial articulation b. Clavicle of the sternoclavicular articulation c. Tibia of the talocrural articulation d. Femur of the tibiofemoral articulation
c. Tibia of the talocrural articulation
Which of the following best describes cross-training or cross-exercise, a phenomenon that has been observed as a result of resistance training? a. When resistance exercise is carried out by a muscle, the antagonist to that muscle also shows an increase in strength. b. When exercise is carried out concentrically against resistance, an increase in eccentric muscle strength in the same leg also occurs. c. When resistance exercise is carried out by a muscle group on the right side of the body, small gains in strength occur in the same unexercised muscle on the opposite side of the body. d. When training is carried out for the purpose of developing strength, muscular endurance also develops in that same muscle.
c. When resistance exercise is carried out by a muscle group on the right side of the body, small gains in strength occur in the same unexercised muscle on the opposite side of the body.
Postural control and stability are synonymous with a. perturbation b. sway c. balance
c. balance
Simultaneous action of agonist and antagonist muscles is called a. neutralization b. muscle synergy c. coactivation d. motor programming
c. coactivation
A small-amplitude movement at the end of and up to the pathological limit in the range of motion is considered a ______ joint mobilization. a. grade II b. grade III c. grade IV d. grade V
c. grade IV
When a muscle is short and tight, this is called a. eccentrically contracted b. hypotonic c. hypertonic d. pathologically contracted
c. hypertonic
The ultimate goal of plyometrics is to a. use both the concentric and eccentric components of exercise b. be an adjunct to functional training c. increase power production and explosiveness d. retrain all athletes regardless of age
c. increase power production and explosiveness
The less rest between plyometric exercise sets, the more emphasis will be on a. muscle strength and power b. power c. muscle endurance d. muscle strength
c. muscle endurance
Slow, controlled stretches held for 15 to 30 seconds are generally called a. facilitated b. active isolated c. static d. ballistic
c. static
A person on a suddenly moving platform would use which of following strategies as a last resort to maintain postural control? a. hopping strategy b. knee strategy c. stepping strategy d. hip strategy e. ankle strategy
c. stepping strategy
Sensory receptors in the ears provide ________ information used to maintain balance. a. proprioceptive b. ocular c. vestibular
c. vestibular
active cell for cartilage
chondrocyte
Many lower extremity movements in sports are considered _________ -kinetic chain movements, while most upper extremity movements in sports are considered __________-kinetic chain movements.
closed, open
______________is the secondary hemostatic mechanism and occurs in three phases. In phase I, the formation of __________________ occurs. In Phase 2, there is a conversion of Prothrombin II to ____________________ and then in phase III, conversion of _____________________to fibrin. This creates a stable and insoluble clot through the formation of fibrin filaments.
coagulation, prothrombinase, thrombin, fibrinogen
malfeasance
committing an act that is not one's job to act
concentric or eccentric: Muscle fibers shorten against resistance
concentric
concentric or eccentric: Positive work
concentric
concentric or eccentric: Requires more tension
concentric
_________________ is the complex process by which a smooth pattern of activity is produced through a combination of muscles acting together with appropriate intensity and timing.
coordination
According to the DeLorme-Watkins protocol what should the first set consist of? a. 10 repetitions at 100% of the patients 10RM b. 10 repetitions at 25% of the patients 10RM c. 10 repetitions at 75% of the patients 10RM d. 10 repetitions at 50% of the patients 10RM
d. 10 repetitions at 50% of the patients 10RM
Which of the following is the maximum recommended depth jump box height for an athlete who weighs over 220 pounds (100 kg)? a. 16 inches (41 cm) b. 42 inches (107 cm) c. 32 inches (81 cm) d. 18 inches (46 cm)
d. 18 inches (46 cm)
According to the Oxford protocol what weight would be used in the first set when your patient has a 1RM of 265 pounds and a 10RM of 200 pounds? a. 100 pounds b. 270 pounds c. 135 pounds d. 200 pounds
d. 200 pounds
A hamstring muscle that can go through a full range of motion and resist light manual resistance in sitting, but no manual resistance in prone, is graded a. 4 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
d. 3
A maximal isometric contraction can be sustained for how many seconds before fatigue becomes evident? a. 10-15 s b. less than 5 s c. 15-30 s d. 5-10 s
d. 5-10 s
According to guidelines, before initiating maximal plyometric exercise the athlete should be able to perform five squats in ____ seconds with ____ % of body weight. a. 10; 90 b. 5; 90 c. 10;60 d. 5; 60
d. 5; 60
Which of the following can be defined as the movement of a body part through an arc of motion with active muscle contraction? a. RROM b. PROM c. AAROM d. AROM
d. AROM
Your patient attempts to strengthen his quadriceps by positioning his hip at the end of range of hip flexion and knee extension. He reports weakness and inability to flex his hip more in this position. His report may best be explained by which of the following? a. Active insufficiency of the hamstrings b. Passive insufficiency of the quadriceps c. Passive insufficiency of the hamstrings d. Active insufficiency of the quadriceps
d. Active insufficiency of the quadriceps
Which of the following best describes how joint traction techniques are applied to the treatment plane to allow for joint separation? a. Application can be either perpendicular or parallel. b. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the same direction of the slide. c. Application is parallel to the treatment plane in the opposite direction of the slide. d. Application is perpendicular to the treatment plane.
d. Application is perpendicular to the treatment plane.
Which of the following stretching techniques requires the patient to perform dynamic elongation of a muscle beyond its normal range of motion? a. PNF stretching b. Static stretching c. Dynamic stretching d. Ballistic stretching
d. Ballistic stretching
What is the normal end-feel for elbow extension? a. Capsular or ligamentous b. Muscular stretch c. Soft tissue approximation d. Bone
d. Bone
What upper extremity PNF patterns starting position is described by the following: The shoulder is flexed, adducted, and externally rotated with the elbow and fingers flexed and the wrist in a neutral position? a. D2 Extension b. D1 Flexion c. D2 Flexion d. D1 Extension
d. D1 Extension
What lower extremity PNF pattern begins with the knee flexed, the ankle dorsiflexed, and the hip flexed, abducted, and internally rotated? a. D2 Flexion b. D1 Extension c. D1 Flexion d. D2 Extension
d. D2 Extension
You are having a patient perform manual resistance exercise of the lower extremity using a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) diagonal pattern. In which of the following lower extremity patterns is ankle dorsiflexion coupled with eversion resisted? a. D1 flexion b. D1 extension c. D2 extension d. D2 flexion
d. D2 flexion
Which of the following is a proper example of maximal plyometrics for the lower extremity? a. Squat jumps b. Jump squats c. Hurdle jumps d. Depth jumps
d. Depth jumps
Which of the following is not true when discussing distraction as a mobilization technique? a. Distraction is the most commonly used joint mobilization technique. b. Distraction can be used to relieve joint pain c. Distraction is crucial to the production and movement of synovial fluid. d. Distraction can be applied as a perpendicular force at the joint.
d. Distraction can be applied as a perpendicular force at the joint.
Which of the following stretching techniques involve actively moving a joint quickly through its normal range of motion to slightly elongate muscles? a. Static stretching b. Ballistic stretching c. PNF stretching d. Dynamic stretching
d. Dynamic stretching
Which of the following best defines muscle strength? a. Produce or control forces imposed during functional activities b. Work produced by a muscle per unit of time c. Ability of muscle to contract repeatedly against a load d. Force generated during a single maximum effort
d. Force generated during a single maximum effort
Which of the following correctly presents the loose-packed position of the given joint? a. Full ankle dorsiflexion: talocrural joint b. Full wrist extension: radiocarpal joint c. 90 degrees of shoulder abduction: acromioclavicular joint d. Full knee extension: patellofemoral articulation
d. Full knee extension: patellofemoral articulation
When considering the Concave-Convex Rule, direction of the ____ is determined by whether the moving surface is convex or concave. a. Swing b. Roll c. Spin d. Glide
d. Glide
A normal accessory joint movement that occurs with roll is: a. Swing. b. Distraction. c. Compression. d. Gliding.
d. Gliding.
Individuals with somatosensory deficits in the lower extremities tend to use which of the following motor strategies in response to balance disturbances? a. Stepping strategy b. Ankle strategy c. Suspensory strategy d. Hip strategy
d. Hip strategy
What term refers to the increase in cross-sectional size (myosin and actin get larger), dormant capillaries refill with blood, and strength increases accordingly with increased muscular size? a. Myoplasia b. Myogenesis c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy
d. Hypertrophy
When looking at plyometric program design, which of the following terms represents the amount of force being exerted by the working muscles? a. Recovery b. Frequency c. Volume d. Intensity
d. Intensity
Which of the following types of resistance exercises requires a constant speed of contraction with variable force? a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Isokinetic
d. Isokinetic
Which type of resistance exercise has the patient perform a muscular contraction with no change in joint angle? a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isokinetic d. Isometric
d. Isometric
Which of the following specifically addresses intra-articular tissues that are causing limitations in joint range of motion or normal joint mobility? a. PNF stretching b. Passive stretching c. Passive range of motion d. Joint mobilizations
d. Joint mobilizations
Which of the following describes a grade III joint mobilization technique? a. Small amplitude movement at the end range b. Thrusting movement done at the anatomical limits of the joint c. Small amplitude movement in the beginning of the range of motion d. Large amplitude movement throughout the middle to pathological range of motion of the joint
d. Large amplitude movement throughout the middle to pathological range of motion of the joint
Which of the following joint mobilization procedures matches the desired goal? a. Posterior glide of the tibia on femur—increase knee extension b. Dorsal glide of the navicular on talus—increase foot supination c. Caudal glide patella—increase knee extension d. Lateral glide of the calcaneus on talus—increase subtalar inversion
d. Lateral glide of the calcaneus on talus—increase subtalar inversion
Which of the following is not a common cause of forward shoulder posture? a. Abnormal cervical spine sagittal plane curvature b. Abnormal thoracic spine sagittal plane curvature c. Poor postural sense d. Lengthened anterior chest muscles
d. Lengthened anterior chest muscles
What aspect of muscular performance is directly related to the cross-sectional area of a particular muscle? a. No aspect of muscular performance is directly related to cross-sectional area. b. Muscular endurance c. Muscular power d. Muscular strength
d. Muscular strength
A patient that presents with decreased active and passive range of motion with pain at the end of the range in the same direction is more likely to have which of the following? a. Tight ligaments b. Muscle weakness c. Joint derangement d. Musculotendinous limitation
d. Musculotendinous limitation
Which of the following mobilization techniques can be used to stretch a joint? a. Oscillation grade II b. Sustained grade II c. Sustained grade I d. Oscillation grade III
d. Oscillation grade III
Task-dependent disturbances of motion are termed __________. a. compensations b. kinematic alterations c. dynamic adjustments d. perturbations
d. perturbations
Mr. Z is a 68-year-old man who underwent abdominal surgery 3 months ago. Since his surgery, he has had difficulty walking. You determine that during the period of bed rest and modified activity, his legs have become quite weak, contributing to his difficulty walking. The ROM of his lower extremities is within normal limits. You determine that the 10 RM for the hip extensors and quadriceps bilaterally (measured on a bilateral leg press unit) is only 20 lb. After a brief warm-up on a stationary bicycle, you have Mr. Z perform the following PRE regimen: 10 repetitions of hip and knee extension against 20 lb; 10 repetitions against 15 lb; and 10 repetitions against 10 lb with a rest between each set of 10 repetitions. This approach to PRE is known as: a. DAPRE regimen. b. DeLorme regimen. c. Circuit weight training. d. Oxford regimen.
d. Oxford regimen.
What is the appropriate progression of range of motion exercises for a postsurgical patient? a. PROM, AROM, AAROM, RROM b. AROM, PROM, AAROM, RROM c. AAROM, PROM, AROM, RROM d. PROM, AAROM, AROM, RROM
d. PROM, AAROM, AROM, RROM
Which of the following is an indication for joint mobilization? a. Joint hypermobility b. Muscle contracture c. Joint effusion d. Pain
d. Pain
Which of the following is not true about Grades I and II graded oscillation joint mobilizations? a. Primarily used for pain modulation b. Stimulate mechanoreceptors that block nociceptive pathways c. Increase production and movement of synovial fluid d. Performed near the end of the range
d. Performed near the end of the range
Which of the following contractures is more likely to occur following surgical intervention? a. Ischemic contracture b. Myostatic contracture c. Irreversible contracture d. Scar tissue contracture
d. Scar tissue contracture
Which of the following is not a proper exercise example for the submaximal phase of plyometric progression? a. Jump squats b. Skipping c. Bounding d. Single-leg box jumps
d. Single-leg box jumps
Which of the following tests requires the patient to maintain balance while standing on one leg with progressive challenges to the visual and somatosensory systems? a. Functional reach test b. Romberg test c. Balance error scoring system d. Single-leg stance test
d. Single-leg stance test
When evaluating a patient, which of the following does not indicate the presence of capsular tightness? a. Joint play restriction in one or more directions when assessed passively b. Firm end-feel with application of overpressure c. Demonstration of capsular pattern d. Soft end-feel with application of overpressure
d. Soft end-feel with application of overpressure
Which of the following motions occur when one point on the moving surface creates an arc of contact on the stationary surface? a. Swing b. Glide c. Roll d. Spin
d. Spin
Which factors affect the amount of resistance provided by elastic resistance bands during exercise? a. Stretch of the band and speed of movement b. Length of the muscle and stretch of the band c. Angle of the band in relation to the moving bone and length of the muscle d. Stretch of the band and angle of the band in relation to the moving bone
d. Stretch of the band and angle of the band in relation to the moving bone
When trying to rehabilitate the antagonist muscle when the agonist is overactivated, which of the following is the first step in the rehabilitation? a. Strengthen the antagonist. b. Strengthen the agonist. c. Stretch the antagonist d. Stretch the agonist.
d. Stretch the agonist.
When applying the Concave-Convex Rule, which of the following is not true when examining open-kinetic chain knee extension? a. Spin does not occur. b. The roll occurs in the anterior direction. c. The swing is in the anterior direction. d. The slide occurs in the posterior direction.
d. The slide occurs in the posterior direction.
Which of the following is a true statement considering Type IIa and Type IIb muscle fibers? a. Type IIa fibers demonstrate moderate resistance to fatigue. b. When compared to Type I fibers, Types IIa and IIb fibers are found in higher percentages in the gastrocnemius muscle. c. Type IIb fibers are considered "true fast-twitch" fibers. d. Type IIb fibers utilize oxygen and glycogen for energy.
d. Type IIb fibers utilize oxygen and glycogen for energy.
Which of the following is not a possible reason for limited ankle dorsiflexion range of motion? a. Weak tibialis anterior b. Tight gastrocnemius soleus complex c. Talocrural capsular tightness d. Weak gastrocnemius soleus complex
d. Weak gastrocnemius soleus complex
When following the DAPRE protocol, what should the fourth set weight be? a. 75% of the working weight b. 100% of the working weight c. 50% of the working weight d. Weight is adjusted based on the previous set.
d. Weight is adjusted based on the previous set.
Progressive overload is needed for muscle hypertrophy to occur. The best way to ensure that muscle hypertrophy occurs is to a. perform high-resistance activities no more than twice a week b. maximally stress particular muscles by working with heavy weights four times a week c. keep the repetitions the same throughout the entire rehabilitation program d. adjust exercise goals to ensure muscle fatigue at each session
d. adjust exercise goals to ensure muscle fatigue at each session
When you use rapid, bouncing movements at the pathological end range to force a muscle to stretch, this is called a. active isolated b. dynamic c. passive d. ballistic
d. ballistic
The all-or-none law refers to the response of the a. entire muscle b. largest motor units only c. smallest motor units only d. entire motor unit e. midsection of the muscle
d. entire motor unit
The recommended surface(s) for lower-extremity plyometric exercise performance is (are) a. asphalt b. rubber over concrete c. rubber over concrete and grass only d. grass
d. grass
In designing a resistance training program, the first step should be a. exercise selection b. determining training frequency c. exercise order d. needs analysis e. determining rest periods
d. needs analysis
What principle addresses the need for a person to exercise at increasing levels of difficulty to maintain progress? a. intensity b. volume c. specificity d. overload
d. overload
A 20-year old basketball player underwent an anterior cruciate reconstruction in March but never participated in postoperative rehabilitation. Her surgery was 10 months ago. She lacks 20° of full extension in the knee. One of the most effective methods to stretch the knee to regain motion is a. static stretches b. PNF stretches c. dynamic stretches d. prolonged (creep) stretches
d. prolonged (creep) stretches
kinematics
describes the appearance of motion
PNF patterns are ____________ and _______________ movements
diagonal, rotational
The stress-strain curve indicates the relationship between stresses and strains of tissue. Strain is a. the tissue's initial response to outside forces b. the amount of force applied to tissue c. the breaking point of tissue d. the rate of improvement when a stretch is applied e. the amount of deformation tissue undergoes
e. the amount of deformation tissue undergoes
Closed Link system
each moving body segment receives force from and transfers force to, adjacent body segments
concentric or eccentric: Generates greater force
eccentric
concentric or eccentric: Muscle fibers lengthen against resistance
eccentric
concentric or eccentric: Works to decelerate a limb
eccentric
Ligament and tendon tissue obtain their extensibility primarily from ______________ and their strength from _________________.
elastin, collagen
nonfeasance
failing to perform one's duty of care
T/F: Tetanus is a sustained maximal contraction of a muscle.
false
T/F: When an athlete shifts her line of gravity closer toward the perimeter or outside of the supporting base, she is increasing her stability.
false
active cell for ligament
fibroblast
active cell for tendon
fibroblast
The period of scar formation is known as ___________________.
fibrosis
difference between abdominal hollowing and abdominal bracing
hallowing: contracts local muscles, bracing: contracts global and local muscles
Which of the following is considered a factor of stretching that influences tissue elongation? (Select all that apply) i. Duration of the stretch ii. Temperature of the tissue being stretched iii. Hand position of the clinician iv. Velocity of the stretch
i. Duration of the stretch ii. Temperature of the tissue being stretched iv. Velocity of the stretch
Which of the following is true when considering closed-kinetic chain exercise? (Select all that apply) i. Forces begin distal and are progressively transmitted up the kinetic chain. ii. Proximal joint influences the distal joints position and function. iii. Closed kinetic chain can also termed weight bearing. iv. Compressive forces are applied to fixed distal joint.
i. Forces begin distal and are progressively transmitted up the kinetic chain. iii. Closed kinetic chain can also termed weight bearing. iv. Compressive forces are applied to fixed distal joint.
Which of the following is gained through the incorporation of plyometric training? (Select all that apply) i. Heightening of reflexes ii. Proprioceptive awareness iii. Neuromuscular function
i. Heightening of reflexes ii. Proprioceptive awareness iii. Neuromuscular function
Which of the following is true about Grades I and II graded oscillation joint mobilizations? (Select all that apply) i. Increase production and movement of synovial fluid ii. Performed near the end of the range iii. Stimulate mechanoreceptors that block nociceptive pathways iv. Primarily used for pain modulation
i. Increase production and movement of synovial fluid iii. Stimulate mechanoreceptors that block nociceptive pathways iv. Primarily used for pain modulation
Which of the following is true regarding open-chain exercise? (Select all that apply) i. It is less effective for developing co-activation of muscle groups and dynamic stability than closed-chain training. ii. Against similar exercise loads, it causes lower levels of shear in the joint than closed-chain exercise. iii. Muscles develop strength less quickly than with closed-chain exercise iv. It is a better choice than closed-chain exercise to isolate and train weak muscle groups.
i. It is less effective for developing co-activation of muscle groups and dynamic stability than closed-chain training. iii. Muscles develop strength less quickly than with closed-chain exercise iv. It is a better choice than closed-chain exercise to isolate and train weak muscle groups.
Which of the following is a true statement about isokinetic exercise: (Select all that apply) i. It provides maximal resistance throughout the available ROM. ii. Current technology provides resistance only to concentric muscle contractions. iii. It accommodates for a painful arc. iv. It accommodates for muscle fatigue.
i. It provides maximal resistance throughout the available ROM. iii. It accommodates for a painful arc. iv. It accommodates for muscle fatigue.
Which of the following is an indication for joint mobilization? (Select all that apply) i. Joint pain ii. Muscle guarding iii. Muscle spasm iv. Joint hypermobility
i. Joint pain ii. Muscle guarding iii. Muscle spasm
Which of the following describes the proper landing technique? (Select all that apply) i. Knee positioned in line with foot ii. Feet shoulder width apart iii. Shoulders positioned behind knees iv. No valgus motion of the knee
i. Knee positioned in line with foot ii. Feet shoulder width apart iv. No valgus motion of the knee
Which of the following is a true statement about motor units within muscles? (Select all that apply) i. Muscles responsible for gross movement are composed of motor units with a large number of fibers. ii. Muscles responsible for fine motor movements are composed of motor units with few muscle fibers. iii. When a motor unit is activated, all muscle fibers associated with that unit will contract. iv. A single motor unit is comprised of both slow- and fast-twitch fibers.
i. Muscles responsible for gross movement are composed of motor units with a large number of fibers. ii. Muscles responsible for fine motor movements are composed of motor units with few muscle fibers. iii. When a motor unit is activated, all muscle fibers associated with that unit will contract.
Which of the following is an indication that muscle fatigue is occurring when a patient is exercising against resistance: (Select all that apply) i. Muscular tremor occurring during the exercise. ii. A gradual increase in temperature (sensation of warmth) in the exercising muscles. iii. The patient may not be able to complete the available range of motion (ROM) against the initial level of resistance applied. iv. The patient may attempt to use a substitute motion and muscle group to perform the exercise.
i. Muscular tremor occurring during the exercise. iii. The patient may not be able to complete the available range of motion (ROM) against the initial level of resistance applied. iv. The patient may attempt to use a substitute motion and muscle group to perform the exercise.
During the ground contact time of jump training, it is important to enhance which of the following aspects? (Select all that apply) i. Postural stability ii. Proprioception iii. Kinesthetic awareness
i. Postural stability ii. Proprioception iii. Kinesthetic awareness
Which of the following would be marked as an error when taking the Balance Error Scoring System test? (Select all that apply) i. Rear foot coming up off the ground ii. Abducting hip 15 degrees iii. Opening eyes iv. Taking a hand off the hip
i. Rear foot coming up off the ground iii. Opening eyes iv. Taking a hand off the hip
Each of the following is characteristic of DOMS: (Select all that apply) i. Tends to peak 48 to 72 hours after the conclusion of high-intensity exercise. ii. Occurs more frequently after eccentric exercise than isometric exercise. iii. Increased soreness seen during passive lengthening of the involved muscle groups. iv. Is believed to be caused by postexercise muscle spasm.
i. Tends to peak 48 to 72 hours after the conclusion of high-intensity exercise. ii. Occurs more frequently after eccentric exercise than isometric exercise. iii. Increased soreness seen during passive lengthening of the involved muscle groups.
Which of the following does the SAID principle not influence? (Select all that apply) i. The selection of open versus closed kinetic chain exercise ii. The selection of specific muscles or muscle groups to strengthen iii. The range of motion through which the exercise is performed
i. The selection of open versus closed kinetic chain exercise ii. The selection of specific muscles or muscle groups to strengthen iii. The range of motion through which the exercise is performed
kinetics
involves the forces, whether internal or external that affect motion.
Which of the following is a result of an active warm-up? (Select all that apply) i. Tissue extensibility is increased. ii. Golgi tendon organ activity is stimulated. iii. Tissue temperature is increased. iv. Muscle spindle activity is increased
i. Tissue extensibility is increased. ii. Golgi tendon organ activity is stimulated. iii. Tissue temperature is increased.
Joint mobilization techniques are used to: (Select all that apply) i. increase joint accessory and physiological movement ii. relieve pain iii. improve range of motion
i. increase joint accessory and physiological movement ii. relieve pain iii. improve range of motion
Which of the following are main purposes of postural control (Select all that apply) i. providing mechanical support for motion. ii. maintenance of equilibrium and balance. iii. performance enhancement. iv. antigravity function.
i. providing mechanical support for motion. ii. maintenance of equilibrium and balance. iv. antigravity function.
Balance is a function of the: (Select all that apply) i. vestibular system ii. oculomotor system iii. somatosensory system
i. vestibular system ii. oculomotor system iii. somatosensory system
Which of the following are true of the repetition maximum (RM): (Select all that apply) i. Establishing a 1-RM involves trial and error and so has been determined to be invalid for use in research studies for resistance training. ii. A 1-RM can be mathematically calculated from a patient's ability to perform multiple reps at a reduced load. iii. RM can be used to document a baseline for a muscle group's dynamic strength. iv. RM is an effective way to determine an appropriate exercise load to begin and progress strength training.
ii. A 1-RM can be mathematically calculated from a patient's ability to perform multiple reps at a reduced load. iii. RM can be used to document a baseline for a muscle group's dynamic strength. iv. RM is an effective way to determine an appropriate exercise load to begin and progress strength training.
Which of the following is true when considering muscle spindles? (Select all that apply) i. Responds to change in muscle tension ii. Especially sensitive to rapid change in length iii. Located within the muscle belly iv. When stimulated can cause reflexive contraction of the muscle
ii. Especially sensitive to rapid change in length iii. Located within the muscle belly iv. When stimulated can cause reflexive contraction of the muscle
Which of the following is true about joint mobilizations? (Select all that apply) i. Involves a quick movement ii. Involves a large amplitude movement iii. Involves a small amplitude movement iv. Involves a slow movement
ii. Involves a large amplitude movement iii. Involves a small amplitude movement iv. Involves a slow movement
Which of the following is true about Grade II sustained translator joint-play? (Select all that apply) i. It can be used to increase joint mobility. ii. It can be employed to decrease pain. iii. It can be used to maintain joint play in cases where active and passive motion is not allowed. iv. It can be used to determine tissue sensitivity prior to progressing to more aggressive techniques.
ii. It can be employed to decrease pain. iii. It can be used to maintain joint play in cases where active and passive motion is not allowed. iv. It can be used to determine tissue sensitivity prior to progressing to more aggressive techniques.
Which of the following is an advantage of plyometric exercise? (Select all that apply) i. A large maximal force can be obtained through the use of added resistance. ii. Maximal dynamic forces are developed very rapidly. iii. Elastic energy obtained by stretching the muscle helps produce faster muscular contractions. iv. Magnitude of maximum force is significantly greater than that produced by other training methods.
ii. Maximal dynamic forces are developed very rapidly. iii. Elastic energy obtained by stretching the muscle helps produce faster muscular contractions. iv. Magnitude of maximum force is significantly greater than that produced by other training methods.
Which of the following is true statement about Golgi tendon organs? (Select all that apply) i. When stretching for longer than 8 seconds, they are overridden by muscle spindles. ii. They are located within the tendon of muscles. iii. They detect and respond to tension within the tendon. iv. When stimulated, they cause relaxation of the involved muscle.
ii. They are located within the tendon of muscles. iii. They detect and respond to tension within the tendon. iv. When stimulated, they cause relaxation of the involved muscle
Collagen is produced primarily during the ______________ phase.
proliferation
_____________________ is the body's ability to transmit position sense, interpret the information, and respond consciously or unconsciously to stimulation through appropriate execution of posture and movement.
proprioception
