JJ

Day reporting centers in the United States now number over: a. 500. b. 700. c. 1000. d. 1500.

a. 500.

The first American day reporting centers were established in: a. Connecticut and Massachusetts. b. Rhode Island and Connecticut. c. Rhode Island and New York. d. New York and Connecticut.

a. Connecticut and Massachusetts.

Day reporting centers were first established in: a. England. b. Germany. c. New York. d. Chicago.

a. England.

The first probation law was enacted in: a. Massachusetts. b. Chicago. c. Boston. d. New York.

a. Massachusetts.

A projection of future behavior based on a class of similar offenders is called: a. actuarial prediction. b. anamnestic prediction. c. clinical prediction. d. aggregated prediction.

a. actuarial prediction.

The U.S. Supreme Court case of Barker v. Wingo held that: a. adult offenders are entitled to a speedy trial. b. juvenile offenders are entitled to a speedy trial. c. both adult and juvenile offenders are entitled to a speedy trial. d. juvenile offenders are entitled to a jury trial.

a. adult offenders are entitled to a speedy trial.

The release of juvenile court records to interested parties is permissible in: a. all states. b. no states. c. thirty states. d. most states.

a. all states.

Long-term detention usually lasts for: a. an average of 180 days. b. approximately one year or longer. c. about two months. d. six months.

a. an average of 180 days.

Shock incarceration is: a. an intermediate punishment. b. designed to punish youth. c. nonsecure placement. d. similar to a group home.

a. an intermediate punishment.

The case of In re Winship resulted in the standard of: a. beyond a reasonable doubt. b. clear and convincing evidence. c. a preponderance of evidence. d. the weight of the evidence.

a. beyond a reasonable doubt.

Chronic delays in juvenile offender processing are: a. common. b. uncommon. c. unconstitutional. d. a violation of a juvenile's right to a speedy trial.

a. common.

The term "with prejudice" means that juvenile court prosecutors can: a. dismiss charges and cannot refile charges at a later date. b. continue to prosecute, but with no animosity toward the defendant. c. dismiss charges, but have the option to refile charges at a later date. d. continue to prosecute and move that the record be open to the public.

a. dismiss charges and cannot refile charges at a later date.

The term "without prejudice" means that juvenile court prosecutors can: a. dismiss charges, but have the option to refile charges at a later date. b. continue to prosecute, but recommend reduced punishment. c. dismiss charges with the understanding that charges cannot be brought again. d. continue to prosecute, but seal the record upon adjudication of delinquency.

a. dismiss charges, but have the option to refile charges at a later date.

The intake process in most jurisdictions in the United States is: a. diverse. b. identical. c. irrelevant. d. conducted by juvenile court judges.

a. diverse.

Exonerating evidence is designated as: a. exculpatory. b. extralegal. c. nonlegal. d. inculpatory.

a. exculpatory.

Those juveniles who are predicted to be safe risks for rehabilitation and actually turn out to be quite dangerous are called: a. false negatives. b. negatives. c. positives. d. false positives.

a. false negatives.

Intake officers: a. have broad discretionary powers. b. can sentence juveniles to long-term detention. c. can order the release of youths from industrial schools. d. are normally appointed by the mayor.

a. have broad discretionary powers.

Regarding due process rights, juveniles: a. have such rights. b. do not have such rights. c. only have these rights if judges grant them. d. only have these rights if intake officers agree.

a. have such rights.

Juvenile courts waived jurisdiction to adult criminal courts in: a. less than one percent of all formally handled cases. b. more than ten percent of all formally handled cases. c. more than 56 percent of all formally handled cases. d. more than five percent of all formally handled cases.

a. less than one percent of all formally handled cases.

One unintended consequence of diversion is: a. net-widening. b. corporal punishment. c. arbitration. d. alternative dispute resolution.

a. net-widening.

The IJA/ABA standards relating to processing juveniles recommends: a. no more than two hours between police referral and decision to detain. b. no more than 4 hours between police referral and decision to detain. c. no more than 24 hours between police referral and decision to detain. d. no more than 48 hours between police referral and decision to detain.

a. no more than two hours between police referral and decision to detain.

A suspected juvenile offender released with a warning by a police officer at the stationhouse is an example of a: a. nominal disposition. b. diversion. c. preliminary diversion. d. restoration.

a. nominal disposition.

In the United States, the minimum age for transferring juveniles to adult criminal court is: a. none. b. ten. c. 12. d. 13.

a. none.

Regarding the decisiveness of parole revocations for juveniles, the U.S. Supreme Court has: a. not ruled decisively. b. ruled decisively. c. refused to hear these cases. d. None of the above

a. not ruled decisively.

A legal factor in an intake hearing is: a. one's prior record of delinquency. b. one's social status. c. one's appearance. d. one's ethnicity.

a. one's prior record of delinquency.

The largest number of delinquency cases to the juvenile court are referred by: a. police officers. b. intake officers. c. magistrates. d. court officers.

a. police officers.

One major reason why perpetual juvenile offenders are diverted from formal juvenile court processing is: a. poor record keeping among juvenile jurisdictions. b. too many intake officers. c. weak prosecutorial policies of juvenile courts. d. significant gaps in evidence accumulated in the average juvenile case.

a. poor record keeping among juvenile jurisdictions.

With direct filing, the court officer who has sole authority to refer a case from juvenile to adult court is the: a. prosecutor. b. defense attorney. c. juvenile court judge. d. criminal court judge.

a. prosecutor.

Of all the probation programs conducted, no program has a: a. recidivism rate of zero. b. recidivism rate of less than 100 percent. c. recidivism rate of over 50 percent. d. recidivism rate of less than 30 percent.

a. recidivism rate of zero.

Conditional probation: a. tailors conditions to the individual juvenile offender. b. is standardized. c. imposes the same conditions for all. d. requires little supervision.

a. tailors conditions to the individual juvenile offender.

Secure confinement involves placing the youth in boot camps and: a. training schools and other similar institutions. b. on house arrest. c. in foster care. d. on intensive probation.

a. training schools and other similar institutions.

Predicting juvenile violence is: a. uncertain. b. perfected. c. accurate. d. justified by selective incapacitation research.

a. uncertain.

Historically, the cutoff point between a successful probation program and an unsuccessful one is a recidivism rate of: a. 25 percent. b. 30 percent. c. 40 percent. d. 50 percent.

b. 30 percent.

Which type of offender is likely to be punished most severely? a. A gang member who gets in a fight. b. A juvenile who sells marijuana while on probation. c. A juvenile who tells police where to find stolen property. d. A juvenile who gets drunk and shoplifts.

b. A juvenile who sells marijuana while on probation.

Juvenile offenders can have their case transferred to adult criminal court based on criteria set forth in the U.S. Supreme Court case of: a. In re Winship. b. Kent v. United States. c. In re Gault. d. Barker v. Wingo.

b. Kent v. United States.

Which of the following is NOT considered a goal of juvenile corrections? a. Deterrence. b. Leniency and forgiveness. c. Rehabilitation and reintegration. d. Punishment and retribution.

b. Leniency and forgiveness.

An informal resolution of a case by an intake officer is called a(n): a. plea bargain. b. adjustment. c. adjudication. d. judgment.

b. adjustment.

When juvenile offenders are removed to the custody of a foster home or group home, they are considered: a. status offenders. b. placed. c. confined. d. processed.

b. placed.

The teen court model where adults are judges and teens fill the role of prosecutor, defense attorney, and jury is called the: a. tribunal model. b. adult judge model. c. youth judge model. d. peer jury model.

b. adult judge model.

An example of specialized conditions of probation would be: a. obey all laws. b. attend a driver safety course. c. permit the probation officer to visit. d. answer your probation officer truthfully.

b. attend a driver safety course.

Blended sentencing is when: a. both juvenile court and criminal court judges collaborate on sentencing. b. both juvenile and adult penalties are imposed. c. both incarceration and probation penalties are given out. d. the juvenile judge adjudicates while the criminal court judge sentences.

b. both juvenile and adult penalties are imposed.

Juvenile courts are increasingly: a. less formal. b. bureaucratic. c. one-sided. d. more punishment-centered.

b. bureaucratic.

Confinement in a secure juvenile facility usually for a year or longer is called a: a. secure placement. b. commitment placement. c. short-term confinement. d. shock probation.

b. commitment placement.

The most popular case supervision planning model is the: a. static model. b. conventional model. c. numbers game model. d. random model.

b. conventional model.

In recent years, juvenile violence has: a. increased. b. decreased. c. stayed the same. c. not been studied.

b. decreased.

The Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 was designed to: a. punish chronic juvenile offenders. b. deinstitutionalize status offenders. c. create long-term secure confinement institutions. d. None of the above

b. deinstitutionalize status offenders.

Waivers left to the sole decision-making authority of juvenile court judges are called: a. mandatory waivers. b. discretionary waivers. c. presumptive waivers. d. direct waivers.

b. discretionary waivers.

Temporarily directing certain youths away from the juvenile justice system is accomplished through: a. expungement. b. diversion. c. interruption. d. probation.

b. diversion.

New juvenile codes that have contributed to greater bureaucratization of the juvenile courts have emerged largely through an emphasis upon a juvenile's right to: a. rehabilitation. b. due process. c. preventive detention. d. a jury trial

b. due process.

The confidentiality privilege for juvenile offenders has: a. increased in recent years. b. eroded in recent years. c. gone unchanged in the past thirty years. d. prohibited juvenile identification.

b. eroded in recent years.

Hard time in confinement is also known as: a. curved time. b. flat time. c. strict time. d. determined time.

b. flat time.

An example of nonsecure confinement is: a. boot camp. b. group home. c. shock probation. d. industrial school.

b. group home.

The role of juvenile court prosecutors today compared with their role 25 years ago: a. is pretty much the same. b. has been significantly transformed. c. has resulted in less discretionary power. d. None of the above

b. has been significantly transformed.

Probation is the disposition imposed: a. in 90 percent of all cases. b. in over half of all cases. c. in 25 percent of all cases. d. in few cases.

b. in over half of all cases.

For many juveniles their understanding of their rights under the law is safeguarded and explained by: a. statute. b. intake officers. c. close neighbors. d. juvenile court lobbyists.

b. intake officers.

The decision whether to release juveniles to their parents' custody or detain them in formal detention facilities for a later court appearance is generally left to: a. police officers. b. intake officers. c. magistrates. d. court officers.

b. intake officers.

Different aspects of supervising youthful offenders would collectively be termed: a. probation. b. juvenile corrections. c. juvenile diversion. d. None of the above

b. juvenile corrections.

Of all the violent crime arrests, juveniles accounted for: a. more than 50 percent b. less than 20 percent c. more than 80 percent d. no violent crime

b. less than 20 percent

Changes in the standard of proof in juvenile courts have made cases against juveniles: a. easier to prove. b. more difficult to prove. c. easier to process. d. more dependent on the parens patriae doctrine.

b. more difficult to prove.

Today, juvenile records are: a. less likely to be made available for public view. b. more likely to be made available for public view. c. sealed from public view in most jurisdictions. d. sealed from public view in all jurisdictions.

b. more likely to be made available for public view.

The number of youths in the foster care system total: a. 250,000. b. more than 400,000. c. over one million. d. about 100,000.

b. more than 400,000.

The IJA/ABA standards relating to processing juveniles recommends: a. no more than 12 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention. b. no more than 24 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention. c. no more than 48 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention. d. no more than three days between detention and petition justifying further detention.

b. no more than 24 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention.

The adult judge model of teen courts is used in about: a. one-fourth of all teen courts in the country. b. one-half of all teen courts in the country. c. two-thirds of all teen courts in the country. d. three-fourths of all teen courts in the country.

b. one-half of all teen courts in the country.

The youth judge model of teen courts is used in about: a. one-fourth of all teen courts in the country. b. one-third of all teen courts in the country. c. one-half of all teen courts in the country. d. two-thirds of all teen courts in the country.

b. one-third of all teen courts in the country.

Predictors of dangerousness and risk include all of the following, except: a. number of past offenses. b. playing sports. c. poor parenting skills. d. young age at first offense.

b. playing sports.

The most frequently-used sanction by juvenile court judges is: a. parole. b. probation. c. diversion. d. incarceration.

b. probation.

Detention decisions by intake officers are: a. unconstitutional. b. rare. c. permitted. d. only done with the approval of arresting police officers.

b. rare.

The mainstay of juvenile corrections is: a. punishment. b. rehabilitation. c. isolation. d. deterrence.

b. rehabilitation.

Terminating one's parole program because of new delinquency adjudications, new crimes, or technical programs violations is: a. expungement. b. revocation. c. retaliation. d. retribution.

b. revocation.

An integral feature of classification systems is: a. psychoanalysis. b. risk assessment. c. race. d. socioeconomic status.

b. risk assessment.

Diversion is a program that usually requires offenders to do: a. nothing. b. something. c. time in home confinement. d. 30 days in jail.

b. something.

Informal juries of one's peers are often referred to as: a. kangaroo courts. b. teen courts. c. adolescent courts. d. juvenile courts.

b. teen courts.

Someone who is predicted to be dangerous and actually turns out to be dangerous is called a: a. false positive. b. true positive. c. true negative. d. false negative.

b. true positive.

At a juvenile's intake hearing, the attendance of his victim(s) is: a. required. b. voluntary. c. compulsory. d. statutory.

b. voluntary.

The key legal case where the standard of proof for juvenile court proceedings was established was: a. In re Gault. b. In re Myron. c. In re Winship. d. In re Stanford.

c. In re Winship.

Parole for juveniles is also referred to as: a. conditional release. b. reentry. c. aftercare. d. rehabilitation.

c. aftercare.

An extralegal factor in an intake hearing is: a. seriousness of the crime. b. prior record. c. age. d. type of crime committed.

c. age.

Any circumstance that increases the seriousness of one's delinquent acts is called: a. mitigating. b. intervening. c. aggravating. d. complicating.

c. aggravating.

Recidivism rates for those juveniles placed on standard probation: a. are highly accurate. b. are very low. c. are not uniformly maintained. d. are easy to forecast.

c. are not uniformly maintained.

The terms "waiver" and "transfer": a. have distinctly different meanings. b. vary depending on federal and state courts. c. are used interchangeably. d. differ according to the stage of juvenile proceedings.

c. are used interchangeably.

All probation is: a. without conditions. b. punitive. c. conditional. d. statutory.

c. conditional.

The Balanced Approach to juvenile probation is a: a. punitive approach. b. rehabilitative approach. c. constructive approach. d. conventional approach.

c. constructive approach.

A judge's citation to a status offender who fails to follow court orders is known as: a. placement. b. divestiture. c. contempt of court. d. adjudication.

c. contempt of court.

Programs that use restitution as a condition of probation: a. increase recidivism rates because juveniles cannot repay. b. increase recidivism rates because juveniles don't take responsibility. c. decrease recidivism because juveniles are required to repay their victims. d. decrease recidivism because juveniles know it's a condition of probation.

c. decrease recidivism because juveniles are required to repay their victims.

Race and ethnicity are: a. legal factors. b. inadequate predictors of future behaviors. c. extralegal factors. d. None of the above

c. extralegal factors.

Sound predictive models should exhibit validity and reality and be dynamic rather than: a. stable. b. unpredictable. c. fixed. d. public.

c. fixed.

Facilities which help incarcerated delinquents make the transition back into the community are known as: a. group homes. b. foster homes. c. halfway houses. c. transitional homes.

c. halfway houses.

With the deinstitutionalization of status offenders (DSO), the number of status offenders formally processed by juvenile courts: a. is virtually nonexistent. b. has reduced significantly. c. has increased significantly. d. are never formally processed.

c. has increased significantly.

Unconditional probation: a. has special restrictions attached. b. minimizes the juvenile's movement. c. has no formal controls to monitor the juvenile's behavior. d. requires specialized individual attention.

c. has no formal controls to monitor the juvenile's behavior.

Waivers are: a. initiated by judges only. b. initiated by prosecutors only. c. initiated by either prosecutors or judges. d. initiated by prosecutors with a judge's approval.

c. initiated by either prosecutors or judges.

The second major step in the juvenile justice process is: a. police-juvenile contact. b. arrest. c. intake. d. referral.

c. intake.

One of the benefits of diversion is: a. it widens the net over juveniles brought into the juvenile justice system. b. it's suitable for all offenders. c. it decreases the caseload of juvenile court prosecutors. d. it increases the focus on delinquent offenders.

c. it decreases the caseload of juvenile court prosecutors.

During intake proceedings, defense attorneys: a. are barred from attending. b. are compelled to attend. c. may attend. d. can only attend with the permission of juvenile court judges.

c. may attend.

With standard probation, probationer contact with probation officers is: a. stringent. b. excessive. c. minimal. d. burdensome.

c. minimal.

Verbal or written warnings to low-risk first offenders are known as: a. diversion. b. first offender warnings. c. nominal dispositions. d. preliminary dispositions.

c. nominal dispositions.

Short-term detention usually lasts for: a. about two months. b. one year or less. c. one to 30 days. d. 12 hours.

c. one to 30 days.

A close parallel has been drawn between the intake proceeding and: a. an interrogation. b. booking. c. plea bargaining. d. an inquisition.

c. plea bargaining.

Juvenile court judges sometimes refer to documents prepared by juvenile probation officers about a youth's background and family circumstances. These documents are called: a. anamnestic prediction reports. b. intensive prediction reports. c. predispositional reports. d. clinical prediction reports.

c. predispositional reports.

An intended consequence of diversion is to: a. net more juveniles into the juvenile justice system. b. formally process more juveniles. c. remove more juveniles from juvenile court processing. d. increase the number of stationhouse adjustments.

c. remove more juveniles from juvenile court processing.

An action by the criminal court to transfer a direct file or statutory exclusion care back to juvenile court is referred to as a: a. demand waiver. b. legislative waiver. c. reverse waiver. d. mandatory waiver.

c. reverse waiver.

Incarcerating individuals who show a high likelihood of repeating their criminal conduct based on the potential for recidivism is known as: a. corporal punishment. b. capital punishment. c. selective incapacitation. d. categorical capacitation.

c. selective incapacitation.

Group homes differ from shelter care facilities in that: a. shelter care facilities are usually in residential areas and group homes are not. b. shelter care facilities house more youths than group homes. c. shelter care facilities are short-term, while group homes are longer-term. d. shelter care facilities are nonsecure, while group homes are secure.

c. shelter care facilities are short-term, while group homes are longer-term.

Shelter care facilities and foster homes differ in that: a. foster homes house more children. b. foster homes accommodate youth from different age groups. c. shelter care facilities house more children. d. shelter care facilities are used for violent offenders.

c. shelter care facilities house more children.

The premise behind shock incarceration is that the youths sentenced will be: a. shocked by the probation. b. shocked by the length of the probation. c. shocked by the incarceration. d. shocked by the threat of incarceration.

c. shocked by the incarceration.

Criticism that juvenile courts rely on extralegal factors in making dispositions is based on: a. the numbers of all juveniles formally processed. b. a comparison of punishments handed down by these courts. c. the high numbers of minorities arrested, adjudicated, and confined. d. the increase in females formally processed.

c. the high numbers of minorities arrested, adjudicated, and confined.

Functions of diversion include: a. decreasing the caseload of juvenile court prosecutors. b. reducing recidivism. c. reducing the degree of institutionalization. d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

Jury trials for juveniles are denied in: a. 50 percent of all cases. b. 100 percent of all cases. c. 70 percent of all cases. d. 80 percent of all cases.

d. 80 percent of all cases.

Depending on the jurisdiction, the Barker balancing test establishes time standards between: a. arrest and initial appearance. b. initial appearance and arraignment. c. arraignment and trial. d. All of the above

d. All of the above

A juvenile justice model that emphasizes accountability, public safety, and competency development is known as: a. Operation SHIELD b. Reparative Probation Program c. Community Peace Conferencing d. Balanced and Restorative Justice

d. Balanced and Restorative Justice

A gang leader is arrested for assaulting members of a rival gang. The juvenile judge is likely to view gang leadership as a(n): a. positive indication of one's communicative skills. b. indicator of one's rehabilitative potential. c. mitigating circumstance. d. aggravating circumstance.

d. aggravating circumstance.

Boot camps are also known as the: a. treatment model. b. rehabilitation model. c. reintegration model. d. army model.

d. army model.

The informal nature of intake proceedings highlights the fact that these proceedings have as their primary issue the: a. constitutional rights of youths. b. incarceration of youthful offenders. c. matter of career escalation. d. best interest of the juvenile.

d. best interest of the juvenile.

Those juveniles who have the greatest chance of becoming career adult offenders are those labeled as: a. first offenders. b. second-degree offenders. c. primary offenders. d. chronic offenders.

d. chronic offenders.

Extending the prosecutor's role beyond prosecuting criminal and delinquency cases is referred to as: a. community policing. b. community intervention. c. community deferral. d. community prosecution.

d. community prosecution.

With the deinstitutionalization of status offenders (DSO), status offenders: a. have been completely removed from the juvenile justice system. b. automatically fall within the adult criminal court system. c. are outside the jurisdiction of the juvenile court system. d. continue to filter into the juvenile justice system.

d. continue to filter into the juvenile justice system.

Female delinquents are transferred to criminal court for: a. prostitution offenses. b. property offenses. c. petty offenses. d. drug offenses.

d. drug offenses.

Generally, when youths turn 18 years of age, they are deemed to be: a. free. b. self-supporting. c. self-sufficient. d. emancipated.

d. emancipated.

Juveniles who might be overpenalized by being locked up on the basis of predictions made about their likelihood of committing new crimes and who never commit new crimes are: a. false negatives. b. negatives. c. positives. d. false positives.

d. false positives.

Diversion works best for: a. chronic recidivists. b. psychologically disturbed youths. c. sex offenders. d. first offenders.

d. first offenders.

Outcome-focused probation measures: a. the number of juveniles placed on probation. b. focus on probation officer workloads. c. emphasize the need for more probation. d. focus on achievement of probation goals.

d. focus on achievement of probation goals.

Incriminating evidence is designated as: a. exculpatory. b. extralegal. c. nonlegal. d. inculpatory.

d. inculpatory.

Regarding actions taken by intake officers during intake hearings, intake officers often: a. hear legal arguments. b. evaluate the sufficiency of evidence against the accused. c. adjudicate juveniles. d. make adjustments.

d. make adjustments.

A factor which lessens the severity of one's offense is called a(n): a. random factor. b. objective factor. c. complicating factor. d. mitigating factor.

d. mitigating factor.

Increased rights and emphasis on due process for juveniles has resulted in: a. reduced police officer discretion. b. lessened prosecutorial discretion in referrals to adult criminal court. c. reduction of juvenile court jury trials. d. more care by prosecutors when charging juveniles with certain offenses

d. more care by prosecutors when charging juveniles with certain offenses.

The average length of stay for a juvenile in a foster home is approximately: a. 9 months. b. 5 years. c. 2 years. d. one year.

d. one year.

The standard of proof in juvenile court proceedings where a juvenile's loss of freedom is a possibility is: a. clear and convincing evidence. b. weighty evidence. c. preponderance of the evidence. d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

A commonly-used measurement of program effectiveness in juvenile offender treatment and sanctioning strategies is: a. probation. b. parole. c. incarceration. d. recidivism.

d. recidivism.

Offenders who commit new crimes or delinquent acts after having been convicted or adjudicated are known as: a. repeat offenders. b. felons. c. delinquents. d. recidivists.

d. recidivists.

The largest proportion of violent crimes for which juveniles were arrested in 2013 was for: a. sexual assault. b. property crimes. c. arson. d. robbery.

d. robbery.

Of all dispositions available for juvenile court judges to impose, the most commonly used is: a. incarceration. b. parole. c. restitution. d. standard probation.

d. standard probation.

A finding that the facts alleged in a petition are true is referred to as a: a. proof of guilt. b. sustained waiver. c. proven disposition. d. sustained petition.

d. sustained petition.

The use of electronic monitoring devices to track an offender's whereabouts is known as: a. bugging. b. wiretapping. c. trailing. d. tagging.

d. tagging.

The focus of teen courts is: a. incarceration. b. restitution. c. punishment. d. therapeutic jurisprudence.

d. therapeutic jurisprudence.

Most recent statistics show that juvenile offenders most likely to be transferred to adult criminal court are: a. those who commit public order offenses. b. those who commit property crimes. c. those who commit drug crimes. d. those who commit violent crimes.

d. those who commit violent crimes.

Waivers from juvenile court jurisdiction to criminal court jurisdiction are also known as: a. adjudications. b. dispositions. c. sentences. d. transfers.

d. transfers.

Statements prepared by crime victims that address the impact of the offender's conduct on the victim are referred to as: a. predisposition reports. b. presentence investigations. c. victim consequence statements. d. victim-impact statements.

d. victim-impact statements.

In an effort to reduce recidivism for those juveniles placed on probation: a. policy should drive research. b. restitution and community service should be eliminated. c. character building is relative so should be deemphasized. d. violence prevention should be a priority.

d. violence prevention should be a priority.

A successful probation program is one in which POs have an awareness of juvenile offenders' needs and: a. attitudes. b. abilities. c. issues. d. weaknesses.

d. weaknesses.

In the peer jury model: a. a youth judge presides. b. an adult jury hears the case. c. a jury decision must be approved by the judge. d. youths serve as prosecutors.

d. youths serve as prosecutors.