LA Chapter Quizzes
T or F - A single dose of propofol produces approximately 10 minutes of surgical anesthesia in calves?
True
T or F - Castration of the horse may be done with the patient either standing or recumbent?
True
T or F - Spermatogenesis takes place in the seminiferous tubules of the testicle?
True
T or F - Tritrichomonas foetus infections can be screened in bulls?
True
T or F - Ventilation under general anesthesia may be improved by reducing the weight of the intestinal tract through preoperative fasting?
True
T or F - Embryo transfer is used when several offspring are desired from a high quality female?
True - Embryo transfer can increase the number of offspring produced from a superior female within her lifetime
T or F - Improper placement of obstetrical chains can result in broken legs?
True - Improperly placed obstetrical chains can result in fetal leg fractures
T or F - Scrotal circumference is of importance when performing a reproductive examination in livestock?
True - Scrotal circumference is measured to see changes from year to year and also correlates with sperm production
T or F - Compartment syndrome occurs in recumbent horses under general anesthesia but not in recumbent horses with neurological disease?
False - All horses that are recumbent are prone to compartment syndrome
T or F - Caudal epidurals are infrequently used in small ruminants?
False - Caudal epidurals ARE commonly used
T or F - If an animal weighs over 500 pounds, a face mask induction is possible?
False - Face mask induction is only possible with animals weighing less than 150 pounds
T or F - When heat detecting in cattle, it is the female that mounts that is in heat?
False - When heat detecting it is the female that stands to allow mounting that is in heat
T or F - To identify the first intercoccygeal space, the tail is manipulated up and down while palpating the dorsal aspect of the tail base. The second obviously movable articulation caudal to the sacrum is where you should insert the local anesthetic?
False - The first intercoccygeal space that moves is where the local anesthetic should be inserted
T or F - The recommended gas concentration for cattle under general anesthesia with isoflurane is 6%?
False - The recommended concentration of isoflurane is 3%
Which of the following drugs can be used in calves prior to castration and actually produces higher average daily gains? A. Meloxicam B. Penicillin C. Tetracycline D. Atropine
A. Meloxicam - It has been shown that meloxicam used as an analgesic prior to castration will actually increase average daily gains when compared to average daily gains where meloxicam was not used
How much semen does a standard semen straw hold? A. 0.5 cc B. 1.0 cc C. 1.5 cc D. 2.0 cc
A. 0.5 cc - The standard semen straw holds 0.5 ml
To reduce the risk for potential complications, it is usually best to remove an animal's horns? A. At the earliest possible age B. When the horns are fully mature (developed) C. Right before slaughter D. Right after slaughter
A. At the earliest possible age
A method of castration performed without incising the skin (closed castration) is referred to as? A. Burdizzo castration B. Occult castration C. Open castration D. Inguinal castration
A. Burdizzo castration
Which of the following drugs is most likely used after a surgery? A. Tetanus antitoxin B. Detomidine C. Acepromazine D. Xylazine
A. Tetanus antitoxin
Extenders are used to? A. Extend the time the semen will survive B. Extend the amount of semen that was deposited C. Extend the time of ejaculation D. Extend the artificial vagina
A. Extend the time the semen will survive - Extenders provide food for the semen to survive on while they are in transport
Which of the following would most likely need a fleet enema after birth? A. Foals B. Calves C. Lambs D. Kids
A. Foals - Foals often have retained meconium and require an enema after birth
Which of the following is false about general anesthesia in the foals? A. Foals should be prevented from nursing for 12 hours before anesthesia. B. Foals should be induced in the presence of the mare. C. Foals can be induced by face mask administration of gas anesthetics. D. Foals are allowed to nurse until 30 to 60 minutes prior to surgery.
A. Foals should be prevented from nursing for 12 hours before anesthesia - Foals SHOULD nurse 30 minutes to 1 hour prior to surgery
The most common complications of castration in cattle are? A. Hemorrhage and infection B. Hemorrhage and paralysis of the hindlimbs C. Paralysis of the hindlimbs and tail D. Cardiac arrhythmias and diarrhea
A. Hemorrhage and infection
Induction of general anesthesia may be safely performed with inhalant anesthetic gases? A. In foals B. In adult horses C. In draft horses D. It cannot be performed safely
A. In foals - Induction of anesthesia using gas anesthesia can only be safely performed in foals
Signs of toxicity from local anesthetic drugs include all of the following except? A. Increased urine production B. Drowsiness/sedation C. Muscle twitching D. Respiratory depression
A. Increased urine production
Artificial insemination is a good practice because? A. It decreases disease B. There is less work C. It decreases conception rate D. It increases injury
A. It decreases disease - Artificial insemination can decrease the risk for venereal disease
An adult equine undergoes a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. After an uneventful induction and first hour of maintenance inhalant anesthesia, the heart rate and respiratory rate suddenly begin to rise. The mean arterial pressure also rises, and the anesthetist observes nystagmus. This patient is most likely experiencing? A. Lightening of anesthetic depth B. Dangerously deep anesthetic depth C. Compartment syndrome D. Malignant hyperthermia
A. Lightening of anesthetic depth
Several classes of drugs can be used for caudal epidural anesthesia. Which class of drug has the greatest risk for producing hindlimb ataxia and possible hindlimb collapse? A. Local anesthetics B. Alpha-2 agonists C. Opioids D. Xylazine
A. Local anesthetics - Local anesthetics block not only sensory fibers but also motor fibers and sympathetic fibers, so loss of motor control can cause ataxia and even collapse
Ruminants are? A. More sensitive to the effects of xylazine than horses B. Less sensitive to the effects of xylazine than horses C. Xylazine has the same effects on horses as it does on ruminants. D. Xylazine is not used in horses.
A. More sensitive to the effects of xylazine than horses
How many nerves supply one horn in cattle? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
A. One
The most common route of tracheal intubation in horses is? A. Orotracheal B. Nasotracheal C. Direct tracheal via tracheostomy D. Direct tracheal
A. Orotracheal
Caslick surgery is almost always performed with the patient? A. Standing B. In ventral recumbency C. In left lateral recumbency D. In right lateral recumbency
A. Standing
The purpose of "preloading" a large animal gas anesthesia circuit is? A. To allow time for the rubber in the circuit to absorb anesthetic gases B. To fill the reservoir bag with anesthetic gas C. To warm the anesthetic vaporizer D. To flush out excess moisture from the circuit
A. To allow time for the rubber in the circuit to absorb anesthetic gases
A horse is placed in lateral recumbency for surgery under general anesthesia. To minimize the risk of developing compartment syndrome, the forelimbs should be positioned? A. With the lower forelimb pulled cranially B. With the upper forelimb pulled cranially C. The forelimb does not matter; the hindlimbs should be pulled cranially. D. The forelimb does not matter; the hindlimbs should be pulled caudally.
A. With the lower forelimb pulled cranially
The most common complications after castration in horses are? A. Evisceration of the intestines B. Hemorrhage and excessive swelling C. Hemorrhage and lameness D. Infection and lameness
B. Hemorrhage and excessive swelling
GnRH is released from the? A. Posterior pituitary B. Anterior pituitary C. Placenta D. Uterus
B. Anterior pituitary
Which of the following is a desirable respiratory rate for an adult ruminant under general anesthesia? A. 6 to 10 breaths per minute B. 20 to 40 breaths per minute C. 60 breaths per minute D. 80 breaths per minute
B. 20 to 40 breaths per minute
When chemical castration is performed, how long does it take for castration to become complete? A. 30 to 55 days B. 60 to 90 days C. 90 to 105 days D. 110 to 130 days
B. 60 to 90 days
Hypotension in a horse under general anesthesia is generally defined as mean arterial pressure below? A. 40 mm Hg B. 70 mm Hg C. 80 mm Hg D. 100 mm Hg
B. 70 mm Hg
The primary risk associated with regurgitation in ruminants is? A. Contamination of a sterile surgical field B. Aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs C. Dehydration of the animal D. Acid damage to the tongue and lips
B. Aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs
An animal that has had its horns surgically removed is properly referred to as? A. Polled B. Dehorned C. Scurred D. A chicken
B. Dehorned
A fetotomy should be considered during? A. Normal parturition B. Dystocia C. Heifer development D. Stallion BSE
B. Dystocia - Fetotomy should only be considered if dystocia with a dead fetus is present
Horses are almost always placed in which recumbency for recovery from general anesthesia? A. Sternal recumbency B. Lateral recumbency C. Dorsal recumbency D. Ventral recumbency
B. Lateral recumbency
Which of the following gas anesthesias is not recommended in ruminants? A. Halothane B. Nitrous oxide C. Isoflurane D. Sevoflurane
B. Nitrous oxide - Nitrous oxide is not recommended because of its poor solubility in blood
When removing an endotracheal tube from a ruminant, the inflatable cuff should be? A. Fully inflated B. Partially inflated C. Fully deflated E. Do not use an inflatable cuff
B. Partially inflated
Prior to a standing surgical procedure, a veterinarian performs a proximal paravertebral block on the right side of an animal. Several minutes later, the animal is observed to have a lateral spine/body curvature (scoliosis) toward its right side (body bowed with right side convex, left side concave). What is the appropriate course of action? A. General anesthesia should be given because the standing position is no longer safe for the animal B. This is a normal and expected response to a proximal paravertebral block; no action is necessary C. Emergency resuscitation should begin immediately D. The animal should be euthanized because the nerves have been permanently damaged by the anesthetic
B. This is a normal and expected response to a proximal paravertebral block; no action is necessary
To desensitize both horns for dehorning surgery in cattle or sheep, how many nerve blocks (total) must be performed? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
B. Two
After recovering from general anesthesia, which of the following should be returned first to the patient? A. Grass hay B. Water C. Grain D. Alfalfa hay
B. Water
Which piece of equipment causes stimulation of the prostate gland during semen collection? A. Artificial vagina B. Insemination pipette C. Electroejaculator D. Transducer
C. Electroejaculator
The preferred location for administering caudal epidural anesthesia in the equine is? A. Lumbosacral space B. Mid-sacrum C. First intercoccygeal space D. Directly over the most distal coccygeal vertebra
C. First intercoccygeal space
Routine preoperative preparation of a patient for general anesthesia includes all of the following except? A. Clean/groom the patient B. Flush out the mouth C. Give supplemental 100% oxygen D. Wrap the distal limbs for protection
C. Give supplemental 100% oxygen
Intravenous regional anesthesia is used primarily for procedures on the? A. Tail B. Head C. Legs D. Chest
C. Legs
Which local anesthetic is most commonly used for caudal epidural anesthesia? A. Mepivacaine (2%) B. Lidocaine (2%) with epinephrine C. Lidocaine (2%) without epinephrine D. Bupivacaine
C. Lidocaine 2% without epinephrine
Which of the following is used to prevent compartment syndrome? A. Lidocaine B. Meloxicam C. Padding D. Elevation of the nose
C. Padding
During which phase of parturition does expulsion of afterbirth occur? A. Phase 1 B. Phase 2 C. Phase 3 D. Phase 4
C. Phase 3 - Expulsion of the placenta occurs during phase 3 of parturition
The leading cause of injury and death in healthy horses undergoing general anesthesia for elective surgery is? A. Cardiac arrest under anesthesia B. Hypoventilation under anesthesia C. Post-anesthetic myopathy/neuropathy D. Laryngeal spasm
C. Post-anesthetic myopathy/neuropathy
The preferred patient positioning for a ruminant recovering from anesthesia is? A. Dorsal recumbency B. Lateral recumbency C. Sternal recumbency D. Set up
C. Sternal recumbency
Leaving testicles in the abdomen of a cryptorchid increases the risk of: A. There are no risks B. The testicle descending on its own C. The testicle becoming tumorous D. The testicle impacting the colon
C. The testicle becoming tumorous
Possible complications associated with dehorning include all of the following except? A. Hemorrhage B. Frontal sinus infection C. Tooth loss D. Myiasis of the frontal sinus
C. Tooth loss
Perineal ureterostomy is performed to treat which of the following diseases? A. LDA B. RDA C. Urolithiasis D. Bloat
C. Urolithiasis (stones)
When using an estimated progeny difference (EPD) what number will most likely result in calves with the biggest birth weight? A. 0 B. -1 C. +2 D. +3
D. +3 - The + indicates that the number will result in being greater than the average
Which of the following methods of local anesthesia does not provide analgesia for surgery through the flank? A. Caudal epidural B. "L" block C. Paravertebral block D. Cornual nerve block
D. Cornual nerve block
When a tourniquet is applied to a patient under general anesthesia, which one of the following will most likely not occur as a direct result of the tourniquet? A. Increase in heart rate B. Increase in respiratory rate C. Lightening of anesthetic depth D. Nystagmus
D. Nystagmus
All horses experience reduced respiratory function (decreased ventilation) under general anesthesia. Which patient position produces the greatest compromise of respiratory function? A. Sternal recumbency B. Left lateral recumbency C. Right lateral recumbency D. Dorsal recumbency
D. Dorsal recumbency
Closed castration is performed with all of the following except? A. Emasculatome (Burdizzo) B. Elastrator C. Chemical injection D. Emasculators
D. Emasculators
Which of the following measures is not used to reduce the risks of regurgitation? A. Restricted food and water intake prior to anesthesia B. Rapid intubation of the trachea with minimal stimulation of the pharynx and larynx C. Use of a cuffed endotracheal tube D. Feeding animal prior to surgery
D. Feeding animal prior to surgery
Following routine castration surgery in which the incisions are left open (not sutured), which of the following is not an expected finding? A. Drainage from the incisions B. Mild swelling of the scrotum and prepuce C. Minimal hemorrhage for the first several hours D. Intestine dropping down through the incision
D. Intestine dropping down through the incision
Which local anesthetic should not be used for intravenous regional anesthesia? A. Mepivacaine (2%) B. Lidocaine (2%) with epinephrine C. Lidocaine (2%) without epinephrine D. Meloxicam
D. Meloxicam - Meloxicam is not a local anesthetic
When a fetus is delivered the first parameter that should be checked is? A. Nutrition B. Meconium status C. Navel status D. Oxygenation
D. Oxygenation - Oxygenation status should be checked first after the birth of any neonate as this is the most critical factor
The phase of general anesthesia that presents the greatest risk to an equine is? A. Premedication B. Induction C. Maintenance D. Recovery
D. Recovery - Recovery is the single largest risk for surgical patients
The basic prerequisite for castration is? A. The presence of at least one fully descended testicle. B. The visual appearance of two fully descended testicles. C. No history of a prior castration. D. The palpable presence of two fully descended testicles.
D. The palpable presence of two fully descended testicles
T or F - In ruminants, production of saliva tends to cease during general anesthesia?
False - Saliva is still produced under general anesthesia
T or F - Short day breeders breed during the spring?
False - Short day breeders breed during the fall
T or F - Stage 3 of the birthing process is when expulsion of the fetus occurs?
False - Stage 2 is expulsion of the fetus and stage 3 is expulsion of the placenta
T or F - Tetanus prophylaxis is not necessary for dehorning procedures?
False - Tetanus prophylaxis is recommended during dehorning
T or F - Horses are premedicated with atropine prior to general anesthesia to decrease saliva production?
False - Anticholinergics are not commonly used due to decreased GI motility with this drug which can cause a higher likelihood of colic
T or F - Distention of the rumen/reticulum is an uncommon occurrence in ruminants under general anesthesia?
False - Bloat (distention) is common under general anesthesia
T or F - Caslick surgery is performed on females to prevent unwanted breeding by stallions?
False - Caslick procedures are performed to prevent pneumovagina not prevent breeding
T or F - Chemical castration may be performed at any age, depending on owner preference?
False - Chemical castration is reserved for very young males weighing less than 150 pounds
T or F - Chemical cautery may be used to destroy and remove mature (developed) horns?
False - Chemical cautery only works on horn buds
T or F - It is usually easier to define, drape, and maintain a sterile surgical field during standing surgery than during a surgery performed under general anesthesia?
False - During standing surgery it is more difficult to maintain a sterile field due to gravity
T or F - Equine patients should be encouraged to stand as soon as they regain consciousness because recumbency increases the risk of developing compartment syndrome?
False - Horses should be allowed to rise on their own to minimize the risk that they will injure themselves during attempts to stand
T or F - A horse is suspected of being affected with compartment syndrome but voids normal yellow-colored urine at each urination. Because the urine is of normal color, a diagnosis of compartment syndrome can be ruled out in this patient?
False - Just because the urine is a normal color doesn't mean you can rule out compartment syndrome
T or F - Retained testicles are not usually removed because they usually atrophy and disappear completely within 1 year?
False - Retained testicles should be removed as they can become tumorous
T or F - Ruminants are not at risk for development of compartment syndrome; compartment syndrome is a complication unique to horses?
False - Ruminants are at risk of compartment syndrome under general anesthesia
T or F - A line block can be performed using the same procedure as an L block but leaving out the cranial to caudal portion of the block?
True
T or F - Adult horses under general anesthesia should maintain a minimum respiratory rate of at least six breaths per minute?
True
T or F - As a rule of thumb, surgical procedures lasting longer than 1 hour should use inhalation anesthesia for the maintenance of general anesthesia rather than injectable drugs?
True
T or F - Expected daily sperm output can be estimated from stallion scrotal measurements?
True
T or F - Following routine castration surgery in which the incisions are left open (not sutured), healing of the incisions is usually complete within 3 to 4 weeks after surgery?
True
T or F - Hypoventilation can occur in a patient with a normal respiratory rate?
True
T or F - In horses, intravenous fluid support during general anesthesia is recommended for any procedure lasting longer than 1 hour?
True
T or F - Large volumes of anesthetic are needed when performing an L block?
True
T or F - Nasal turbinate edema is potentially life-threatening and should be immediately treated?
True
T or F - Pelvic measurements can be used to help identify proper replacement heifer selection?
True
T or F - Ruminants are prone to bloat during general anesthesia?
True
T or F - Ruminants are prone to hypoventilation during general anesthesia?
True
T or F - Ruminants may spontaneously regurgitate when they are heavily sedated?
True
T or F - Sheep and goats are especially sensitive to lidocaine?
True
T or F - Sheep are rarely dehorned?
True
