Lab final cell 220

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

Label the synaptic cleft.

muscular arteries

The superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are ____________. A. large veins B. medium veins C. venules D. capillaries E. muscular arteries F. elastic arteries G. arterioles

Respiratory System

The trachea and lungs are part of which human organ system? A. Digestive system B. Respiratory system C. Urinary system D. Lymphatic system

shape/size

The trapezius is named for its _____________. A. orientation B. body region C. attachments D. shape/size

There are ____ pairs of spinal nerves. A. 62 B. 12 C. 15 D. 31

7; foot

There are __________ tarsal bones found in each ___________. A. 8; hand B. 7; foot C. 8; foot D. 7; hand E. 5; foot

mucosa; muscularis

There are four main layers in the "tube" that makes up the GI tract. The layer that is in direct contact with food is called the _________. The layer responsible for segmentation is called the _________. A. muscularis; submucosa B. serosa; muscularis C. serosa; submucosa D. mucosa; serosa E. mucosa; muscularis

anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus

There are two parts of the intervertebral discs; the outer, more superficial __________, and the inner and deeper _________. A. nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus B. interspinous ligament; ligamentum flavum C. anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus D. supraspinous ligament; nucleus pulposus

Oral cavity

Where does deglutition begin? A. Oral cavity B. Stomach C. Esophagus D. Rectum

Red Bone Marrow

Where does hematopoiesis occur? A. Blood Vessels B. Heart C. Red Bone Marrow D. Yellow Bone Marrow

Near the second upper molar tooth

Where in the mouth is the opening of the parotid duct? A. Near the first lower premolar tooth B. Near the second lower molar tooth C. Near the first upper premolar tooth D. Near the second upper molar tooth

Hypothalamus

Where is ADH produced? A. Anterior Pituitary Gland B. Hypothalamus C. Posterior Pituitary Gland D. Thyroid Gland

ligament

Where is dense regular connective tissue located? A. Bone B. Ligament C. Meniscus D. Muscle

left atrium

Which heart chamber does oxygenated blood enter after coming from the lungs? A. Right Atrium B. Left atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle

Right

Which is the largest lobe of the liver? A. Caudate B. Left C. Quadrate D. Right

right

Which is the largest lobe of the liver? A. Caudate B. Left C. Quadrate D. Right

A and B

Which is the oral vestibule? A. A and B B. C C. D D. E E. F

Which is the temporal lobe?

All of the above

Which layer of the epidermis contains keratinocytes? A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum basale C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum spinosum E. Stratum lucidum F. All of the above

Which letter corresponds to dermal papillae?

Which letter corresponds to the Basement Membrane?

Which letter corresponds to the T-tubule?

Which letter corresponds to the blastocoel?

Which letter corresponds to the medullary cavity?

Which letter corresponds to the nucleus pulposus?

Which letter corresponds to the sphenoid sinus?

Which letter corresponds to the syncytiotrophoblast?

Which letter indicates the submandibular salivary gland?

frontal; parietal

Which lobes contain primary motor cortex and primary somatosensory cortex, respectively? A. parietal; occipital B. parietal; temporal C. parietal; parietal D. frontal; parietal E. frontal; frontal

Right lymphatic duct

Which lymphatic vessel returns lymph from the right hand back into the blood stream? A. Thoracic duct B. Inguinal lymph nodes C. Right lymphatic duct D. All of the above

Varicose vein

A dilated vein is called a(n) ____________. A. embolus B. varicose vein C. aneurysm D. thrombus

Facial nerve

A fungiform papilla is pictured below. If this papilla is found on the most anterior tip of the tongue, which nerve does the taste buds attach to? A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve

Removing of dying red blood cells

A group of surgeons are operating on a patient in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen. They find a structure that they identify as the spleen and decide to remove it. What process in the patient may not be as efficient due to the missing spleen? A. Regulation of blood pressure. B. Maturation of T cells. C. Formation of white blood cells. D. Removing of dying red blood cells.

unlikely; likely

A highly immobile joint is ______ to get dislocated, and a highly mobile joint is _______ to get dislocated. A. unlikely; likely B. unlikely; unlikely C. likely; unlikely D. likely; likely

Sural

A man is running a 10k race and suddenly starts to have muscle spasms in the posterior part of his lower leg. Which regional term describes where he is having muscle spasms? A. Femoral B. Crural C. Pes D. Sural

morula

A mass of 16 to approximately 100 cells during the pre-embryonic period is called a _______. A. Blastocoel B. Morula C. Oocyte D. Zygote

connectinve tissue

A patient comes into your clinic, as you review her chart you learn that she suffers from a congenital disease that prevents collagen from forming in their body. Which of the following tissues would you expect to be most affected? A. Epithelial tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Nervous tissue D. Connective tissue

Temporal lobe

A person was involved in an automobile accident and sustained head trauma. After the accident this person had difficulty hearing and smelling, which they had never experienced before. What lobe of the brain was injured leading to these symptoms? A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Occipital lobe E. Insula

The anti-B antibodies from the person with type O blood will cause agglutination resulting in hemolysis of the red blood cells found in the person with type O blood.

A person with type O blood needs blood due to a recent injury and they are bleeding a lot. What will happen if you administer type B blood to this person? A. You have just saved the day. The mixing of the two types of blood will have no negative effect. B. The anti-A antibodies from the person with type O blood will cause agglutination resulting in hemolysis of the red blood cells found in the person with type O blood. C. The anti-B antibodies from the person with type O blood will cause agglutination resulting in hemolysis of the red blood cells found in the person with type O blood. D. The anti-A antibodies from the person with type B blood will cause agglutination resulting in hemolysis of the red blood cells found in the person with type O blood. E. The anti-B antibodies from the person with type B blood will cause agglutination resulting in hemolysis of the red blood cells found in the person with type O blood.

heart failure

A progressive weakening of the heart that can lead to venous congestion is best described as: A. Aneurysm B. Coronary artery disease C. Heart failure D. Myocardial infarction

more myosin binding sites on the actin to become exposed

A rare disease called malignant hyperthermia is caused by the administration of anesthesia. It results in muscle rigidity and an extreme rise in body temperature after anesthetics are given. If a patient does have this condition once, it is likely that there will be recurrences upon exposure to these drugs. The cause is not completely known, but it relates to an abnormality in the chemistry of calcium in the muscle fiber. Excess calcium is released into the sarcoplasmic reticulum during exposure to the anesthetic agents, causing _________. A. more calcium to bind to tropomyosin B. more myosin binding sites on the actin to become exposed C. more calcium binding to myosin heads D. greater action potentials across the sarcolemma

Fibroblast

A researcher is trying to determine what cell he has isolated from a sample of connective tissue. After running some tests, he concludes that the function of this cell is to produce ground substance as the cell has the ability to secrete polysaccharides and proteins. What cell was isolated from the sample? A. Adipocyte B. Fibroblast C. Macrophage D. Mesenchymal cell

fibrous

A syndesmoses is a type of _________ joint. A. cartilaginous B. fibrous C. synovial

coronal

Abduction and adduction motions occur within the _______ plane and involve medial-lateral motions of the limbs, fingers, toes, or thumb. A. coronal B. transverse C. sagittal D. oblique

fertilization has / implantation has not

According to the above picture, ___________ occurred, and ___________ occurred. A. fertilization has / implantation has not B. fertilization has not / implantation has not C. fertilization has / implantation has D. fertlization has not / implantation has

sebaceous glands

Acne is a skin disturbance that typically occurs on areas of the skin that are rich in _______ . A. apocrine sweat glands B. eccrine sweat glands C. sudoriferous glands D. sebaceous glands

Right atrium

After blood flows through the superior vena cava, it enters the ______. A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

troponin

After its release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, what does calcium bind to? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Troponin D. Tropomyosin

mesenchyme

All connective tissues derive from the mesodermal layer of the embryo. The first connective tissue to develop in the embryo is ______ , the stem cell line from which all connective tissues are later derived. A. matrix B. fluid C. mesenchyme D. supportive

Bone marrow/ thymus

All lymphocytes initially develop in red bone marrow. After their formation, B cells and natural killer cells reside and mature in the _____. On the other hand, T cells mature in the _____ . Once lymphocytes are mature, they circulate in the bloodstream, lymph, and residing in secondary lymphoid organs. A. thymus / red bone marrow B. thymus / yellow bone marrow C. spleen / thymus D. bone marrow / thymus

melanoma

All skin cancers are very dangerous but the most deadly often begins from a nevus. Which skin cancer is characterized by rapid devision of melanocytes? A. Basal Cell Carcinoma B. Melanoma C. Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Osteoporosis

An 80-year old woman arrives in your emergency department after she slipped and fell out of her bathtub. You determine that she broke her proximal femur. Upon further examination you notice low bone density. What is your most likely secondary diagnosis? A. Osteitis deformans B. Osteopetrosis C. Osteoporosis

fontalelle

An area of dense connective tissue between skull bones that is present at birth is called a _____. A. kyphosis B. fontanelle C. boney Girdle D. lambdoid suture

Cataracts

An elderly, diabetic patient visits you in your clinic complaining of blurry vision. Upon examination, you notice that your patient's lenses look opaque. What diagnosis are you most likely to make? A. Cataracts B. Macular Degeneration C. Myopia

pivot joint

An example of this type of synovial joint is the atlantoaxial joint, found between the C1 and C2 vertebrae. A. Condyloid joint B. Hinge joint C. Plane joint D. Pivot joint

120 days

Approximately how long do erythrocytes live? A. 1 day B. 2 years C. 12 months D. 120 days

oxygen-rich; systemic

Arteries carry ______ blood in the _____ circuit. A. oxygen-rich; systemic B. oxygen-poor; systemic C. oxygen-rich; pulmonary D. More than one of the above

chemotaxis / diapedesis

As you quickly rip open an envelope, your finger slips causing you to get a paper cut. The injured cells of your pointer finger secrete chemical signals to draw the attention of nearby leukocytes and they begin moving toward the chemical signal; this process is called ______. Leukocytes also leave the bloodstream by squeezing through adjacent cells in the blood vessel wall; this process is called ______. A. diapedesis / chemotaxis B. chemotaxis / leukocytosis C. diapedesis / leukocytosis D. chemotaxis / diapedesis

sensory; motor

Ascending tracts carry _______ information and descending tracts carry _______ information. A. motor; sensory B. sensory; motor

Presynaptic neuron

At an individual synapse, which is most likely to contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitter? A. Synaptic cleft B. Postsynaptic neuron C. Presynaptic neuron D. Dendritic shaft

one way valves

Backflow of blood in veins is prevented by __________. A. one-way valves B. stronger heart contractions C. thicker tunica intima D. thicker tunica externa E. contraction of skeletal muscle

Below is shown areolar connective tissue. Which letter corresponds to ground substance?

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

Besides the tonsils, which of the follow is considered to be a lymphatic nodule that doesn't contain a connective tissue capsule? A. Adenoids B. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue C. Lymph nodes D. Spleen

plasma

Bone is to osteoid, as blood is to ____________. A. plasma B. red blood cells C. mesenchyme D. bone marrow

Choose the labeled protein fiber that is most abundant in dense irregular connective tissue.

Choose the letter that corresponds to the sagittal plane.

Choose the letter that corresponds to the superior part of the mediastinum.

biceps brachii; triceps brachii; biceps brachii

During elbow flexion, the _____ is the agonist. During elbow extension, the _____ is the agonist and the _____ is the antagonist. A. biceps brachii; triceps brachii; biceps brachii B. triceps brachii; biceps brachii; brachioradialis C. biceps brachii; biceps brachii; triceps brachii D. brachioradialis; biceps brachii; triceps brachii

epiblast

During gastrulation, the embryo, which is an oval-shaped disc, forms an indentation called the primitive streak along the dorsal surface of the ______. A. endoderm B. ectoderm C. hypoblast D. epiblast

terminal bronchioles; respiratory bronchioles

During inhalation, air passes through (in order) the trachea, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles, ________, and _________. Air then enters the alveolar duct and the alveoli. A. terminal bronchioles; respiratory bronchioles B. secondary bronchi; terminal bronchioles C. respiratory bronchioles; secondary bronchi D. respiratory bronchioles; terminal bronchioles

Phrenic, increases, inferiorly

During inhalation, the _________ nerve signals the diaphragm to contract. When the diaphragm contracts, the volume of the thoracic cavity __________. The diaphragm moves __________ when contracted. A. phrenic, increases, superiorly B. vagus, increases, inferiorly C. intercostal, decreases, superiorly D. phrenic, increases, inferiorly E. phrenic, decreases, superiorly F. vagus, decreases, superiorly

clavicle

During intramembranous ossification, bone develops directly from sheets of mesenchymal (undifferentiated) connective tissue. Which of the following would you expect to develop from intramembranous ossification? A. Femur B. Radius C. Clavicle D. Ribs

D and E

During swallowing, which structure(s) guides food down to the esophagus, and prevents food from going up the nasopharynx? A.A B.A and B C.C D.D and E E.F

hair follicles rest

During the telogen phase of hair growth: A. Cells divide rapidly B. A transition occurs C. Hair follicles rest

have sufficient gas exchange; exhale

Emphysema is a common disease among smokers. When a patient has this disease, the patient's alveoli and elastic connective tissue in the lungs are destroyed. The destruction of alveoli makes it harder to _________. The destruction of elastic connective tissue makes it harder to ________. A. maintain blood flow; exhale B. exhale; have sufficient gas exchange C. fight off infection; maintain blood flow D. have sufficient gas exchange; exhale

red blood cells

Erythropoiesis is the formation of ___________. A. white blood cells B. red blood cells C. platelets D. albumin

epithelial tissue

Exocrine glands are formed from which type of tissue? A. Epithelial tissue B. Mesenchyme C. Connective tissue D. Areolar tissue

Lower esophageal sphincter

Failure of which structure causes acid reflux, also called heartburn? A. The heart B. Lower esophageal sphincter C. Upper esophageal sphincter D. Pyloric sphincter E. Uvula

Notochord

Following the process of gastrulation, which structure stimulates overlying ectoderm to form the neural plate through a process called neural induction? A. Notochord B. Ectoderm C. Primitive streak D. Endoderm

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

Food encounters the regions of the small intestine in the following order: A. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum B. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum C. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum D. Jejunum, duodeum, ileum E. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum F. Ileum, duodenum, jejunum

duodenum, jejumum, ileum

excessive production of melanin

Freckles are caused by: A. Excessive blood vessels B. Excessive production of melanin C. Excessive melanocytes

capillaries

Gas exchange occurs between blood and tissues at ___________. A. arteries B. arterioles C. capillaries D. veins

protien; anterior pituitary

Growth hormone is a _________ hormone that is released by the _________ gland. A. protein; anterior pituitary B. steroid; adrenal cortex C. peptide; posterior pituitary D. amine; thyroid E. steroid; anterior pituitary

nterstitial growth; appositional growth

Growth hormone is a hormone that causes body growth, especially in bone. When someone secretes too much growth hormone as a child (and the epiphyseal plates have not yet closed), bones grow longer. When someone secretes too much growth hormone as an adult (after the growth plates have closed), bones grow wider. What are these two types of bone growth called? A. Epiphyseal growth; interstitial growth B. Intramembranous growth; endochondral growth C. Interstitial growth; appositional growth D. Epiphyseal growth; periosteal growth

one

How many axons can one Schwann cell myelinate? A. None B. One C. Many

7, 12, 5

How many vertebrae are there in the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar regions of the vertebral column, respectively? A. 7, 5, 12 B. 8, 10, 7 C. 10, 12, 5 D. 7, 12, 5

Cartilaginous; synarthrosis

How would you classify an epiphyseal plate both structurally and functionally, respectively? A. Cartilaginous; synchondrosis B. Amphiarthrosis; cartilaginous C. Amphiarthrosis; synovial D. Cartilaginous; synarthrosis

#5, stratum basale

Identify the Merkel cell and the layer of the epidermis in which it resides: A. #5, stratum basale B. #4, stratum spinosum C. #1, stratum basale D. #3, stratum corneum

hemidesmosome

Identify the above junction A. Hemidesmosome B. Desmosome C. Tight junction D. Gap junction

#5 and #6

Identify the blood vessel tunic which contains the specialized simple squamous epithelium called the endothelium. The endothelium is continuous throughout the entire vascular system, including the lining of the chambers of the heart. A. #1 and #2 B. #3 and #8 C. #4 and #7 D. #5 and #6

#4 spinous process

Identify the boney prominence which projects posteriorly at the midline of the back A. #4, spinous process B. #3, transverse process C. #2, superior articular process D. #1, vertebral foramen

lacrimal gland / lacrimal canaliculi / lacrimal sac / nasolacrimal duct

Identify the correct order (start to finish) of the structures listed below involved with the production, transportation, and drainage of tears. A. lacrimal gland / lacrimal canaliculi / nasolacrimal duct / lacrimal sac B. lacrimal canaliculi / lacrimal gland / nasolacrimal duct / lacrimal sac C. lacrimal gland / lacrimal canaliculi / lacrimal sac / nasolacrimal duct D. nasolacrimal duct / lacrimal canaliculi / lacrimal sac / lacrimal gland

Identify the cystic duct from the following figure that is labeled.

Identify the eccrine sweat gland.

Identify the labelled bone that is stabilized by the tensor tympani during loud noises in order minimize vibrations.

Identify the organ where the cortex contains large numbers of immature T cells, and the medulla has T cells which migrate when they are ready to be released into circulation. A. #1 B. #2 C. #3 D. #4

Papillary layer

Identify the region labeled A. A. Papillary layer B. Reticular layer C. Stratum spinosum D.

#6 (green line)

Identify where the protein actin would be in this image: A. #3 B. #4 C. #5 (yellow tubes) D. #6 (green line)

Increase friction from the breathing motion of the lungs

If a woman lacked serous fluid between her visceral and parietal pleurae, what would be a likely result? A. Decreased friction from the beating motion of the heart B. Decreased friction from the motion inside the mediastinum C. Increased friction from the breathing motion of the lungs D. Increased friction from the motions of the small intestine

Sensory neuron; interneuron; motor neuron

If you were to accidentally place your hand on a hot surface, the withdrawal reflex would ensure that you yanked your hand away quickly. What is the order of the neurons that lead to this reaction? A. Preganglionic axon; autonomic ganglion; postgangionic axon B. Interneuron; sensory neuron; motor neuron C. Sensory neuron; interneuron; motor neuron D. Motor neuron; interneuron; sensory neuron

deep fascia

If you were to dissect the quadriceps muscles, which connective tissue wrapping would you come to first? A. Epimysium B. Perimysium C. Endomysium D. Deep fascia

Fibrous pericardium; parietal pericardium; visceral pericardium; myocardium; endocardium

If you were to push a needle through the heart wall, which heart layers would you need to go through (superficial to deep)? A. Parietal pericardium; visceral pericardium; fibrous pericardium; myocardium; endocardium B. Endocardium; myocardium; visceral pericardium; parietal pericardium; fibrous pericardium C. Fibrous pericardium; parietal pericardium; visceral pericardium; myocardium; endocardium D. Visceral pericardium; fibrous pericardium; parietal pericardium; myocardium; endocardium

arterioles

Immediately after leaving muscular arteries, blood travels through ____________. A. arterioles B. capillaries C. elastic arteries D. venules

Tissue level

In a certain part of the body, there are groups of cells called keratinocytes, dendritic cells, tactile cells, and melanocytes. These cells are located next to each other and work together to perform a common function. Which level of organization does this describe? A. Cellular level B. Tissue level C. Organ level D. Organ system level

lamellae

In compact bone, osteons are composed of ________. A. lamellae B. endosteum C. trabeculae D. periosteum

esophageal hiatus

In order to pass from the thoracic cavity into the abdominal cavity, the esophagus must pass through a small opening in the diaphragm called the ___________. A. cardiac sphincter B. gastroesophageal hiatus C. esophageal hiatus D. lower esophageal sphincter

Canaliculi

In osteons, only osteocytes in close proximity to blood vessels in the central canal have direct access to oxygen and nutrients. Which structures in the osteon allow osteocytes in lacunae to pass along oxygen and nutrients to the outer lamellae so that all cells are nourished? A. Nutrient foramen B. Perforating canals C. Canaliculi D. Central canals E. Lamellae

mesoderm

In the above picture which layer has the developmental fate of becoming the musculoskeletal system? A. Neural plate B. Ectoderm C. Mesoderm D. Notochord

In the graphic of the spleen shown below, which part of the spleen houses helper T cells and dendritic cells?

ganglia

In the peripheral nervous system, groups of neuron cell bodies are found in _______. A. ganglia B. nerves C. the spinal cord D. axon hillocks

In this dissection, _____ is the area where red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are all produced. A. #1 B. #2 C. #3

Ductus venosus

In utero, a fetus receives nutrients and oxygen from the mothers blood. The mothers blood was screened and cleaned by the mother's liver and therefore, the oxygen and nutrients from the mothers blood pose no threat to the baby's body. Because of this, the fetus's liver does not need to screen the baby's blood. The fetus has a way of bypassing the liver so that blood is shunted directly through to the heart. What fetal structure allows this shunting to take place? A. Foramen ovale B. Ductus arteriosum C. Ductus venosus D. Umbilical vein

Blood and tissue cells

Internal respiration involves gas exchange between _______. A. blood and air B. blood and tissue cells C. tissue cells and air D. nose and mouth

catilagenous symphyses; amphiarthrotic

Intervertebral discs are structurally classified as ______________ and functionally classified as _____________. A. catilagenous symphyses; amphiarthrotic B. cartilagenous synchondroses; amphiarthrotic C. fibrous syndesmoses; synarthrotic D. fibrous sutures; amphiarthrotic E. synovial joints; diarthrotic

Swollen lymph nodes are a sign that your immune response has kicked in and could be an indicator of illness

It's been a rough semester and to top it all off you think you may be getting sick. When you go to the BYU Health center to get it checked out, the medical professional who examines you does an all over assessment and this includes palpating your submandibular lymph nodes. Why would they do this? A. Swollen lymph nodes are a sign that your immune response has kicked in and could be an indicator of illness B. Swollen lymph nodes are a sign that there is no infection and you just need to take it easy C. They are actually feeling for a racing pulse by palpating the cervical area D. If your lymph nodes are not swollen it could be a sign that your immune response has kicked in and therefore an indicator of illness

Lymph trunks

Lymph flows from lymphatic capillaries to lymphatic vessels to _________. A. lymph ducts B. lymph trunks C. lymph tunnels D. lymph tubules

Lacteals

Lymphatic capillaries in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract that pick up dietary lipids are called: A. Chyle B. Capillaries C. Vessels D. Lacteals

Label the epidermal layer that contains melanocytes.

Label the part of the brain that is responsible for producing melatonin.

Label the structure in which pacemaker cells are located in a healthy heart.

. left ventricle to the aorta

Left ventricular systole causes blood to move from the _____________. A. left ventricle to the right ventricle B. left ventricle to the left atrium C. left ventricle to the pulmonary trunk D. left ventricle to the aorta

Afferent; efferent

Lymph enters the lymph node through ______ lymphatic vessels and leaves through _______ lymphatic vessels. A. afferent; efferent B. efferent; afferent C. inferior; superior D. proximal; distal

anti-a antibodies

Maggie has type B blood. Which antibodies does she carry in her plasma? A. Anti-A antibodies B. Anti-B antibodies C. Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies D. Anti-O antibodies

true

Mature red blood cells do not have a nucleus. True False

ventral horn; ventral root

Motor neuron cell bodies are found in the ___________ and their axons are found in the ___________. A. dorsal horn; dorsal root B. dorsal root; dorsal horn C. ventral horn; ventral root D. ventral root; ventral horn

myelin

Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease where the body destroys ______. A. motor neurons B. astrocytes C. sensory neurons D. myelin

gluteus medius

Name a major antagonist of the adductor longus muscle. A. Gluteus medius B. Adductor brevis C. Gracilis D. Gluteus maximus

rotation

Name the action pictured below. A. Circumduction B. Adduction C. Rotation D. Abduction

common carotid artery

Name the artery at the arrow tip. A. Common carotid artery B. Internal carotid artery C. Jugular artery D. Brachiocephalic artery E. Cervical artery

Lymph

Name the fluid found inside lymphatic capillaries. A. Interstitial fluid B. Blood C. Plasma D. Lymph

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Name the part of the muscle cell that is stimulated to release calcium when an action potential enters it. A. Sarcolemma B. Sarcomere C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum D. T-tubule

manubrium

Name the structure labeled D. A. Sternal end of clavicle B. Clavicle C. Sternal body D. Interclavicular bone E. Manubrium

Azygos vein

Name the vein at the arrow's tip. A. Inferior vena cava B. Intercostal vein C. Azygos vein D. Internal thoracic vein E. Subclavian vein

True

Nasal conchae contribute to increase the surface area of the nasal cavity and to mix inflowing air, which serves to clean and warm the air. True False

Respond to multiple antigens

Natural Killer (NK) cells are different than other lymphocytes (B and T cells) because they: A. Respond to multiple antigens B. Produce antibodies C. Patrol body after an attack D. Participate in immune responses

false

Normally, sperm fertilizes an oocyte in the uterus. True False

chemoreceptors

Olfactory receptor neurons are classified as __________. A. mechanoreceptors B. chemoreceptors C. nociceptors D. general sensors E. glial cells

alpha/beta

Pancreatic islets, clusters of cells also known as the islets of Langerhans, secrete the hormones glucagon and insulin. Glucagon comes from the _____ cells and insulin comes from the _____ cells. A. alpha / alpha B. beta / alpha C. alpha / beta D. beta / beta

Duodenum

Pancreatic juice and bile enter into the digestive tract at the ________. A. stomach B. oral cavity C. ileum D. duodenum E. fauces F. jejunum

duodenum

Pancreatic juice and bile enter into the digestive tract at the ________. A. stomach B. oral cavity C. ileum D. duodenum E. fauces F. jejunum

Thoracic and lumbar levels

Parasympathetic neurons leave the spinal cord at the level of the brainstem and sacral spinal cord. Where do sympathetic neurons exit the spinal cord? A. Cervical and thoracic levels B. Cervical and lumbar levels C. Thoracic and lumbar levels D. Thoracic and sacral levels

Calcitonin

Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium. Which hormone has the opposite effect? A. Aldosterone B. Antidiuretic Hormone C. Calcitonin D. Cortisol

False

Parietal cells in the lining of the stomach secrete pepsinogen. True False

B and C

Parkinsons disease is caused by a lack of dopamine in the caudate and putamen. Which of the following is the caudate and putamen? A. A B. B and C C. C and D D. E and F

Propulsion

Peristalsis is a form of ___________. A. absorption B. chemical digestion C. mechanical digestion D. propulsion E. segmentation

Distal

Pictured below is a man lying in recovery position. If an unconscious person is breathing and has no other life threatening conditions, they should be placed in recovery position. This position keeps the airway opened and prevents aspiration of vomit or fluid that would cause choking. The leg is bent to keep the body from falling forward. In this position, what is the best way to describe the man's knee in relationship to his hip (on the bent leg)? A. Proximal B. Medial C. Distal D. Anterior

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Pictured below is a tissue slide of the lining of the trachea. Which type of tissue lines the trachea? A. Ciliated simple columnar epithelium B. Dense irregular connective tissue C. Transitional epithelium D. Dense regular connective tissue E. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Neural plate-->neural groove-->neural tube

Place the following events of neurulation in the correct order. A. Neural tube-->neural plate-->neural groove B. Neural tube-->neural groove-->neural plate C. Neural plate-->neural tube-->neural groove D. Neural plate-->neural groove-->neural tube

Primitive streak formation --> formation of the three germ layers --> body folding --> formation of bone

Place the following events of the embryonic period in order starting with the earliest event: formation of the three germ layers, formation of bone, body folding, primitive streak formation. A. Formation of the three germ layers --> body folding --> primitive streak formation --> formation of bone B. Primitive streak formation --> formation of the three germ layers --> body folding --> formation of bone C. Body folding --> primitive streak formation --> formation of the three germ layers --> formation of bone D. Formation of the three germ layers --> primitive streak formation --> formation of bone --> body folding

false

Platelets are a type of cell. True False

axons; cell bodies and dendrites

Regarding nervous tissue, white matter is made of ______ and gray matter is made of ________. A. cell bodies and dendrites; axons B. axons; cell bodies and dendrites C. cell bodies and axons; dendrites D. dendrites; cell bodies and axons

dermatomes

Sensory neurons found within spinal nerves connect with the skin in a topographically organized manner, illustrated as ________ . A. dermatomes B. hypodermis C. myotomes D. integument

unipolar neurons

Sensory neurons that detect touch and have cell bodies in dorsal root ganglia are classified as _________. A. multipolar neurons B. bipolar neurons C. unipolar neurons D. nonpolar neurons

axons; peripheral

Spinal nerves contain neuronal ________ and are classified as a part of the ________ nervous system. A. dendrites; peripheral B. glial cells; central C. axons; central D. axons; peripheral E. somas; peripheral

True vocal folds

The _______ are white, membranous folds attached by muscle to the thyroid and arytenoid cartilages of the larynx on their outer edges. The inner edges are free, allowing oscillation to produce sound. A. glottis B. vestibular folds C. false vocal folds D. true vocal folds

steroid hormone

Testosterone and progesterone are classified as _____________. A. amine hormones B. steroid hormones C. peptide hormones D. protein hormones

pulmonary / systemic

The _______ circuit transports blood to and from the lungs, where it picks up oxygen and delivers carbon dioxide for exhalation. The _______ circuit transports oxygenated blood to virtually all of the tissues of the body and returns relatively deoxygenated blood and carbon dioxide to the heart to be sent back to the lungs. A. pulmonary / atrium B. systemic / ventricle C. systemic / pulmonary D. pulmonary / systemic

middle; closed

The _______ ear is connected to the pharynx through the auditory tube (also called the eustachian tube), which helps equilibrate air pressure across the tympanic membrane. In resting conditions, this tube is normally _______. A. outer; closed B. middle; closed C. inner; closed D. middle; open E. inner; open

cervical; diaphragm

The _______ plexus contains the phrenic nerve. The phrenic nerve innervates the _______. A. brachial; diaphragm B. cervical; anterior neck and shoulders C. lumbar; abdominal muscles D. sacral; diaphragm E. brachial; pectoral girdle F. cervical; diaphragm G. lumbar; thigh muscles H. sacral; muscles of the lower limb

Pharynx

The _________ is the most inferior structure in the upper respiratory tract. A. nasal cavity B. pharynx C. larynx D. trachea

excitability

The ability of muscle cell membranes to change their electrical state and send an electrical wave or impulse (called an action potential) along the length of the membrane is called __________. A. excitability B. contractility C. elasticity D. extensibility

ncreases / decreases / into

The above image illustrates what happens during inhalation; volume of the thoracic cavity _______ , internal lung pressure _______ , and air rushes _______ the lungs. A. decreases / increases / into B. increases / decreases / into C. decreases / increases / out of D. increases / decreases / out of

neural tissue

The adenohypophysis is to glandular tissue as the neurohypophysis is to _________. A. glandular tissue B. posterior pituitary gland C. anterior pituitary gland D. neural tissue

Vagus Nerve

The autonomic nervous system has a considerable influence on the heart rate. Both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems act on the heart and balance each other. Which of the following is most directly responsible for parasympathetic outflow to the SA and AV nodes? A. Thoracic spinal cord B. Vagus nerve C. Primary motor cortex of brain D. Lumbar spinal cord E. Cerebellum

Lobule

The basic microscopic structural component of the liver is the ______. A. microvillus B. acinus C. lobule D. villus E. pit F. crypt

lobule

The basic microscopic structural component of the liver is the ______. A. microvillus B. acinus C. lobule D. villus E. pit F. crypt

embryo; placenta

The blastocyst is composed of the inner cell mass and the trophoblast. What do these structures become later on in development, respectively? A. Amnion; yolk sac B. Placenta; amnion C. Yolk sac; embryo D. Embryo; placenta

Erythrocytes

The buffy coat does NOT contain which of the following? A. Eosinophils B. Thrombocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Monocytes E. None of the above are found in the buffy coat

Distal

The carpal region is ______ to the antebrachial region. A. Anterior B. Distal C. Posterior D. Proximal

Polycythemia

The condition of having an abnormally high number of erythrocytes in the blood is called ___________. A. anemia B. hemophilia C. polycythemia D. leukocytosis E. leukemia

false ribs

The costal cartilages from these ribs do not attach directly to the sternum, the costal cartilages are attached to the cartilage of the next higher rib. A. True ribs B. False ribs C. Floating ribs D. Top ribs

Skull

The cranial region is also known as the ________. A. Brain B. Face C. Head D. Skull

Pancreas

The digestive system is made of of two categories of organs: accessory organs and digestive tract organs. Which of the organs listed below is an accessory organ? A. Pancreas B. Oral cavity C. Anus D. Stomach

transverse folding

The embryo begins to acquire a cylindrical shape through the process of ____________. A. Cephalocaudal Folding B. Gastrulation C. Transverse Folding D. Neurulation

Enamel

The exposed surface of the tooth is covered in ________. A. cementum B. dentin C. pulp D. enamel

Anchors heart valves

The fibrous skeleton of the heart is connective tissue located between the atria and the ventricles. Its functions include: A. Anchors heart valves B. Pumping blood C. Electrically conductive D. All of the above

Leukocyte

The following picture is of a normal blood smear. What cell type is shown by the letter B? A. Erythrocyte B. Leukocyte C. Plasma D. Platelet

XII; tongue movement

The hypoglossal nerve is cranial nerve number ________ and is responsible for ________. A. VII; taste B. VII; tongue movement C. XII; taste D. XII; tongue movement E. XII; tongue movement and taste

anterior pituitary

The hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal veins are directly associated with regulation of which gland? A. anterior pituitary B. posterior pituitary C. thyroid D. adrenal

stapes; malleus

The incus is attached to the ___________ medially and the ____________ laterally. A. malleus; stapes B. oval window; stapes C. tympanic membrane; malleus D. stapes; malleus

Vestibule/ semicircular canals

The inner ear structure that detects linear acceleration and head position is the ________, while the inner ear structure that detects angular acceleration and head rotation is the ________. A. vestibule / semicircular canals B. cochlea / vestibule C. oval window / semicircular canals D. vestibule / round window

Dense regular connective tissue

The interosseous membrane is made up primarily of parallel collagen bundles and attaches to the interosseous crests on the ulna and radius. Which type of tissue is the interosseous membrane most likely made from? A. Dense elastic tissue B. Dense regular connective tissue C. Dense irregular connective tissue D. Areolar tissue E. Reticular tissue

parietal bones and occipital bone

The lambdoid suture joins the A. left and right parietal bones B. parietal bones and occipital bone C. temporal and parietal bones D. frontal and sphenoid bones E. sphenoid and temporal bones

adipose tissue

The loose connective tissue shown is found between many organs where it acts both to absorb shock and bind tissues together. Identify the above type of loose connective tissue. A. Elastic tissue B. Adipose tissue C. Areolar tissue D. Cartilage tissue

peritoneum; large intestine

The mesocolon is composed of __________ and suspends the ___________ in place. A. omentum; stomach B. stratified squamous epithelium; esophagus C. peritoneum; stomach D. peritoneum; large intestine

medulla

The most caudal portion of the brainstem is the __________. A. medulla B. midbrain C. cerebellum D. pons E. thalamus

Fundus

The most superior portion of the stomach is called the ___________. A. body B. fundus C. rugae D. cardia E. greater curvature

Cribriform plate

The olfactory bulb sits on top of what skull structure? A. Cribriform plate B. Petrous part C. Supraorbital foramen D. Sphenoid bone

acinar cells

The pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions. The endocrine functions include producing insulin and glucagon made in the the pancreatic islets. The exocrine functions include making digestive enzymes made in the __________. A. main pancreatic duct B. pancreatic islets C. acinar cells D. accessory pancreatic duct

areolar connective tissue; dense irregular connective tissue

The papillary layer of the dermis is made from __________, while the reticular layer of the dermis is made from _____________. A. areolar connective tissue; reticular connective tissue B. adipose connective tissue; reticular connective tissue C. areolar connective tissue; dense irregular connective tissue D. reticular connective tissue; dense regular connective tissue

increasing digestion

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for: A. Increasing heart rate B. Dilating the pupil C. Increasing digestion D. Decreasing systemic circuit blood vessel diameter

Sesamoid

The patella is classified as a ______ bone. A. Long B. Short C. Flat D. Sesamoid E. Irregular

superficial; deep

The periosteum is ________ to compact bone, and spongy bone is _______ to compact bone. A. distal; proximal B. posterior; anterior C. superficial; deep D. dorsal; ventral

Node of Ranvier

The picture below shows axons. What structure is indicated by the red star? A. Oligodendrocyte B. Nucleus C. Node of Ranvier D. Schwann cell

Monosynaptic reflex

The picture shows which type of reflex? A. Cranial reflex B. Monosynaptic reflex C. Polysynaptic reflex D. Sympathetic reflex E. Parasympathetic reflex

anteriorly

The posterior cruciate ligament serves to support the knee when it is flexed and weight bearing, as when walking downhill. In this position, the posterior cruciate ligament prevents the femur from sliding ______ off the top of the tibia. A. laterally B. anteriorly C. posteriorly D. medially

three germ layer to form

The process of gastrulation causes: A. A distinct head and tail region to form B. A neural plate to form C. Three germ layers to form D. A cylindrical trunk to form

Middle lobe

The right and left lungs are different. What is the left lung missing? A. Apex B. Superior lobe C. Middle lobe D. Inferior lobe E. Base

Cisterna chyli

The sac-like chamber that receives lymph from the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs (labelled #3 in the above picture) is called the ___________. A. inguinal lymph node B. cisterna chyli C. lacteal D. lymphatic pump E. abdominal lymph node

pectoral girdle/ upper limb

The scapula and clavicle form the ______ which anchors the ______ to the thoracic cage of the axial skeleton. A. pectoral girdle / lower limb B. pectoral girdle / upper limb C. pelvic girdle / lower limb D. pelvic girdle / upper limb

neuromusclular junction

The site where a motor neuron meets (synapses with) a muscle cell is called the _________ ______. A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. muscle fiber C. myelin sheath D. neuromuscular junction

Circular folds

The small intestine contains many adaptations to increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption. Which modification for absorption is macroscopic? A. Circular folds B. Villi C. Microvilli

circular folds

the embryo

The structure labeled "A" has the developmental fate of becoming: A. The chorionic membrane B. The embryo C. The fetal portion of the placenta D. The maternal portion of the placenta

motor/efferent

The structure shown by the number two is a _____ neuron and its neural impulse is _____. A. motor / afferent B. sensory / efferent C. motor / efferent D. sensory / afferent

Atrioventricular node

This clump of specialized myocardial conductive cells is located in the inferior portion of the right atrium within the interatrial septum. These cells cause a critical pause in the electrical signal passing through them before it moves into the atrioventricular bundle. A. Sinoatrial node B. Purkinje fibers C. Bundle branches D. Atrioventricular node E. Interatrial band

Pennate

This type of fascicle blends into a tendon at an angle that runs through the central region of the muscle for its whole length, somewhat like the quill of a feather with the muscle arranged similar to feathers. A. Parallel B. Pennate C. Convergent D. Circular

Subarachnoid space

Through what structure does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulate? A. Dura mater B. Subarachnoid space C. Pia mater D. Dural septa E. Subdural space

cervical

Transverse foramina are unique to ________ vertebrae. A. cervical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. sacral

preventing

Tropomyosin winds around the chains of the actin filament and covers the myosin-binding sites, ______ actin's binding to myosin. A. preventing B. encouraging C. tightening up D. speeding up

condyle

What bone marking is described as a rounded projection that helps form an articulation? A. Condyle B. Facet C. Tuberosity D. Fossa

Which gland secretes a hormone that increases blood sugar levels?

Right upper quadrant

What abdominal quadrant contains the majority of the liver? A. Right upper quadrant B. Left upper quadrant C. Right lower quadrant D. Left lower quadrant

dead karatinocytes

What are the nails of our fingers and toes made of? A. Collagen fibers B. Cartilage C. Dead keratinocytes D. Osteoid

arm. forearm, hand

What are the regions of the upper limb from proximal to distal? A. arm, hand B. arm, forearm, hand C. hand, arm D. hand, forearm, arm

Periodontal ligaments

What are the short bands of dense connective tissue that hold the root of a tooth in its socket? A. Periodontal ligaments B. Interosseous membranes C. Sutures D. Collateral ligaments

cartilage and bone

What are the two major forms of supportive connective tissue that allow the body to maintain its posture and protect internal organs? A. Loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue B. Bone and adipose tissue C. Cartilage and bone D. Cartilage and extracellular matrix

basophil

What blood cell releases histamine and heparin? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Monocyte D. Neutrophil

flexion

What body movement includes the bending of a joint that causes a decrease in its angle and which movement is within the sagittal plane? A. Extension B. Flexion C. Abduction D. Adduction

Coronal

What body plane would you use to describe the following MRI? A. Transverse B. Sagittal C. Coronal D. Oblique

Hypothalamus

What brain structure is responsible for regulating homeostasis, including monitoring sleep/wake cycles and hunger and thirst? A. Amygdala B. Midbrain C. Hypothalamus D. Pons E. Hippocampus

Natural killer cell

What cell is able to attack an infected cell by secreting proteins such as perforin and granzyme? A. Helper T cell B. Natural killer cell C. Regulatory T cell D. B cell

Enteroendocrine cell

What cell of the stomach secretes gastrin? A. Surface mucous cell B. Parietal cell C. Chief cell D. Enteroendocrine cell

Plasma cell

What cell produces antibodies? A. Helper T cell B. Cytotoxic T cell C. Plasma cell D. Memory B cell

Hepatocyte

What cell type produces bile? A. Parietal cell B. Chief cell C. Hepatocyte D. Pancreatic alpha cell E. Villar cell F. Gall bladder cell

axons

What cells/part of cells is found in the area indicated by the black arrow? A. Axons B. Cell Bodies C. Nerves D. Ganglia

myosin

What composes thick filaments? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Troponin D. Tropomyosin

Perimysium

What connective tissue surrounds individual fascicles? A. Endomysium B. Epimysium C. Perimysium D. Deep fascia

CN I

What cranial nerve is indicated by the letter E and aids in your sense of smell? A. Cranial Nerve I B. Cranial Nerve II C. Cranial Nerve III D. Cranial Nerve IV E. Cranial Nerve V

Trochlear nerve

What cranial nerve is responsible for controlling eye movements by innervating the superior oblique muscle? A. CN I - Olfactory Nerve B. CN II - Optic Nerve C. CN III - Oculomotor Nerve D. CN IV - Trochlear Nerve E. CN VI - Abducens Nerve

Accessory nerve

What cranial nerve is responsible for innervating the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles? A. CN VII - Facial Nerve B. CN VIII - Vestibulocochlear Nerve C. CN IX - Glossopharyngeal Nerve D. CN X - Vagus Nerve E. CN XI - Accessory nerve

Lymphedema

What diagnosis would you give the individual pictured below? A. AIDS B. Leukocytosis C. Lymphoma D. Lymphedema

Histology

What discipline in anatomy focuses on the study of epithelial tissue and connective tissue? A. Cytology B. Gross anatomy C. Histology D. Regional anatomy

Pepsin

What enzyme found in the stomach chemically digests proteins? A. Gastrin B. Pepsin C. Trypsin D. Lipase

fertilization; implantation

What events characterize the beginning and the end of the pre-embryonic period? A. Female releasing egg from ovary (ovulation); formation of morula B. Fertilization; formation of the blastocyst C. Sperm "swimming" up uterine tubes; implantation D. Fertilization; implantation E. Formation of the morula; formation of the blastocyst

Articular disc

What fibrocartilage structure found in a synovial joint is small and oval-shaped and is found within the temporomandibular joint? A. Articular disc B. Bursa C. Meniscus D. Tendon sheath

Aqueous humor

What fluid fills the space indicated by the red arrow? A. Aqueous humor B. Vitreous humor C. Endolymph D. Perilymph E. Tears

Posterior pituitary gland

What gland or organ associated with the endocrine system produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A. Kidney B. Posterior pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Anterior pituitary gland E. Heart

Apocrine

What gland releases sweat in the axillary and genital regions that contains organic compounds as well as water and salts? A. Apocrine B. Eccrine C. Sebaceous

Oligodentrocyte

What glial cell produces myelin in the central nervous system (CNS)? A. Astrocyte B. Oligodendrocyte C. Ependymal cell D. Schwann ell E. Satellite cell

Lingual tonsils

What group of tonsils is indicated by the letter B? A. Palatine tonsils B. Pharyngeal tonsils C. Lingual tonsils D. Adenoids

Aldosterone

What hormone is produced by the adrenal cortex? A. Norepinephrine B. Renin C. Aldosterone D. Antidiuretic hormone

calcitonin

What hormone is produced by the thyroid gland? A. Calcitonin B. Glucagon C. Melatonin D. Thymosin

Epinephrine

What hormone is released from the adrenal medulla? A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Epinephrine D. Glucagon

Atrial natriuretic peptide

What hormone is secreted by the heart to increase loss of sodium and water? A. Renin B. Atrial natriuretic peptide C. Erythropoietin D. Aldosterone E. Angiotensin

Tight junctions

What intercellular junction is primarily responsible for creating an impermeable junction between adjacent cells? A. Adhering Junctions B. Gap Junctions C. Hemidesmosomes D. Tight Junctions

Cools down the body core temperature.

What is NOT a function of skeletal muscle? A. Cools down the body core temperature. B. Supports and protects abdominal organs. C. Stores materials like glycogen and calcium. D. Participates in body functions such as swallowing, urinating, and defecating.

increased metabolic rate

What is a result if the gland below secretes too much hormone into the bloodstream? A. Weight gain and cold extremities B. More frequent urination C. Increased metabolic rate D. Dwarfism E. Excessive milk production

inorganic component of bone

What is hydroxyapatite? A. The organic component of bone. B. The inorganic component of bone. C. The organic component of cartilage. D. The inorganic component of cartilage.

Ligamentum teres

What is the adult derivative of the umbilical vein? A. Ligamentum teres B. Ligamentum arteriosum C. Medial umbilical ligament D. Ligamentum venosum

large intestines

Where are teniae coli found? A. Large intestine B. Small intestine C. Pancreas D. Liver E. Stomach

Peroxisome

What is the cellular structure identified by the line labeled 'F'? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Ribosome D. Peroxisome E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum F. Golgi apparatus

knee flexion

What is the common function of this group of muscles? A. Plantar flexion B. Hip flexion C. Knee extension D. Knee flexion

8, 12, 5

What is the correct number of pairs of cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spinal nerves, respectively? A. 7,12,5 B. 7,12,10 C. 8,12,5 D. 8,5,12 E. 7,5,5

voluntary phase --> pharyngeal phase --> esophageal phase

What is the correct order of the three phases of deglutition? A. esophageal phase --> pharyngeal phase --> voluntary phase B. pharyngeal phase --> esophageal phase --> involuntary phase C. involuntary phase --> pharyngeal phase --> esophageal phase D. voluntary phase --> pharyngeal phase --> esophageal phase

Maintains the normal structure and function of bone

What is the function of an osteocyte? A. Forms bone matrix by synthesizing and secreting osteoid B. Resorbs bone tissue and releases calcium into the blood C. Acts as a stem cell, dividing to produce more bone cells D. Maintains the normal structure and function of bone

Increase blood calcium

What is the function of the hormone released from the gland indicated by the red star? A. Decrease blood calcium B. Decrease metabolic activity C. Increase blood calcium D. Increase metabolic activity

synarthrosis

What is the functional classification of the joints labeled in the following figure? A. Cartilaginous B. Amphriarthrosis C. Fibrous D. Synarthrosis

Olecranon process

What is the insertion of triceps brachii? A. Supraglenoid tubercle B. Infraglenoid tubercle C. Radial tuberosity D.

Surrounding cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

What is the location of satellite cells in the nervous system? A. Wrapped around an axon in the peripheral nervous system (PNS). B. Lining the ventricles of the brain. C. Surrounding cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system (PNS). D. Wrapped around the blood vessels of the brain.

continuous capillary

What is the most common type of capillary? A. Continuous capillary B. Fenestrated capillary C. Sinusoidal capillary D. Elastic capillary

lymph nodes

What is the most likely place you could find reticular connective tissue? A. Tendons and ligaments B. Subcutaneous layer under the skin C. Lymph nodes D. As a cushion, surrounding organs

Dura mater

What is the most superficial layer of the meninges? A. Arachnoid mater B. Dura mater C. Pia mater D. Doesn't mater

Pleura

What is the name of the serous membrane that surrounds each lung? A. Peritoneum B. Pulmonary fascia C. Pleura D. Bronchomembrane

Ischial tuberosity; tibial tuberosity

What is the origin for the knee flexors, and the insertion for the knee extenders? A. Tibial tuberosity; ischial tuberosity B. Inferior ramus of pubis; head of fibula C. Ischial ramus; pes anserinus D. Ischial tuberosity; tibial tuberosity

Megakaryocyte

What is the precursor to platelets? A. Platoblasts B. Reticulocyte C. Metaleukocyte D. Megakaryocyte

cartilaginous

What is the structural classification of the joint labeled in the following figure? A. Amphiarthrosis B. Cartilaginous C. Synarthrosis D. Fibrous

Sebum

What is the substance that is secreted by sebaceous glands? A. Sebum B. Sweat C. Pheromones D. Chyme

What labeled joint is classified as a saddle joint?

What labeled line is showing the biceps femoris in the following figure?

What labeled line is showing the lacuna in the following figure?

What labeled line shows a retroperitoneal organ?

What labeled line shows the ilium?

What labeled line shows the lateral pterygoid muscle?

What labeled line shows the region of the stomach that contains the pyloric sphincter?

What labeled line shows the tissue layer of the gastrointestinal tract that is made of connective tissue and supplies nutrients and oxygen to neighboring avascular tissues?

A and E

What labeled line(s) show the structure(s) that receives bile from hepatocytes so that it can eventually drain into the gall bladder? A. A and E B.B C.C D.D and F

What labeled structure is responsible for making and secreting synovial fluid?

What labelled gland is responsible for making the hormones that stimulate T-cell maturation, which builds up the body's immune system?

What labelled line is showing the vestibular fold?

What labelled line shows the connective tissue wrapping that surrounds a fascicle?

What labelled line shows the median nerve?

What labelled line(s) shows mature cartilage cells?

What labelled structure allows deoxygenated blood to pass into the right ventricle?

What labelled structure is composed of smooth muscle tissue?

cytotrophoblast

What layer formed from the trophoblast is made of individual cells? A. Cytotrophoblast B. Epiblast C. Hypoblast D. Syncytiotrophoblast

Epineurium

What layer is indicated by C? A. Epineurium B. Perineurium C. Endoneurium D. Epimysium

Serosa

What layer of tissue is the visceral peritoneum? A. Mucosa B. Submucosa C. Muscularis D. Serosa

Lateral collateral ligament

What ligament runs from the lateral epicondyle of the femur to the head of the fibula? A. Anterior cruciate ligament B. Medial collateral ligament C. Lateral collateral ligament D. Posterior cruciate ligament

Hemoglobin

What molecules are found in erythrocytes? A. Gamma globulin B. Fibrin C. Hemoglobin D. Albumin

evavation-depression

What motion am I making when I chew my food? A. Retraction-Protraction B. Elevation-Depression C. Opposition-Reposition D. Flexion-Extension

Orbicularis oculi

What muscle has a circular arrangement of muscle fascicles? A. Pectoralis major B. Masseter C. Deltoid D. Orbicularis oculi

The eyes move closer and blinking motions begin

What occurs during the fetal period? A. Limb buds form. B. The eyes move closer and blinking motions begin. C. The heart begins to beat. D. The neural tube forms and the cephalic end begins to dilate to become the brain.

Uterus

What organ is located in the pelvic cavity? A. Heart B. Liver C. Lungs D. Uterus

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

What organelle creates lipids, stores calcium, and breaks down some carbohydrates? A. Lysosome B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Golgi apparatus D. Nucleus

Apophysis

What part of a long bone is a bony outgrowth and serves as an attachment site for ligaments and tendons? A. Diaphysis B. Epiphysis C. Apophysis D. Epiphyseal line

What part of the centrifuged blood contains albumin and globulins?

Enteric nervous system

What portion of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling smooth muscle and glandular tissue in the digestive system? A. Enteric nervous system B. Empathic nervous system C. Somatic nervous system D. Central nervous system

Sacral region

What region of the body is found between the lumbar region and the gluteal region? A. Dorsal region B. Pelvic region C. Sacral region D. Thoracic region

A condition more commonly seen in roofers or floor and carpet installers who do not use knee pads. Treatments for this disorder include anti-inflammatory agents, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or corticosteroids if it is due to trauma or overuse.

What statement best describes a disorder known as bursitis? A. Bones are forced out of alignment. Moving the bones back into alignment is called reduction. B. A condition more commonly seen in roofers or floor and carpet installers who do not use knee pads. Treatments for this disorder include anti-inflammatory agents, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or corticosteroids if it is due to trauma or overuse. C. Inflammation of the thick band of fibrous tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone. This condition causes pain and tenderness in the area around a joint, most often this condition results from repetitive motions. D. Overstretching or tearing of the thick band of fibrous tissue that attaches a bone to another bone.

they are autorhythmic

What statement is true regarding cardiac muscle cells? A. They are a specialized type of smooth muscle. B. They are under voluntary control. C. They are autorhythmic. D. They are unable to initiate an electric impulse.

Primary afferent neuron

What structure carries an electrical signal from sensory receptors into the spinal cord? A. Lower motor neuron B. Upper motor neuron C. Primary afferent neuron D. Secondary afferent neuron E. Tertiary afferent neuron

hair follicle

What structure contains the hair bulb and the hair root? A. Hair shaft B. Hair follicle C. Hair gland D. Hair papilla

Hypoblast

What structure contributes to the formation of the yolk sac? A. Hypoblast B. Epiblast C. Inner Cell Mass D. Amnion

Thyroid

What structure is NOT a part of the lymphatic system? A. Spleen B. Cisterna chyli C. Appendix D. Red bone marrow E. Thyroid F. Thoracic duct

caudate

What structure is NOT part of the limbic system? A. Fornix B. Cingulate gyrus C. Amygdala D. Caudate E. Hippocampus

Choroid

What structure is immediately deep to the sclera? A. Lens B. Cornea C. Choroid D. Iris E. Retina

Dorsal root ganglion

What structure is indicated by C? A. Spinal nerve B. Dorsal root C. Dorsal root ganglion D. Ventral root

Anterior funiculus

What structure is indicated by the red star? A. Anterior funiculus B. Posterior funiculus C. Dorsal horn D. Ventral horn

Larynx

What structure is indicated by the red star? A. Bronchi B. Larynx C. Pharynx D. Oral cavity E. Trachea

Amygdala

What structure is involved with long-term memory and emotions? A. Amygdala B. Caudate C. Globus pallidus D. Putamen

spongy bone

What structure is labeled 'C' in the following figure? A. Compact bone B. Spongy bone C. Periosteum D. Medullary cavity

epiphyseal line

What structure is located in the metaphysis of older adults? A. Elastic cartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Epiphyseal line D. Epiphyseal plate

nail root

What structure is made of a matrix of proliferating cells and is where the nail grows? A. Free edge B. Nail cuticle C. Lunula D. Nail root E. Nail body

sarcolemma

What structure is shown by C? A. Sarcolemma B. Sarcomere C. Sarcoplasm D. Sarcopenia

Vermis

What structure of the cerebellum connects its two hemispheres together? A. Folia B. Vermis C. Fornix D. Tectum

Foramen ovale

What structure serves as an opening in the interatrial septum during the fetal period of development allowing blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium? A. Foramen ovale B. Fossa ovalis C. Oval window D. Round window

T-tubule

What structure within a muscle cell ensures that the action potential can travel deep into the cell? A. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum B. T-Tubule C. Terminal Cisternae D. Axon

All of the above

What structure(s) is found in the hypodermis? A. Blood vessels B. Areolar connective tissue C. Adipose tissue D. Blood vessels and adipose tissue only E. All of the above

Sarcomere

What structure, bordered by Z-disks, is the functional unit of muscle? A. Sarcolemma B. Sarcoplasm C. Sarcomere D. Sarcopenia

Cochlear duct

What structure, indicated by the letter A, is filled with endolymph? A. Scala tympani B. Scala vestibuli C. Cochlear duct D. Tectorial membrane

First two weeks after fertilization

What time frame does the pre-embryonic period occur? A. First two weeks after fertilization B. First three weeks after fertilization C. Weeks 3-8 after fertilization D. Weeks 4-8 after fertilization

Hyaline cartilage

What tissue is the structure labeled 'A' made of? A. Compact Bone B. Fibrous Connective Tissue C. Hyaline Cartilage D. Synovial Fluid E. Elastic Cartilage

Simple squamous epithelium

What tissue type makes the walls of the alveoli in the lungs? A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Transitional epithelium C. Simple cuboidal epithelium D. Stratified squamous epithelium

Tunica media

What tunic is thickest in arterial walls? A. Tunica intima B. Tunica media C. Tunica externa D. Tunica vasorum

Sinusoidal capillary

What type of capillary (shown below) allows for passage of larger molecules, including plasma proteins and sometimes cells? A. Sinusoidal capillary B. Fenestrated capillary C. Continuous capillary D. Elastic capillary

fenestrated capillary

What type of capillary is found in many endocrine structures? A. Continuous capillary B. Fenestrated capillary C. Sinusoidal capillary D. Muscular capillary

elastic cartilage

What type of cartilage is found in the epiglottis? A. Articular cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Hyaline cartilage

Terminal hair

What type of hair grows on the scalp, axillary region, and eyebrow? A. Lanugo B. Terminal hair C. Vellus hair

Foliate

What type of lingual papillae contain taste buds that are only important during infancy? A. Filiform B. Foliate C. Fungiform D. Circumvallate

Parallel

What type of muscle fascicle arrangement is the rectus abdominis? A. Parallel B. Pennate C. Circular D. Convergent

Mechanoreceptor

What type of receptor is found in the cochlea and detects sound waves? A. Chemoreceptor B. Photoreceptor C. Mechanoreceptor D. Nociceptor

hinge joint

What type of synovial joint is described as a convex end of one bone articulating with the concave end of another bone allowing the joint to bend and straighten within one plane of the body? A. Ball and socket joint B. Hinge joint C. Plane joint D. Condyloid joint

Hyaline cartilage

What type of tissue forms the C-shaped pieces that make up the wall of the trachea? A. Elastic cartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Bone E. Dense connective tissue

cartilage, chondrocyte

What type of tissue is shown here? What is "A" identifying? A. Bone, Chondrocyte B. Bone, Osteocyte C. Cartilage, Chondrocyte D. Cartilage, Osteocyte

dense irregular tissue

What type of tissue is the periosteum made from? A. Dense elastic tissue B. Dense regular tissue C. Dense irregular tissue D. Areolar tissue E. Reticular tissue

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

What type of tissue lines the nasal cavity? A. Stratified columnar epithelium B. Stratified squamous epithelium C. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D. Simple columnar epithelium

Lymphocytes

When a macrophage or a dendritic cell find a foreign substance that does not belong in the body, they phagocytize it and then present antigens from the foreign substances to _________. A. erythrocytes B. monocytes C. lymphocytes D. virus-infected cells

minimize/ drops

When body temperatures drop, skin blood vessels constrict to ______ heat loss, particularly in the ends of the digits and tip of the nose. Although the temperature of the skin ______ as a result, passive heat loss is prevented, and internal organs and structures remain warm. A. maximize / increases B. maximize / drops C. minimize / increases D. minimize / drops

Vasopressin; aldosterone

When you forget to bring a water bottle to school and fail to drink enough water, you feel dehydrated. In this situation, which two different hormones kick in to help your body retain water? A. ADH; vasopressin B. Oxytocin; ADH C. Vasopressin; aldosterone D. Aldosterone; cortisol

CN V

When you visit your grandmother, she kisses you on the cheek. Which cranial nerve is responsible for directing this touch sensation from your cheek to your central nervous system? A. CN V B. CN VII C. CN IX D. CN X

In small intesine villi

Where are lacteals found? A. In the large intestine microvilli B. In small intestine villi C. In stomach gastric pits D. In hepatic canaliculi E. In salivary gland ducts

in small intestine villi

Where are lacteals found? A. In the large intestine microvilli B. In small intestine villi C. In stomach gastric pits D. In hepatic canaliculi E. In salivary gland ducts

Lining the digestive, respiratory, urinanry, and reproductive tracts.

Where are mucous membranes found in the body? A. Covering the body's surface. B. Lining body cavities. C. Lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts. D. Lining the joint cavities.

Large intestine

Where are teniae coli found? A. Large intestine B. Small intestine C. Pancreas D. Liver E. Stomach

Anterior pituitary gland

Where is prolactin produced? A. Mammary glands B. Thymus C. Kidneys D. Anterior pituitary gland E. Adrenal cortex

in the walls of blood vessels

Where is smooth muscle most likely located? A. In the walls of the heart B. In the walls of blood vessels C. Attached to bone D.

Between the two thalami

Where is the brain's third ventricle? A. Between the pia and arachnoid mater B. Between the brainstem and cerebellum C. Between the two thalami D. Between the brainstem and spinal cord E. In the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes

At the tip of the spinal cord

Where is the conus medullaris? A. In the diencephalon B. In the brainstem C. In the ventricular system D. At the tip of the spinal cord E. In the peripheral ganglia

Postcentral gyrus

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Postcentral gyrus D. Precentral gyrus E. Dorsal horn

Where is the sigmoid colon?

glands

Where might the tissue shown in the picture below be found within the body? A. Glands B. Lung air sacs C. Uterine tube D. Small intestine E. Respiratory tract

The ascending colon

Where would haustra likely be found? A. The ascending colon B. The pyloric region of the stomach C. The pancreas D. The anus E. The ileum

the ascending colon

Where would haustra likely be found? A. The ascending colon B. The pyloric region of the stomach C. The pancreas D. The anus E. The ileum

natural killer cell

Which blood cells is both a leukocyte and a lymphocyte? A. Monocyte B. Natural killer cell C. Neutrophil D. Thrombocyte

Which cell in the alveolus shown below is in charge of consuming foreign particles, such as dust?

scoliosis

Which disorder is pictured in the X-ray? A. Lordosis B. Kyphosis C. Spina bifida D. Scoliosis

somatic motor

Which division of the nervous system is responsible for voluntary movements? A. Autonomic motor B. Autonomic sensory C. Somatic motor D. Somatic sensory

endoderm

Which embryonic germ layer forms the digestive organs? A. ectoderm B. mesoderm C. endoderm

Which epidermal layer is found only in thick skin?

mesoderm

Which germ layer becomes the heart, kidney, and connective tissue? A. Ectoderm B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm

temporalis

Which muscle aids in mastication (chewing)? A. Orbicularis oris B. Levator anguli oris C. Temporalis D. Mentalis

Buccinator

Which muscle compresses the cheeks of a baby to help it suck milk from a bottle? A. Buccinator B. Mentalis C. Nasalis D. Zygomaticus

Which muscle(s) are responsible for adduction and flexion of the shoulder?

7-10

Which of the following are incisors? A. 1-3 B. 4-5 C. 6, 11 D. 7-10 E. All are incisors

inferior mesenteric arteries

Which of the following arteries in not paired? A. Renal arteries B. Gonadal arteries C. Femoral arteries D. Inferior mesenteric arteries E. Inferior phrenic arteries

Maxilla

Which of the following bones articulates (forms a joint) with the zygomatic bone? A. Maxilla B. Ethmoid C. Parietal D. Mandible E. Nasal

right ventricle

Which of the following contains papillary muscles and trabeculae carneae, and is bordered by the tricuspid valve and pulmonary semilunar valve? A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle E. Coronary sinus

Sympathetic nervous system

Which of the following contains preganglionic neurons and postganglionic neurons? A. Somatic sensory system B. Somatic motor system C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Stretch reflex pathway E. All of the above

commissural tracts

Which of the following go through the corpus callosum? A. Projection tracts B. Association tracts C. Commissural tracts D. Spinal tracts

Prevalent extracellular matrix

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue? A. Polarity B. Avascular C. High regenerative capacity D. Intercellular junctions E. Prevalent extracellular matrix

deltoid

Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle? A. Deltoid B. Supraspinatus C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis E. Infraspinatus

Renal vein

Which of the following is NOT part of the hepatic portal system? A. Hepatic portal vein B. Superior mesenteric vein C. Splenic vein D. Renal vein

Oxytocin

Which of the following is NOT released by the anterior pituitary gland? A. Prolactin B. Oxytocin C. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone D. Luteinizing Hormone

It is composed of bronchioles

Which of the following is NOT true of the lung hilum? A. It is found on the medial surface of each lung B. It is where the pulmonary arteries enter the lungs C. It is where the primary bronchi enter the lung D. It is composed of bronchioles E. Both right and left lungs have a hilum

greater omentum

Which of the following is a double-layered peritoneal membrane? A. Appendix B. Greater omentum C. Diaphragm D. Muscosa E. Uvula

Increases speed of conduction

Which of the following is a function of myelin? A. Recycles neurotransmitter vesicles in the axon terminal B. Causes chemical release in the presynaptic neuron C. Prevents the action potential D. Increases speed of conduction

Rheumatoid arthritis

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease, caused by the body's own immune system attacking the body's joints? A. Gouty arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Bursitis D. Tendonitis E. Rheumatoid arthritis

vomer

Which of the following is an unpaired facial bone? A. Maxillae B. Palatine C. Lacrimal D. Vomer E. Occipital bone

Proprioception

Which of the following is classified as a general sense? A. Olfaction B. Gustation C. Proprioception D. Equilibrium

gap junctions

Which of the following is found at intercalated discs and is responsible for allowing cardiac cells to share electrical impulses? A. Purkinje fibers B. Gap junctions C. Bundle branches D. Desmosomes E. Electrical nodes

Which of the following is the external iliac vein?

fascicle

Which of the following is the largest? A. Myofibril B. Myofiber C. Mitochondrion D. Fascicle E. Sarcomere

Brianstem

Which of the following is the most likely place for a parasympathetic preganglionic neuron cell body? A. Thoracic spinal cord B. Sympathetic ganglion C. Dorsal root ganglion D. Brainstem E. Parasympathetic ganglion

It is controlled by the automatic nervous system

Which of the following is true regarding the internal anal sphincter? A. It produces large amounts of mucus B. It is located at the hepatic flexure C. It is controlled by the autonomic nervous system D. It is closed during defecation

It is controlled by the autonomic nervous system

Pronator teres

Which of the following muscles is named according to its action? A. Rectus femoris B. Gluteus minimus C. Pronator teres D. Triceps brachii

red bone marrow --> bloodstream --> liver/spleen

Which of the following orders shows the correct red blood cell life cycle of an adult? A. spleen --> bloodstream --> red bone marrow B. liver/spleen --> yellow bone marrow --> red bone marrow --> blood stream C. red bone marrow --> bloodstream --> liver/spleen D. bloodstream --> yellow bone marrow --> red bone marrow --> liver E. yellow bone marrow --> bloodstream --> liver/spleen

Which of the following organs is retroperitoneal? A. Pancreas B. Jejunum C. Appendix D. Transverse colon E. Stomach F. All of the above

Asthma

Which of the following results from an environmental trigger that increases fluid and mucus in the lung's airways? A. Emphysema B. Asthma C. Pneumonia D. Pleurisy

Tympanic membrane

Which of the following separates the outer and middle ear? A. Round window B. Oval window C. Vestibular membrane D. Tympanic membrane E. Tectorial membrane

maxillary sinus

Which of the following skull structures has the function of resonating sound, warming and humidifying the air, and making the skull lighter? A. Maxillary sinus B. Hard palate C. Anterior fontanelle D. Vomer

The heart is found in the pleural cavity

Which of the following statement about the heart is FALSE? A. The apex of the heart points to the left hip B. The heart is found in the pleural cavity C. The heart is posterior to the sternum D. The heart is a dual pump E. The base of the heart is superior to the apex of the heart

Fovea centralis

Which of the following structures contains cones? A. Optic disc B. Choroid C. Sclera D. Fovea centralis

Cerebellum

Which of the following structures is largely responsible for fine-tuning, smoothing and coordinating movements, and for maintaining balance and equilibrium? A. Pons B. Medulla C. Cerebellum D. Spinal cord E. Hippocampus

Testes

Which organ is found in both the endocrine system and the reproductive system? A. Urinary bladder B. Testes C. Adrenal glands D. Pancreas E. Ureters

Spinal cord and brain

Which organs are found in the dorsal body cavity? A. Heart and thymus B. Thymus and spinal cord C. Spinal cord and brain D. Lungs and heart

endocardium

Which pericardial layer lines the heart chambers? A. Parietal Pericardium B. Epicardium C. Myocardium D. Endocardium

Lumbosacral

Which plexus gives rise to the sciatic nerve? A. Cervical B. Lumbosacral C. Brachial D. Choroid

The small intestine

Which region of the digestive tract is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption? A. The stomach B. The esophagus C. The oral cavity D. The small intestine E. The large intestine

the small intestine

Which region of the digestive tract is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption? A. The stomach B. The esophagus C. The oral cavity D. The small intestine E. The large intestine

Chordae teninae

Which structure in the heart prevents backflow from the ventricles back into the atria? A. Trabeculae carnae B. Chordae tendinae C. Fossa ovalis D. Interventricular septum

Fibrous skeleton

Which structure in the heart prevents electric impulses from traveling down the walls of the atria and directly into the outer walls of the ventricles? A. Fibrous skeleton B. Semilunar valves C. Interatrial septum D. Interventricular septum

Which structure is a bag of synovial fluid, or bursa?

Which structure is the axon hillock?

Which structure receives information from other neurons at many specialized areas of contact called synapses? A. #3 B. #5 C. #6 D. #9

Which structure represents the parietal pericardium?

C and D

Which two structures are made of cardiac muscle cells? A. C and E B. A and D C. A and B D. C and D

transverse

Which type of cut would allow this view? A. coronal B. sagittal C. transverse D. oblique

apocrine

Which type of exocrine secretion is shown here? A. Apocrine B. Holocrine C. Merocrine

skeletal muscle

Which type of muscle is made of cells that are multinucleated? A. Smooth muscle B. Skeletal muscle C. Cardiac muscle

smooth muscle

Which type of muscle is non-striated? A. Cardiac muscle B. Skeletal muscle C. Smooth muscle

unipolar neurons

Which type of neuron carries sensory information (such as touch, vibration, and pain) to the central nervous system? A. Bipolar neuron B. Multipolar neuron C. Unipolar neuron

Filiform

Which type of papillae contain no taste buds? A. Filiform B. Fungiform C. Foliate D. Circumvallate

association tracts

Which types of tracts in the brain are shown below? A. Projection tracts B. Association tracts C. Commissural tracts D. Spinal tracts

endosteum

You are a researcher that wants to understand the tissue where bone growth, repair, and remodeling occur. What part of bone is a good structure to study these functions? A. Hydroxyapatite B. Endosteum C. Yellow bone marrow D. Articular cartilage

Fibrinogen

You are a scientist trying to determine what molecule in the plasma of blood is a type of clotting factor. What molecule are you looking for with your experiments? A. Fibrinogen B. Albumin C. Hemoglobin D. Bilirubin

Brachial

You are about to assist a surgeon on a patient who broke the distal end of their left radius. To aid your patient's pain management after they wake up from surgery, a nerve block needs to be performed. What plexus does the anesthesiologist target for your patient? A. Cervical B. Brachial C. Lumbosacral D. Intercostal

Tau protein

You are trying to determine why an older patient is forgetting things so often and having trouble with directions. You are able to take a sample of their brain and you note a specific protein within their nerve cells. What protein did you most likely find? A. Tau protein B. Amyloid plaques C. Hardened myelin D. Albumin

Ligamentum flavum

You bend over to pick up a rock that is close to a cliff. What ligament of the vertebral column prevents too much forward bending of the spine? A. Anterior longitudinal ligament B. Interosseous ligament C. Periodontal ligament D. Ligamentum flavum

humerus/ulna

You go to the gym to work out. You find some dumbbells and start curling exercises (flexion at the elbow). As you think about this movement, you remember your anatomy class and that the brachialis is a synergist for this movement. You also are able to understand the origin and insertion of this muscle as it pertains to the action of this muscle. What is the origin and what is the insertion of the brachialis, respectively? A. Humerus/ulna B. Humerus/carpals C. Ulna/humerus D. Carpals/humerus

Hematocrit

You have a patient that appears to have some blood disorder. You want to measure the percentage of red blood cells for the person. What type of test will you need to perform to determine this measurement? A. Basic Metabolic Panel B. Hematocrit C. Coagulation Test D. Bone Marrow Test

Lower right

You have a patient who is complaining of abdominal pain. Upon closer examination, you discover that she has appendicitis (inflammation of the appendix), and needs to have her appendix removed. Which abdominopelvic quadrant would be the focus of the appendectomy (removal of the appendix)? A. Upper right B. Lower right C. Upper left D. Lower left

Distal; Proximal; anterior

You have a patient with a skin laceration in her patellar region. The patient will need stitches. If you were to describe the location of this laceration, you would say that it is ___________ to the hip, _______ to the foot, and ________ to the popliteal region. A. Inferior; superior; medial B. Superficial; proximal; posterior C. Distal; proximal; anterior D. Distal; lateral; posterior

conjunctiva

Your younger brother recently started wearing contact lenses instead of glasses. Due to his limited knowledge of anatomy, he has a fear of the contacts slipping back behind his eyes and becoming impossible to retrieve. As you explain to him the structures of the eye, you decide drawing a simple diagram would be best. Which of the following structures must you include in your drawing to help explain why contact lenses will not get lost behind your brother's eyes? A. Tarsal glands B. Conjunctiva C. Optic disc D. Suspensory ligaments

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

_______ are dome-shaped structures found in the lining of the gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, urinary tract, and genital tract. A. Tonsils B. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) C. Interstitial fluid D. Lymph nodes

Coronary arteries

_______ supply blood to the myocardium and other components of the heart. A. The pulmonary circuit B. The cardiac plexus C. Coronary arteries D. Heart valves

Alveolar type II cells

__________ are among the last cells to form in a developing fetus. These cells secrete surfactant, which is necessary to keep the alveolar walls from collapsing. A. Alveolar type I cells B. Alveolar type II cells C. Alveolar macrophages D. Alveolar dendritic cells

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

______________ describes tissue with a single layer of irregularly shaped cells that give the appearance of more than one layer. A. Simple cuboidal epithelium B. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium C. Simple columnar epithelium D. Simple squamous epithelium

Lab final cell 220

Related study sets

AHII- HIV

Sociology Exam 3- Ch. 7 Study Guide

Integrated Business Processes with ERP Systems - Chapter 1

Lesson 3: Ratios, Proportions, and Inequalities

Macro Final

Chapter 8 part 3

#3 박진우 teasing

ACCT EXAM 2

"Tell Tale Heart" COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS ( KRISHA)

ECON II Test 1 Study Guide BAC

UNT FINA 4300 - Test 3

SURVEY RAP HIP HOP FINAL

Bio 1520

HRM 1

Principles of Accounting - VYC1

OMIS 352 Ch 7

unit 15 test

ch10

Biology - Chpater 22 DNA Biology & Technology

CompTIA Network+ Exam N10-007 Network Protocols Quiz