Mastering A & P Chapter 1, Chapter 15 A&P Mastering, Chapter 15 Mastering A and P, Chapter 14 (Mastering A&P), Chapter 14 Mastering A&P, Mastering A&P Chapter 12, Mastering A&P chapter 12, chapter 11 mastering a and p, chapter 10 (mastering a&p), Mas...
Fever, hypertension, inflammation, allergy
Erythema
Nutrients
Essential metabolites normally obtained from our diet.
CT Functions
Est. structural framework, transport fluids or dissolved materials, Protecting delicate organs supporting/surrounding, & interconnecting tissues; Storing energy reserves; Defending the body from microorganisms.
Which joint does NOT belong with the others?
wrist
Steps of intramembranous ossification: 5 steps
1: At an ossification center. 2: bone grows out in small struts. 3: blood vessel enter the area. 4: continued deposition of bone by osteoblasts close to blood vessel. 5: Remodeling around blood vessels produces compact bone osteons.
Steps in endochondral ossification: 7 steps
1: Cartilage model enlarges 2: Blood vessels grow around the edge of the cartilage model 3: Blood vessels penetrate cartilage and enter central region 4: Growth continues along with remodeling 5: Capillaries and osteoblasts migrate into the epiphyses Secondary ossification - occur in epiphyses 6: Epiphyses fill with spongy bone Epiphyseal cartilage (epiphyseal plate): Epiphyseal cartilage/plate - separates epiphysis from diaphysis 7: Bone grows in length by epiphyseal cartilage
Cell theory
1: Cells - building blocks of all plants and animals 2: All new cells come from division of preexisting cells 3: Cells are smallest unit that perform all vital physiological functions
Transverse/cross/horizontal plane
Divides the body into superior and inferior
Callus formation
External _________ composed of cartilage and bone - stabilizes outer edges of fracture
Matrix
Extracellular protein fibers + ground substance
Which organelle can chemically regulate the shortening of the muscle?
SR
After age 30, effects of cumulative environmental assaults start to show and___becomes more common
Scaling and dermatitis
Molecule size of particles to diffuse
Smaller size = faster diffusion
Cellular level
Smallest living level (units) of organization in the body (3rd level)
Trochlear nerves (IV)
Smallest; Innervate superior oblique muscles of the eyes
Which of the following areas form the central core of the brain?
Thalamus
Which region acts as a relay center for sensory messages ascending to the cerebrum?
Thalamus
Which somatic motor control controls reflexes in response to visual and auditory stimuli?
Thalamus and mesencephalon
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.
myoglobin
The gliding motion of the wrist uses ________ joints.
plane
The ciliary muscle helps to control the
shape of the lens.
Cells lining digestive tract
shaped for absorption
Spongy bone formation
Cartilage of external callus replaced by spongy bone
Atomic number
# of protons in an atom
Burns are considered critical if:
->25% of body has second-degree burns ->10% of body has third-degree burns -Face, hands, or feet bear third-degree burns
Hair thinning can be induced by several factors
-Acutely high fever -Surgery -Severe emotional trauma -Certain drugs (such as antidepressants, blood thinners, steroids, and chemotherapeutic drugs) -Protein-deficient diets -Alopecia areata: immune system attacks follicles -Some hair loss is reversible, but others (such as from burns or radiation) are permanent
Three major types of skin cancer
-Basal cell carcinoma -Squamous cell carcinoma -Melanoma
The 3 functions of Protection?
-Chemical barrier -Physical barrier -Biological barrier
Treatment of burns includes
-Debridement (removal) of burned skin -Antibiotics -Temporary covering -Skin grafts
Functions of hair?
-Warn of insects on skin -Hair on head guards against physical trauma -Protect from heat loss -Shield skin from sunlight
The root word________means "immature or precursor."
-blast
The root word________means "growth."
-physis
bipolar
1 Axon and 1 Dendrite processs and Special sensory neurons
Steps in fracture repair: 4 steps
1): Fracture hematoma formation 2): callus formation 3): spongy bone formation 4): compact bone formation
Functions of the skeletal system: 5 functions
1. Body support: 2. Storage of minerals and lipids: Concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in the blood must be maintained - calcium homeostasis Calcium most abundant mineral in body 3. Blood cell production: 4. Protection: 5. Leverage:
Six categories of bone based on shape:
1. Flat bones 2. Sutural bones 3. Long bones 4. Irregular bones 5. Sesamoid bones 6. Short bones
Mesenchyme/Embryonic CT
1st CT to appear in an embryo
Neuron Structural Classification Multipolar
3 or more processes and Within CNS, Motor neurons
Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary?
34 mm Hg ***Yes, HPc (35 mm Hg) - HPI (1 mm Hg) = 34 mm Hg, which is the net hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end. The hydrostatic pressure of the blood is much higher at the arterial end of the capillary, thus favoring filtration.
Without lateral rotation of the humerus by the teres minor and infraspinatus muscles, the maximum angle of abduction by the deltoid would be __________. 75 degrees 90 degrees 180 degrees 30 degrees
90 degrees
Adult brain
97% of body's NT; Averages 1.4 kg (3 lb) in weight & 1200 mL in volume
Which of the letters in the figure indicates the vagus nerve?
A The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) is a component of the parasympathetic cranial outflow and controls normal function of organs of the thoracic and upper abdominal cavities.
false
A cuboidal shaped epithelial cell could easily replace a smooth muscle cell and perform the same functions as the smooth muscle cell. This statement accurately reflects the principle of complementarity of structure and function. (t/f)
Alkalosis
Above 7.45
Collagen (protein) fibers
Account for ~1/3 bone weight.
Calcium phosphate
Accounts for ~2/3 bone weight. Interacts with calcium hydroxide to form crystals of hydroxyapatite salts.
Action potential
Also known as a nerve impulse
Theta wave
Appear in children
Starches
Broken down into monosaccharides by digestive system. Major dietary energy source (potatoes & grains)
Inadequate steroid hormones (example: Addison's disease)
Bronzing
Nucleosomes
Coiled DNA strands wrap around histone molecules
What somatic motor control does the cerebellum possess?
Coordinates complex motor patterns
What structure connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres?
Corpus callosum
Star-shaped macrophages that patrol deep epidermis -Are key activators of immune system
Dendritic (Langerhans) cells
Deep Fascia
Dense regular CT
Fracture hematoma formation
Develops within several hours.
Which of the following may issue somatic motor commands as a result of processing performed at a subconscious level?
Diencephalon, Brain stem, Cerebrum
Primary Motor Cortex (Precentral gyrus)
Directs voluntary movements
Two main types of sweat glands
Eccrine (merocrine) Apocrine
Midsaggital
Evenly divided right | left on midline
Cerebrum
Executive suite.
•Epidermal damage only -Localized redness, edema (swelling), and pain
First-degree
Which change in an olfactory sensory neuron occurs when an odorant molecule binds to a receptor?
Golf proteins are activated, which increases cAMP and opens cAMP-gated cation channels.
sensory nerve endings that wrap around bulb -Hair is considered a sensory touch receptor
Hair follicle receptor (or root hair plexus)
Surface markings (generally for limb bones)
Head Expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from shaft by a narrower neck. Diaphysis (shaft) Elongated body of a long bone. Neck Narrow region between the head and shaft of a long bone .
swell
If red blood cells were added to a hypotonic salt solution, the cells would ______________.
Endocytosis
Importing extracellular substances into vesicles (called endosomes)
Unicellular gland
Individual secretory cells, in epithelia that have scattered gland cells
Liver disorders
Jaundice (yellow cast)
Cortex
Layer of gray matter on cerebrum (cerebral cortex) & cerebellum surfaces
Compression fractures
Occur in vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stresses - often associated with osteoporosis - shatters the bone.
Pott's fracture
Occurs at the ankle involving both legs - affects both medial malleolus and lateral malleolus.
Normal saline
Often administered in emergency 0.9 percent or 0.9 g/dL of NaCl Normal saline - isotonic with blood
Identify cranial nerve I.
Olfactory nerve
Contralateral
On the opposite side of the body
Long bone organization
Periosteum - outermost layer of long bones. Compact bone - with 2 types of concentric lamellae. Circumferential lamellae: At the outer and inner surfaces. Interstitial lamellae: Fill spaces between osteons.
Frontal lobe
Premotor cortex.
A patient has damage to the ciliary muscle which decreases muscle contraction. Which would you expect to happen?
Presbyopia
Control Center (thermostat)
Process info from the receptor and sneds out commands; responds to the stimulus by communicating with effector
Muscular System
Provides movement, provides support, and generates heat
Exocrine glands
Release secretions into ducts onto epithelial surface.
Potiential energy
Stored energy. (ex. a stretched spring)
Anatomy
Study of external and internal structures of the body.
Depolarization
The interior of the becomes less negative due to an influx of sodium ions
NREM stage 4
The stage when vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, and body temperature) reach their lowest normal levels.
All of the following statements are true of the subconscious motor pathways, except:
The tectospinal tracts help control the distal limb muscles that perform precise movements.
Polypeptides
Three or more amino acids linked together in tripeptides
NREM stage 2
Typified by sleep spindles.
modification and packaging of proteins
What is the function of the organelle indicated by B?
Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.
Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?
Simple epithelium
With single layer.
receptor protein
a G protein and a GDP/GTP molecule bind to this
Muscle tone is ________.
a state of sustained partial contraction
Holocrine secretion
destroys gland cell, (packed w/ secretions, then bursts)
The long, tubular shaft of a long bone is called __________.
diaphysis
Urinary System
eliminates excess water, salts, and wastes
Na+ amino acid
example of a symporter
Collectively ridges are called
friction ridges
Which of the following is NOT a role of the basal nuclei?
initiating protective reflex actions
Which type of receptors are the hair cells of the ear?
mechanoreceptors
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
metabolic waste such as urea
Which blood vessels allow blood to move directly from the arterial to the venous circulation?
metarterioles
Which region contains the corpora quadrigemina?
midbrain
The brain stem consists of the ________.
midbrain, medulla, and pons
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?
motor end plate
Electrons (e-)
negative electrical charge (smaller than protons and neutrons)
exocytosis
neurotransmitter release
Acidic pH
pH below 7
Which of the following bones is NOT from the axial skeleton?
pelvic bone
negative
proteins have a (postive/negative) charge
The opening in the eye through which the light passes on to the retina is the
pupil
•If body temperature rises, dilation of dermal vessels can increase sweat gland activity to produce 12 L (3 gallons) of noticeable sweat called?
sensible perspiration; designed to cool body
Myoglobin ________.
stores O2 in the muscle cells
The angle of which muscle prevents the humeral head from sliding upward out of the joint as the arm is raised? infraspinatus subscapularis teres minor supraspinatus
subscapularis
permeability
the ability to allow some substances to pass the membrane while others cannot
The force of a muscle contraction is NOT affected by __________.
the amount of ATP stored in the muscle cells The force of a muscle contraction is NOT affected by the amount of ATP stored in the muscle cells. Instead of relying on storage of ATP, muscle cells use ATP regenerating pathways, such as glycolysis, to meet the ATP demands of muscle contraction.
Cell bodies of first order sensory neurons are located in ________.
the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon? the semitendinosus the sartorius the tibialis anterior the gastrocnemius
the gastrocnemius
Facilitated diffusion
the process of passive transport of molecules or ions across a biological membrane via specific transmembrane integral proteins.
Which two bones have a malleolus?
tibia and fibula
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________.
visual association area
Skin can synthesize______needed for calcium absorption in intestine
vitamin D
bone marrow
where are blood cells made?
threshold as it relates to generation of an action potential
"All or none" phenomena, in order for an action potential to be produced neuron must depolarize by a speci fic amount, i.e. reach the threshold number
Mass Number
# of protons and neutrons in an atom
Appendicular skeleton
(126 bones) Includes bones of the limbs and girdles that attach them to the axial skeleton.
Triglyceride
(glycerol + three fatty acids)
Diglyceride
(glycerol + two fatty acids)
Bones
(~206 total in adults): Bones make 2 types of skeleton. Axial skeleton (80 bones) Axial skeleton - includes bones of skull, thorax, and vertebral column Axial skeleton - form longitudinal axis of body B): Appendicular skeleton (126 bones) Appendicular skeleton - includes bones of the limbs and girdles that attach them to the axial skeleton 2): Associated cartilages 3): Ligaments and other connective tissues
What is the value for the resting membrane potential for most neurons?
-70 mV Yes, the resting membrane potential for neurons depends on the distribution of both Na+ and K+ across the cell membrane. The potential is closer to the equilibrium potential of K+ because the cell is more permeable to K+.
Excessive sun exposure damages skin
-Elastic fibers clump, causing skin to become leathery -Can depress immune system and cause alterations in DNA that may lead to skin cancer
•Skin is first and foremost a barrier •Its main functions include:
-Protection -Body temperature regulation -Cutaneous sensations -Metabolic functions -Blood reservoir -Excretion of wastes
Regions of hairs
-Shaft: area that extends above scalp, where keratinization is complete -Root: area within scalp, where keratinization is still going on
Steps in protein synthesis: 7 steps
1): Gene activation: 2): Separation of DNA strands 3): Assembly of nucleotides into a single strand of messenger RNA (mRNA) by enzymes 4): Exiting mRNA from nucleus through nuclear pores 5): Binding of codons of mRNA to anticodons at ribosome in the cytoplasm 6): tRNA carries a specific amino acid 7): Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) strings amino acids together
ATP production
1): Glycolysis - occurs in mitochondrial cytosol. 2): Citric acid cycle - takes place in mitochondrial matrix. 3): Enzymes and coenzymes use hydrogen atoms to catalyze ATP from ADP. 4): ATP leaves mitochondrion.
Components shared by connective tissues
1): Specialized cells. 2): Extracellular protein fibers - produced by fibroblasts. 3): Ground substance - fluid component of all connective tissue.
What are the 5 layer of the skin?
1. Stratum basale 2. Stratum spinosum 3. Stratum granulosum 4. Stratum lucidum (only in thick skin) 5. Stratum corneum
Enzymatic reaction
1.Substrate binds to active site on enzyme, forming enzyme-substrate complex. 2.Substrate binding results in a temporary, reversible change in shape of enzyme. 3. Completed product detaches from the active site. 4. Enzyme is able to repeat process.
What is the magnitude (amplitude) of an action potential?
100 mV Yes, the membrane goes from -70 mV to +30 mV. Thus, during the action potential, the inside of the cell becomes more positive than the outside of the cell.
Body is broken into __ sections, with each section representing __ of body surface except?
11 9% genitals, which account for 1%
Nucleic acids
1: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) 2: Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Functions of periosteum
1: Isolates bone from surrounding tissues. 2: Provide a route for blood and nervous supply. 3: Actively participates in bone growth and repair.
Functions of epithelial tissue
1: Provide physical protection: 2: Control permeability (for absorption): 3: Provide sensation: Neuroepithelium: Epithelia specialized for providing sensation of smell, taste, sight, equilibrium and hearing (found in special sense organs) are called as neuroepithelium 4: Produce specialized secretions
Which ratio between primary neuron and secondary neuron would allow for the greatest receptive field sensitivity?
1:1
burns can be classified by severity of?
1st degree, 2nd degree, 3rd degree
Mitosis
2 daughter cells produced Each cell with 46 chromosomes Form of cellular reproduction Division of single cell produces pair of daughter cells Half the size of parent cell
Pleurae
2 membrances around the lungs
Three subdivisions of the Thoracic cavity
2 pleural cavities - lined by pleura and contain the lungs. Mediastinum- Contains connective tissue and the pericardial cavity. Pericardial Cavity- contains the heart
How many major regions are contained within the diencephalon?
3
How many regions make up the brain stem?
3
Protein structure
4 types of protein structures 1: Primary structure 2: Secondary structure (ex. Hydrogen bonds) 3: Tertiary structure 4: Quaternary structure (ex. Hemoglobin, Collagen)
Skin can hold up to
5% of the body's total blood volume
Under normal, resting body temperature, sweat glands produce about
500 ml/day of unnoticeable sweat -Called insensible perspiration
Normal pH of blood
7.35-7.45 Outside this range - damages cells and tissues by: Breaking chemical bonds Changing shapes of proteins Altering cellular functions
Along the length of pyramids, what is the percentage of axons that cross the midline (decussate) to enter the descending lateral corticospinal tracts?
85 percent
Effector (air conditioner)
A cell or organ that responds to sommand of the contol center in negative feedback, responds to commands opposing stimulus, net effect- any variation outside normal limits triggers a personse and restores normal condition
Which of the following is true of axons?
A neuron can have only one axon, but the axon may have occasional branches along its length this is true; a neuron can have only one axon, but the axon may have occasional branches along its length.
Nucleoside
A nitrogenous base + 5 carbon sugar (ribose or deoxyribose)
into the cell
A positively charged ion (X+) has a greater concentration outside the cell than inside the cell. When voltage- gated X+ channels open, ion X+ will flow _____________.
Nitrogenous base
A: Purines Adenine (A) Guanine (G) B: Pyrimidines Cytosine (C) Thymine (T - only in DNA) Uracil (U - only in RNA)
describe how the arrival of the act ion potential causes the release of neurotransmitter at the axon termina
AP opens voltage - gated calcium channels on terminal, Vesicles of Ach move down and fuse with membrane. Exocytosis releases Ach into synaptic cleft
mitochondria
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is produced in the ___________ of the cell.
Aerobic metabolism or cellular respiration
ATP production that requires oxygen Occurs in the mitochondria Much more efficient than ATP production without oxygen (e.g., glycolysis) Produces about 95 percent of ATP needed by cell
Resolution
Ability to distinguish between two separate points.
name the neurotransmitter that is released at the neuromuscular junction, state the effect of this neurotransmitter (excitatory or inhibitory), and name the enzyme that breaks down this neurotransmitter to end stimulation of the motor end plate
Acetyl choline. Excitatory effect, broken down by Acetylcholinesterase
describe how the release of neuro transmitter into the synaptic cleft of the neuromuscular junction leads to the generation of a new action potential in the muscle fiber that eventually leads to muscle contraction
Ach binds ligand - gated channels on motor end plate, opens them. Sodium ente rs and depolarizes membrane (brings membrane potential closer to 0). Depolarization wave propagates to t - tubules, calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum actin, myosin heads hydrolyze ATP, power stroke contracts muscle by moving thin filaments together
low pH of skin retards bacterial multiplication
Acid mantle
true
Active transport of an ion or molecule requires ATP. (t/f)
Cerebellum
Adjusts postural muscles & programs & tunes ongoing movement; Coordinates reflexive/learned muscular activity patterns at subconscious level
Beta wave
Adults are concentrating
Neuron Functional Classification Sensory Neurons
Afferent Route, Unipolar, Bipolar
-Epidermal replacement slows; skin becomes thin, dry, and itchy (decreased sebaceous gland activity) -Subcutaneous fat and elasticity decrease, leading to cold intolerance and wrinkles -Increased risk of cancer due to decreased numbers of melanocytes and dendritic cells -Hair thinning
Aging skin
What is Metabolism
All of the reactions in the body at any moment
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
All synovial joints are freely movable.
hair thinning in both sexes after age 40
Alopecia
Organic compounds
Always contain carbon and hydrogen and generally oxygen. Are long chains of carbon linked with covalent bonds. Are soluble in water. (ex. Carbohydrates, protein and lipids)
Peptides
Amino acids linked through dehydration synthesis.
How is an action potential propagated along an axon?
An influx of sodium ions from the current action potential depolarizes the adjacent area. Yes, the influx of sodium ions depolarizes adjacent areas, causing the membrane to reach threshold and cause an action potential. Thus, the action potential is regenerated at each new area.
Filum terminale
Anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx.
Freely permeable membrane
Any substance can pass (not found in living cells)
Apocrine (apo, off) secretion
Apical cytoplasm - packed with secretory vesicles. Cell releases cytoplasm as well as secretory product. Ex. Milk from mammary gland secretion (involves combination of merocrine and apocrine secretions).
•Confined to axillary and anogenital areas •Secrete viscous milky or yellowish sweat that contains fatty substances and proteins -Bacteria break down sweat, leading to body odor •Larger than eccrine sweat glands with ducts emptying into hair follicles •Begin functioning at puberty -Function unknown but may act as sexual scent gland
Apocrine Sweat Glands
small band of smooth muscle attached to follicle -Responsible for "goose bumps"
Arrector pili
15.1 Compare and contrast the structure, mechanical properties, and functions of the five major types of blood vessels.
Arteries take blood away from the heart - are pressure reservoirs that maintain blood flow during ventricular relaxation Arterioles- Take blood away from the heart are the site of variable resistance Capillaries- exchange between the blood and cells take place here Systemic veins- take blood to the heart +++ serve as an expandable volume reservoir. ++++Thin walls of vascular smooth muscles Venule -- Take blood to the heart
Which type of vessel changes most to regulate resistance to blood flow. Why?
Arterioles because of the large amount of smooth muscle in their walls
Calcium and the skeleton (bone)
As calcium reserve, skeleton (bone) plays a central role in regulation of blood levels of calcium (calcium homeostasis).
Bone growth
At puberty - hormones stimulate increased bone growth, and epiphyseal cartilage is replaced Epiphyseal cartilage narrows until it disappears & this process is called epiphyseal closure - process leaves epiphyseal line in adults.
Isotopes
Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons. Have identical chemical properties. Have different mass number.
Cell Junction
Attach cells/extracellular protein fibers by Cell Adhesion Molecules 3 major types: Tight junctions, Gap junctions, & Desmosomes
Hemidesmosomes
Attach deepest epithelial cells to the basement membrane.
Base
Attached to underlying tissues.
Basement membrane
Attaches epithelia to underlying CT
Temporal lobe
Auditory area
Epithelium
Avascular cell layer; barrier to provide protection/regulate permeability
Epithelia
Avascular layers (without blood vessels) Cover exposed surfaces.
Average growth and loss of hair
Average 2.25 mm growth per week -Lose 90 scalp hairs daily
Atomic Weight
Avg of different atomic masses and proportions of its different isotopes.
Distal
Away form the point of origin
Lateral
Away from the axis.
Inferior
Away from the head (below)
Deep
Away from the skin or body surface
the three components of the neuromuscular junction, and identify which is the presynaptic component and which is the postsynaptic component
Axon terminals (presynaptic), Synaptic cleft, Motor end plate (postsynaptic)
White:
Axons connecting different parts of gray matter to each other
Which pathways compose the autonomic nervous system?
B and C
Which somatic motor control modifies voluntary and reflexive motor patterns at the subconscious level?
Basal nuclei
Why are the proportions of the sensory homunculus very different from those of an actual human being?
Because the area of sensory cortex devoted to a particular region is proportional to the number of sensory receptors the region contains.
Telencephalon
Becomes cerebrum
Mesencephalon
Becomes midbrain
REM
Begins about 90 minutes after the onset of sleep.
Intramembranous ossification during development
Begins during the eighth week of embryonic development. Can see ossification centers and progressing bone formation at 10 weeks. At 16 weeks, most of the bones of the adult skeleton can be identified.
Reticular Formation
Begins in medulla oblongata & extends into more superior portions of brainstem
Acidosis
Below 7.35
-Epidermis contains phagocytic cells •Dendritic cells of epidermis engulf foreign antigens (invaders) and present to white blood cells, activating the immune response -Dermis contains macrophages •Macrophages also activate immune system by presenting foreign antigens to white blood cells -DNA can absorb harmful UV radiation, converting it to harmless heat
Biological barriers
Cell body
Biosynthetic center and receptive region, contains organelles
simple squamous epithelium
Blood capillaries are comprised of ________________ cells that are very thin and therefore excellent for the diffusion of gases and nutrients from the blood to the surrounding tissue.
During the ejection period,
Blood is pumped into the aorta and the pulmonary truck
Which of the following cardiovascular control factors contribute to changes in blood pressure?
Blood vessel diameter heart rate Force of cardiac contraction
Saggittal Plane
Body divides into right and left
Supine
Body lying down in anatomical position with face up.
Prone
Body lying down with face down
Bone matrix
Bone without calcified matrix - normal but flexible. Contains: Collagen fibers, calcium phosphate & calcium carbonate.
Syndesmosis
Bones are connected exclusively by ligaments.
Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP)
Bones develop in unusual places in FOP
Short bones
Bones of the wrist (carpals) and ankles (tarsals).
Symphysis
Bones united by fibrocartilage.
Which is a similarity between taste and smell?
Both detect chemical signals dissolved in body fluids.
Central Nervous System
Brain and spinal cord are in the ______________.
CNS
Brain and spinal cord. Integration center for sensory input, dictates motor output
Clotted blood beneath skin
Bruises (black-and-blue marks)
A
By which mechanism would a steroid molecule diffuse into the cell?
two types of neuroglia described in the notes, state whether that neuroglia is found in the CNS or the PNS, and state the function(s) of that neuroglia
CNS Astrocytes - Transport material between blood, neurons. Maintains homeostasis Microglial Cells - Phagocytosis of dead cells, bacteria Ependymal Cells - Line ventricles of the brain Oligodendrocytes - Wrap axons and secrete myelin, action potential travels faste
Interneurons
CNS and multipolar
Factors that decrease blood calcium levels
Calcitonin: Responses of Calcitonin: In bones: In response to calcitonin - in bones, osteoclast activity inhibited; leading to calcium deposition in bone matrix.
Maintaining calcium levels
Calcium - controlled by activities of ; Intestines: Absorb calcium and phosphate under hormonal control. Bones: Osteoclasts erode matrix and release calcium.
Importance of calcium
Calcium - most abundant mineral in body (1-2 kg; 2-4 lb) 99 percent of calcium - deposited in skeleton.
Surface markings (depressions, grooves, and tunnels)
Canal or meatus - large passageway through a bone Sinus - chamber within a bone, normally filled with air Foramen - small, rounded hole or passageway through the bone for blood vessels or nerves to pass through Fissure Sulcus Fossa - shallow depression or recess on a bone
erm excitable as it applies to muscle fibers and neurons
Capable of being innervated and transmitting and action potential
Which of the following bones is not a tarsal bone?
Capitate
Glycolipid
Carbohydrate attached to a diglyceride
Cardiac muscle cell
Cardiac muscle/Striated involuntary muscle, relies on pacemaker cells to stimulate regular contraction
•Yellow to orange pigment •Most obvious in palms and soles •Accumulates in stratum corneum and hypodermis •Can be converted to vitamin A for vision and epidermal health
Carotene
Sodium potassium exchange pump
Carrier protein called as sodium potassium ATPase - exchanges intracellular sodium with extracellular potassium
Arteries
Carry blood away from heart & toward capillaries
Olfactory nerves (I)
Carry sensory info responsible for sense of smell
Optic nerves (II)
Carry visual info from special sensory receptors in the eyes.
Supporting CT
Cartilage & bone bc they support the rest of the body; provide a strong framework; Less diverse cell population; Dense matrix w/ closely packed fibers; 2 types: Cartilage & Bone
Supporting connective tissue
Cartilage (solid, rubbery matrix). Bone (solid, crystalline matrix).
Grey matter
Cell bodies, dendrites, axon terminals. Site of all synapses
Interphase (non-dividing period)
Cell performs normal activities during interphase
Osteoclasts (clast, to break)
Cell that remove and remodel bone matrix. Osteolysis or reabsorption: Release acids and proteolytic enzymes to dissolve matrix Release stored minerals - process osteolysis (lysis, loosening)
Cuboidal epithelium
Cells resemble hexagonal boxes
Cuboidal epithelium
Cells resemble hexagonal boxes. In sectional view, cells appear square.
Where is the arbor vitae located?
Cerebellum
Metencephalon
Cerebellum & Pons
Which somatic motor control plans and initiates voluntary activity?
Cerebral cortex
Which region of the brain is necessary for consciousness?
Cerebrum
4 main regions (adult brain)
Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Diencephalon, & Brainstem.
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?
Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
lining of external ear canal; secrete cerumen (earwax)
Ceruminous glands:
Ventricle
Chambers w/ CSF; Formed from brain's central passageway in development
Denaturation
Change in protein tertiary or quaternary structure. Protein shape changes and function deteriorates. Occurs under extreme conditions (Ex. Body temperature above 110 F)
Adaptablility
Changes the organisms behavior, capabilities, or structure
-Skin secretes many chemicals, such as: •Sweat, which contains antimicrobial proteins •Sebum and defensins, which kill bacteria •Cells also secrete antimicrobial defensin
Chemical barrier
Metaphase (after)
Chromosomes align at metaphase plate at this stage
Connective tissue proper classification
Classified as Loose CT or Dense CT.
Epithelia
Classified based on # of cell layers & shape of cells at apical surface; Protection, Sensation, Control Permeability, & Produce Specialized Secretions
Exocrine gland
Classified on basis of unicellular/multicellular exocrine gland structure; Discharge secretions to body surface/ducts; communicate w/ exterior
are caused by many collagen fibers running parallel to skin surface -Externally invisible -Important to surgeons because incisions parallel to cleavage lines heal more readily
Cleavage (tension) lines in reticular layer
Proximal
Closer to the point of origin
Superficial
Closer to the skin or body surface
-Dermal blood vessels constrict -Skin temperature drops to slow passive heat loss
Cold external environment
(3) CTP fibers
Collagen, Reticular, & Elastic fibers
Cauda equina
Collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal.
Catabolism
Collective term for decomposition reactions in the body. Refers to breaking covalent bonds (form of potential energy). Release kinetic energy that can perform work.
Anabolism (anabole, a throwing upward)
Collective term for synthesis reactions. Refers to forming new chemical bonds. Requires energy. Energy usually comes from other catabolic reactions.
Epithelia & CT
Combine to form membranes that cover/protect other structures/tissues
Lamellae & central canal
Compact bone contains organized concentric lamellae around a central canal.
Closed or simple fractures
Completely internal (no break through the skin). Only seen on x-rays.
Polysaccharides
Complex carbohydrates formed from multiple disaccharides and/or monosaccharides. (ex.Starch & glycogen)
Buffers
Compounds that stabilize the pH of a solution by removing or replacing hydrogen ions. Help to maintain normal pH of body fluids. (ex. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) ; Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)
Concentration gradient
Concentration difference when molecules are not evenly distributed . Steeper gradient = faster diffusion
true
Concentration differences cause ionic imbalances that polarize the cell membrane. (t/f)
Canaliculi
Connect lacunae of osteon with one another and with the central canal.
Epithelium Base
Connected to a 2-part basement membrane; Basal lamina & Reticular lamina; Divisions by stem cells continually replace the short-lived epithelial cells
Medulla Oblongata
Connects brain & spinal cord; Contains relay stations such as olivary nuclei, & reflex centers, including CV & resp rhythmicity centers
Cerebellar Hemisphere
Consist of anterior/posterior lobes, vermis, & flocculonodular lobe
Hair
Consists of dead keratinized cells •None located on palms, soles, lips, nipples, and portions of external genitalia
DNA molecule
Consists of pair of nucleotide chains Nucleotide chain pair - called as complementary strands. Strands twist around each other to form a double helix (like a spiral staircase). DNA contains 5 carbon sugar - deoxyribose, Hydrogen bonds between opposing nitrogenous bases hold two strands together. Contains complementary base pairs Adenine - Thymine (A-T) Cytosine - Guanine (C-G)
Lipids
Contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. May contain small quantities of phosphorus, nitrogen & sulfur. Ex. Fats, oils, waxes
Vestibulocochlear nerves (VIII)
Contain vestibular & cochlear nerves
Pons
Contains Sensory & motor nuclei for 4 cranial nerves; Nuclei that help control respiration; Nuclei & tracts linking cerebellum w/ brainstem, cerebrum, & spinal cord; Ascending, descending, & transverse tracts
RNA molecule
Contains a single chain of nucleotides. Contains ribose sugar. 1: Messenger RNA (mRNA) 2: Transfer RNA (tRNA) 3: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) Adenine - Uracil (A-U) Cytosine - Guanine (C-G)
White matter (Cerebrum)
Contains association, commissural, & projection fibers.
Tectum roof (midbrain)
Contains corpora quadrigemina (superior & inferior colliculi)
Cortical surface
Contains gyri separated by sulci or fissures
Cerebrum
Contains motor, sensory, & association areas; Allows for higher mental function
Tegmentum
Contains red nucleus, substantia nigra, cerebral peduncles, & headquarters of the reticular activating system (RAS)
Pericardial cavity
Contains the heart Permits the heart to change size and shape when beating
Adhesion belts
Continuous band of membrane proteins are called as adhesion belts.
Diffusion
Continuous random movement of ions or molecules in a liquid or gas resulting in even distribution
explain the differences between continuous action potential conduction and saltatory action potential conduction
Continuous: Action potential propagates along axon from one region to adjoining areas Saltataory: Action potential jumps between nodes of Ranvier on myelinated axon
Association Area
Control ability to understand sensory info: Coordinate motor response Ex: Somatic sensory/motor (Premotor) & visual association area
Basal nuclei
Control muscle tone; Coordinate learned movement patterns & somatic motor activities, Include: Caudate Nucleus, Globus Pallidus, & Putamen
What somatic motor control is under the command of the inferior medulla oblongata?
Controls basic respiratory reflexes
Prefrontal Cortex
Coordinates info from secondary & special association areas of entire cortex; Performs abstract intellectual functions
several layers of flattened cells surrounding medulla
Cortex
Cutaneous membrane (Skin)
Covers the body surface
Flat bones
Cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapulae.
Ionic bonds
Created by electrical attraction between cations and anions. Involves transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to another to achieve stability. (ex. sodium chloride)
Calcium carbonate
Crystals of hydroxyapatite incorporates other salts (calcium carbonates) and ions (Na, Mg2, F) - makes bones hard but inflexible & brittle Protein fibers & crystal interactions makes bones strong, flexible & highly resistant to shattering
Cuboidal
Cube-shaped, like little boxes.
Curare is a poisonous plant extract. Curare molecules have a chemical structure like the neurotransmitter ACh. Curare can bind to the ACh receptor site on the chemically gated ion channels in the motor end plate. Even though curare will bind to the receptor site it will not open the ion channel and no ions will pass through. What do you think the symptoms of curare poisoning would look like?
Curare will only affect muscles with ACh receptors, paralyzing them.
network of blood vessels between reticular layer and hypodermis
Cutaneous plexus
are part of the nervous system -Exteroreceptors respond to stimuli outside body, such as temperature and touch -Free nerve endings sense painful stimuli
Cutaneous sensory receptors
outer layer consisting of overlapping layers of single cells
Cuticle
Blue skin color: low oxygenation of hemoglobin
Cyanosis
Telophase (end)
Cytoplasm constricts along metaphase plate & make cleavage furrow in this stage Nuclear membranes re-form in this stage Nuclei enlarge in this stage Chromosomes uncoil to chromatin in this stage
Phagocytosis ("cell eating")
Cytoplasmic extensions (pseudopodia) surround object and bring it into cell. Only specialized cells (phagocytes or macrophages)
Which of the following statements is true of the group of fibers indicated by the letter D?
D indicates fibers that bypass collateral ganglia and terminate within the adrenal gland.
Fracture
Damage to a bone due to extreme load, sudden impact, or stress applied from an unusual direction is called as fracture.
What changes in paracrines causes vasodilation? What is the result?
Decreased o2, increased CO2, Increased H+, Increased NO, result in increased blood flow
Fissure
Deep groove
Immediate threat when dealing with skin burns are? and can lead to?
Dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. renal shut down and circulatory shock.
Pericardium
Delicate membrane (serous membrane) around the heart - line pericardial cavity Double walled sac containing heart and the roots of great vessels
Respiratory System
Delivers air and gas exchange sites in lungs, produces sound, removes carbon dioxide from blood stream
Glands
Derived from epithelia. Collections of epithelial cells (or derived structures) that produce secretions.
superficial region of dermis that sends fingerlike projections up into epidermis -Projections contains capillary loops, free nerve endings, and touch receptors (tactile corpuscles, also called Meissner's corpuscles)
Dermal papillae
Strong, flexible connective tissue •Cells include fibroblasts, macrophages, and occasionally mast cells and white blood cells •Fibers in matrix bind body together -Makes up the "hide" that is used to make leather •Contains nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels •Contains epidermal hair follicles, oil glands, and sweat glands
Dermis
underlies epidermis •Mostly fibrous connective tissue, vascular
Dermis
Light microscope
Detects visible light through thin section of tissue.
Sesamoid bones
Develop inside tendons of knee, hands, and feet.
Fluid CT
Distinctive cell populations suspended in a watery matrix; contains dissolved proteins; 2 types: Blood & Lymph;
Connective Tissue
Diverse in appearance but all forms of connective tissue contain cells surrounded by extracecellular matrix (matrix composed protein fibers, and ground substance)
Unipolar
Divides T-like, 2 Axons and Tactile sensory neurons
Nuclear envelope
Double membrane.
Acromegaly
Due to overproduction of growth hormone after epiphyseal plates close.
Gigantism
Due to overproduction of growth hormone before puberty. Pituitary tumor - most common cause.
Cranial meninges
Dura, Arachnoid, & Pia mater; Continuous w/spinal cord meninges
anaphase
During this phase of mitosis, chromosomes split into equal halves due to the actions of mitotic spindles.
prophase
During this phase of mitosis, the chromatin fibers condense and shorten into chromosomes that are visible under the microscope.
cytokinesis
During this phase of the cell cycle, the cytoplasm and its contents divide and two daughter cells are produced.
Unsaturated fatty acids
Each carbon in the tail has four attached hydrogens. Contain double bonds in the tail. Has fewer attached hydrogens.
Specificity
Each enzyme catalyzes only one type of reaction
•Their secretion is sweat -99% water, salts, vitamin C, antibodies, dermcidin (microbe-killing peptide), metabolic wastes
Eccrine (Merocrine)
Most numerous type of sweat •Abundant on palms, soles, and forehead •Ducts connect to pores •Function in thermoregulation
Eccrine (Merocrine) Sweat Glands
Tonicity
Effect of osmotic solutions on cell volume
Motor Neurons
Efferent Route, Multipolar
NT cell
Either Neurons/Neuroglia
Nonpolar Molecule
Electrons shared EQUALLY between atoms in these molecules, no electrical charge.
Hydrogen Bond
Electrostatic attraction between polar groups- occurs when hydrogen atom bound highly electronegative atom becomes highly polarized and experiences attraction to some nearby highly electronegative atoms. Can change shape of molecules or pull molecules together.
Inert
Elements with full outermost energy levels (shells) which do not readily react with other atoms. (ex. helium nad neon are ex. of inert elements and are known as noble gases)
Reactive Elements
Elements with unfilled outer energy levels. (ex. hydrogen, lithium)
Gyri
Elevated Ridge
The action that moves the scapula towards the head is called __________. protraction medial rotation elevation retraction
Elevation
Excretion
Elimination of chemical waste products
Kinetic energy
Energy of motion. (ex.skeletal muscles contraction)
Cerebellum
Ensures coordination and balance.
Which of the following would occur if you were to surgically remove the pigmented epithelium of the retina? Choose the best answer.
Entering light would be scattered across the retina and it would be difficult to obtain a sharp image.
Holocrine (holos, entire) secretion
Entire cell bursts, releasing secretions and killing the cell Ex. Sebaceous glands.
superficial region •Consists of epithelial tissue and is avascular
Epidermis
Skin consists of two distinct regions
Epidermis: superficial region •Consists of epithelial tissue and is avascular -Dermis: underlies epidermis •Mostly fibrous connective tissue, vascular -Hypodermis (superficial fascia) •Subcutaneous layer deep to skin •Not part of skin but shares some functions •Mostly adipose tissue that absorbs shock and insulates •Anchors skin to underlying structures: mostly muscles
Which region of the diencephalon contains the pineal body?
Epithalamus
Avascular
Epithelia lack blood vessels. Epithelia requires attachment to underlying connective tissue for nourishment from the blood vessels of connective tissue.
Gland cell
Epithelial cells that produce secretions
Derived from epidermis
Epithelial root sheath
Basement membrane or basal lamina
Epithelium - connected to underlying connective tissue by basal lamina or basement membrane\. Two layers: Clear and Dense Layer
nail fold that projects onto surface of nail body -Also called cuticle
Eponychium
Cardiac output is
Equal to blow flow ---
Muscle tissue can be stimulated by the nervous system. Cells with the ability to change their membrane potential have what property?
Excitability Excitability, also termed responsiveness, is the ability to receive and respond to a stimulus. For example, skeletal muscle contracts in response to receiving chemical stimulation from the central nervous system.
describe how excitatory neurotransmitters affect membrane voltage compared to how inhibitory neurotransmitters affect membrane voltage
Excitatory: depolarize postsynaptic membrane (move vol tage towards 0) Inhibitory: hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane (move voltage away from 0)
Exocrine gland structure
Exocrine gland classification: Based on duct structure: Simple: Compound: Based on the shape of the secretory area: Tubular: Alveolar or acinar: Tubuloalveolar: Mucous (goblet) cells: Mucous cells - secrete mucin
Epiphysis
Expanded area at each end of the bone. Largely consists of spongy/cancellous or trabecular bone. Spongy bone - consist of an open network of struts and plates with thin covering of compact bone. Articular cartilage - covers portions of the epiphysis - articulate with other bones . Articular cartilage - avascular & relies on diffusion from synovial fluid to obtain oxygen and nutrients Epiphyseal artery and vein: For blood supply
Brain
Extensive areas of cortex; Forms from 3 swellings at superior tip of developing neural tube; Develops 4 main regions: Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Diencephalon, & Brainstem
Apical surface
Faces exterior of body or internal space.
false
Facilitated diffusion of an ion or molecule does not require a special transmembrane protein.
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
False
Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same.
False
Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage.
False
Muscle contraction will always promote movement of body parts.
False
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.
False
The pineal body secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH). (True or False)
False
The sodium-potassium pump ejects two Na+ from the cell and then transports three K+ back into the cell in order to maintain the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium.
False Actually, the sodium-potassium pump ejects three Na+ from the cell and then transports two K+ back into the cell. This action is essential to maintaining the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium, which are needed to generate and maintain the resting membrane potential.
Unmyelinated fibers conduct impulses faster than myelinated fibers.
False Myelinated fibers (axons bearing a myelin sheath) conduct nerve impulses rapidly, whereas unmyelinated fibers conduct impulses more slowly. Note that myelin sheaths are associated only with axons; dendrites are always nonmyelinated.
ATP is required to cause the power stroke in the myosin head.
False ATP is required to re-cock the myosin head so that it can generate a second power stroke.
The longer a muscle is when it starts contracting, the more tension it can generate in the contraction.
False Maximum muscle contraction occurs in an intermediate range for the muscle where there is both a good number of cross bridges that can form and room for the sarcomere to shorten. If a muscle is too long, there will not be enough cross bridges that can form to generate tension.
Dura Mater Folds
Falx cerebri & cerebelli, tentorium cerebelli; Stabilize brain position
The sensation of proprioception, fine touch, pressure, and vibration from levels at or superior to T6 is controlled by which tract(s)?
Fasciculus cuneatus
Thalamus
Final relay point for ascending sensory info; Coordinates basal nuclei & cerebral cortex activities
Matrix
Firm gel w/ chondroitin sulfates (form proteoglycans) & chondrocytes; Consists of calcium salts & collagen fibers, giving it unique properties
Which of the following sensory neurons deliver the action potential to the Central Nervous System?
First-order neuron
Sperm have these specialized structures
Flagella for swimming
Red Blood Cells
Flattened discs to slip through capillaries
Which movement decreases the angle between articulating bones?
Flexion
are dermal folds at or near joints -Dermis is tightly secured to deeper structures -Skin's inability to slide easily for joint movement causes deep creases -Visible on hands, wrists, fingers, soles, toes
Flexure lines of reticular layer
Which is the correct relationship between pressure, flow, and resistance?
Flow is directly proportional to change in pressure and inversely proportional to resistance.
Nucleoplasm
Fluid contents of nucleus
Osmotic pressure
Force of pure water moving into a solution with higher solute concentration
Membrane
Form a barrier/interface
Other sulci
Form boundaries of temporal & occipital lobes
Cell division
Form of cellular reproduction. Responsible for initial increase in cell number also essential for continued development and survival.
Dehydration synthesis (condensation)
Formation of a complex molecule by removing a water molecule. opposite of hydrolysis.
Polar Molecule
Formed by unequally sharing electrons between atoms.
Disaccharide
Formed when two monosaccharides (sugars) are joined and water molecule is removed. (ex.Surose)
Elevations/projections
Formed where tendon and ligament attach. At the joints where adjacent bones articulate.
Synovial membrane
Forms incomplete lining w/in cavities of synovial joints; Secrete synovial fluid
Lymph
Forms interstitial fluid; enter lymphatic vessels, returns to cardiovascular system
Rhombencephalon ("Hindbrain")
Forms metencephalon
Prosencephalon ("Forebrain")
Forms telencephalon & diencephalon
Smooth Muscle
Found in blood vessel walls, within glands, along the respiratory, circulatory, digestive, and reproductive tracts
Osteogenic cells
Found in inner cellular layer of periosteum Found in inner layer or endosteum - lining medullary cavity Found in passageways containing blood vessels.
Nonkeratinized
Found lining oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, anus, vagina.
Cardiac Muscle
Found only in the heart. Propels blood through the blood vessels
Simple columnar epithelium
Found where absorption or secretion takes place. Line stomach, intestine, gallbladder, uterine tubes, kidney ducts.
Transverse fractures
Fracture of bone across its long axis - transverse fracture.
peroxisome
Function: Break down organic compounds and neutralize toxic compounds
ribosomes
Function: makes proteins. responsible for protein synthesis two subunits (1 large, 1 small) containing special proteins and ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
Multicellular exocrine
Further classified according to structure Ex: Goblet cells & mucous cells secrete mucin
peripheral protein
G-proteins are trimeric signaling molecules and an example of a/an ________________.
low
GDP has (low/high) energy
high
GTP has (low/high) energy
GTP + H2O --> GDP + P + energy
GTP hydrolysis equation
true
Gap junctions, present in cardiac cells and neurons, are permissive of synchronization and are considered transmembrane proteins. (t/f)
Thalamus
Gateway to the cerebrum.
Products
Generated at end of reaction. Usually on the right.
True (frank) baldness
Genetically determined and sex-influenced condition
Insula
Gustatory (taste) area.
expanded area at deep end of follicle
Hair bulb
actively dividing area of bulb that produces hair cells
Hair matrix As matrix makes new cells, it pushes older ones upward
Dermal tissue containing a knot of capillaries that supplies nutrients to growing hair
Hair papilla
flexible strands of dead, keratinized cells
Hairs (also called pili)
Left Hemisphere
Has Broca's & Wernicke's area; Responsible for language-based skills
Muscle Tissue
Has the ability to contract forcefully. -movement -soft tissue support -maintenance of blood flow -stabilization of the body temp
Accessory nerves (XI)
Have internal branches; Control muscles associated w/ pectoral girdle
Amino acids
Have same structural components Central carbon attached to four different groups 1: Hydrogen atom 2: Amino group 3: Carboxyl group 4: R group (variable side chain)
Alpha wave
Healthy resting adults
Gap junctions
Held together by interlocking transmembrane proteins called connexons. Found in cardiac & smooth muscle tissue for help contraction.
•Pinkish hue of fair skin is due to lower levels of melanin -Skin of Caucasians is more transparent, so color of hemoglobin shows through
Hemoglobin
Temperature at the time of diffusion
Higher temperature = faster diffusion
Human Organism
Highest level of Organization
3 types of cartilage
Hyaline, Elastic, & Fibrocartilage
Hydrogen ion (H+)
Hydrogen atom that has lost electron
Subcutaneous layer deep to skin •Not part of skin but shares some functions •Mostly adipose tissue that absorbs shock and insulates •Anchors skin to underlying structures: mostly muscles
Hypodermis (superficial fascia)
area under free edge of plate that accumulates dirt
Hyponychium
Which part of the diencephalon is connected to the pituitary gland?
Hypothalamus
Lipids in the body
Important as energy reserves Provide twice as much energy as carbohydrates (Ex.Cholesterol, Phospholipids & Glycolipids )
the smooth ER
In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________.
Gary was injured in an automobile accident that severed the motor neurons innervating his quadriceps. Even though he has had extensive physical therapy, he is still suffering muscle atrophy. Why is the therapy not working?
In denervation (disuse) atrophy, fibrous connective tissue replaces the muscle tissue that was lost. When atrophy is complete, fibrous tissue cannot be reversed to muscle tissue.
Autonomic control of the Cardiovascular Function
In order for the target tissues of the cardiovascular system to respond to changes in blood pressure, the autonomic nervous system has to be able to deliver chemical signals to the target tissues, which must be equipped with the appropriate receptors so that a response can be carried out. In this part of the coaching activity, you will become familiar with the neurotransmitters that affect the target tissues of the cardiovascular system and the receptors to which they bind.
Columnar epithelium
In sectional view - cells appear rectangular. Cells taller and more slender than cuboidal. 3 types
more positive
In terms of membrane voltage, the outside of the cell is ______________ as compared to the inside of the cell.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding ATP production in muscles during periods of prolonged energy use, such as exercise?
In the absence of oxygen, creatine phosphate can drive aerobic respiration pathways for a few minutes. This is not true for a few reasons. First, creatine phosphate directly phosphorylates ATP instead of providing any support for aerobic pathways. Second, creatine phosphate stores are used up in about 15 seconds. Third, a cell doesn't need an oxygen deficit for creatine phosphate to be activated; it just needs to be short on ATO.
hydrophilic, hydrophobic
In the plasma membrane, the phosphate heads are _______________ and the fatty acid tails are ________________.
true
In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential; therefore, all cells are polarized. (t/f)
Pituitary growth failure
Inadequate growth hormone production reduces epiphyseal cartilage activity - leads to abnormally short bones.
Limbic (Motivational) System
Includes amygdaloid body, cingulate gyrus, dentate gyrus, parahippocampal gyrus, hippocampus, & fornix; Group of nuclei & tracts that functions in emotion, motivation, & memory
Axial skeleton (80 bones)
Includes bones of skull, thorax, and vertebral column. Form longitudinal axis of body.
Epithelial tissue
Includes epithelia & glands; covers body surfaces, lines internal surfaces, & serves essential functions
Thoracic Cavity
Includes everything deep to the chest wall
Which set of changes correctly describes the baroreceptor reflex in response to increased blood pressure?
Increased vessel diameter, decreased resistance, decreased cardiac output
Appositional growth in bones
Increases bone diameter (bones grow wider) of existing bones. Osteogenic cells differentiate into osteoblasts that add bone matrix to the surface. Adds successive layers of circumferential lamellae to the outer surface of bone.
REM
Indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs.
Conus medullaris
Inferior point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult.
2 Processes Restore Homeostasis
Inflammation & Regeneration
Congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)
Inherited developmental abnormality. Feet turn medially and are inverted.
Endochondral ossification
Initial skeleton of embryo - formed of hyaline cartilage. Hyaline cartilage - gradually replaced by bone through the process of endochondral ossification. Endocardial ossification - uses small cartilage as miniature model of corresponding bone of adult skeleton. In this process - bone grows in diameter and length.
Endosteum
Inner incomplete cellular layer lining the medullary cavity. Osteoclastic crypts (Howship's lacunae): Osteoclasts occur in shallow depressions - called as osteoclastic crypts (Howship's lacunae).
Visceral Pleura
Inner pleura covering and attaching to the lungs and other visceral tissues (vessels, bronchi, and nerves) #1
Abducens nerves (VI)
Innervate lateral rectus muscles of eyes
Internal Branch
Innervate voluntary swallowing muscles of soft palate, pharynx, & external branches
Salt
Inorganic compound composed of any cation (except hydrogen) and any anion (except hydroxide) (ex. NaCl)
Enzymes
Inside the body - cells use special proteins called enzymes for chemical reactions. - promote chemical reactions. - lower the required activation energy. - allow reactions to proceed under conditions compatible with life. - function as catalysts (katalysis, dissolution).
Diencephalon
Integrates sensory info w/ motor output at subconscious level; Composed of epithalamus, thalamus, & hypothalamus
Tight (occluding) junctions
Interlocking membrane proteins bind adjacent plasma membranes together. Prevent passage of water and solutes between cells. Found in intestinal tract.
Viscera
Internal organs partially or totally enclosed by body cavities. Connected to the rest of the body.
CT
Internal tissue w/ specialized cells & a matrix; Made of extracellular protein fibers & a ground substance; various body roles; reflect physical properties;Contain distinctive cell collections in a fluid matrix; 3 main types Ex: Blood & lymph;
Apocrine secretion
Involves the loss of both secretory product & cytoplasm
Sutural bones
Irregular (oddly shaped) bones - formed or fill gaps between cranial bones (bones of skull).
Inflammation/Inflammatory Response
Isolates injured area while damaged cells, tissue components, & any dangerous microorganisms are cleaned up
Blood Brain Barrier (BBB)
Isolates nervous tissue from general circulation; Incomplete in parts of hypothalamus, pituitary & pineal gland, & choroid plexus
All of the following are true of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, except:
It affects both sensory and motor neurons.
What is the significance of the neuronal circuit setup of the retina? Choose the best answer.
It allows for a single multipolar neuron to process the signal from hundreds of different photoreceptors.
Suture
Joint found only in the skull.
During the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential, when the membrane potential is more negative than the resting membrane potential, what happens to voltage-gated ion channels?
K+ channels close. Na+ channels go from an inactivated state to a closed state. Voltage-gated K+ channels are opened by depolarization. This means that as the membrane potential repolarizes and then hyperpolarizes, these K+ channels close. With the closing of voltage-gated K+ channels, the membrane potential returns to the resting membrane potential via leakage channel activity. Resetting voltage-gated Na+ channels to the closed (but not inactivated) state prepares them for the next action potential.
During an action potential, hyperpolarization beyond (more negative to) the resting membrane potential is primarily due to __________.
K+ ions diffusing through voltage-gated channels The large number of voltage-gated K+ channels opening during the repolarization phase quickly makes the membrane potential more negative as positively-charged K+ ions leave the cell. K+ ions continue to leave through open channels as the membrane potential passes (becomes more negative than) the resting potential. This hyperpolarization phase of the action potential is therefore due to K+ ions diffusing through voltage-gated K+ channels. The membrane potential remains more negative than the resting potential until voltage-gated K+ channels close. This period of hyperpolarization is important in relieving voltage-gated Na+ channels from inactivation, readying them for another action potential.
The repolarization phase of the action potential, where voltage becomes more negative after the +30mV peak, is caused primarily by __________.
K+ ions leaving the cell through voltage-gated channels The opening of voltage-gated K+ channels allows K+ ions to exit the cell, repolarizing the membrane. In other words, the exit of K+ ions makes the membrane potential more negative. K+ also exits through leakage channels during this phase because leakage channels are always active. However, most of the membrane permeability to K+ during this phase is due to voltage-gated channels. Voltage-gated K+ channels make the action potential more brief than it would otherwise be if only leakage channels were available to repolarize the membrane.
The membranes of neurons at rest are very permeable to _____ but only slightly permeable to _____.
K+; Na+ Yes, more K+ moves out of the cell than Na+ moves into the cell, helping to establish a negative resting membrane potential.
Produce fibrous keratin (protein that gives skin its protective properties) •Major cells of epidermis •Tightly connected by desmosomes •Millions slough off every day
Keratinocytes
Four cell types found in epidermis
Keratinocytes Melanocytes Dendritic (Langerhans) cells Tactile (Merkel) cells
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.
Lactic Acid
delicate hairs in 5th and 6th month
Lanugo coat
Steroids
Large molecules with four carbon rings
Trigeminal nerves (V)
Largest; Mixed nerve;
Which corticospinal tracts provide conscious motor control of skeletal muscles?
Lateral corticospinal tracts, Anterior corticospinal tracts, Corticobulbar tracts
A neuron that has responded to a stimulus causes decreased activity in neighboring neurons in which process?
Lateral inhibition
Subserous Fascia
Layer b/w deep fascia & serous membranes; lines true body cavities
name the three types of gated ion channels and explain the stimulus that would cause each to open
Ligand: Chemical binding opens channel. Binding can be intracellular or extracellular Voltage: Opens when a certain electrical charge is reached Mechanically Gated: Physically moved to open
Serous membrane
Line body's sealed internal cavities of trunk; Secrete serous fluid
Mucous membrane
Line cavities that communicate w/ exterior; Contain lamina propria
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Line parts of kidney tubules, ducts, glands, thyroid gland.
Superior, Middle, & Inferior Cerebellar Peduncles
Link cerebellum w/ brainstem, diencephalon, cerebrum, & spinal cord; Interconnect 2 cerebellar hemispheres
Eicosanoids
Lipids derived from arachidonic acid. (ex. Leukotrienes, Prostaglandins)
Spongy bone (cancellous or trabecular)
Located where bones are not heavily stressed or stresses arrive from many directions. Lamalllae: lamellae not arranged in osteons Trabeculae: consists of an open network of struts and plates - trabeculae (reduce weight of skeleton) No capillaries or venules in matrix of spongy bones - receives nutrients through canaliculi Red bone marrow - found between trabeculae of spongy bones Spongy bone makes outer covering of compact/cortical bone
Diaphysis (shaft)
Long & tubular part (shaft) of the bone. Compact or cortical bone - Makes up the wall. Epiphyseal cartilage/plate: Separates epiphysis from diaphysis. Medullary or marrow cavity: Diaphysis - contains medullary cavity or marrow cavity - space within hollow shaft. Medullary cavity - filled with two types of marrow Red bone marrow: Highly vascular - involved in red blood cell production Yellow bone marrow: Fat storage; energy reserve
Smooth Muscle Cells
Long and slender for contraction
Connective tissue proper
Loose connective tissue (fibers create loose, open framework). Dense connective tissue (fibers densely packed).
Chromatin
Loosely coiled DNA in non-dividing cells
Which inflammatory joint disease is caused by the bites of ticks that live on mice and deer?
Lyme disease
Bone (Osseous Tissue)
Made of osteocytes, little ground substance, & a dense, mineralized matrix. Each bone surrounded by a periosteum w/ fibrous & cellular layers
Brainstem
Made up of midbrain (mesencephalon), pons, & medulla oblongata.
caused by follicular response to DHT (dihydrotestosterone)
Male pattern baldness
secrete milk
Mammary glands:
Stratified squamous epithelium
Many layers of cells. Superficial layer flattened. Forms surface of skin and lines mouth, throat, esophagus, rectum, anus, vagina.
Body cavities
Many organs within regions -suspended in closed fluid- filled chambers. Lined by serous membrane Protect delicate organs from shocks and impacts Permit significant changes in size and shape of internal organs
REM
May allow the brain to work through emotional problems in dream imagery.
Blood pressure as an equation
Mean arterial pressure
pH
Measure of H+ concentration in body fluids (negative logarithm in mol/L)
Brain activity
Measured using an electroencephalogram.
central core of large cells and air spaces
Medulla
Three parts of hair shaft
Medulla CortexCuticle
Myelencephalon
Medulla oblongata
Which area of the brain stem is in contact with the spinal cord?
Medulla oblongata
•Only pigment made in skin; made by melanocytes -Packaged into melanosomes that are sent to keratinocytes to shield DNA from sunlight -Sun exposure stimulates melanin production •Two forms: reddish yellow to brownish black •All humans have same number of keratinocytes, so color differences are due to amount and form of melanin •Freckles and pigmented moles are local accumulations of melanin
Melanin
Three pigments contribute to skin color
Melanin Carotene Hemoglobin
Spider-shaped cells located in deepest epidermis •Produce pigment melanin, which is packaged into melanosomes -Melanosomes are transferred to keratinocytes, where they protect nucleus from UV damage
Melanocytes
-Cancer of melanocytes; is most dangerous type because it is highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy -Treated by wide surgical excision accompanied by immunotherapy -Key to survival is early detection: ABCD rule
Melanoma
the locations of sodium ion and potassium ion as well as the relative p ositive and negative charges around the plasma membrane when the membrane is at the resting membrane potential
Membrane potential typically - 70 mV inside cell. ECF has higher concentration of sodium. ICF has higher concentration of potassium
Peritoneum
Membrane that forms the lining of abdominal cavity
Which of the following events does NOT happen during endochondral ossification?
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts.
Which of the following events happens during intramembranous ossification?
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts.
Osteogenic cells (osteoprogenitor cells)
Mesenchymal/stem cells found in bone. Stem/mesenchymal cells - produce daughter cells that differentiate into osteoblasts - important in fracture repair.
Loose
Mesenchyme & Mucous CTs; Ex: In embryo; areolar, reticular, & adipose tissue, (white & brown fat)
White blood cells are generally too large to pass through capillaries. What route must they follow to move from the arterial to the venous circulation?
Metarterioles
Bones as important mineral reservoirs
Minerals: Bone composition: Bones - contain 99 percent of the body's calcium
Activation energy
Minimum energy required to activate reactants in a reaction and allow reaction to proceed.
Parasagittal
Misses midline and divides unequally
Glossopharyngeal nerves (IX)
Mixed nerve; Innervate tongue/pharynx; Control swallowing
Vagus nerves (X)
Mixed nerve; Vital to autonomic control visceral function (in thorax & abdomen)
Facial nerves (VII)
Mixed nerves; Control scalp/face muscles; Provide pressure sensations over face; Receive taste info from tongue
Hydrophobic (water fear)
Molecules that do not readily interact or dissolve in water. (ex.Fats and oils)
Hydrophilic (water loving)
Molecules that interact or readily associate with water. (ex.Glucose)
Isomers
Molecules with the same molecular formula but different structures. (ex.Glucose and fructose)
Cochlear Nerve
Monitors hearing receptors
Vestibular Nerve
Monitors sensations of balance, position, & movement
Monoglyceride
Monoglyceride (glycerol + one fatty acid)
Cranial reflex
Monosynaptic/Polysynaptic reflex arcs involve sensory & motor fibers of cranial nerve
Endergonic (endo-, inside) reactions
More energy is required to begin than is released
Osteocytes (osteo-, bone + cyte, cell)
Most abundant cell type in bone. Mature bone cells that cannot divide. Lacunae: Each osteocyte occupies lacunae - pockets sandwiched between layers of matrix (only one osteocyte/lacuna) Lamellae: Lacunae are separated by thin layers of matrix called as lamellae Canaliculi: Osteocyte processes extend into narrow passageway called as canaliculi - penetrate lamellae
Proteins
Most abundant organic molecule in the body. Account for 20 percent of total body weight. Contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen Possibly sulfur and phosphorus as well. Consist of long chains of amino acids. 20 amino acids in the body
Which of the following is NOT true of association neurons?
Most association neurons are confined within the peripheral nervous system (PNS) Most association neurons are confined within the CNS (not PNS).
Which of the following is NOT true of association neurons?
Most association neurons are confined within the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Most association neurons are confined within the CNS (not PNS).
ATP
Most common high-energy compound. Begins with adenosine (composed of adenine and a ribose). Adenosine diphosphate with another high-energy bond to a phosphate. Energy stored in ATP formation is released when ATP broken down to ADP. Provides energy for many vital body functions. (Ex.Contraction of muscles, Synthesis of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids)
Merocrine secretion
Most common; Product is released through exocytosis
Simple squamous epithelium
Most delicate epithelium (one layer thick). Functions include absorption, diffusion, reduction of friction. Locations of simple squamous epithelium: Endothelium - lining of the heart and blood vessels.
Circulation
Movement of fluid within the organism
Exocytosis
Movement of wastes or secretory products from intracellular vesicle to outside the cell
Skeletal Muscle
Moves/Stabilizes position of skeleton or internal organs
Glycogen
Muscle cells make and store. Broken down when high demand for glucose.
Larger Organisms
Must process complex foods to simpler components by digestion. Perform an absorption, respiration, and excretion in different portions of the body. must then distrute materials around the body.
Aaron arrived at the hospital with the following symptoms: drooping eyelids; fatigue and weakness of his muscles; and difficulty talking, breathing, and swallowing. What was his diagnosis?
Myasthenia gravis
A myosin molecule in the thick filaments can be considered a protein having a quaternary structural level. Which of the following best describes this structural level?
Myosin molecules consist of two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.
The diffusion of what ion, across the neuronal membrane, is responsible for the local currents that depolarize regions of the axon to threshold?
Na+ (sodium) Sodium enters the cell during the beginning of an action potential. Not only does this (further) depolarize the membrane where those channels are located, but it also sets up local currents that depolarize nearby membrane segments. In the case of myelinated axons, these local currents depolarize the next node, some 1 to 2 millimeters away.
The concentrations of which two ions are highest outside the cell.
Na+ and Cl- Yes, both Na+ and Cl- are in higher concentrations outside the cell.
What is happening to voltage-gated channels at this point in the action potential?
Na+ channels are inactivating, and K+ channels are opening. As voltage-gated Na+ channels begin to inactivate, the membrane potential stops becoming more positive This marks the end of the depolarization phase of the action potential. Then, as voltage-gated K+ channels open, K+ ions rush out of the neuron, following their electrochemical gradient. This exit of positively-charged ions causes the interior of the cell to become more negative, repolarizing the membrane.
During the action potential of a neuron, which ion is primarily crossing the membrane during the depolarization phase, and in which direction is the ion moving?
Na+ is entering the cell. During the depolarization phase of the action potential, open Na+ channels allow Na+ ions to diffuse into the cell. This inward movement of positive charge makes the membrane potential more positive (less negative). The depolarization phase is a positive feedback cycle where open Na+ channels cause depolarization, which in turn causes more voltage-gated Na+ channels to open.
The Na+-K+ pump actively transports both sodium and potassium ions across the membrane to compensate for their constant leakage. In which direction is each ion pumped?
Na+ is pumped out of the cell and K+ is pumped into the cell. Yes, Na+ is pumped out of the cell against its electrochemical gradient and K+ is pumped into the cell against its concentration gradient.
skin folds that overlap border of nail
Nail folds:
thickened portion of bed responsible for nail growth
Nail matrix:
structure of a chemical synapse and explain the difference between the presynaptic component and the postsynaptic component
Narrow synaptic cleft, neurotransmitter molecules are released from vesicles in presynaptic neuron axon terminals, bind dendrites of postsynaptic neuron
Peripheral Nervous System
Nerves connecting central nervous system with other tissues and organs
PNS
Nerves outside CNS. Divided into sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) divisions
Osmosis (osmos, a push)
Net diffusion of water across a membrane
difference between a neuron and a neuroglia
Neuron: nerve cells, do not divide. Neuroglia: support and protect neurons, can divide
function of neurons and the special characteristics of these cells
Neurons are large, highly specialized cells that transmit electric impulses (action potentials). They are amito tic and have extreme longevity (100 yrs or more)
Impermeable membrane
No substances can pass (not found in living cells)
Which of the following is a way in which the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar?
None of the listed responses is correct.
Which of the following statements about muscles of the elbow joint is true? The biceps brachii is a posterior extensor. The brachioradialis originates and inserts on the ulna. The biceps brachii has two heads that share the same origin site. None of these statements is correct.
None of these statements is correct.
Which of the following neurotransmitters will play a role in the regulation of blood pressure by creating a change in cardiovascular function?
Norepinephrine acetylcholine, epinephrine
Delta wave
Normal during sleep
Smooth MT/Nonstriated involuntary muscle
Not striated; Cells divide & regenerate after injury
Prophase (Before)
Nuclear envelope disintegrates in this stage Chromosomes coil and become visible under light microscope Each copy of chromosome called chromatid - pair connected at centromere Replicated centrioles move to poles
Motile cilia
On ciliated epithelium; Coordinated beating moves materials across epithelial surface
Ipsilateral
On the same side of the body.
A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?
Which is a difference between hearing and equilibrium?
One is stimulated by fluid movements in the cochlea, and the other is stimulated by movements in the vestibular apparatus.
Greenstick fracture
One side of the shaft is split and other side is bent. Generally occurs in children.
Nutrient foramen
Opening in diaphysis through which blood vessels pass.
3 trigeminal divisions
Ophthalmic, maxillary, & mandibular
Synthesis reactions
Opposite of decomposition Assemble smaller molecules into larger molecules Always involve formation of new chemical bonds
Which of the following areas takes visual information from one side of the body and conveys it to the opposite side?
Optic chiasm
Carbohydrates
Organic molecules containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in ratio near 1:2:1
Multicellular gland
Organs w/ glandular epithelia produce exocrine/endocrine secretions
Four cell types in bone tissue
Osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteogenic cells & osteoclasts
Compact bone
Osteons or Haversian system: Functional units of mature compact bone.
________is a loss of bone mass.
Osteoporosis
Parietal Pleura
Outer pleura, attached to the chest wall #2
Valence Shell
Outermost energy level forms surface of atom.
true
Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients across the plasma membrane. (t/f)
two types of neuroglia described in the notes, state whether that neuroglia is found in the CNS or the PNS, and state the function(s) of that neuroglia pt 2
PNA: Sa tellite Cells - as astrocytes Schwann Cells - as Oligodendrocytes
What is the function of the lateral spinothalamic tract?
Pain and temperature sensations
Anemia, low blood pressure, fear, anger
Pallor (blanching or pale color)
Two layers of the dermis?
Papillary Reticular
Superficial layer of areolar connective tissue consisting of loose, interlacing collagen and elastic fibers and blood vessels •Loose fibers allow phagocytes to patrol for microorganisms
Papillary Layer
Factors that increase blood calcium levels
Parathyroid hormone (PTH): Responses of PTH: In bones: In response to PTH - in bones, osteoclasts stimulated to erode matrix, releasing stored calcium In intestines: In response to PTH - in intestine, Calcitriol effects are enhanced and calcium absorption increased
Reactants
Participants at the start of reaction. Usually on the left
Liquid
Particles held less tightly together.
Solid
Particles held tightly together.
Gas
Particles independent of each other.
Exchange reactions
Parts of the reacting molecules are shuffled around to produce new products. May involve both decomposition and synthesis reactions.
•Derived from dermis •Also called fibrous sheath
Peripheral connective tissue sheath
Wall of follicle composed of
Peripheral connective tissue sheath Epithelial root sheath Hair matrix Arrector pili Hair papilla
Nucleic acid structure
Phosphate and sugar of adjacent nucleotides bound together by dehydration synthesis. Sequence of nitrogenous bases carries the information for protein synthesis.
Phospholipid
Phosphate linking a diglyceride to a nonlipid group. Make biological membrane.
Micelles
Phospholipids & Glycolipids can form droplets in water.
Flat, dead, keratinized cells of stratum corneum, surrounded by glycolipids, block most water and water-soluble substances
Physical barrier
Water as a solvent
Polar charges in water molecule gives water the ability to disrupt ionic bonds of a variety of inorganic compounds and cause them to dissolve.
Frontal lobe is the
Primary (somatic) motor cortex.
Which of the following is not a major difference between primary and secondary bone?
Primary bone has large amounts of inorganic matrix, while secondary doesn't.
Which statement about pathways for somatic perception projection is correct?
Primary sensory neurons from the hands project to a specific region of the somatosensory cortex.
Parietal lobe
Primary somatosensory cortex.
Oculomotor nerves (III)
Primary source of innervation for 4 extrinsic eye muscles
Various surface markings (elevations or projections):
Process Tubercle Tuberosity - small, rough bump on bone where tendon attaches Trochlea - smooth, grooved articular process shaped like a pulley Condyle - smooth, rounded articular process of a bone - condyle Trochanter - large, rough proximal projection on femur Facet Crest Line Spine Ramus - extension of a bone that makes an angle with the rest of a structure.
Ionization or dissociation
Process of breaking ionic bonds as ions interact with poles of a water molecule.
Skeletal muscle (Striated voluntary muscle)
Produce new fibers by division of myosatellite cells; multinucleated cells
Spiral fractures
Produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone - spread along length of bone.
Brain stem
Produces automatic behaviors necessary for survival.
Meiosis
Produces sex cells Each cells with 23 chromosomes
Comminuted fracture
Produces shattered bone fragments.
Merocrine (meros, part) secretion
Product released from secretory vesicles by exocytosis Example: Salivary gland secretion Mucin: Merocrine secretion that mixes with water to form mucus - mucin.
Open or compound fracture
Project through the skin.
How do action potential propagation speeds compare in myelinated and unmyelinated axons?
Propagation is faster in myelinated axons. The insulated segments of myelinated axons allow local currents to travel quickly between nodes where the action potential is regenerated. This "leaping" of action potentials from node to node is several-fold faster than the continuous propagation found in unmyelinated axons. In addition, myelinated axons tend to have larger diameters, which also enhances propagation speed.
Permeability
Property determining which substances can enter or leave cytoplasm.
3 Swellings
Prosencephalon, Mesencephalon, & Rhombencephalon
CSF
Protect delicate neural structures, Support brain, Transport nutrients, chemical messengers, & waste products; Produced at choroid plexuses; Reach subarachnoid space through lateral & median aperture; Diffuses across arachnoid granulations into superior sagittal sinus
Integumentary System
Protects body from environmental hazards, helps control body temp.
ribosomes
Proteins are synthesized in the ______________ of the cell and then transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Carrier proteins
Proteins that transport hydrophilic large molecules across cell membrane
Desmosomes
Provide firm attachments by interlocking adjacent cells' cytoskeletons. Very strong; resist stretching and twisting Found in superficial layers of skin.
Skeletal System
Provides support, protects tissues, stores minerals, forms blood cells
Chemical factory:
Providing energy Maintenance and repair Growth Cell Division Secretion Contraction
Which of the following is the site of decussation of the lateral corticospinal tracts?
Pyramids of medulla oblongata
Substrates
Reactants in enzymatic reactions
Specialized Language Areas (Brain)
Receive info from all sensory association areas; Usually dominant in 1 hemisphere—generally left
Primary somatosensory cortex (Postcentral gyrus)
Receives somatic sensory info from touch, pressure, pain, vibration, taste, & temperature receptors.
Metaphysis
Region of long bone between end and shaft. Connects epiphysis to shaft or diaphysis.
Long bones
Relatively long and slender. Examples of long bones: Various bones of the limbs e.g. humerus & femur. Femur (long bone of the thigh) - largest and heaviest bone in the body.
Glandular Epithelial Cell
Release secretions by merocrine, apocrine, or holocrine
Endocrine glands
Release secretions into interstitial fluid.
Tissues change w/ age
Repair & maintenance become ↓ efficient; Structure/chemical composition of many tissues are altered; Cancer ↑ w/ age; Abt 3/4 caused by chemical exposure/Enviro. factors, ↑ age, tissue regeneration ↓ & cancer rates increase ↑
Regeneration
Repair process that restores normal function
Bone Cells
Reside within cavities inside the bone
Right Hemisphere
Responsible for spatial relationships & analyses
Achondroplasia
Results from abnormal epiphyseal activity. Leads to short, stocky limbs result with normal size of trunk.
Marfan's syndrome
Results in very tall person with long, slender limbs
•Makes up ~80% of dermal thickness •Consists of coarse, dense fibrous connective tissue -Many elastic fibers provide stretch-recoil properties -Collagen fibers provide strength and resiliency •Bind water, keeping skin hydrated
Reticular Layer
Veins
Return blood to the heart
Subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and movement is a function of which of the following tracts?
Rubrospinal tracts
Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________.
SOF
Which muscle-fiber type is best suited for endurance activities, such as long-distance jogging?
SOF Slow oxidative fibers are best suited for endurance activities because they produce ATP aerobically and are fatigue-resistant.
Which movement results after the contraction of the serratus anterior muscle? scapular protraction and rotation scapular elevation abduction of the humerus scapular retraction
Scapular protraction and rotation
Frontal lobe is
Seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning.
-Oily holocrine secretion -Bactericidal (bacteria-killing) properties -Softens hair and skin
Sebaceous (Oil) Glands
•Epidermal and upper dermal damage -Blisters appear -First- and second-degree burns are referred to as partial-thickness burns because only the epidermis and upper dermis are involved
Second-degree
Hypothalamus
Secrete certain hormones, Regulate body temp, Control autonomic function, Produce emotions/behavioral drives, Regulate circadian cycles of activity, Coordinate nervous & endocrine sys activities, Coordinate voluntary/autonomic functions, Control skeletal muscle contractions at subconscious level
Endocrine glands
Secrete hormones into interstitial fluid (extracellular fluid) then hormone is distributed by bloodstream.
Exocrine glands
Secrete onto external surfaces or into ducts.
Osteoblasts (blast, precursor)
Secrete organic components of bone matrix by a process called as osteogenesis or ossification. Osteoid: Organic component of matrix in developing and repairing bone released by osteoblasts - osteoid Bone: Become osteocytes once surrounded by bony matrix.
Hormone
Secretions of endocrine glands, released into surrounding bloodstream
Gland
Secretory structures derived from epithelia; Epithelial cells (or structures derived from them) that produce secretions
Axon
Sends impulse to target via neurotransmitters released into synapse
Innervation
Sensory nerves innervate diaphysis, medullary cavity, and epiphyses.
Longitudinal Cerebral Fissure
Separates 2 cerebral hemispheres
Fibrous Perichondrium
Separates cartilage from surrounding tissues.
Central sulcus
Separates frontal & parietal lobes.
Metabolic pathway
Series of complex reactions occurring in the body
Stratified
Several layers of cells
Sulcus
Shallow depression
Single Covalent Bonds
Share one pair of electrons.
Double Covalent Bonds
Share two pairs of electrons
Epithelial cell
Show polarity, s&f differences exposed (apical) & attached (basal) surface; Perform secretory/transport functions & maintain physical integrity of epithelium; Have microvilli
Which of these statements is NOT correct regarding our limbic system?
Sights often create strong emotional responses.
Trace Elements
Silicon, fluorine, copper, manganese, zinc, selenium, cobalt, molybdenum, cadmium,chromium, tin, aluminum, boron, and vanadium
Monosaccharide (single sugar)
Simple sugar. Contains three to seven carbon atoms.
Simple
Single layer; covers basement membrane
Which of the following statements is true?
Skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
Which term best identifies a muscle cell?
Skeletal muscle cells fuse during development to form the mature, multinucleated muscle fibers.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Skeletal muscle cells use creatine phosphate instead of ATP to do work. Muscle cells, just like other cells, use ATP to do work. Creatine phosphate is used by muscle cells to directly phosphorylate (i.e., donate a high-energy phosphate group to) ADP to resynthesize ATP.
Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle?
Skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons.
Of the following items listed below, which is the best description for why skeletal muscle stores glycogen.
Skeletal muscle is a heavy consumer of energy.
Types of muscle tissue (3)
Skeletal, Cardiac, & Smooth
Integumentary system consists of:
Skin - Hair - Nails - Sweat glands - Sebaceous (oil) glands
What type of tissue, present in the walls of blood vessels, allows for regulation of vessel diameter?
Smooth muscle
the ions responsible for depolarization and repolarization of the plasma membranes of excitable cells, and describe how ions are returned to their original location after repolarization
Sodium and potassium. During repolarization sodium channels close, voltage - gated potassium channels open. Higher potassium concentration inside cell causes rapid diffusion out of cell to restore resting membrane potential. Sodium - potassium pumps restore original concentrations
explain how an action potential is propagated along an axon
Sodium influx causes local depolarization away from AP origin. Repolarization wave follows behind, resetting axon. This is continuous conduction. In Saltatory conduction AP jumps between nodes of Ranvier in myelinated axon. Much more rapid signaling
Electrolytes
Soluble inorganic substances whose ions will conduct an electrical current in the solution
Acid
Solute that dissociates and releases hydrogen ions. Often referred to as proton donors. Strong acids dissociate completely. (ex. Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
Base
Solute that removes hydrogen ions from solution. Referred as proton acceptor. May release an hydroxide ion. Strong bases dissociate completely. (ex. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
Colloid
Solution containing dispersed proteins or other large molecules. Remain in solution indefinitely. (ex. Liquid Jell-O)
Suspension
Solution containing larger particles. Settle if undisturbed. (ex. Whole blood)
Motor
Somatic Nervous System: Voluntary muscle control (skeletal muscle) Auto nomic NS : Involuntary, S ympathetic & P arasympathetic subdivision
Sensory
Somatic Sensor Fibers: Impulses from skin/superficial organs to CNS Visceral Sensory Fibers: impulses from deep organs (i.e. heart) to CNS
Where do all tertiary somatic sensory neurons terminate?
Somato sensory cortex
Which item is an anatomical principle of neurons within sensory tracts?
Somatotopic arrangement, Medial-lateral rule Sensory modality arrangement
Intramembranous ossification
Some bones are formed without cartilaginous model. Dermal bones: Bones formed by process of __________called dermal bones or membrane bones. Examples of dermal bones: Roofing bones of skull, lower jaw, collarbone, sesamoid bones (patella)
Selectively permeable membrane
Some substances can cross
Lacuna (lacunae)
Space occupied by an osteocyte is known as lacuna that lie between lamellae.
Which of the following is NOT a difference between graded potentials and action potentials?
Spatial summation is used to increase the amplitude of a graded potential; temporal summation is used to increase the amplitude of an action potential.
MT
Specialized for contraction
Active site
Specific region of an enzyme where substrates must bind.
Hydrolysis
Specific type of decomposition reaction that involves water.
Fat Cells
Spherical for fat storage
What tract carries sensations of pain, temperature, and "crude" sensations of touch and pressure?
Spinothalamic tract
Compact bone formation
Spongy bone replaced by compact bone.
-Second most common type; can metastasize -Involves keratinocytes of stratum spinosum -Usually is a scaly reddened papule on scalp, ears, lower lip, or hands -Good prognosis if treated by radiation therapy or removed surgically
Squamous cell carcinoma
CNS control of the heart and blood vessels and order of events
Stimulus: Change in blood pressure Receptors: carotid and aortic baroreceptors fire Integrating center: Medullary cardiovascular centers Efferent Neurons: Sympathetic neurons and parasympathetic neurons Response: Heart and vessels generate a response Target: ventricles, arterioles, veins, and SA node
Deepest of all epidermal layers (base layer) -Layer that is firmly attached to dermis -Consists of a single row of stem cells that actively divide (mitotic), producing two daughter cells each time •One daughter cell journeys from basal layer to surface, taking 25-45 days to reach surface -Cell dies as it moves toward surface •Other daughter cell remains in stratum basale as stem cell -Layer also known as stratum germinativum because of active mitosis -10-25% of layer also composed of melanocytes
Stratum basale (basal layer)
20-30 rows of flat, anucleated, keratinized dead cells -Accounts for three-quarters of epidermal thickness -Though dead, cells still function to: •Protect deeper cells from the environment •Prevent water loss •Protect from abrasion and penetration •Act as a barrier against biological, chemical, and physical assaults
Stratum corneum (horny layer)
Four to six cells thick, but cells are flattened, so layer is thin -Cell appearance changes •Cells flatten, nuclei and organelles disintegrate •Keratinization begins -Cells accumulate keratohyaline granules that help form keratin fibers in upper layers •Cells also accumulate lamellar granules, a water-resistant glycolipid that slows water loss -Cells above this layer die •Too far from dermal capillaries to survive
Stratum granulosum (granular layer)
Found only in thick skin -Consists of thin, translucent band of two to three rows of clear, flat, dead keratinocytes -Lies superficial to the stratum granulosum
Stratum lucidum (clear layer)
Several cell layers thick -Cells contain weblike system of intermediate prekeratin filaments attached to desmosomes •Allows them to resist tension and pulling -Keratinocytes in this layer appear spikey, so they are called prickle cells -Scattered among keratinocytes are abundant melanosomes and dendritic cells
Stratum spinosum (prickly layer)
Cytoskeleton (Centriole)
Structure: Cytoplasmic region (part of cytoskeleton) containing pair of centrioles - centrosome Function: strengthens and supports cell
microvilli
Structure: Membrane extensions containing microfilaments. Function: increase the plasma membrane surface and are useful for absorption and secretion, especially in small intestine
endoplasmic reticulum
Structure: Network of membranous sheets and channels. Function: Synthesizes secretory products; stores and transports within cell; detoxifies drugs and toxins.
lysosomes
Structure: Vesicles containing digestive enzymes function: digest excess or worn out organelles, food particles, and engulfed viruses or bacteria.
smooth ER
Structure: have no attached ribosomes Function: synthesizes lipids & carbohydrates
rough ER
Structure: with attached ribosomes Function: modifies/packages newly synthesized proteins
Tissue
Structures w/ structural & functional properties that combine to form organs
Tissues
Structures w/ structural & functional properties that combine to form organs; Collection of specialized cells that perform a # of functions; 4 types Ex: Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, & Nervous Tissue
Physiology
Study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.
Gross Anatomy or Macroscopic Anatomy
Study of large structure and features, that is usually visible with the unaided eye.
Histology
Study of tissues; 4 tissue types: epithelial, connective, muscle, & nervous
Superficial Fascia
Subcutaneous layer, separates skin from underlying tissues & organs
Metabolites (metabole, change)
Substances synthesized or decomposed by chemical reaction in our bodies.
Molecular weight (MW)
Sum of the atomic weights of all atoms making up a molecule.
Periosteum
Superficial layer of compact bone that covers all bones is wrapped by periosteum.
Keratinized
Superficial layers packed with keratin. Tough and water resistant. Found on the surface of skin.
Glycocalyx
Superficial membrane carbohydrate layer of plasma membrane
What part of the corpora quadrigemina is clearly observed in a midsagittal section?
Superior colliculus
Neuroglia (glial cell)
Support NT & help supply nutrients to neurons; Several types
sudoriferous glands
Sweat Glands
Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?
Synchondroses
Sensory receptors that sense touch
Tactile (Merkel) cells
Columnar epithelium
Tall slender cells
Columnar
Taller than they are wide. Slender rectangles.
coarse, long hair -Found on scalp and eyebrows
Terminal hair
Tetraethylammonium (TEA) blocks voltage-gated K+ channels such that K+ cannot pass even when the channels are open. However, TEA leaves K+ leakage channels largely unaffected. How would you expect the action potential to change if you treated a neuron with TEA?
The action potential would depolarize as usual, but the repolarization phase would take longer, causing the action potential to be more broad in time. The passage of K+ ions through open voltage-gated K+ channels is an important component of the repolarization phase of the action potential. However, repolarization would still occur (albeit more slowly) in the presence of TEA. Once voltage-gated Na+ channels open during the depolarization phase, those same Na+ channels quickly inactivate. In other words, open Na+ channels inevitably inactivate regardless of whether K+ channels open or not. This means that the depolarization phase of the action potential stops on its own. Once Na+ channels inactivate, the membrane potential is set by other open channels. If voltage-gated K+ channels are blocked by TEA, then the membrane will be (slowly) set, by leakage channels, to the resting membrane potential.
Why does the action potential only move away from the cell body?
The areas that have had the action potential are refractory to a new action potential. Yes, sodium channels are inactivated in the area that just had the action potential.
Once a preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, one of three things can happen to the axon. Which of the following is NOT one of these three things?
The axon can course back into the spinal cord to synapse with preganglionic neurons in a different spinal segment.
name the location on the axon where action potentials are generated
The axon hillock
Which of the following is the last step in bone fracture repair?
The bone callus is remodeled and primary bone is replaced with secondary bone.
Which of the following of the following correctly describes how a photoreceptor responds to light?
The cell hyperpolarizes, decreasing the amount of neurotransmitter it releases.
What does 0 mV on the Y-axis of an action potential tracing represent?
The cell's membrane is at equilibrium.
Which of the following is true of the cerebral hemispheres of the human brain?
The cerebral hemispheres account for about 83% of total brain mass
The nurse encourages the patient to do his own activities of daily living such as bathing, eating, dressing, and toileting activities. How do these activities promote physical conditioning?
The contraction of the muscles in these activities helps maintain the shape, size, and strength of muscles, as well as joint mobility
One action potential in a motor neuron causes the full reaction in skeletal muscle, which is called a twitch. One twitch can generate max tension in a muscle. Are these statements true or false?
The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
Choose the FALSE statement. The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh. The medial hamstrings promote medial knee (leg) rotation. The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion The hamstrings cross the hip and knee joints.
The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion
Mean arterial pressure is equal to diastolic pressure pulse one- third of the pulse pressure. AN equivalent equation is MAP=2/3 DBP =1/3 SBP. Why is diastolic pressure (DBP) a larger component of MAP than Systolic blood pressure (SBP)
The heart spends more time in diastole than systole
Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?
The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
What is the role of the kidney in blood pressure regulation? What is the role of the kidney in blood pressure regulation?
The kidney can eliminate water to decrease blood volume or it can conserve water to maintain blood volume.
facilitated diffusion
The majority of water molecules moving across plasma membranes by osmosis do so via a process that is most similar to ____.
Old age affects many parts of the skeleton. Which of the following is NOT associated with old age?
The mandible continues to grow and thicken. On the contrary, as the bony tissue of the jaws declines, the jaws (including the mandible) look small and childlike once again.
an amino acid
The mechanism depicted in B would most likely mediate the diffusion of which of the following solutes?
hydrolytic enzymes
The membrane-bound compartment indicated by structure D contains which of the following?
potassium (K+)
The most abundant positive ion inside of a cell is ________________.
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively. The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively. The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively. The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.
The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively
Based on what you know of the relationship between the thick and the thin filaments, what would happen if a disorder existed that caused a person to produce no tropomyosin?
The muscle tissues would never be able to relax The tropomyosin covers the myosin binding site on actin. Without tropomyosin, the myosin would constantly have access to those binding sites.
Which protein functions as a motor protein that applies the power stroke during muscle contraction?
The myosin head groups (C) hydrolyze ATP to power molecular movement along the actin subunits of the thin myofilaments.
In a myelinated axon, how do the nodes of Ranvier differ from other segments of the same axon?
The nodes are more permeable to ions. In myelinated axons, voltage-gated channels are largely confined to the nodes of Ranvier. This means the nodes are much more permeable to ions than the myelinated segments where voltage-gated channels are absent.
All of the following are true of the organization and patterns of spinal cord tracts, except:
The number of synapses is the same for all tracts; there are always 3 neurons in each ascending and descending tract.
Anaphase (apart)
The paired chromosomes (sister chromatids) separate and begin moving to opposite ends (poles) of the cell. Spindle fibers not connected to chromatids lengthen and elongate the cell.
Trauma to the spinal cord can cause a loss of function. If there is trauma to only a portion of the spinal cord, several functions can be partially lost in surprising ways. If a patient had localized trauma to the right side of her spinal cord, how would that change the fine touch and nociceptive stimuli received in her cortex?
The patient would lose fine touch from the right side and nociception from the left side below the site of the damage.
Which of the following statements regarding the spinocerebellar tracts is true?
The posterior spinocerebellar tract carries axons that ascend to the cerebellar cortex by way of the inferior cerebellar peduncle.
During action potential propagation in an unmyelinated axon, why doesn't the action potential suddenly "double back" and start propagating in the opposite direction?
The previous axonal segment is in the refractory period. A propagating action potential always leaves a trail of refractory membrane in its wake. The trailing membrane takes some time to recover from the action potential it just experienced. This is largely because its voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated. By the time this membrane segment is ready to (re)generate another action potential, the first propagating action potential is long gone.
Which of the following statements about muscles of the forearm is true? The pronator quadratus originates on the radius and inserts on the ulna. The pronator quadratus is a two-headed muscle. Contraction of the pronator quadratus and the supinator results in forearm pronation. The pronator teres originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the radius.
The pronator teres originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the radius.
All of the following are true of the reticular formation, except:
The reticular formation receives input from almost every descending tract, but not from ascending tracts.
The 100 meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed. On completion of the dash the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so?
The runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake.
false, integral
The sodium potassium pump is a peripheral membrane protein that requires ATP to carry out its functions.
All of the following are true of the organization of motor tracts, except:
The somatic nervous system (SNS) issues motor commands to the smooth muscles, cardiac muscle, and glands.
Repolarzation
The specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability
The myelin on myelinated neurons can be degraded or destroyed in diseases such as multiple sclerosis-a process called demyelination. If a myelinated neuron was affected by demyelination, how would this affect action potentials in that neuron?
The speed of action potential propagation would be slower. Because myelination allows for the fast saltatory propagation of action potentials, any reduction or removal of the myelin would slow nerve impulses along the axon. In extreme cases, the loss of myelin can lead to scarring that can prevent nerve impulses from being propagated at all.
A patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit five days after having a stroke. The nurse assesses his muscle strength and determines that he has right-sided weakness. Based on this assessment data, what part of the brain was injured?
There was damage to localized areas of the primary motor cortex in the left cerebral hemisphere.
A patient had damage to the left optic tract. What would you predict to be the effect?
There would be a loss of vision from the right visual field.
Depressions/grooves/tunnels
These kinds of markings in the bones - sites for blood vessels or nerves to lie alongside or penetrate bone.
NREM stage 3
Theta and delta waves begin to appear.
What can you conclude about the shared shape classification of the following bones: metatarsal, ulna, fibula, humerus, and tibia?
They are all long bones.
Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?
They are mitotic.
All of the following statements are true of the corticospinal tracts, except:
They are sometimes called the anterolateral system.
Squamous
Thin and flat.
Squamous epithelium (squama, plate or scale)
Thin, flat, irregularly shaped cells. If viewed from above - cells look like fried eggs In sectional view, disc-shaped nucleus found in thickest part of cell. May be single layer (simple) or multiple layers (stratified).
Squamous
Thin/Flat Cells
•Entire thickness of skin involved (referred to as full-thickness burns) •Skin color turns gray-white, cherry red, or blackened •No edema is seen and area is not painful because nerve endings are destroyed •Skin grafting usually necessary
Third-degree
the use of a sodium concentration gradient to power the pumping of glucose into the cell
This figure illustrates which of the following descriptions?
CT Proper Network
Ties organs/systems together; Consists of superficial, deep, & subserous fascia
Chromosomes
Tightly coiled DNA in dividing cells
Which mechanism causes hair cell depolarization as stereocilia bend in response to sound waves?
Tip links open ion channels, which causes membrane depolarization.
Gomphosis
Tooth in socket.
Osmolarity (osmotic concentration)
Total solute concentration in an aqueous solution
Local anesthetics block voltage-gated Na+ channels, but they do not block mechanically gated ion channels. Sensory receptors for touch (and pressure) respond to physical deformation of the receptors, resulting in the opening of specific mechanically gated ion channels. Why does injection of a local anesthetic into a finger still cause a loss of the sensation of touch from the finger?
Touch stimulation of this sensory receptor will open the mechanically gated ion channels, but action potentials are still not initiated because propagation of an action potential requires the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels Propagation (spreading) of an action potential from the cell body to the axon hillock and eventually the axon terminals (synaptic knobs) requires the sequential opening of mechanically and voltage-gated ion channels. When the sequence is interrupted, the message cannot spread to the sensory regions of the central nervous system, causing numbness.
Superior
Toward the head (above)
Cranial
Towards head or superior end
Medial
Towards the axis.
Posterior (dorsal)
Towards the back of the body.
Rostral
Towards the forehead or nose
Anterior (ventral)
Towards the front of the body.
Caudal
Towards the tail or inferior end
Neuron
Transmit information as electrical impulses; Axon carries info to other cells; has cell body, dendrites, & an axon/nerve fiber
Neurons (Nerve Cell)
Transmit information in the form of electrical impulses
What is the function of white matter?
Transmits message
Fluid connective tissue (CT)
Transport cells & dissolved materials Ex: Blood & lymph
A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric contraction.
True
Cardiac muscle has a limited regenerative capacity.
True
Contraction of the pronator quadratus and the pronator teres muscle results in pronation.
True
Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.
True
Muscles are only able to pull, they never push.
True
Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage.
True
The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power.
True
The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.
True
The diencephalon is found in between the brain stem and the cerebrum. (True or false)
True
Men and women have the same number of ribs
True Men and women both have 12 pairs of ribs.
Opening K+ or Cl- channels in a postsynaptic membrane would produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
True Opening K+ or Cl- channels in a postsynaptic membrane, resulting in K+ efflux or Cl- influx, respectively, would induce hyperpolarization. As the membrane potential increases and is driven farther from the axon's threshold, the postsynaptic neuron becomes less and less likely to "fire," and larger depolarizing currents are required to induce an action potential (AP). Hyperpolarizing changes in potential are called inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs).
Neurons are also called nerve cells.
True The billions of neurons, also called nerve cells, are the structural units of the nervous system. They are typically large, highly specialized cells that conduct messages in the form of nerve impulses from one part of the body to another.
In the muscles of the limbs, the origin is usually the immobile muscle attachment.
True In the muscles of the limbs, the insertion is pulled toward the immobile origin.
Isometric contractions are important contractions that allow humans to hold their posture over time.
True Muscle produces enough tension to support the skeleton, but not move it, creating the conditions for posture in humans.
Dipeptides
Two amino acids linked together.
phospholipid bilayer
Two layers of phospholipids Hydrophilic heads - at membrane surface Hydrophobic tails - facing each other on the inside
Stratified columnar epithelium
Two or more layers of cells in which superficial layer is of columnar cells.
Ways to delay skin aging
UV protection, good nutrition, lots of fluids, good hygiene
Transitional epithelium
Unusual stratified epithelium that can stretch and recoil without damage. Due to change in appearance. Found only in urinary system (urinary bladder, ureters, urine-collecting chambers of kidneys).
Chondrocytes (Cartilage Cells)
Use diffusion thru avascular matrix to get nutrients; occupy lacunae; Cartilage grows by two mechanisms: interstitial & appositional growth
Respiration
Usually refers to oxygen absorption and utilization, and carbon dioxide generation and release
CT Proper
Varied cell populations/fiber types surrounded by a syrupy ground substance; Loose CT fills internal space/dense CT; contributes to body's internal framework Ex: Fibroblasts, Fibrocytes, Macrophages, Adipocytes, Mesenchymal Cells, Melanocytes, Mast Cells, Lymphocytes, & Microphages
Connective tissue overview
Vary widely in appearance and function. Found throughout the body, but never exposed to surface. Ranges from highly vascular to avascular.
What compensatory mechanisms are available to help maintain blood pressure when a large volume of blood is lost, such as during a hemorrhage?
Vasoconstriction, increased thirst, and decreased renal fluid output in the urine
pale, fine body hair of children and adult females
Vellus hair
Types and Growth of Hair
Vellus hair Terminal hair
Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?
Venous Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?
sebaceous gland secretion that protects skin of fetus while in watery amniotic fluid
Vernix caseosa
Irregular bones
Vertebrae, bones of pelvis, facial bones.
NREM stage 1
Very easy to awaken; EEG shows alpha waves; may even deny being asleep.
Subconscious regulation of balance and muscle tone is a function of which of the following tracts?
Vestibulospinal tracts
Hypothalamus
Visceral command center.
A patient has a vitamin A deficiency. Which special sense would be most affected?
Vision
Occipital lobe
Visual area.
Dense
Volume mostly fibers; 2 types: dense regular (elastic tissue) & dense irregular
Olfactory afferents synapse
W/in olfactory bulbs
Fluid connective tissue
Watery matrix Blood (within cardiovascular system) Lymph (within lymphatic system)
Plasma
Watery matrix of blood
What effects occur to the bones of astronauts who spend a prolonged period in space?
Weight-bearing exercises are minimal due to the weightlessness of space, leading to the decreased amount of compression and tension on bones and decreased osteoblast activity.
to generate a sodium concentration gradient
What is the purpose of the energy extracted from ATP in this figure?
3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in
What is the ratio and direction of a sodium-potassium ATPase pump activity?
synthesis of proteins
What major function occurs on the specific membranes indicated by A?
Covalent Bonds
When atoms complete their own electron shell by sharing electrons.
Each nerve attaches to ventrolateral surface of brainstem near associated sensory or motor nuclei
Where does each CN attach? (Except CN 1& 2)
Cervical enlargement
Where nerves serving the upper limbs arise.
Afferent sensory and efferent motor information travels by several different routes, depending on which of the following factors?
Where the information is going, The priority level of the information, Where the information is coming from
Capillaries
Where water & small solutes move to interstitial fluid of surrounding tissues
specialized junctions, wavy membrane contours, and glycoproteins
Which of the following factors act to bind cells together?
Cells are given life through a process known as spontaneous generation.
Which of the following is NOT a concept of the cell theory? (A) The activity of an organism depends on both the individual and the collective activities of its cells. (B) Cells are given life through a process known as spontaneous generation. (C) The biochemical activities of cells are dictated by the relative number of their specific subcellular structures. (D) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
With cells of varying shapes and functions Distance between nuclei varies, giving appearance of layering or being stratified.
Stratified epithelium
With several layers of cells. Found in areas that need protection from abrasion or chemical stress. (ex. Surface of skin, lining of the mouth)
In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure (HP) is exerted by __________.
Yes, blood pressure is the driving force for filtration.
The net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is the hydrostatic pressure in the __________ minus hydrostatic pressure in the __________.
Yes, the capillary hydrostatic pressure (HPC; caused by blood pressure) is much higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure (HPI). The interstitial fluid is forced out of the capillaries.
Water and electrolytes are lost in equal proportions.
Your patient has the flu and reports 5 to 6 loose stools a day. He has experienced an isotonic fluid volume loss. What does "isotonic fluid loss" mean?
Tissue level
a group of cells working together to perform specific functions (4th level)
passive transport
a movement of ions and other atomic or molecular substances across cell membranes without need of energy input.
G protein
a regulatory molecule that acts as a middleman or relay to activate or inactivate a membrane bound enzyme or ion channel
The velocity of the action potential is fastest in which of the following axons?
a small myelinated axon Yes, the myelination acts as insulation and the action potential is generated only at the nodes of Ranvier. Propagation along myelinated axons is known as saltatory conduction.
What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? an agonist a synergist a prime mover an antagonist
a synergist
What type of stimulus is required for an action potential to be generated?
a threshold level depolarization The axolemma must be depolarized to threshold in order to generate an action potential.
What differentiates an autonomic reflex from a somatic reflex?
a two neuron motor pathway
__________ are muscles that serve as the primary promoters of a movement. a) Agonists b) Antagonists c) Fixators d) Synergists
a) Agonists
Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true? a) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally. b) The movements produced may be of graded intensity. c) The bones serve as levers. d) Muscles produce movement by pulling on bones.
a) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.
Which is correctly matched? a) Rectus: straight b) Brevis: long c) Deltoid: right angle d) Transverse: parallel
a) Rectus: straight
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? a) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively. b) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively. c) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively. d) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.
a) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
Which of the following muscles is named for its origin and insertion? a) sternocleidomastoid b) gluteus maximus c) deltoid d) trapezius
a) sternocleidomastoid
A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n) ________. a) synergist b) protagonist c) fixator d) antagonist
a) synergist
The tensor fascia latae is involved in hip __________. abduction adduction lateral rotation extension
abduction
What is moving a limb away from the midline of the body along the frontal plane called?
abduction
Performing "jumping jacks" requires ________.
abduction and adduction
The mechanism by which the neurotransmitter is returned to a presynaptic neuron's axon terminal is specific for each neurotransmitter. Which of the following neurotransmitters is broken down by an enzyme before being returned?
acetylcholine Yes, acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase before being returned to the presynaptic neuron's axon terminal.
The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________. humerus clavicle acromion of the scapula coracoid process of the scapula
acromion of the scapula
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
actin filaments
The medial muscles of the hip joint that insert on the linea aspera are the __________. adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and adductor longus adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and pectineus gracilis, adductor magnus, pectineus, and adductor longus pectineus, adductor magnus, and adductor longus
adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and adductor longus
Which target organ is NOT affected by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
adrenal medulla
Which functional group has the major responsibility for producing a specific movement? fixators synergists agonists antagonists
agonists
Which of the following refers to a joint that is slightly movable?
amphiarthrosis
The primary purpose of the middle ear bony structures (maleus, incus and stapes) is to
amplify the vibration as it conducts to the cochlea.
The loudness or intensity of a sound wave is related to its
amplitude
Which of the following persons is the least likely to develop "flat feet" as an adult?
an Olympic sprinter Sprinting puts only short-duration stress on the arch of the foot.
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? an antagonist a synergist a fixator an agonist
an agonist
relative refractory period
an exceptionally strong stimulus that can trigger a response
A decrease in blood pressure at the arterial baroreceptors would result in which of the following?
an increase in heart contractility a decrease in heart rate vasodilation of arterioles Yes, sympathetic nervous system activity would be increased because of the low blood pressure. Sympathetic fibers go to the ventricles of the heart and increase their contractility. An increase in contractility would increase stroke volume which would lead to an increase in cardiac output and blood pressure.
Stimulation of the adrenal medulla would result in which of the following?
an increase in heart rate and contractility Yes, epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from the adrenal medulla and act as part of the sympathetic nervous system, increasing heart rate and contractility. Epinephrine and norepinephrine have other effects that would also increase blood pressure.
Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?
analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
desmosomes
anchoring junctions, mechanical couplings scattered across the cells to prevent separation
The smallest of the posterior extensors of the elbow joint is the __________. The smallest of the posterior extensors of the elbow joint is the __________. triceps brachii brachioradialis biceps brachii anconeus
anconeus
Which joints are correctly matched?
ankle; hinge
Which of the ascending tracts have no third-order neurons?
anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts
The frontal bone forms the ________.
anterior cranium The frontal bone forms the front (anterior) of the cranium.
All of these sensory tracts carry information regarding proprioception except the ____________.
anterior spinothalamic tracts
Cold sores on the skin of the mouth occur when herpes simplex viruses that are dormant in neural ganglia become active and travel to the skin of the mouth. Which of the following is the mechanism by which these viruses travel from the ganglia (located within the head) to the skin of the mouth?
anterograde axonal transport
Cells change by going through
apoptosis (controlled cell death)
Synarthrotic joints ________.
are immovable joints
Nucleus
at the center of an atom, contain one or more protons, may also contain neutrons
During what part of the action potential do voltage-gated Na+ channels begin to inactivate (their inactivation gates close)?
at the end of the depolarization phase, as the membrane potential approaches its peak value Voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened by depolarization and then quickly inactivated. Once inactivated, these channels cannot pass Na+ ions. At the peak of the action potential, a large number of Na+ channels are open, but they are rapidly inactivating. As the action potential enters the repolarization phase, the number of open Na+ channels continues to decrease because more and more inactivation gates close. The number of inactivated Na+ channels is greatest towards the end of the repolarization phase.
Where are action potentials regenerated as they propagate along a myelinated axon?
at the nodes of Ranvier In myelinated axons, voltage-gated sodium channels are largely restricted to the nodes between myelinated segments. This means that action potentials can only be regenerated at these locations. Myelin prevents leakage of charge from the axon and ensures that currents generated at one node will quickly bring the next node to threshold even though it may be a millimeter away.
Ions
atoms that have gained or lost electrons and are no longer electrically neutral
Peripheral proteins
attached to cell membrane's inner or outer surface
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.
axon
Which part of the neuron is responsible for generating a nerve impulse?
axon The axon is the conducting region of the neuron. It generates nerve impulses (action potentials) and transmits them, typically away from the cell body, along the axolemma (cell membrane of the axon).
Where in the neuron is an action potential initially generated?
axon hillock Yes, this region (first part of the axon) receives local signals (graded potentials) from the soma and dendrites and has a high concentration of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
Which is correctly matched? a) Deltoid: right angle b) Rectus: straight c) Transverse: parallel d) Brevis: long
b) Rectus: straight
Which of the following describes fascicle arrangement in a pennate muscle? a) The fascicles are in a fusiform arrangement. b) The fascicles are short and attach obliquely to a central tendon that runs the length of a muscle. c) The fascicular pattern is circular. d) The fascicles form a triangle.
b) The fascicles are short and attach obliquely to a central tendon that runs the length of a muscle.
Where are most of the muscles that move the hand located? a) wrist b) forearm c) fingers d) palm of the hand
b) forearm
First-class levers ________. a) are typified by tweezers or forceps b) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location c) are the type found in the joints forming the ball of the foot as used in raising the body on the toes d) have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle
b) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
Which of the following muscles is named for its action? a) frontalis b) levator labii superioris c) sartorius d) gluteus minimus
b) levator labii superioris
If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________. a) lever system is useless b) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum c) load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end d) effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum
b) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
In a pennate muscle pattern ________. a) there is a narrow origin diverging to a broad insertion b) muscles look like a feather c) muscles appear to be straplike d) there is a broad origin and fascicles converge toward a single tendon
b) muscles look like a feather
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? a) the shape b) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction c) the number of neurons innervating it d) the length
b) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? a) second-class lever b) third-class lever c) fourth-class lever d) first-class lever
b) third-class lever
Over which of the following do the pons and superior medulla oblongata have somatic motor control?
balance reflexes and more-complex respiratory reflexes
The hamstrings consist of three muscles located on the posterior thigh. Why is it recommended that a caregiver squat using these muscles to help a patient sit down? because it prevents back muscle strain because it permits the patient to be farther away because it forcibly flexes the caregiver's thighs because it eliminates lifting belt use when moving adults
because it prevents back muscle strain
Cell division (M phase):
begins with mitosis ends with cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm)
Most skin tumors are? And do not?
benign (not cancerous) (metastasize)
Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity?
beta 1
Forearm supination is assisted by the __________. biceps brachii brachioradialis supinator triceps brachii
biceps brachii
Which of the following is a hamstring muscle? vastus lateralis rectus femoris vastus medialis biceps femoris
biceps femoris
Acute, short-term traumas to skin can cause
blisters, fluid-filled pockets that separate epidermal and dermal layers
Whiteheads are blocked
blocked sebaceous glands
The hormone calcitonin causes an increase in __________.
bone deposition
If a fractured bone causes damage to the nutrient artery,
bone healing may take longer due to lack of O2 and nutrients.
Which of the following is NOT a similarity between hearing and equilibrium?
both respond to sound waves
During depolarization, which gradient(s) move(s) Na+ into the cell?
both the electrical and chemical gradients Yes, a positive ion is driven into the cell because the inside of the cell is negative compared to the outside of the cell, and Na+ is driven into the cell because the concentration of Na+ is greater outside the cell.
The muscle that generates the most power during elbow flexion is the __________. triceps brachii biceps brachii brachioradialis brachialis
brachialis
The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
brain and spinal cord
Which of the following structures control(s) simple cranial and spinal reflexes?
brain stem and spinal cord
The primary function of the deep muscles of the thorax is to promote ________. vomiting swallowing back posture breathing
breathing
endocytosis
bringing chemicals into the cell
The ________ muscles compress the cheeks to help keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth while chewing. buccinator masseter temporalis medial pterygoid
buccinator
Nucleotides
building blocks of nucleic acid composed of a nitrogenous base + 5 carbon sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) + at least 1 phosphate group
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.
bursae
Which of the following is correctly matched? a) Circular arrangement of fascicles: describes the deltoid muscle b) Parallel arrangement of fascicles: characteristic of sphincter muscles c) Convergent arrangement of fascicles: fan shaped muscle d) Pennate arrangement of fascicles: spindle shaped muscle
c) Convergent arrangement of fascicles: fan shaped muscle
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean? a)The muscle functions as a synergist. b) The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint. c) The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region. d) The muscle flexes and rotates a region.
c) The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.
Which of the following is not used as a criterion for naming muscles? a) The locations of muscle attachments b) The shape of the muscle c) Whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system d) The location of the muscle e) The number of origins for the muscle
c) Whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system
What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? a) a prime mover b) an antagonist c) a synergist d) an agonist
c) a synergist
What are the muscles that are found at openings of the body collectively called? a) divergent muscles b) parallel muscles c) circular muscles d) convergent muscles
c) circular muscles
The soleus and the gastrocnemius share an insertion on the __________. distal phalanx fibula calcaneus medial cuneiform
calcaneus
Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children?
calcitonin
PTH promotes the formation of which hormone?
calcitriol
Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels?
calcitriol
Where are the sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex located?
carotid sinus and aortic arch Yes, the sensors are the arterial baroreceptors themselves, located at the carotid sinus and aortic arch. They detect changes in blood pressure by the degree of stretch on the blood vessel.
Cardiovascular System
carries chemicals, nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, defense cells and dissolved materials to all parts of the body
Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?
cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones
negative
cations flow out of the cell causing the cell to be more ____
All of the following are structures of the limbic system EXCEPT the ________.
caudate nucleus
Hypotonic
cause osmotic flow into the cell (water) swelling
Hypertonic
cause osmotic flow out of cell (25% salt) Shriveling and crenation
lumen
cavity inside a hollow organ
Abdominopelvic Cavity
cavity that is divided into 2 portions
Which is an adequate stimulus for a mechanoreceptor?
cell swelling
Identify the passageway found in the spinal cord that is continuous with the ventricles.
central canal
What part of the nervous system performs information processing and integration?
central nervous system The central nervous system, which consists of the brain and spinal cord, is the integrating and control center of the nervous system. It interprets sensory input and dictates motor output based on reflexes, current conditions, and past experience.
What part of the nervous system performs information processing and integration?
central nervous system The central nervous system, which consists of the brain and spinal cord, is the integrating and control center of the nervous system. It interprets sensory input and dictates motor output based on reflexes, current conditions, and past experience.
The arbor vitae refers to ________.
cerebellar white matter
Which part of the brain processes inputs received from the cerebral motor cortex, brain stem nuclei, and various sensory receptors, and then uses this information to coordinate balance, posture, and somatic movement problems?
cerebellum
Which passageway connects the third and fourth ventricles?
cerebral aqueduct
Which part of the brain is the "executive suite" that controls almost all brain activity?
cerebral cortex
Which vertebrae type is characterized by a transverse foramina and bifid spinous process?
cervical
What part of the spinal cord represents an increase in cell body mass for upper limb control?
cervical enlargement
Digestion
chemical breakdown of complex materials for absorption and use by the organism
acetocholine
chemical released by neurons to stimulate muscle activity
Binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptors opens __________ channels on the __________ membrane.
chemically gated; postsynaptic Yes, the neurotransmitter is a chemical released from the presynaptic membrane, so it would open chemically gated channels on the postsynaptic membrane.
The bone commonly known as the collarbone is the __________.
clavicle
Which of the following does NOT form part of the thoracic cage?
clavicle The clavicle is a part of the pectoral girdle; it does not form part of the thoracic cage.
Which of the following structure contains sensory receptors for hearing?
cochlea
gap junction
communication junction between adjacent cells
Centrioles
composed of microtubules (9 groups of triplets) Cells without centrioles cannot divide, e.g. Red blood cells & Skeletal muscle cells
Organ level
composed of two or more tissues working together to perform a specific functions
Organ System Level
consist of interacting organs with a common purpose
Blood
contains formed elements: erythrocytes, leukocytes, & platelets.
Cytokinesis
continues through telophase & completion marks the end of cell division
What somatic motor control does the hypothalamus possess?
controls stereotyped motor patterns related to eating, drinking, and sexual activity, and modify respiratory reflexes
The deep posterior extensor of the wrist and fingers __________. controls the thumb and index finger controls the thumb and wrist controls all four digits controls the index finger and wrist
controls the thumb and index finger
target protein
controls whether or not the protein is active or inactive, activates channels and enzymes which causes an increase or decrease in activity in the cell
Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched? pennate arrangement of fascicles: spindle-shaped muscle parallel arrangement of fascicles: characteristic of sphincter muscles convergent arrangement of fascicles: fan shaped muscle circular arrangement of fascicles: describes the deltoid muscle
convergent arrangement of fascicles: fan shaped muscle
The coracobrachialis muscle originates on the __________. medial surface of the humeral shaft greater tuberosity of the humerus coracoid process of the scapula radial tuberosity
coracoid process of the scapula
The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________.
corpus callosum
Axons in the ___________ (descending) tracts synapse on lower-motor neurons in the motor nuclei of several cranial nerves, and control skeletal muscles that move the eye, jaw, face, and some of the neck and pharynx muscles.
corticobulbar
All of the following principal descending tracts are subconscious motor pathways, except:
corticobulbar tracts
Which of the following tracts are not major somatic sensory tracts?
corticospinal tracts
Serous Membrane
covers viscera and lines true body cavity of trunk
Combinations of different melanins (yellow, rust, brown, black)
create all the hair colors
Which structures monitor rotational acceleration of the head?
cristae of the semicircular canals
Which of the following sensations is/are interpreted in the primary sensory cortex?
crude touch, pain, fine touch, proprioception
Which of the following is NOT a carpal bone?
cuboid
Choose the false statement. a) The hamstring crosses the knee joint. b) The hamstring crosses the hip joint. c) The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh. d) Hamstrings promote knee rotation.
d) Hamstrings promote knee rotation.
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? a) an antagonist b) a fixator c) a synergist d) an agonist
d) an agonist
What is the major factor controlling how levers work? a) the weight of the load b) the direction the load is being moved c) the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever d) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
d) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles? a) the type of action they cause b) muscle location c) muscle shape d) the type of muscle fibers
d) the type of muscle fibers
Most skeletal muscles of the body act as: a) first-class levers. b) power levers. c) second-class levers. d) third-class levers.
d) third-class levers.
Opening a Na+ channel in a non-neural sensory receptor cell would cause that cell to
decrease neurotransmitter release.
A molecule that prevents substance P from binding to its receptor would
decrease the perception of pain
Which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioles?
decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system Yes, a decrease in the activity of the sympathetic nervous system would result in decreased activity of vasomotor fibers, resulting in vasodilation.
If a patient had damage to the oval window, which would you expect to happen?
decreased fluid waves
The crossover of nerves that occurs in many nerve tracts, in which sensory information from one side of the body is delivered to the other side of the brain, and motor information from one side of the brain is delivered to muscles on the other side of the body, is called:
decussation
Lymphatic System
defends the body against infection and disease, returns tissue fluid to bloodstream
Which of the following is a factor that determines the rate of impulse propagation, or conduction velocity, along an axon?
degree of myelination of the axon the rate of impulse propagation depends largely on two factors, degree of myelination and axon diameter. The presence of a myelin sheath dramatically increases the rate of impulse (action potential) propagation. Heavily myelinated axons propagate impulses faster than lightly myelinated axons. Also, larger (thicker) axons conduct impulses faster than smaller (thinner) axons.
The __________ is a prime mover of the glenohumeral joint during flexion. teres major coracobrachialis deltoid biceps brachii
deltoid
Which of the following is a bone marking of the humerus?
deltoid tuberosity The deltoid tuberosity is a marking of the humerus. It is a roughened site where attachment to the deltoid muscle of the shoulder occurs.
Fetal: by end of 4th month, skin of fetus is
developed
The muscle that subdivides the ventral body cavity into the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the ________. internal oblique quadratus lumborum diaphragm transversus abdominis
diaohragm
Which is(are) the most important muscle(s) of inspiration (inhalation)? internal intercostals rectus abdominis diaphragm external intercostals
diaphragm
Which of the following muscles is innervated by the phrenic nerve? external intercostals sternocleidomastoid muscles internal intercostals diaphragm
diaphragm
osmosis
diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane
simple diffusion
diffusion where nonpolar and lipid soluble substances diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer
Frontal/Coronal
divides body into anterior and posterior
Isotonic
do not cause osmotic flow across membrane
Saturated fatty acids
each carbon in the tail has four attached hydrogens
A muscle that is lengthening while it produces tension is performing a(n) __________ contraction.
eccentric During isotonic, eccentric contractions, muscle lengthens as it generates tension, but not enough force, to overcome the load. We use eccentric contractions to lower objects (such as lowering a book from the shelf or lowering the barbell during a bench press).
Binding of the neurotransmitter to its receptor causes the membrane to __________.
either depolarize or hyperpolarize Yes, the neurotransmitter can cause the postsynaptic membrane to either depolarize or hyperpolarize, depending on which ion channels are opened.
Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it its characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of extensibility?
elastic (titin) filaments
Neutrons
electrically neutral (uncharged)
Which of the following is NOT associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
emergency action
Peritioneal Cavity
enclosed by abdominopelvic cavity and is lined by serous membrane - called peritoneum
Which neurotransmitter(s) is/are the body's natural pain killer?
endorphins Endorphins are natural opiates that inhibit substance P, the neurotransmitter that mediates pain transmission in the peripheral nervous system.
What is the functional role of the T tubules?
enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain?
ependymal cells
ependymal cells
ependymal cells line central cavities of the CNS. Much as the cilia of respiratory epithelium moves mucous along the surface of the tissue layer, the cilia of ependymal cells help circulate the cerebrospinal fluid that nourishes and cushions the brain and spinal cord.
Growth of a long bone occurs at a(n)________ plate.
epiphyseal
neutrophil, monocytes
examples of phagocytes
Which membrane potential occurs because of the influx of Na+ through chemically gated channels in the receptive region of a neuron?
excitatory postsynaptic potential An excitatory postsynaptic potential, a type of graded potential, occurs because of the influx of Na+ through chemically gated channels in the receptive region, or postsynaptic membrane, of a neuron. Graded potentials are generated by chemically gated channels, whereas action potentials are produced by voltage-gated channels.
The extensor muscle that branches to form four tendons on the back of the hand is the __________. extensor carpi radialis brevis extensor carpi radialis longus extensor ulnaris extensor digitorum
extensor digitorum
The prime mover of wrist extension is the __________. extensor carpi radialis longus extensor carpi ulnaris extensor carpi radialis brevis extensor digitorum
extensor digitorum
The two muscles that insert on the fifth phalanx or on the fifth metatarsal are the __________. extensor digitorum longus and fibularis longus extensor digitorum longus and fibularis tertius fibularis tertius and extensor hallucis longus fibularis longus and extensor hallucis longus
extensor digitorum longus and fibularis tertius
The brain is a solid organ that lacks cavities. True False
false
The cerebellum is present on the ventral surface of the sheep brain. True False
false
Addition of more mitochondria to a muscle fiber will have the least effect on ________.
fast glycolytic fibers
Addition of more myoglobin to a muscle fiber would have the largest effect on ________.
fast oxidative and slow oxidative fibers
The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________.
feet
The lateral rotators act on the __________. femur sacrum lumbar vertebrae os coxae
femur
The largest and strongest bone in the body is the ________.
femur The femur is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body. Its durable structure reflects the stress exerted on the femur as it bears the weight of the body when standing, walking, or running.
Which of these would you NOT find in the cerebral cortex?
fiber tracts
Eversion of the foot is a function of the __________. fibularis longus extensor hallucis extensor digitorum tibialis anterior
fibularis longus Correct! The fibularis longus plantar flexes and everts the foot. Other muscles that also evert the foot include the fibularis tertius and the fibularis brevis.
atom level
first level of organization
The cell body of which sensory neuron may be located in a dorsal root ganglion or a cranial nerve ganglion?
first-order neuron
Which superficial flexor muscle of the forearm is the most lateral? palmaris longus flexor carpi ulnaris flexor digitorum superficialis flexor carpi radialis
flexor carpi radialis
Which muscle is a superficial anterior flexor muscle? flexor digitorum profundus flexor pollicis longus flexor digitorum superficialis flexor digiti minimi brevis
flexor digitorum superficialis
Which muscle of the wrist and fingers is a deep anterior flexor? flexor digitorum superficialis flexor carpi ulnaris flexor pollicis longus palmaris longus
flexor pollicis longus
UV light destroys?
folic acid •Necessary for DNA synthesis, so insufficient folic acid is especially dangerous for developing embryos
Epithelial Tissue
forms a barrier, covers every exposed body surfaces, lines the digestive, respiratory, reproductive, and urinary tracts, surrounds internal cavities, lines inner surfaces of blood vessels and heart, and produces glanddular secretions.
Which of the following is NOT an opening in a bone?
fossa
Bipolar neurons are commonly
found in the retina of the eye
Wrist abduction occurs through the actions of __________ muscles. two five four three
four
Abduction requires the action of two muscles, and adduction requires the action of __________. two muscles three muscles one muscle four muscles
four muscles
Which ventricle is located within the brain stem?
fourth ventricle
An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the
fovea
The pitch of a sound wave is related to its
frequency
Enhance gripping ability •Contribute to sense of touch •Sweat pores in ridges leave unique fingerprint pattern
friction ridges
At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in a ______.
frontal lobe
In the planning stage of somatic motor control, when a conscious decision is made to perform a specific movement, information is relayed from the __________ to the ___________; these areas then relay the information to the ___________ .
frontal lobes; motor association areas; cerebellum and basal nuclei
nucleus
function: Controls metabolism Stores and processes genetic information Controls protein synthesis
golgi apparatus
function: modify, concentrate, and package the proteins and lipids made at the rough ER and destined for export from the cell
chromatin
function: package DNA into a small volume to fit into the nucleus of a cell and protect the DNA structure and sequence. Allows for mitosis and meiosis
nuclear pores
function: passageways allowing chemical communication between nucleus and cytoplasm
nucleolus
function: rewrite ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and combine it with proteins. Transient nuclear organelles. Composed of RNA, enzymes, and histone proteins. Assemble RNA subunits.
nuclear envelope
function: selectively permeable membrane made of lipids, and encases the genetic material in eukaryotic cells
Cytoskeleton
functions as cell's skeleton provides internal protein framework gives cytoplasm strength and flexibility
joining virtually all cells in solid tissues
gap junction location
Inorganic
generally do not contain carbon & hydrogen ex. CO2, water, salts
The rotator cuff is a term used to describe the group of muscles and tendons that stabilize and reinforce the __________. pectoral girdle scapula elbow joint glenohumeral joint
glenohumeral joint
Which type of movement does NOT occur at the shoulder joint?
gliding
glycogen
glucose is brought into the cell and then made into ________
The prime mover of hip extension is the __________. gracilis gluteus maximus pectineus adductor magnus
gluteus maximus
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
glycolysis
What type of tissue makes up the cerebral cortex?
gray matter
Which of the following is NOT a correctly matched pair?
gray matter: myelinated axons
Appositional growth allows bones to __________.
grow in width
Most people are not actively aware of the sensation of clothes on their body throughout the day. This lack of awareness of the stimulus of clothing on the skin is due to which process?
habituation
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? gluteal muscles hamstring muscles brachioradialis soleus
hamstring muscles
Which parts of the body are the largest on the motor homunculus?
hands, face and tongue
transporters
have binding sites for ions/molecules
Nervous System
helps to maintain homeostasis, provides rapid control and regulation of activities, coordinates activities of other organ system
Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?
hinge joint
The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are destroyed, the result is widespread amnesia.
hippocampus
excessive hairiness
hirsutism
All the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles combine at which location? radial tuberosity scapula coranoid process humeral head
humeral head
phagocytosis
hunt and destroy foreign invaders
Which cartilage attaches the ribs to the sternum?
hyaline
Which cartilage forms the epiphyseal plate?
hyaline
Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing feature of a synovial joint?
hyaline cartilage connecting the two bones of the joint
Which of the following gives bone its strength and ability to withstand compression and protect?
hydroxyapatite crystals
The movable base of the tongue is the ________.
hyoid bone The hyoid bone acts as a movable base for the tongue. It is unique in that it is the only bone of the body that does not articulate directly with any other bone.
Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.
hyperextension
Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.
hypothalamus
Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
hypothalamus
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? iliopsoas and rectus femoris soleus biceps femoris vastus mediailis
iliopsoas and rectus femoris
The iliacus and the psoas major muscles are collectively known as the ____________ muscle because they share a common insertion on the __________ of the femur. iliopsoas; greater trochanter psoasiliacus; greater trochanter psoasiliacus; lesser trochanter iliopsoas; lesser trochanter
iliopsoas; lesser trochanter
Osteocyte
in lacunae; depend on diffusion w/in canaliculi for nutrient intake
endocytosis
in the process of _______________, extracellular ligands bound to their receptor on the cell surface are engulfed in a vesicle and travel to the inside of the cell.
Which of the following is not one of the effects of growth hormone on bones?
increase in the activity of osteoclast
Which of the following would NOT be a way that parathyroid hormone (PTH) could alter plasma calcium levels? (Which one of the following is FALSE?)
increase osteoblasts on bone
In certain diseases, osteoclast activity takes over osteoblast activity, which will cause the bone to
increase the breakdown of the ECM without it being rebuilt, leading to a weakening of the bone.
If blood pressure is increased at the arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with the activity level of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?
increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity Yes, the PNS activity would increase and the SNS activity would decrease in an attempt to lower blood pressure.
Photosensitivity is
increased reaction to sun •Some drugs (e.g., antibiotics, antihistamines) and perfumes cause photosensitivity, leading to skin rashes
The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.
increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
Most common disorders of the skin are?
infections
Which plexus does NOT receive innervation from the vagus nerve?
inferior hypogastric plexus
Tissue response to injury
inflammation & regneration; Injury affects diff. types of tissue simultaneously; Respond in a coordinated manner
The origin of the long head of the triceps brachii is on the __________. olecranon process of the ulna infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula posterior shaft of the humerus anterior shaft of the humerus
infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
Which of the following structures attach the pituitary gland to the brain? Optic chiasm Hypothalamus Infundibulum Pia mater
infundibulum
Visceral Peritoneum
inner layer of peritoneum
What component of the reflex arc determines the response to a stimulus?
integration center The integration center receives sensory information (input), determines the proper response, and then signals the appropriate effector(s) to produce the response.
Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly? diaphragm alone external intercostals and diaphragm internal intercostals and rectus abdominus rectus abdominis and diaphragm
internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates on the __________. medial cuneiform femur distal phalanges of digits 2-5 interosseous membrane
interosseous membrane
Flat bones such as the bones of the skull form via __________.
intramembranous ossification
active process
ions go against the concentration gradient to move into/out of the cell by using ATP (energy)
passive process
ions move down the concentration gradient and into/ out of the cell without requiring ATP (energy)
Raynaud's disease ________.
is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
Broca's area ________.
is considered a motor speech area
The hamstring muscles originate on the __________. medial surface of the tibia ischial tuberosity medial surface of the fibula lesser trochanter of the femur
ischial tuberosity
Neuroglia (supporting cells)
isolate and support neurons, forms supporting framework (glue)
If you touch the dorsal part of your hand near the thumb with the tip of a pencil, you may notice the sensation of cold, even though the pencil lead is at room temperature. What is this called?
labeled line coding
Small cavities that are located between lamellae and contain osteocytes are called __________.
lacunae
An origin of the supinator is the __________. lateral epicondyl of the humerus supinator crest of the humerus radius ulna
lateral epicondyl of the humerus
Which of the following ventricles is found under the corpus callosum? Fourth ventricle Fornix Lateral ventricles Third ventricle
lateral ventricle
Which ventricles are divided by the septum pellucidum?
lateral ventricles
Which of the following structure focuses light for clear vision?
lens
Sprains indicate damage to what joint component?
ligaments
Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction?
load on the fiber
Which of the following factors influence the velocity and duration of muscle contraction?
load placed on the muscle Speed (velocity) of shortening is a function of load and muscle-fiber type. Contraction is fastest when the load on the muscle is zero; a greater load results in a slower contraction and a shorter duration of contraction.
To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________. located in the same plane located anteriorly located distally located posteriorly
located in the same plane
Which shape of bone contains a medullary cavity and epiphyseal lines?
long
Cilia
long, slender plasma membrane extensions common in respiratory and reproductive tracts
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________.
loss of fine motor control
4-8 Tissue membrane
made from epithelia & connective tissue make up 4 types of barriers
Most facial bones articulate with the ________.
maxillary bones The maxillary bones (maxillae) are considered the keystone bones of the facial skeleton. They form the central part of the facial skeleton, articulating with all facial bones except the mandible.
An insertion of the fibularis longus is the __________. medial cuneiform distal phalanx of digit one base of metatarsal five base of metatarsal two
medial cuneiform
Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
medulla oblongata
Gray/white hair results when
melanin production decreases and air bubbles replace melanin in shaft
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the major spinal cord tracts (pathways)?
memory
Negative Feedback
minimizes a change or disturbance, effector opposes or negates the original stimulus, primary mechanism of homeostatic regluation in the body (ex. regulation when the body temp rises above 99 F)
Glandular epithelia
most cells produce secretions
Which of the following types of neurons carry impulses away from the central nervous system (CNS)?
motor Motor, or efferent, neurons carry impulses away from the CNS to the effector organs (muscles and glands) of the body periphery.
Which of the choices below describes the ANS?
motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
Each neuron shown in this figure innervates a group of muscle fibers. What is the term for a group of muscle fibers innervated by a single neuron?
motor unit
Cations
move toward negative terminal
Anions
move toward positive terminal
Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and few gap junctions?
multi unit smooth muscle
Saltatory propagation occurs in _________ axons, in which action potentials _________.
myelinated; move from one node of Ranvier to another Saltatory propagation is much faster than continuous propagation. The speed of propagation along an axon varies in two ways: 1) myelin sheaths limit the movement of ions across the axon membrane, thereby requiring the action potentials to "leap" from node to node during propagation, thus traveling at a greater speed; and 2) the diameter of the axon directly relates to the speed of propagation (i.e., the larger the diameter of the axon, the faster the speed of propagation).
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
myofibrils
Which net pressure draws fluid into the capillary?
net osmotic pressure Yes, the proteins exert colloid osmotic pressure, which draws fluid into the capillary.
All skin surfaces except and parts of contain sweat glands
nipples external genitalia
Skin can secrete limited amounts of
nitrogenous wastes, such as ammonia, urea, and uric acid
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
Activation of a ________ leads to the perception of pain and itch.
nociceptor
Damage to which nucleus is associated with changes in interpretation of fine touch and pressure from levels inferior to T6?
nucleus gracilis
Organic
nutrients always contain carbon and hydrogen ex. Sugars, fats, proteins
Translation
occurs in a structure called the ribosome, which is a factory for the synthesis of proteins
Which is an adequate stimulus for a chemoreceptor?
odorant molecule
Trans-membrane proteins
often span entire cell membrane then they are called as transmembrane proteins
The extension of the forebrain that receives odor input from the nose is the __________.
olfactory bulb
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ____
oligodendrocytes
In multiple sclerosis, the cells that are the target of an autoimmune attack are the _________.
oligodendrocytes Oligodendrocytes are a type of neuroglial cell that function to form the myelin sheath around the axons of neurons within the central nervous system.
Which of the following types of glial cells produces the myelin sheaths that insulate axons, or nerve fibers, in the central nervous system (CNS)?
oligodendrocytes Oligodendrocytes wrap their processes around the thicker axons in the CNS, producing an insulating covering called a myelin sheath that increases the transmission speed of nerve impulses.
Which of the following types of glial cells produces the myelin sheaths that insulate axons, or nerve fibers, in the central nervous system (CNS)?
oligodendrocytes Oligodendrocytes wrap their processes around the thicker axons in the CNS, producing an insulating covering called a myelin sheath that increases the transmission speed of nerve impulses.
Which movement is not associated with the scapula? protraction depression elevation opposition
opposition
If a patient had a problem that caused increased signaling in a ganglion cell, where else would you expect increased signaling?
optic nerve
Which of the following structures is not part of the central nervous system? Optic chiasm Mammillary body Optic nerve Optic tract
optic nerve
Retroperitoneal Organs
organs (ex. kidneys) lying posterior to the peritoneal membrance
Infraperitoneal
organs (ex. urinary bladder) lying inferior to the peritoneal cavity
The root word________means "bone."
osteo-
Which of the following are correctly matched?
osteoarthritis; chronic degenerative joint disease
A(n)________is an immature cell involved in bone formation.
osteoblast
Bone cells that are found in the endosteum and periosteum and build new bone matrix are called __________.
osteoblasts
Which type of cell is responsible for bone deposition?
osteoblasts
A tumor causing an increasing amount of parathyroid-hormone would cause
osteoclast activity to increase, making bones more susceptible to fractures.
The large, multinucleated cells responsible for bone resorption are called __________.
osteoclasts
Parietal Peritoneum
outer layer of peritoneum
Principal Elements
oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, chlorine, Magnesium, sulfar, iron, iodine
Alkaline (basic) pH
pH above 7 : Change in one unit is tenfold change in H ion concentration
Neutral pH
pH equal to 7 : With equal # of H ion and hydroxide ion
What is the subjective perception that occurs when nociceptors are stimulated?
pain
The palmaris longus inserts on the __________. palmar aponeurosis medial epicondyle of the humerus bodies of phalanges 2-5 bases of the second and third metacarpals
palmar aponeurosis
The vibration receptor whose nerve endings are surrounded by layers of connective tissue layers is the
pancinian corpuscle
Which division of the nervous system has long preganglionic neurons?
parasympathetic
Which of the following hormones does NOT cause bone growth?
parathyroid hormone
Integral proteins
part of cell membrane and cannot be removed without damaging cell
The root word________means "around."
peri-
The connective tissue that surrounds compact bone is the________.
periosteum
Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid bodies are mechanoreceptors that respond to the stretch in these arterial walls with changes in blood pressure. If pressure changes rapidly, the baroreceptors start a feedback mechanism that decreases blood pressure. However, if blood pressure changes slowly, as in developing hypertension, the receptors do not respond. Given this information, the baroreceptors are most likely which type of receptor?
phasic receptors
Red hair has additional
pheomelanin pigment
Which of the meninges is a delicate connective tissue membrane that clings tightly to the brain like cellophane wrap following its every convolution?
pia mater
Which of the following structures is/are found in the retina?
pigment epithelium, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, horizontal cells, photoreceptors, amacrine cells
Which of the following glands can be observed on the ventral surface of the sheep brain? Olfactory bulb Pineal gland Mammillary body Pituitary gland
pituitary gland
Pointing the toes is an example of ________.
plantar flexion
The most powerful movement at the ankle joint is __________, and the ________ is one of the prime movers of this movement. dorsiflexion; tibialis anterior plantar flexion; gastrocnemius dorsiflexion; gastrocnemius plantar flexion; tibialis anterior
plantar flexion; gastrocnemius
Which of the following regions of the brain stem serves as a bridge between the brain stem and the cerebellum?
pons
To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint. . popliteus semimembranosus biceps femoris sartorius
popliteus
Anatomical position
position: Standing up Hands at sides Head and Palms Facing forward Feet shoulder width facing forward
Protons (p+)
positive electrical charge
Fine-touch, vibration, pressure, and proprioception sensations are carried by the __________.
posterior columns
The fasciculus gracilis and the fasciculus cuneatus make up the:
posterior columns
The muscles that extend the forearm are located __________. medially laterally anteriorly posteriorly
posteriorly
Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?
prefrontal cortex (anterior association area)
In a synapse, neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles located in the __________.
presynaptic neuron Yes, neurotransmitters are stored in the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron.
Digestive System
processes food and absorbs nutrients, excretes waste
Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber's volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ________.
produce movement through contractile force
What is the primary function of wave summation?
produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
Hydroxide ion (OH-)
produced when water dissociates (along with H+)
Which type of movement is unique to the forearm?
pronation
NT
propagates electrical impulses, convey info from one area of the body to another; responds to stimuli & propagates electrical impulses through the body
The colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by __________.
proteins in the blood Yes, the non-diffusible proteins in the plasma exert the colloid osmotic pressure, which pulls fluid into the capillary.
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.
provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
Reproductive System
provides for the contunuity of life, produces sex cells and hormones.
Dysplasia of the hip may occur due to congenital malformation of the __________.
pubis The hip bone consists of three separate bones: ilium, ischium, and pubis. At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis is a deep hemispherical socket called the acetabulum on the lateal surface of the pelvis. The acetabulum receives the head of the femur, or thigh bone, at this hip joint. In dysplasia of the hip, the acetablulum forms incompletely or the ligaments of the hip joint are lose, so the head of the femur slips out of its socket.
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
pyramidal and corticospinal
The two longitudinal ridges on the medulla oblongata where many descending fibers cross over are called the ________.
pyramids
The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle come together distally to insert on the __________. deltoid tuberosity radial tuberosity styloid process of the radius ulnar tuberosity
radial tuberosity
The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle converge distally to insert on the __________. scapula ulnar notch radial tuberosity ulna
radial tuberosity
The interosseous membrane is located between the __________. humerus and radius ulna and the carpal bones of the wrist radius and ulna humerus and ulna
radius and ulna
Which cells release ATP when ligands bind to their membrane receptors, and in which sense are these cells involved?
receptor cells; taste
A graded potential within a sensory receptor cell is a(n)
receptor potential.
If both of the neurons in the figure were activated, more muscle fibers would contract than if either neuron alone were active. This mechanism for control of the force of muscle contraction is known as __________.
recruitment Recruitment refers to the increased force generated by the activation of increasing numbers of motor units.
Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
red blood cells
If a herniated disc in the lumbar region is treated by surgically removing the intervertebral disc and doing a bone graft between the adjoining vertebrae, one of the consequences might be _________.
reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back The intervertebral disc and space that it occupies provides room for vertebral bodies of adjacent vertebrae to flex and extend the vertebral column (spine).
cellular signaling
refers to chemical and contact between cells
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
refractory period
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic functions of the nervous system?
regulation of neurogenesis Most active during pre-natal development, neurogenesis (formation of neurons) is the process by which neurons are generated from neural stem cells. It is not one of the basic functions of the nervous system.
Excitation-contraction coupling includes all EXCEPT which of the following events?
release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction Release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction is an event that precedes excitation-contraction coupling, which begins with excitation of the T-tubules.
Some skin lotions contain enzymes that can
repair damaged DNA
Active transport
require energy molecule or ATP molecule or ATP to move a substance independent of concentration gradient
Compact bone forms concentric rings that make it extremely hard and strong to
resist stress and protect the inner spongy bone.
Responsiveness
responds to changes in their immediate environment
Which of these activities is most likely driven by parasympathetic innervation?
resting and digesting
The light of dawn and the buzz of an alarm clock lead to wakefulness through the ________.
reticular activating system
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.
reticular formation
Which neuron circuit pattern is involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as breathing?
reverberating circuit Reverberating circuits are involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as breathing, the sleep-wake cycle, and repetitive motor activities like walking. A signal travels through a chain of neurons, each feeding back to previous neurons in the pathway.
Which of the following circuit types is involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as the sleep-wake cycle, breathing, and certain motor activities (such as arm swinging when walking)?
reverberating circuits Reverberating circuits are involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as breathing, the sleep-wake cycle, and repetitive motor activities such as walking. A signal travels through a chain of neurons, each feeding back to previous neurons in the pathway.
Dendrites
ring impulses into the cell body
Hypoglossal nerves (XII)P
rovide voluntary motor control over tongue movements.
Although normally insignificant, which motor tracts can be important in maintaining motor control and muscle tone in the upper limbs if the lateral corticospinal tracts are damaged?
rubrospinal tracts
Slow oxidative muscle fibers are best suited for __________.
running a marathon
Sensations of the forces of gravity and linear acceleration are detected in the
saccule and utricle.
The piriformis originates on the __________ and inserts on the __________. ischium; greater trochanter of the femur ischium; lesser trochanter of the femur sacrum; greater trochanter of the femur sacrum; lesser trochanter of the femur
sacrum; greater trochanter of the femur
The type of joint between the carpal (trapezium) and the first metacarpal is a ________ joint.
saddle
Sweating can cause
salt and water loss
The node-to-node "jumping" regeneration of an action potential along a myelinated axon is called __________.
saltatory conduction Saltatory conduction is derived from the Latin word saltare, which means leaping.
The anterior muscles of the thigh that originate on the os coxae are __________. sartorius; rectus femoris rectus femoris; vastus medialis vastus lateralis; vastus medialis sartorius; vastus medialis
santorius; rectus femoris
The __________ shorten(s) during muscle contraction
sarcomere As actin slides over myosin, the z lines are pulled closer together, shortening the sarcomere.
Acne is usually an infectious inflammation of the
sebaceous glands, resulting in pimples (pustules)
Overactive sebaceous glands in infants can lead to
seborrhea, known as "cradle cap -Begins as pink, raised lesions on scalp that turn yellow/brown and flake off
The type of bone that has fully formed lamellae with regularly arranged collagen bundles and a higher percentage of inorganic matrix is classified as __________.
secondary bone
Endocrine System
secretes chemical messengers, directs long-term changes in other system
Which of the following is NOT a normal function of muscle tissue?
secreting hormones
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
secretion
plasma membrane
selectively permeable barrier separating inside of cell from extracellular fluid 1: Phospholipid bilayer 2: Proteins 3: Glycocalyx function: protect the cell from its surroundings
Which structures contain receptors that detect rotation of the head?
semicircular canals
Receptor (thermometer)
sensitive to environmental change, detects a particular stimulus
three main functions of the nervous system
sensory Input(receptors), Integration(control center), Motor Output(effector
Which pattern of neural processing works in a predictable, all-or-nothing manner, where reflexes are rapid and automatic responses to stimuli in which a particular stimulus always causes the same response?
serial processing In serial processing, the whole system works in a predictable, all-or-nothing manner. One neuron stimulates the next, which stimulates the next, and so on, eventually causing a specific, anticipated response. The most clear-cut examples of serial processing are spinal reflexes - rapid, automatic responses to stimuli in which a particular stimulus always causes the same response.
tight junctions
series of integral protein molecules in plasma membranes of adjacent cells that fuse together forming an impermeable junction that incircles the cell
Bones located within tendons, such as the patella, are called __________.
sesamoid bones
Synovial joints are classified into six main categories based on __________.
shape of articular surfaces
Which joint has sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement?
shoulder
Which type of muscle requires voluntary nervous stimulation for activation?
skeletal In order to contract, skeletal muscle fibers must be voluntarily stimulated by the nervous system. The site of muscle stimulation, where the nerve fiber communicates with the muscle fiber, is called the neuromuscular junction.
Hyperpolarization results from __________.
slow closing of voltage-gated K+ channels Yes, the slow closing of the voltage-gated K+ channels means that more K+ is leaving the cell, making it more negative inside.
Atoms
smallest stable units of matter
Oxygen starved tissues can release chemical signals into the blood that can change the diameter of nearby blood vessels delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. In doing so the blood vessels will respond through vasodilation (widening of the vessel). Which muscle type is responsible for this vasodilation?
smooth muscle
Why is the body position of both a post-surgical patient and the caregiver critical in performing a safe patient move from bed to chair? so that lifting leverage can be properly applied because patients are not expected to exert any effort so that the caregiver can support patient's full body weight so that surgical wound stitches are not pulled apart
so that lifting leverage can be properly applied
G protein coupled receptors
specialized proteins with the ability to bind the nucleotides guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and guanosine diphosphate (GDP)
Neural Tissue
specialized to carry info or instructions within the body by conducting impulses
Which bone serves as an enclosure for the pituitary gland?
sphenoid bone The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone serves as an enclosure for the pituitary gland.
In ascending tracts, the cell bodies of second-order neurons are located in the:
spinal cord or brain stem
1. interphase 2. prophase 3. metaphase 4. anaphase 5. telophase 6. cytokinesis
stages of mitosis
The major head flexor muscles are the ________. erector spinae muscles pectoralis major muscles sternocleidomastoid muscles scalene muscles
sternocleidoastoid muscles
Which of the following muscles is named for its origin and insertion? gluteus maximus trapezius deltoid sternocleidomastoid
sternocleigomastoid
What is the bone commonly known as the breastbone?
sternum
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Which stimulus activates Ruffini corpuscles in the skin?
stretch
Which reflex requires gamma motor neurons to set the length of the muscle?
stretch reflex
Extreme stretching of skin can cause dermal tears, leaving silvery white scars called
striae -Also known as "stretch marks"
mitochondrion
structure: threadlike or lozenge shaped membranous organelles function: Produces 95 percent of cellular ATP
Microscopic Anatomy
study of structures that cannot be seen without magnification ex cellular structure of the heart wall
Element
substance composed only of atoms with same atomic number
Which of the following is NOT a diencephalon component?
superior colliculus
Downward dislocation of the humerus from the glenohumeral joint when carrying weight is prevented by the __________. supraspinatus muscle teres minor muscle infraspinatus muscle subscapularis muscle
supraspinatus muscle
Fibrous joints are classified as ________.
sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
A joint united by fibrocartilage tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.
symphysis
Which of the following are correctly paired?
synchondrosis; a plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones
Which of the following represents a structural classification for joints that are separated by a joint cavity?
synovial
Transcription ("to copy" or "rewrite")
takes place in the nucleus, produces RNA from DNA template. Separation of DNA into RNA
REM sleep is associated with ________.
temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
The posterior scapular muscle that crosses the glenohumeral joint is the __________. teres major teres minor latissimus dorsi pectoralis major
teres major
Which of the following muscles assists during extension of the glenohumeral joint, but is not as a prime mover? deltoid teres major latissimus dorsi biceps brachii
teres major
Which muscle is not part of the rotator cuff? teres minor muscle infraspinatus muscle supraspinatus muscle teres major muscle
teres major muscle
Which of the following releases the neurotransmitter norepinephrine?
terminus of a sympathetic postganglionic neuron
Which of these is NOT a dietary factor that influences bone remodeling?
testosterone
Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________.
thalamus
Which part of the CNS sorts almost all of the ascending sensory information?
thalamus
When a sarcomere contracts and thin filaments move over thick filaments you would expect to see ________.
the I bands to appear smaller
Which deep posterior extensor of the wrist originates on the radius and ulna and interosseous membrane? the extensor indicis the abductor pollicis longus the extensor pollicis brevis the extensor pollicis longus
the abductor pollicis longus
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body
Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to joint stability?
the amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity
Homeostasis
the body's ability to maintain relative internal environment even when the outside is constantly changing
What factor would account for a strong synovial joint?
the deepest articular surface
What is the major factor controlling how levers work? the direction the load is being moved the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum the weight of the load the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever
the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
Which criterion is used to functionally classify neurons?
the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system Functional classification groups neurons according to the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system. Based on this criterion, there are sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.
Which criterion is used to functionally classify neurons?
the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system Functional classification groups neurons according to the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system. Based on this criterion, there are sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead? the frontal belly of the epicranius the temporalis the zygomaticus major the medial pterygoid
the frontal belly of the epicranius
An action potential in one segment of axon causes adjacent sections of axon membrane to reach threshold through what mechanism?
the generation of local currents An action potential at the axon hillock generates local currents that depolarize nearby sections of axon to threshold. This change in membrane potential causes voltage-gated Na+ channels to open in the adjacent axon segment. This (re)generates the action potential in the adjacent segment, causing the action potential to propagate away from the axon hillock.
An individual with a "double-jointed" thumb can pull it back towards the wrist much farther than normal. What does it mean to be "double-jointed?"
the joint capsules and ligaments are more stretchy and loose than normal
diffusion
the net passive movement of particles (atoms, ions or molecules) from a region in which they are in higher concentration to regions of lower concentration
Absolute refractory period
the neuron cannot respond to another stimulus no matter how strong
The repolarization phase of an action potential results from __________.
the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels Yes, as the voltage-gated K+ channels open, K+ rushes out of the cell, causing the membrane potential to become more negative on the inside, thus repolarizing the cell.
The contractile, or functional, unit of a muscle fiber is __________.
the sarcomere The sarcomere is the contractile unit of a muscle fiber and the smallest functional unit of muscle. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z discs; it primarily consists of thin and thick myofilaments.
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.
the site of calcium regulation differs
Which of the following allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles?
the somatic nervous system The somatic nervous system is composed of somatic motor nerve fibers that conduct impulses from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles. It is often referred to as the voluntary nervous system because it allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles.
Which of the following allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles?
the somatic nervous system The somatic nervous system is composed of somatic motor nerve fibers that conduct impulses from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles. It is often referred to as the voluntary nervous system because it allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles.
During testing of a young girl, a doctor found an elevated level of estrogen caused by a tumor. He informed the parents to expect
the young girl to show significant growth in a very short period but her overall height to be less than average.
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Vision is especially acute in the fovea and surrounding macula because of a high density of cone cells and because __________.
there are no neurons covering the cones
Exergonic (exo-, outside) reactions
there is an overall net release of energy
proteins
these sense change in voltage in the cell and open the gate for ion channels
Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle?
they exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
Infancy to adulthood, skin
thickens and accumulates more subcutaneous fat; sweat and sebaceous gland activity increases, leading to acne
Most skeletal muscles of the body act in ________. first-class lever systems power lever systems third-class lever systems second-class lever systems
third-class lever systems
The axon of which type of neuron carries sensory information from the thalamus to the proper region of the cerebral cortex?
third-order neuron
A potential benefit of recruiting slow oxidative fibers for contraction before recruiting fast oxidative and fast glycolytic fibers might be ________.
this will help to allow for fine control with delicate contractile force with a small stimulus
Outflow of the sympathetic division occurs from which regions of the CNS?
thoracic and lumbar
The prime mover of dorsiflexion is the __________. extensor digitorum longus fibularis tertius tibialis anterior extensor hallucis longus
tibialis anterior
The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major
to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
In thick skin, dermal papillae lie on
top of dermal ridges, which give rise to epidermal ridges
antiporter
transports chemicals in opposite directions
symporter
transports chemicals in the same direction
The arch that runs obliquely from one side of the foot to the other is the ________.
transverse arch The transverse arch runs obliquely from one side of the foot to the other. It follows the line made by the joints between the tarsals and metatarsals.
The main forearm extensor is the ________. supinator palmaris longus triceps brachii biceps brachii
triceps brachii
The main forearm extensor is the ________. triceps brachii supinator palmaris longus biceps brachii
triceps brachii
The prime mover of elbow extension is the __________. triceps brachii biceps brachii brachialis anconeus
triceps brachii
Which of the following terms is paired correctly with its description?
trochanter - large projection
The interaction between which protein and ion initiates contraction of skeletal muscle?
troponin; calcium ions When calcium ions bind to troponin, troponin changes shape and moves tropomyosin away from its inhibitory position. As a result, the energized myosin heads can bind to the actin molecules and begin the cross bridge cycle, which shortens the muscle fiber.
All three regions of the brain stem can be observed on the ventral surface of the brain. (true or false)
true
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced within the ventricles. False True
true
Extracellular matrix contains pockets of adipose cells true or false?
true
Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators. True False
true
The composition of gray matter includes neuron cell bodies. True False
true
The foramen magnum marks the border between the medulla oblongata and spinal cord. (true or false)
true
The inferior colliculi are part of the corpora quadrigemina. (true or false)
true
The ventricles are all interconnected. False True
true
White matter has a fatty consistency. False True
true
The ribs that attach to the sternum are called ________.
true ribs The superior seven rib pairs, called true ribs, attach directly to the sternum by individual costal cartilages.
Skin makes collagenase which aids in natural
turnover of collagen to prevent wrinkles
Which type of muscle is found in the wall of hollow organs?
unitary smooth muscle Smooth muscle is generally classified as either unitary smooth muscle or multi unit smooth muscle. The type of muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs is unitary smooth muscle.
Which of the following tracts do NOT cross over?
vestibulospinal tracts
Which of the following best describes the hypothalamus?
visceral control center of the body
The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.
visceral sensory area
Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the skeletal system?
vitamin storage and fluid homeostasis
resting membrane potential
voltage across the membrane -50 to -11 mv All cells are polarized Minus sign - indicates that the inside of a cell is negative compared to the outside Only exists at the membrane
An action potential releases neurotransmitter from a neuron by opening which of the following channels?
voltage-gated Ca2+ channels Yes, opening of these channels causes calcium to move into the axon terminal. Calcium inside the neuron causes the vesicles to merge with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft.
The depolarization phase of an action potential results from the opening of which channels?
voltage-gated Na+ channels Yes, when the voltage-gated Na+ channels open, Na+ rushes into the cell causing depolarization.
What are menisci (articular discs)?
wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity
chemical, physical, electrical
what are the 3 types of cell communication?
1. structure 2. take in nutrients 3. convert nutrients into energy 4. carry out specialized functions
what are the 4 main functions of cells?
secrete
what do glands do?
contract
what do muscles do?
70mv
what is the resting membrane potential?
Anion (negative ion)
when an atom gains an electron- gain net negative charge. stabilizing interactions of atoms- often form chemical bonds
Cation (positive ion)
when an atom looses an electron - gain net positive charge
Molecules
when atoms interact they produce larger, more complex structures.
Positive Feedback
when stimulus produces response that exaggarates or enhances original change (rather than oposing ot) this system, tends to produce extreme responses, does not restore homeostasis ex. blood clotting mechanism
innervation
where nervous tissue (neurons)make contact with and affect the activity in either muscles or glands
Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion for naming muscles? whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system the number of origins for the muscle the shape of the muscle the location of the muscle the locations of the muscle attachments
whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system
RBCs and neurons
which cells DO NOT regenerate?
endothelial cells
which type of cells line the digestive track
The group of fibers indicated by E represents which of the following?
white rami communicantes
Nerve Cells
with extensive branching provide huge surface area for communication
ABCD rule
•A: asymmetry; the two sides of the pigmented area do not match •B: border irregularity; exhibits indentations •C: color; contains several colors (black, brown, tan, sometimes red or blue) •D: diameter; larger than 6 mm (size of pencil eraser
-Least malignant and most common -Stratum basale cells proliferate and slowly invade dermis and hypodermis -Cured by surgical excision in 99% of cases
•Basal cell carcinoma
name some of the chemicals that have limited penetration of skin
•Lipid-soluble substances •Plant oleoresins (e.g., poison ivy) •Organic solvents (acetone, paint thinner) •Salts of heavy metals (lead, mercury) •Some drugs (nitroglycerin) •Drug agents (enhancers that help carry other drugs across skin)
