Med-Surg Exam 4(62,63,47,48)

7. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse that the medication therapy is effective? a. Thirst is recognized and fluid intake is appropriate. b. Weight has been the same for 3 weeks. c. Total white blood cell count is 6000 cells/mm3. d. Heart rate is 70 beats/min and regular.

ANS: D Hypothyroidism decreases body functioning and can result in effects such as bradycardia, confusion, and constipation. If a client's heart rate is bradycardic while on thyroid hormone replacement, this is an indicator that the replacement may not be adequate. Conversely, a heart rate above 100 beats/min may indicate that the client is receiving too much of the thyroid hormone. Thirst, fluid intake, weight, and white blood cell count do not represent a therapeutic response to this medication.

12. A client has been prescribed brinzolamide (Azopt). What assessment by the nurse requires consultation with the provider? a. Allergy to eggs b. Allergy to sulfonamides c. Use of contact lenses d. Use of beta blockers

ANS: B Brinzolamide is similar to sulfonamides, so an allergic reaction could occur. The other assessment findings are not related to brinzolamide.

13. While assessing a client with Graves' disease, the nurse notes that the client's temperature has risen 1° F. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Turn the lights down and shut the client's door. b. Call for an immediate electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Calculate the client's apical-radial pulse deficit. d. Administer a dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol).

ANS: A A temperature increase of 1° F may indicate the development of thyroid storm, and the provider needs to be notified. But before notifying the provider, the nurse should take measures to reduce environmental stimuli that increase the risk of cardiac complications. The nurse can then call for an ECG. The apical-radial pulse deficit would not be necessary, and Tylenol is not needed because the temperature increase is due to thyroid activity.

6. A client had a retinal detachment and has undergone surgical correction. What discharge instruction is most important? a. "Avoid reading, writing, or close work such as sewing." b. "Dim the lights in your house for at least a week." c. "Keep the follow-up appointment with the ophthalmologist." d. "Remove your eye patch every hour for eyedrops."

ANS: A After surgery for retinal detachment, the client is advised to avoid reading, writing, and close work because they cause rapid eye movements. Dim lights are not indicated. Keeping a postoperative appointment is important for any surgical client. The eye patch is not removed for eyedrops.

16. An emergency nurse cares for a client who is experiencing an acute adrenal crisis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain intravenous access. b. Administer hydrocortisone succinate (Solu-Cortef). c. Assess blood glucose. d. Administer insulin and dextrose.

ANS: A All actions are appropriate for the client with adrenal crisis. However, therapy is given intravenously, so the priority is to establish IV access. Solu-Cortef is the drug of choice. Blood glucose is monitored hourly and treatment is provided as needed. Insulin and dextrose are used to treat any hyperkalemia.

6. An older adult in the family practice clinic reports a decrease in hearing over a week. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess for cerumen buildup. b. Facilitate audiological testing. c. Perform tuning fork tests. d. Review the medication list.

ANS: A All options are possible actions for the client with hearing loss. The first action the nurse should take is to look for cerumen buildup, which can decrease hearing in the older adult. If this is normal, medications should be assessed for ototoxicity. Further auditory testing may be needed for this client.

1. A client has a corneal ulcer. What information provided by the client most indicates a potential barrier to home care? a. Chronic use of sleeping pills b. Impaired near vision c. Slightly shaking hands d. Use of contact lenses

ANS: A Antibiotic eyedrops are often needed every hour for the first 24 hours for corneal ulceration. The client who uses sleeping pills may not wake up each hour or may awaken unable to perform this task. This client might need someone else to instill the eyedrops hourly. Impaired near vision and shaking hands can both make administration of eyedrops more difficult but are not the most likely barriers. Contact lenses should be discarded.

13. A nurse is teaching a community group about preventing hearing loss. What instruction is best? a. Always wear a bicycle helmet. b. Avoid swimming in ponds or lakes. c. Don't go to fireworks displays. d. Use a soft cotton swab to clean ears.

ANS: A Avoiding head trauma is a practical way to help prevent hearing loss. Swimming can lead to hearing loss if the client has repeated infections. Fireworks displays are loud, but usually brief and only occasional. Nothing smaller than the client's fingertip should be placed in the ear canal.

1. A nurse is teaching a client about ear hygiene and health. What client statement indicates a need for further teaching? a. "A soft cotton swab is alright to clean my ears with." b. "I make sure my ears are dry after I go swimming." c. "I use good earplugs when I practice with the band." d. "Keeping my diabetes under control helps my ears."

ANS: A Clients should be taught not to put anything larger than their fingertip into their ears. Using a cotton swab, although soft, can cause damage to the ears and cerumen buildup. The other statements are accurate.

13. A nurse cares for a client with chronic hypercortisolism. Which action should the nurse take? a. Wash hands when entering the room. b. Keep the client in airborne isolation. c. Observe the client for signs of infection. d. Assess the client's daily chest x-ray.

ANS: A Excess cortisol reduces the number of circulating lymphocytes, inhibits maturation of macrophages, reduces antibody synthesis, and inhibits production of cytokines and inflammatory chemicals. As a result, these clients are at greater risk of infection and may not have the expected inflammatory manifestations when an infection is present. The nurse needs to take precautions to decrease the client's risk. It is not necessary to keep the client in isolation. The client does not need a daily chest x-ray.

4. A client does not understand why vision loss due to glaucoma is irreversible. What explanation by the nurse is best? a. "Because eye pressure was too high, the tissue died." b. "Glaucoma always leads to permanent blindness." c. "The traumatic damage to your eye was too great." d. "The infection occurs so quickly it can't be treated."

ANS: A Glaucoma is caused when the intraocular pressure becomes too high and stays high long enough to cause tissue ischemia and death. At that point, vision loss is permanent. Glaucoma does not have to cause blindness. Trauma can cause glaucoma but is not the most common cause. Glaucoma is not an infection.

15. A client has labyrinthitis and is prescribed antibiotics. What instruction by the nurse is most important for this client? a. Immediately report headache or stiff neck. b. Keep all follow-up appointments. c. Take the antibiotics with a full glass of water. d. Take the antibiotic on an empty stomach.

ANS: A Meningitis is a complication of labyrinthitis. The client should be taught to take all antibiotics as prescribed and to report manifestations of meningitis such as fever, headache, or stiff neck. Keeping follow-up appointments is important for all clients. Without knowing what antibiotic was prescribed, the nurse cannot instruct the client on how to take it.

17. A client is scheduled to have a tumor of the middle ear removed. What teaching topic is most important for the nurse to cover? a. Expecting hearing loss in the affected ear b. Managing postoperative pain c. Maintaining NPO status prior to surgery d. Understanding which medications are allowed the day of surgery

ANS: A Removal of an inner ear tumor will likely destroy hearing in the affected ear. The other teaching topics are appropriate for any surgical client.

12. A client hospitalized for a wound infection has a blood urea nitrogen of 45 mg/dL and creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the ordered antibiotics for ototoxicity. b. Explain how kidney damage causes hearing loss. c. Use ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain control. d. Teach that hearing loss is temporary.

ANS: A Some medications are known to be ototoxic. Diminished kidney function slows the excretion of drugs from the body, worsening the ototoxic effects. The nurse should assess the antibiotics the client is receiving for ototoxicity. The other options are not warranted.

12. A client with hyperaldosteronism is being treated with spironolactone (Aldactone) before surgery. Which precautions does the nurse teach this client? a. "Read the label before using salt substitutes." b. "Do not add salt to your food when you eat." c. "Avoid exposure to sunlight." d. "Take Tylenol instead of aspirin for pain."

ANS: A Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to control potassium levels. Its use can lead to hyperkalemia. Although the goal is to increase the client's potassium, unknowingly adding potassium can cause complications. Some salt substitutes are composed of potassium chloride and should be avoided by clients on spironolactone therapy. Depending on the client, he or she may benefit from a low-sodium diet before surgery, but this may not be necessary. Avoiding sunlight and Tylenol is not necessary.

7. A client had a myringotomy. The nurse provides which discharge teaching? a. Buy dry shampoo to use for a week. b. Drink liquids through a straw. c. Flying is not allowed for 1 month. d. Hot water showers will help the pain.

ANS: A The client cannot shower or get the head wet for 1 week after surgery, so using dry shampoo is a good suggestion. The other instructions are incorrect: straws are not allowed for 2 to 3 weeks, flying is not allowed for 2 to 3 weeks, and the client should not shower.

10. A client had proxymetacaine (Ocu-Caine) instilled in one eye in the emergency department. What discharge instruction is most important? a. Do not touch or rub the eye until it is no longer numb. b. Monitor the eye for any bleeding for the next day. c. Rinse the eye with warm saline solution at home. d. Use all the eyedrops as prescribed until they are gone.

ANS: A This drug is an ophthalmic anesthetic. The client can injure the numb eye by touching or rubbing it. Bleeding is not associated with this drug. The client should not be told to rinse the eye. This medication was given in the emergency department and is not prescribed for home use.

8. A client has a foreign body in the eye. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administering ordered antibiotics b. Assessing the client's visual acuity c. Obtaining consent for enucleation d. Removing the object immediately

ANS: A To prevent infection, antibiotics are provided. Visual acuity in the affected eye cannot be assessed. The client may or may not need enucleation. The object is only removed by the ophthalmologist.

4. A nurse has delegated applying a warm compress to a client's eye. What actions by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) warrant intervention by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Heating the wet washcloth in the microwave b. Holding the cloth on the client using an Ace wrap c. Turning the cloth so it remains warm on the client d. Using a clean washcloth for the compress e. Washing the hands on entering the client's room

ANS: A, B The washcloth should be warmed under running warm water. Microwaving it can lead to burns. Gentle pressure is used to hold the compress in place. The other actions are correct.

3. A client had cataract surgery. What instructions should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Call the doctor for increased pain. b. Do not bend over from the waist. c. Do not lift more than 10 pounds. d. Sexual intercourse is allowed. e. Use stool softeners to avoid constipation.

ANS: A, B, C, E The client should be taught to call the physician for increased pain as this might indicate infection or other complication. To avoid increasing intraocular pressure, clients are taught to not lift more than 10 pounds, to avoid bending at the waist, to avoid straining at stool, and to avoid sexual intercourse for a time after surgery.

4. A nurse assesses a client with hypothyroidism who is admitted with acute appendicitis. The nurse notes that the client's level of consciousness has decreased. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Infuse intravenous fluids. b. Cover the client with warm blankets. c. Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours. d. Maintain a patent airway. e. Administer oral glucose as prescribed.

ANS: A, B, D A client with hypothyroidism and an acute illness is at risk for myxedema coma. A decrease in level of consciousness is a symptom of myxedema. The nurse should infuse IV fluids, cover the client with warm blankets, monitor blood pressure every hour, maintain a patent airway, and administer glucose intravenously as prescribed.

6. A nurse assesses clients with potential endocrine disorders. Which clients are at high risk for adrenal insufficiency? (Select all that apply.) a. A 22-year-old female with metastatic cancer b. A 43-year-old male with tuberculosis c. A 51-year-old female with asthma d. A 65-year-old male with gram-negative sepsis e. A 70-year-old female with hypertension

ANS: A, B, D Metastatic cancer, tuberculosis, and gram-negative sepsis are primary causes of adrenal insufficiency. Active tuberculosis is a contributing factor for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. Hypertension is a key manifestation of Cushing's disease. These are not risk factors for adrenal insufficiency.

3. A client is scheduled for a tympanoplasty. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer preoperative antibiotics. b. Assess for allergies to local anesthetics. c. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart. d. Give ordered antivertigo medications. e. Teach that hearing improves immediately.

ANS: A, C Preoperatively, the nurse administers antibiotics and ensures that informed consent is on the chart. Local anesthetics can be used, but general anesthesia is used more often. Antivertigo medications are not used. Hearing will be decreased immediately after the operation until the ear packing is removed.

4. A client has a hearing aid. What care instructions does the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in the care of this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Be careful not to drop the hearing aid when handling. b. Soak the hearing aid in hot water for 20 minutes. c. Turn the hearing aid off when the client goes to bed. d. Use a toothpick to clean debris from the device. e. Wash the device with soap and a small amount of warm water.

ANS: A, C, D, E All these actions except soaking the hearing aid are proper instructions for the nurse to give to the UAP. While some water is used to clean the hearing aid, excessive wetting should be avoided.

2. A nurse assesses clients with potential endocrine disorders. Which clients are at high risk for hypopituitarism? (Select all that apply.) a. A 20-year-old female with benign pituitary tumors b. A 32-year-old male with diplopia c. A 41-year-old female with anorexia nervosa d. A 55-year-old male with hypertension e. A 60-year-old female who is experiencing shock f. A 68-year-old male who has gained weight recently

ANS: A, C, D, E Pituitary tumors, anorexia nervosa, hypertension, and shock are all conditions that can cause hypopituitarism. Diplopia is a manifestation of hypopituitarism, and weight gain is a manifestation of Cushing's disease and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. They are not risk factors for hypopituitarism.

1. A nursing student studying the auditory system learns about the structures of the inner ear. What structures does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Cochlea b. Epitympanum c. Organ of Corti d. Semicircular canals e. Vestibule

ANS: A, C, D, E The cochlea, organ of Corti, semicircular canals, and vestibule are all part of the inner ear. The epitympanum is in the middle ear.

1. A nurse assesses a client with anterior pituitary hyperfunction. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Protrusion of the lower jaw b. High-pitched voice c. Enlarged hands and feet d. Kyphosis e. Barrel-shaped chest f. Excessive sweating

ANS: A, C, D, E, F Anterior pituitary hyperfunction typically will cause protrusion of the lower jaw, deepening of the voice, enlarged hands and feet, kyphosis, barrel-shaped chest, and excessive sweating.

3. A nurse assesses a client who potentially has hyperaldosteronism. Which serum laboratory values should the nurse associate with this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Sodium: 150 mEq/L b. Sodium: 130 mEq/L c. Potassium: 2.5 mEq/L d. Potassium: 5.0 mEq/L e. pH: 7.28 f. pH: 7.50

ANS: A, C, E Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium. Hyperaldosteronism causes hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and acidosis are manifestations of adrenal insufficiency.

3. A nurse teaches a client with hyperthyroidism. Which dietary modifications should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased carbohydrates b. Decreased fats c. Increased calorie intake d. Supplemental vitamins e. Increased proteins

ANS: A, C, E The client is hypermetabolic and has an increased need for carbohydrates, calories, and proteins. Proteins are especially important because the client is at risk for a negative nitrogen balance. There is no need to decrease fat intake or take supplemental vitamins.

1. The nurse working in the ophthalmology clinic sees clients with eyelid and eye problems. What information should the nurse understand about these disorders? (Select all that apply.) a. A chalazion is an inflammation of an eyelid sebaceous gland. b. An ectropion is the eyelid turning inward. c. An entropion is the eyelid turning outward. d. A hordeolum is an infection of the eyelid sweat gland. e. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is caused by drugs or diseases.

ANS: A, D, E A chalazion is an inflammation of one of the sebaceous glands in the eyelid. A hordeolum is an infection of a sweat gland in the eyelid. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca can be caused by drugs or diseases. An ectropion is an outward turning and sagging eyelid, while an entropion is an inward turning of the eyelid.

5. A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed an unsealed radioactive isotope. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's education? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not share utensils, plates, and cups with anyone else." b. "You can play with your grandchildren for 1 hour each day." c. "Eat foods high in vitamins such as apples, pears, and oranges." d. "Wash your clothing separate from others in the household." e. "Take a laxative 2 days after therapy to excrete the radiation."

ANS: A, D, E A client who is prescribed an unsealed radioactive isotope should be taught to not share utensils, plates, and cups with anyone else; to avoid contact with pregnant women and children; to avoid eating foods with cores or bones, which will leave contaminated remnants; to wash clothing separate from others in the household and run an empty cycle before washing other people's clothing; and to take a laxative on days 2 and 3 after receiving treatment to help excrete the contaminated stool faster.

7. A nurse assesses a client with Cushing's disease. Which assessment findings should the nurse correlate with this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Moon face b. Weight loss c. Hypotension d. Petechiae e. Muscle atrophy

ANS: A, D, E Clinical manifestations of Cushing's disease include moon face, weight gain, hypertension, petechiae, and muscle atrophy.

5. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed vasopressin (DDAVP) for diabetes insipidus. Which assessment findings indicate a therapeutic response to this therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Urine output is increased. b. Urine output is decreased. c. Specific gravity is increased. d. Specific gravity is decreased. e. Urine osmolality is increased. f. Urine osmolality is decreased.

ANS: A, D, F Diabetes insipidus causes urine output to be greatly increased, with a low urine osmolality, as evidenced by a low specific gravity. Effective treatment results in decreased urine output that is more concentrated, as evidenced by an increased specific gravity.

14. A nurse is seeing clients in the ophthalmology clinic. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with intraocular pressure reading of 24 mm Hg b. Client who has had cataract surgery and has worsening vision c. Client whose red reflex is absent on ophthalmologic examination d. Client with a tearing, reddened eye with exudate

ANS: B After cataract surgery, worsening vision indicates an infection or other complication. The nurse should see this client first. The intraocular pressure is slightly elevated. An absent red reflex may indicate cataracts. The client who has the tearing eye may have an infection.

14. After teaching a client who is recovering from a complete thyroidectomy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional instruction? a. "I may need calcium replacement after surgery." b. "After surgery, I won't need to take thyroid medication." c. "I'll need to take thyroid hormones for the rest of my life." d. "I can receive pain medication if I feel that I need it."

ANS: B After the client undergoes a thyroidectomy, the client must be given thyroid replacement medication for life. He or she may also need calcium if the parathyroid is damaged during surgery, and can receive pain medication postoperatively.

7. After teaching a client who is recovering from an endoscopic trans-nasal hypophysectomy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will wear dark glasses to prevent sun exposure." b. "I'll keep food on upper shelves so I do not have to bend over." c. "I must wash the incision with peroxide and redress it daily." d. "I shall cough and deep breathe every 2 hours while I am awake."

ANS: B After this surgery, the client must take care to avoid activities that can increase intracranial pressure. The client should avoid bending from the waist and should not bear down, cough, or lie flat. With this approach, there is no incision to clean and dress. Protection from sun exposure is not necessary after this procedure.

13. A client is brought to the emergency department after a car crash. The client has a large piece of glass in the left eye. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer a tetanus booster shot. b. Ensure the client has a patent airway. c. Prepare to irrigate the client's eye. d. Turn the client on the unaffected side.

ANS: B Airway always comes first. After ensuring a patent airway and providing cervical spine precautions (do not turn the client to the side), the nurse provides other care that may include administering a tetanus shot. The client's eye may or may not be irrigated.

12. A nurse cares for a client newly diagnosed with Graves' disease. The client's mother asks, "I have diabetes mellitus. Am I responsible for my daughter's disease?" How should the nurse respond? a. "The fact that you have diabetes did not cause your daughter to have Graves' disease. No connection is known between Graves' disease and diabetes." b. "An association has been noted between Graves' disease and diabetes, but the fact that you have diabetes did not cause your daughter to have Graves' disease." c. "Graves' disease is associated with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, but not with a disease such as diabetes mellitus." d. "Unfortunately, Graves' disease is associated with diabetes, and your diabetes could have led to your daughter having Graves' disease."

ANS: B An association between autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes mellitus has been noted. The predisposition is probably polygenic, and the mother's diabetes did not cause her daughter's Graves' disease. The other statements are inaccurate.

9. A nurse assesses clients for potential endocrine disorders. Which client is at greatest risk for hyperparathyroidism? a. A 29-year-old female with pregnancy-induced hypertension b. A 41-year-old male receiving dialysis for end-stage kidney disease c. A 66-year-old female with moderate heart failure d. A 72-year-old male who is prescribed home oxygen therapy

ANS: B Clients who have chronic kidney disease do not completely activate vitamin D and poorly absorb calcium from the GI tract. They are chronically hypocalcemic, and this triggers overstimulation of the parathyroid glands. Pregnancy-induced hypertension, moderate heart failure, and home oxygen therapy do not place a client at higher risk for hyperparathyroidism.

1. A nurse assesses clients for potential endocrine dysfunction. Which client is at greatest risk for a deficiency of gonadotropin and growth hormone? a. A 36-year-old female who has used oral contraceptives for 5 years b. A 42-year-old male who experienced head trauma 3 years ago c. A 55-year-old female with a severe allergy to shellfish and iodine d. A 64-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes mellitus

ANS: B Gonadotropin and growth hormone are anterior pituitary hormones. Head trauma is a common cause of anterior pituitary hypofunction. The other factors do not increase the risk of this condition.

11. A nurse cares for a client with adrenal hyperfunction. The client screams at her husband, bursts into tears, and throws her water pitcher against the wall. She then tells the nurse, "I feel like I am going crazy." How should the nurse respond? a. "I will ask your doctor to order a psychiatric consult for you." b. "You feel this way because of your hormone levels." c. "Can I bring you information about support groups?" d. "I will close the door to your room and restrict visitors."

ANS: B Hypercortisolism can cause the client to show neurotic or psychotic behavior. The client needs to know that these behavior changes do not reflect a true psychiatric disorder and will resolve when therapy results in lower and steadier blood cortisol levels. The client needs to understand this effect and does not need a psychiatrist, support groups, or restricted visitors at this time.

10. A nurse plans care for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Ask the client to ambulate in the hallway twice a day. b. Use a lift sheet to assist the client with position changes. c. Provide the client with a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care. d. Instruct the unlicensed assistive personnel to strain the client's urine for stones.

ANS: B Hyperparathyroidism causes increased resorption of calcium from the bones, increasing the risk for pathologic fractures. Using a lift sheet when moving or positioning the client, instead of pulling on the client, reduces the risk of bone injury. Hyperparathyroidism can cause kidney stones, but not every client will need to have urine strained. The priority is preventing injury. Ambulating in the hall and using a soft toothbrush are not specific interventions for this client.

1. A nurse assesses a client with hyperthyroidism who is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a side effect of this therapy? a. Blurred and double vision b. Increased thirst and urination c. Profuse nausea and diarrhea d. Decreased attention and insomnia

ANS: B Lithium antagonizes antidiuretic hormone and can cause symptoms of diabetes insipidus. This manifests with increased thirst and urination. Lithium has no effect on vision, gastric upset, or level of consciousness.

2. An older client has decided to give up driving due to cataracts. What assessment information is most important to collect? a. Family history of visual problems b. Feelings related to loss of driving c. Knowledge about surgical options d. Presence of family support

ANS: B Loss of driving is often associated with loss of independence, as is decreasing vision. The nurse should assess how the client feels about this decision and what its impact will be. Family history and knowledge about surgical options are not related as the client has made a decision to decline surgery. Family support is also useful information, but it is most important to get the client's perspective on this change.

10. A nurse is caring for a client who was prescribed high-dose corticosteroid therapy for 1 month to treat a severe inflammatory condition. The client's symptoms have now resolved and the client asks, "When can I stop taking these medications?" How should the nurse respond? a. "It is possible for the inflammation to recur if you stop the medication." b. "Once you start corticosteroids, you have to be weaned off them." c. "You must decrease the dose slowly so your hormones will work again." d. "The drug suppresses your immune system, which must be built back up."

ANS: B One of the most common causes of adrenal insufficiency, a life-threatening problem, is the sudden cessation of long-term, high-dose corticosteroid therapy. This therapy suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis and must be withdrawn gradually to allow for pituitary production of adrenocorticotropic hormone and adrenal production of cortisol. Decreasing hormone therapy slowly ensures self-production of hormone, not hormone effectiveness. Building the client's immune system and rebound inflammation are not concerns related to stopping high-dose corticosteroids.

15. A nurse teaches a client with a cortisol deficiency who is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's instructions? a. "You will need to learn how to rotate the injection sites." b. "If you work outside in the heat, you may need another drug." c. "You need to follow a diet with strict sodium restrictions." d. "Take one tablet in the morning and two tablets at night."

ANS: B Steroid dosage adjustment may be needed if the client works outdoors and might be difficult, especially in hot weather, when the client is sweating a great deal more than normal. Clients take prednisone orally, have no need for a salt restriction, and usually start the regimen with two tablets in the morning and one at night.

3. A nurse cares for a male client with hypopituitarism who is prescribed testosterone hormone replacement therapy. The client asks, "How long will I need to take this medication?" How should the nurse respond? a. "When your blood levels of testosterone are normal, the therapy is no longer needed." b. "When your beard thickens and your voice deepens, the dose is decreased, but treatment will continue forever." c. "When your sperm count is high enough to demonstrate fertility, you will no longer need this therapy." d. "With age, testosterone levels naturally decrease, so the medication can be stopped when you are 50 years old."

ANS: B Testosterone therapy is initiated with high-dose testosterone derivatives and is continued until virilization is achieved. The dose is then decreased, but therapy continues throughout life. Therapy will continue throughout life; therefore, it will not be discontinued when blood levels are normal, at the age of 50 years, or when sperm counts are high.

2. The student nurse is performing a Weber tuning fork test. What technique is most appropriate? a. Holding the vibrating tuning fork 10 to 12 inches from the client's ear b. Placing the vibrating fork in the middle of the client's head c. Starting by placing the vibrating fork on the mastoid process d. Tapping the vibrating tuning fork against the bridge of the nose

ANS: B The Weber tuning fork test includes placing the vibrating tuning fork in the middle of the client's head and asking in which ear the client hears the vibrations louder. The other techniques are incorrect.

5. A nurse cares for a client who presents with bradycardia secondary to hypothyroidism. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed to the client? a. Atropine sulfate b. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) c. Propranolol (Inderal) d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

ANS: B The treatment for bradycardia from hypothyroidism is to treat the hypothyroidism using levothyroxine sodium. If the heart rate were so slow that it became an emergency, then atropine or epinephrine might be an option for short-term management. Propranolol is a beta blocker and would be contraindicated for a client with bradycardia.

8. A nurse cares for a client who possibly has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The client's serum sodium level is 114 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Consult with the dietitian about increased dietary sodium. b. Restrict the client's fluid intake to 600 mL/day. c. Handle the client gently by using turn sheets for re-positioning. d. Instruct unlicensed assistive personnel to measure intake and output.

ANS: B With SIADH, clients often have dilutional hyponatremia. The client needs a fluid restriction, sometimes to as little as 500 to 600 mL/24 hr. Adding sodium to the client's diet will not help if he or she is retaining fluid and diluting the sodium. The client is not at increased risk for fracture, so gentle handling is not an issue. The client should be on intake and output; however, this will monitor only the client's intake, so it is not the best answer. Reducing intake will help increase the client's sodium.

2. A client has Ménière's disease with frequent attacks. About what drugs does the nurse plan to teach the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics b. Chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine) c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d. Meclizine (Antivert) e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

ANS: B, C, D Drugs such as chlorpromazine, diphenhydramine, and meclizine can all be used to treat Ménière's disease. Antibiotics and NSAIDs are not used.

6. A client is scheduled for a stapedectomy in 2 weeks. What teaching instructions are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid alcohol use before surgery. b. Blow the nose gently if needed. c. Clean the telephone often. d. Sneeze with the mouth open. e. Wash the external ear daily.

ANS: B, C, D, E It is imperative that the client having a stapedectomy is free from ear infection. Teaching includes ways to prevent such infections, such as blowing the nose gently, cleaning objects that come into contact with the ear, sneezing with the mouth open, and washing the external ear daily. Avoiding alcohol will not help prevent ear infections.

1. A nurse evaluates the following laboratory results for a client who has hypoparathyroidism: Calcium 7.2 mg/dL Sodium 144 mEq/L Magnesium 1.2 mEq/L Potassium 5.7 mEq/L Based on these results, which medications should the nurse anticipate administering? (Select all that apply.) a. Oral potassium chloride b. Intravenous calcium chloride c. 3% normal saline IV solution d. 50% magnesium sulfate e. Oral calcitriol (Rocaltrol)

ANS: B, D The client has hypocalcemia (treated with calcium chloride) and hypomagnesemia (treated with magnesium sulfate). The potassium level is high, so replacement is not needed. The client's sodium level is normal, so hypertonic IV solution is not needed. No information about a vitamin D deficiency is evident, so calcitriol is not needed.

4. A nurse teaches a client with Cushing's disease. Which dietary requirements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Low calcium b. Low carbohydrate c. Low protein d. Low calories e. Low sodium

ANS: B, D, E The client with Cushing's disease has weight gain, muscle loss, hyperglycemia, and sodium retention. Dietary modifications need to include reduction of carbohydrates and total calories to prevent or reduce the degree of hyperglycemia. Sodium retention causes water retention and hypertension. Clients are encouraged to restrict their sodium intake moderately. Clients often have bone density loss and need more calcium. Increased protein intake will help decrease muscle loss.

7. A client is admitted to the nursing unit after having a tympanoplasty. What activities does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer prescribed antibiotics. b. Keep the head of the client's bed flat. c. Remind the client to lie on the operative side. d. Remove the iodoform gauze in 8 hours. e. Take and record postoperative vital signs.

ANS: B, E The UAP can keep the head of the client's bed flat and take/record vital signs. The nurse administers medications. The client should lie flat with the head turned so the operative side is up. The nurse or surgeon removes the gauze packing.

5. A hospitalized client has Ménière's disease. What menu selections demonstrate good knowledge of the recommended diet for this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Chinese stir fry with vegetables b. Broiled chicken breast c. Chocolate espresso cookies d. Deli turkey sandwich and chips e. Green herbal tea with meals

ANS: B, E The diet recommendations for Ménière's disease include low-sodium, caffeine-free foods and fluids distributed evenly throughout the day. Plenty of water is also needed. The broiled chicken breast and herbal tea are the best selections. The stir fry is high in sodium and possibly monosodium glutamate (MSG, also not recommended). The cookies have caffeine, and the sandwich and chips are high in sodium.

15. A nurse plans care for a client who has hypothyroidism and is admitted for pneumonia. Which priority intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Monitor the client's intravenous site every shift. b. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) for fever. c. Ensure that working suction equipment is in the room. d. Assess the client's vital signs every 4 hours.

ANS: C A client with hypothyroidism who develops another illness is at risk for myxedema coma. In this emergency situation, maintaining an airway is a priority. The nurse should ensure that suction equipment is available in the client's room because it may be needed if myxedema coma develops. The other interventions are necessary for any client with pneumonia, but having suction available is a safety feature for this client.

5. A client has external otitis. On what comfort measure does the nurse instruct the client? a. Applying ice four times a day b. Instilling vinegar-and-water drops c. Use of a heating pad to the ear d. Using a home humidifier

ANS: C A heating pad on low or a warm moist pack can provide comfort to the client with otitis externa. The other options are not warranted.

14. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a hypophysectomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Keep the head of the bed flat and the client supine. b. Instruct the client to cough, turn, and deep breathe. c. Report clear or light yellow drainage from the nose. d. Apply petroleum jelly to lips to avoid dryness.

ANS: C A light yellow drainage or a halo effect on the dressing is indicative of a cerebrospinal fluid leak. The client should have the head of the bed elevated after surgery. Although deep breathing is important postoperatively, coughing should be avoided to prevent cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Although application of petroleum jelly to the lips will help with dryness, this instruction is not as important as reporting the yellowish drainage.

5. After teaching a client with acromegaly who is scheduled for a hypophysectomy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will no longer need to limit my fluid intake after surgery." b. "I am glad no visible incision will result from this surgery." c. "I hope I can go back to wearing size 8 shoes instead of size 12." d. "I will wear slip-on shoes after surgery to limit bending over."

ANS: C Although removal of the tissue that is oversecreting hormones can relieve many symptoms of hyperpituitarism, skeletal changes and organ enlargement are not reversible. It will be appropriate for the client to drink as needed postoperatively and avoid bending over. The client can be reassured that the incision will not be visible.

16. A client with Ménière's disease is in the hospital when the client has an attack of this disorder. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess vital signs every 15 minutes. b. Dim or turn off lights in the client's room. c. Place the client in bed with the upper siderails up. d. Provide a cool, wet cloth for the client's face.

ANS: C Clients with Ménière's disease can have vertigo so severe that they can fall. The nurse should assist the client into bed and put the siderails up to keep the client from falling out of bed due to the intense whirling feeling. The other actions are not warranted for clients with Ménière's disease.

4. The nurse works with clients who have hearing problems. Which action by a client best indicates goals for an important diagnosis have been met? a. Babysitting the grandchildren several times a week b. Having an adaptive hearing device for the television c. Being active in community events and volunteer work d. Responding agreeably to suggestions for adaptive devices

ANS: C Clients with hearing problems can become frustrated and withdrawn. The client who is actively engaged in the community shows the best evidence of psychosocial adjustment to hearing loss. Babysitting the grandchildren is a positive sign but does not indicate involvement outside the home. Having an adaptive device is not the same as using it, and watching TV without evidence of other activities can also indicate social isolation. Responding agreeably does not indicate the client will actually follow through.

9. A nurse plans care for a client with Cushing's disease. Which action should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to prevent injury? a. Pad the siderails of the client's bed. b. Assist the client to change positions slowly. c. Use a lift sheet to change the client's position. d. Keep suctioning equipment at the client's bedside.

ANS: C Cushing's syndrome or disease greatly increases the serum levels of cortisol, which contributes to excessive bone demineralization and increases the risk for pathologic bone fracture. Padding the siderails and assisting the client to change position may be effective, but these measures will not protect him or her as much as using a lift sheet. The client should not require suctioning.

8. A nurse cares for a client who has hypothyroidism as a result of Hashimoto's thyroiditis. The client asks, "How long will I need to take this thyroid medication?" How should the nurse respond? a. "You will need to take the thyroid medication until the goiter is completely gone." b. "Thyroiditis is cured with antibiotics. Then you won't need thyroid medication." c. "You'll need thyroid pills for life because your thyroid won't start working again." d. "When blood tests indicate normal thyroid function, you can stop the medication."

ANS: C Hashimoto's thyroiditis results in a permanent loss of thyroid function. The client will need lifelong thyroid replacement therapy. The client will not be able to stop taking the medication.

6. A nurse plans care for a client with hypothyroidism. Which priority problem should the nurse plan to address first for this client? a. Heat intolerance b. Body image problems c. Depression and withdrawal d. Obesity and water retention

ANS: C Hypothyroidism causes many problems in psychosocial functioning. Depression is the most common reason for seeking medical attention. Memory and attention span may be impaired. The client's family may have great difficulty accepting and dealing with these changes. The client is often unmotivated to participate in self-care. Lapses in memory and attention require the nurse to ensure that the client's environment is safe. Heat intolerance is seen in hyperthyroidism. Body image problems and weight issues do not take priority over mental status and safety.

14. A client has severe tinnitus that cannot be treated adequately. What action by the nurse is best? a. Advise the client to take antianxiety medication. b. Educate the client on nerve cutting procedures. c. Refer the client to online or local support groups. d. Teach the client side effects of furosemide (Lasix).

ANS: C If the client's tinnitus cannot be treated, he or she will have to learn to cope with it. Referring the client to tinnitus support groups can be helpful. The other options are not warranted.

2. A nurse plans care for a client with a growth hormone deficiency. Which action should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Avoid intramuscular medications. b. Place the client in protective isolation. c. Use a lift sheet to re-position the client. d. Assist the client to dangle before rising.

ANS: C In adults, growth hormone is necessary to maintain bone density and strength. Adults with growth hormone deficiency have thin, fragile bones. Avoiding IM medications, using protective isolation, and assisting the client as he or she moves from sitting to standing will not serve as safety measures when the client is deficient in growth hormone.

6. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The nurse notes nuchal rigidity. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Encourage range-of-motion exercises. b. Document the finding and monitor the client. c. Take vital signs, including temperature. d. Assess pain and administer pain medication.

ANS: C Nuchal rigidity is a major manifestation of meningitis, a potential postoperative complication associated with this surgery. Meningitis is an infection; usually the client will also have a fever and tachycardia. Range-of-motion exercises are inappropriate because meningitis is a possibility. Documentation should be done after all assessments are completed and should not be the only action. Although pain medication may be a palliative measure, it is not the most appropriate initial action.

3. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a subtotal thyroidectomy. On the second postoperative day the client states, "I feel numbness and tingling around my mouth." What action should the nurse take? a. Offer mouth care. b. Loosen the dressing. c. Assess for Chvostek's sign. d. Ask the client orientation questions.

ANS: C Numbness and tingling around the mouth or in the fingers and toes are manifestations of hypocalcemia, which could progress to cause tetany and seizure activity. The nurse should assess the client further by testing for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign. Then the nurse should notify the provider. Mouth care, loosening the dressing, and orientation questions do not provide important information to prevent complications of low calcium levels.

3. The client's chart indicates a sensorineural hearing loss. What assessment question does the nurse ask to determine the possible cause? a. "Do you feel like something is in your ear?" b. "Do you have frequent ear infections?" c. "Have you been exposed to loud noises?" d. "Have you been told your ear bones don't move?"

ANS: C Sensorineural hearing loss can occur from damage to the cochlea, the eighth cranial nerve, or the brain. Exposure to loud music is one etiology. The other questions relate to conductive hearing loss.

7. A client has been taught about retinitis pigmentosa (RP). What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Beta carotene, lutein, and zeaxanthin are good supplements." b. "I might qualify for a retinal transplant one day soon." c. "Since I'm going blind, sunglasses are not needed anymore." d. "Vitamin A has been shown to slow progression of RP."

ANS: C Sunglasses are needed to prevent the development of cataracts in addition to the RP. The other statements are accurate.

5. A client's intraocular pressure (IOP) is 28 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best? a. Educate the client on corneal transplantation. b. Facilitate scheduling the eye surgery. c. Plan to teach about drugs for glaucoma. d. Refer the client to local Braille classes.

ANS: C This increased IOP indicates glaucoma. The nurse's main responsibility is teaching the client about drug therapy. Corneal transplantation is not used in glaucoma. Eye surgery is not indicated at this time. Braille classes are also not indicated at this time.

9. A client who is near blind is admitted to the hospital. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Allow the client to feel his or her way around. b. Let the client arrange objects on the bedside table. c. Orient the client to the room using a focal point. d. Speak loudly and slowing when talking to the client.

ANS: C Using a focal point, orient the client to the room by giving descriptions of items as they relate to the focal point. Letting the client arrange the bedside table is a good idea, but not as important as orienting the client to the room for safety. Allowing the client to just feel around may cause injury. Unless the client is also hearing impaired, use a normal tone of voice.

2. A client is seen in the ophthalmology clinic with bacterial conjunctivitis. Which statements by the client indicate a good understanding of home management of this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. "As long as I don't wipe my eyes, I can share my towel." b. "Eye irrigations should be done with warm saline or water." c. "I will throw away all my eye makeup when I get home." d. "I won't touch the tip of the eyedrop bottle to my eye." e. "When the infection is gone, I can use my contacts again."

ANS: C, D Bacterial conjunctivitis is very contagious, and re-infection or cross-contamination between the client's eyes is possible. The client should discard all eye makeup being used at the time the infection started. When instilling eyedrops, the client must be careful not to contaminate the bottle by touching the tip to the eye or face. The client should be instructed not to share towels. Eye irrigations are not needed. Contacts being used when the infection first manifests also need to be discarded.

2. A nurse cares for a client with elevated triiodothyronine and thyroxine, and normal thyroid-stimulating hormone levels. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer levothyroxine (Synthroid). b. Administer propranolol (Inderal). c. Monitor the apical pulse. d. Assess for Trousseau's sign. e. Initiate telemetry monitoring.

ANS: C, E The client's laboratory findings suggest that the client is experiencing hyperthyroidism. The increased metabolic rate can cause an increase in the client's heart rate, and the client should be monitored for the development of dysrhythmias. Placing the client on a telemetry monitor might also be a precaution. Levothyroxine is given for hypothyroidism. Propranolol is a beta blocker often used to lower sympathetic nervous system activity in hyperthyroidism. Trousseau's sign is a test for hypocalcemia.

9. A nurse is teaching a community group about noise-induced hearing loss. Which client who does not use ear protection should the nurse refer to an audiologist as the priority? a. Client with an hour car commute on the freeway each day b. Client who rides a motorcycle to work 20 minutes each way c. Client who sat in the back row at a rock concert recently d. Client who is a tree-trimmer and uses a chainsaw 6 to 7 hours a day

ANS: D A chainsaw becomes dangerous to hearing after 2 hours of exposure without hearing protection. This client needs to be referred as the priority. Normal car traffic is safe for more than 8 hours. Motorcycle noise is safe for about 8 hours. The safe exposure time for a front-row rock concert seat is 3 minutes, but this client was in the back, and so had less exposure. In addition, a one-time exposure is less damaging than chronic exposure.

4. A nurse assesses a client on the medical-surgical unit. Which statement made by the client should alert the nurse to the possibility of hypothyroidism? a. "My sister has thyroid problems." b. "I seem to feel the heat more than other people." c. "Food just doesn't taste good without a lot of salt." d. "I am always tired, even with 12 hours of sleep."

ANS: D Clients with hypothyroidism usually feel tired or weak despite getting many hours of sleep. Thyroid problems are not inherited. Heat intolerance is indicative of hyperthyroidism. Loss of taste is not a manifestation of hypothyroidism.

3. A client is in the preoperative holding area waiting for cataract surgery. The client says "Oh, yeah, I forgot to tell you that I take clopidogrel, or Plavix." What action by the nurse is most important? a. Ask the client when the last dose was. b. Check results of the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). c. Document the information in the chart. d. Notify the surgeon immediately.

ANS: D Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet aggregate and could increase bleeding. The surgeon should be notified immediately. The nurse should find out when the last dose of the drug was, but the priority is to notify the provider. This drug is not monitored with PT and INR. Documentation should occur but is not the priority.

11. A nurse is irrigating a client's ear when the client becomes nauseated. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for client comfort? a. Have the client tilt the head back. b. Re-position the client on the other side. c. Slow the rate of the irrigation. d. Stop the irrigation immediately.

ANS: D During ear irrigation, if the client becomes nauseated, stop the procedure. The other options are not helpful.

11. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a parathyroidectomy. When taking the client's blood pressure, the nurse notes that the client's hand has gone into flexion contractions. Which laboratory result does the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Serum potassium: 2.9 mEq/L b. Serum magnesium: 1.7 mEq/L c. Serum sodium: 122 mEq/L d. Serum calcium: 6.9 mg/dL

ANS: D Hypocalcemia destabilizes excitable membranes and can lead to muscle twitches, spasms, and tetany. This effect of hypocalcemia is enhanced in the presence of tissue hypoxia. The flexion contractions (Trousseau's sign) that occur during blood pressure measurement are indicative of hypocalcemia, not the other electrolyte imbalances, which include hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and hypomagnesemia.

8. A client is going on a cruise but has had motion sickness in the past. What suggestion does the nurse make to this client? a. Avoid alcohol on the cruise ship. b. Change positions slowly on the ship. c. Change your travel plans. d. Try scopolamine (Transderm Scop).

ANS: D Scopolamine can successfully treat the vertigo and dizziness associated with motion sickness. Avoiding alcohol and changing positions slowly are not effective. Telling the client to change travel plans is not a caring suggestion.

4. A nurse cares for a client after a pituitary gland stimulation test using insulin. The client's post-stimulation laboratory results indicate elevated levels of growth hormone (GH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). How should the nurse interpret these results? a. Pituitary hypofunction b. Pituitary hyperfunction c. Pituitary-induced diabetes mellitus d. Normal pituitary response to insulin

ANS: D Some tests for pituitary function involve administering agents that are known to stimulate the secretion of specific pituitary hormones and then measuring the response. Such tests are termed stimulation tests. The stimulation test for GH or ACTH assessment involves injecting the client with regular insulin (0.05 to 1 unit/kg of body weight) and checking circulating levels of GH and ACTH. The presence of insulin in clients with normal pituitary function causes increased release of GH and ACTH.

2. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a total thyroidectomy and notes the development of stridor. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Reassure the client that the voice change is temporary. b. Document the finding and assess the client hourly. c. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and apply oxygen. d. Contact the provider and prepare for intubation.

ANS: D Stridor on exhalation is a hallmark of respiratory distress, usually caused by obstruction resulting from edema. One emergency measure is to remove the surgical clips to relieve the pressure. This might be a physician function. The nurse should prepare to assist with emergency intubation or tracheostomy while notifying the provider or the Rapid Response Team. Stridor is an emergency situation; therefore, reassuring the client, documenting, and reassessing in an hour do not address the urgency of the situation. Oxygen should be applied, but this action will not keep the airway open.

11. A client is taking timolol (Timoptic) eyedrops. The nurse assesses the client's pulse at 48 beats/min. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Ask the client about excessive salivation. b. Assess the client for shortness of breath. c. Give the drops using punctal occlusion. d. Hold the eyedrops and notify the provider.

ANS: D The nurse should hold the eyedrops and notify the provider because beta blockers can slow the heart rate. Excessive salivation can occur with cholinergic agonists. Shortness of breath is not related. If the drops are given, the nurse uses punctal occlusion to avoid systemic absorption.

10. A nursing student is instructed to remove a client's ear packing and instill eardrops. What action by the student requires intervention by the registered nurse? a. Assessing the eardrum with an otoscope b. Inserting a cotton ball in the ear after the drops c. Warming the eardrops in water for 5 minutes d. Washing the hands and removing the packing

ANS: D The student should wash his or her hands, don gloves, and then remove the packing. The other actions are correct.