Med Surg homeostasis/genetics/fluid/electrolyte

A man with mild hemophilia asks the nurse, "Will my children be hemophiliacs?" Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "All of your children will be at risk for hemophilia." b. "Hemophilia is a multifactorial inherited condition." c. "Only your male children are at risk for hemophilia." d. "Your female children will be carriers for hemophilia."

ANS: D Because hemophilia is caused by a mutation of the X-chromosome, all female children of a man with hemophilia are carriers of the disorder and can transmit the mutated gene to their offspring. Sons of a man with hemophilia will not have the disorder. Hemophilia is caused by a genetic mutation and is not a multifactorial inherited condition.

A pt recovering from surgery has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse would contact the pt's primary healthcare provider with which of the following 24-hour urine output volumes? 1. 600 mL 2. 750 mL 3. 1000 mL 4. 1200 mL

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: A urine output of less than 30 mL per hour must be reported to the primary healthcare provider. This indicates inadequate renal perfusion, placing the pt at increased risk for acute renal failure & inadequate tissue perfusion. A minimum of 720 mL over a 24-hour period is desired (30 mL multiplied by 24 hours equals 720 mL per 24 hours).

The pt is receiving intravenous potassium (KCL). Which nursing actions are required? Select all that apply. 1. Administer the dose IV push over 3 minutes. 2. Monitor the injection site for redness. 3. Add the ordered dose to the IV hanging. 4. Use an infusion controller for the IV. 5. Monitor fluid intake & output.

Answer: 2,4,5

A 28-year-old male pt is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse realizes that this pt will have a need for which of the following electrolytes? 1. sodium 2. potassium 3. calcium 4. magnesium

Answer: 4 Rationale 4: One risk factor for hypomagnesaemia is an endocrine disorder, including diabetic ketoacidosis.

Which of the following hospitalized clients would the nurse be most concerned is at risk for developing an imbalance related to water loss? Select all that apply. a. A 50-year old undernourished female b. A 75-year old female of average body weight c. A 60-year old male of average body weight d. A 45-year old obese male

b. A 75-year old female of average body weight d. A 45-year old obese male On average, females have a lower proportion of water to total body weight composition. The obese client has a lower proportion of water to total body weight. After age 65, total body water may decrease 45-50% of the total body weight.

Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective? a. "I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day." b. "I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake." c. "I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods." d. "I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast."

d. "I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast."

Which of these findings is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a patient with hypovolemic shock has been successful? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 60 mL over the last hour. c. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 65 mm Hg.

ANS: B Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. The hemoglobin level, PAWP, and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion.

When caring for a pt diagnosed with hypocalcemia, which of the following should the nurse additionally assess in the pt? 1. other electrolyte disturbances 2. hypertension 3. visual disturbances 4. drug toxicity

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: The pt diagnosed with hypocalcemia may also have high phosphorus or decreased magnesium levels. Rationale 2: The pt with hypocalcemia may exhibit hypotension, & not hypertension. Rationale 3: Visual disturbances do not occur with hypocalcemia. Rationale 4: Hypercalcemia is more commonly caused by drug toxicities.

A pt with a history of stomach ulcers is diagnosed with hypophosphatemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in this pt's plan of care? 1. Request a dietitian consult for selecting foods high in phosphorous. 2. Provide aluminum hydroxide antacids as prescribed. 3. Instruct pt to avoid poultry, peanuts, & seeds. 4. Instruct to avoid the intake of sodium phosphate.

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Treatment of hypophosphatemia includes treating the underlying cause & promoting a high phosphate diet, especially milk, if it is tolerated. Other foods high in phosphate are dried beans & peas, eggs, fish, organ meats, Brazil nuts & peanuts, poultry, seeds & whole grains. Rationale 2: Phosphate-binding antacids, such as aluminum hydroxide, should be avoided. Rationale 3: Poultry, peanuts, & seeds are part of a high phosphate diet. Rationale 4: Mild hypophosphatemia may be corrected by oral supplements, such as sodium phosphate.

The pt has a serum phosphate level of 4.7 mg/dL. Which interdisciplinary treatments would the nurse expect for this pt? Select all that apply. 1. IV normal saline 2. calcium containing antacids 3. IV potassium phosphate 4. encouraging milk intake 5. increasing vitamin D intake

Answer: 1,2 Rationale: Serum phosphate level of 4.7 mg/dL indicates hyperphosphatemia. IV normal saline promotes renal excretion of phosphate.

An elderly pt comes into the clinic with the complaint of watery diarrhea for several days with abdominal & muscle cramping. The nurse realizes that this pt is demonstrating which of the following? 1. hypernatremia 2. hyponatremia 3. fluid volume excess 4. hyperkalemia

Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Hypernatremia is associated with fluid retention & overload. FVE is associated with hypernatremia. Rationale 2: This elderly pt has watery diarrhea, which contributes to the loss of sodium. The abdominal & muscle cramps are manifestations of a low serum sodium level. Rationale 3: This pt is more likely to develop clinical manifestations associated with fluid volume deficit. Rationale 4: Hyperkalemia is associated with cardiac dysrhythmias.

The nurse observes a pt's respirations & notes that the rate is 30 per minute & the respirations are very deep. The metabolic disorder this pt might be demonstrating is which of the following? 1. hypernatremia 2. increasing carbon dioxide in the blood 3. hypertension 4. pain

Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Hypernatremia is associated with profuse sweating & diarrhea. Rationale 2: Acute increases in either carbon dioxide or hydrogen ions in the blood stimulate the respiratory center in the brain. As a result, both the rate & depth of respiration increase. The increased rate & depth of lung ventilation eliminates carbon dioxide from the body, & carbonic acid levels fall, which brings the pH to a more normal range. Rationale 3: The respiratory rate in a pt exhibiting hypertension is not altered. Rationale 4: Pain may be manifested in rapid, shallow respirations.

The pt, newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, is admitted to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, & abdominal pain. ABG results reveal a pH of 7.2 & a bicarbonate level of 20 mEq/L. Which other assessment findings would the nurse anticipate in this pt? Select all that apply. 1. tachycardia 2. weakness 3. dysrhythmias 4. Kussmaul's respirations 5. cold, clammy skin

Answer: 2,3,4 Rationale: Further assessment findings of this condition are weakness, bradycardia, dysrhythmias, general malaise, decreased level of consciousness, warm flushed skin, & Kussmaul's respirations. Rationale: These ABG results, coupled with the pt's recent diagnosis of diabetes mellitus & history of vomiting would lead the nurse to suspect metabolic acidosis. Further assessment findings of this condition are weakness, bradycardia, dysrhythmias, general malaise, decreased level of consciousness, warm flushed skin, & Kussmaul's respirations.

Which pts are at risk for the development of hypercalcemia? Select all that apply. 1. the pt with a malignancy 2. the pt taking lithium 3. the pt who uses sunscreen to excess 4. the pt with hyperparathyroidism 5. the pt who overuses antacids

Correct Answer: 1,2,4,5 Rationale 1: Pts with malignancy are at risk for development of hypercalcemia due to destruction of bone or the production of hormone-like substances by the malignancy. Rationale 2: Lithium & overuse of antacids can result in hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia can result from hyperparathyroidism which causes release of calcium from the bones, increased calcium absorption in the intestines & retention of calcium by the kidneys. Rationale 3: The pt who uses sunscreen to excess is more likely to have a vitamin D deficiency which would result in hypocalcemia. Rationale 4: Hypercalcemia can result from hyperparathyroidism which causes release of calcium from the bones, increased calcium absorption in the intestines & retention of calcium by the kidneys. Rationale 5: Lithium & overuse of antacids can result in hypercalcemia.

What is the nurse's primary concern regarding fluid & electrolytes when caring for an elderly pt who is intermittently confused? 1. risk of dehydration 2. risk of kidney damage 3. risk of stroke 4. risk of bleeding

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: As an adult ages, the thirst mechanism declines. Adding this in a pt with an altered level of consciousness, there is an increased risk of dehydration & high serum osmolality. Rationale 2: The risks for kidney damage are not specifically related to aging or fluid & electrolyte issues. Rationale 3: The risk of stroke is not specifically related to aging or fluid & electrolyte issues. Rationale 4: The risk of bleeding is not specifically related to aging or fluid & electrolyte issues.

A pregnant pt is admitted with excessive thirst, increased urination, & has a medical diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The nurse chooses which of the following nursing diagnoses as most appropriate? 1. Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume 2. Excess Fluid Volume 3. Imbalanced Nutrition 4. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: The pt with excessive thirst, increased urination & a medical diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is at risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume due to the pt &'s excess volume loss that can increase the serum levels of sodium. Rationale 2: Excess Fluid Volume is not an issue for pts with diabetes insipidus, especially during the early stages of treatment. Rationale 3: Imbalanced Nutrition does not apply. Rationale 4: Ineffective Tissue Perfusion does not apply

A nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make? a. Daily alcohol intake b. Intake of dietary protein c. Multivitamin/mineral use d. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives

a. Daily alcohol intake

The nurse is preparing to administer the discharge teaching instructions to a client with heart failure. Which measure will be included that the client will need to monitor on their own related to their recent hospitalization: _________________ . a. daily weight b. weekly electrolyte level c. daily fasting blood sugar d. daily urine dipstick for protein

a. daily weight Daily weights are one of the most important determinations of fluid balance. Weighing at home at the same time with the same amount of clothing on will track overall fluid changes as they occur. Acute weight gain or loss represents fluid gain or loss. The other measures would not be the responsibility of the client. Blood sugar measurement does not directly apply in this situation. .

A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance? a. Skin turgor b. Daily weight c. Presence of edema d. Hourly urine output

b. Daily weight

IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus. b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. c. Only give the KCl through a central venous line. d. Discontinue cardiac monitoring during the infusion.

b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour.

The client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has 10 liters of oxygen per nasal cannula applied by the student nurse for complaints of shortness of breath. The nursing instructor reduces this to 2 liters after reading the student's documentation. What is the rationale for this intervention? a. The student did not evaluate the client with the nursing instructor. b. The client's history prohibits the use of high levels of supplemental oxygen. c. The physician did not order the oxygen. d. The client needs to be evaluated by respiratory therapy before supplemental oxygen can be applied.

b. The client's history prohibits the use of high levels of supplemental oxygen. Clients with chronic lung disease may have consistently high carbon dioxide levels in their blood. Administering a high level of oxygen to these clients could inhibit their drive to breath as their carbon dioxide levels primarily determine respiratory response. ."

The nurse incorporates the use of a pedigree when taking a family history on the client. What is an advantage of incorporating this information into the delivery of nursing care? a. A nurse's learning can be enhanced by the visual teaching contribution a pedigree can bring and also clarify any inheritance misunderstandings or misconceptions. b. It is important to gather a two-generation family pedigree even if the nurse believes this is the first occasion of the condition within a family. c. A pedigree is a word representation of the medical history of a family. d. A pedigree provides the nurse with a clear, visual representation of relationships of affected individuals to the immediate and extended family.

d. A pedigree provides the nurse with a clear, visual representation of relationships of affected individuals to the immediate and extended family. Rationale: A nurse should know how to take a family history, record the history in a pedigree, and include genetic principles. # 1 is incorrect because it is the family's learning that is enhanced. # 2 is incorrect because a pedigree should be three-generation and not two. # 3 is incorrect because a pedigree is a pictorial representation or diagram.

A pregnant patient with a family history of cystic fibrosis (CF) asks for information about genetic testing. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. refer the patient to a qualified genetic counselor. b. ask the patient why genetic testing is important to her. c. remind the patient that genetic testing has many social implications. d. tell the patient that cystic fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive disorder.

ANS: A A genetic counselor is best qualified to address the multiple issues involved in genetic testing for a patient who is considering having children. Although genetic testing does have social implications, a pregnant patient will be better served by a genetic counselor who will have more expertise in this area. CF is an autosomal-recessive disorder, but the patient might not understand the implications of this statement. Asking why the patient feels genetic testing is important may imply to the patient that the nurse is questioning her value system regarding issues such as abortion.

A patient whose mother has been diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, "Do you think I should be tested for the gene?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene." b. "It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene." c. "There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing." d. "You should decide first whether you are willing to have a double mastectomy."

ANS: C Although presymptomatic testing for genetic disorders allows patients to take action (such as mastectomy) to prevent the development of some genetically caused disorders, patients also need to consider that test results in their medical file may impact insurance, employability, etc. Telling a patient that a decision about mastectomy should be made before testing implies that the nurse has made a judgment about what the patient should do if the test is positive. Although the patient may need to think about her reaction if the test is positive, other issues (e.g., insurance) also should be considered. Although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene alterations, the patient with the gene alteration has a markedly increased risk for breast cancer.

The nurse is planning care for a pt with severe burns. Which of the following is this pt at risk for developing? 1. intracellular fluid deficit 2. intracellular fluid overload 3. extracellular fluid deficit 4. interstitial fluid deficit

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Because this pt was severely burned, the fluid within the cells is diminished, leading to an intracellular fluid deficit. Rationale 2: The intracellular fluid is all fluids that exist within the cell cytoplasm & nucleus. Because this pt was severely burned, the fluid within the cells is diminished, leading to an intracellular fluid deficit. Rationale 3: The extracellular fluid is all fluids that exist outside the cell, including the interstitial fluid between the cells. Because this pt was severely burned, the fluid within the cells is diminished, leading to an intracellular fluid deficit. Rationale 4: The extracellular fluid is all fluids that exist outside the cell, including the interstitial fluid between the cells. Because this pt was severely burned, the fluid within the cells is diminished, leading to an intracellular fluid deficit.

A pt, experiencing multisystem fluid volume deficit, has the symptoms of tachycardia, pale, cool skin, & decreased urine output. The nurse realizes these findings are most likely a direct result of which of the following? 1. the body's natural compensatory mechanisms 2. pharmacological effects of a diuretic 3. effects of rapidly infused intravenous fluids 4. cardiac failure

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: The internal vasoconstrictive compensatory reactions within the body are responsible for the symptoms exhibited. The body naturally attempts to conserve fluid internally specifically for the brain & heart. Rationale 2: A diuretic would cause further fluid loss, & is contraindicated. Rationale 3: Rapidly infused intravenous fluids would not cause a decrease in urine output. Rationale 4: The manifestations reported are not indicative of cardiac failure in this pt.

An elderly postoperative pt is demonstrating lethargy, confusion, & a resp rate of 8 per minute. The nurse sees that the last dose of pain medication administered via a pt controlled anesthesia (PCA) pump was within 30 minutes. Which of the following acid-base disorders might this pt be experiencing? 1. respiratory acidosis 2. metabolic acidosis 3. respiratory alkalosis 4. metabolic alkalosis

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Acute respiratory acidosis occurs due to a sudden failure of ventilation. Overdoses of narcotic or sedative medications can lead to this condition. Rationale 2: The pt condition being described is respiratory not metabolic in nature. Rationale 3: Acute respiratory acidosis occurs due to a sudden failure of ventilation. Overdoses of narcotic or sedative medications can lead to this condition. Rationale 4: Acute respiratory acidosis occurs due to a sudden failure of ventilation. Overdoses of narcotic or sedative medications can lead to this condition. The pt condition being described is respiratory not metabolic in nature.

A pt is receiving intravenous fluids postoperatively following cardiac surgery. Nursing assessments should focus on which postoperative complication? 1. fluid volume excess 2. fluid volume deficit 3. seizure activity 4. liver failure

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Antidiuretic hormone & aldosterone levels are commonly increased following the stress response before, during, & immediately after surgery. This increase leads to sodium & water retention. Adding more fluids intravenously can cause a fluid volume excess & stress upon the heart & circulatory system. Rationale 2: Adding more fluids intravenously can cause a fluid volume excess, not fluid volume deficit, & stress upon the heart & circulatory system. Rationale 3: Seizure activity would more commonly be associated with electrolyte imbalances. Rationale 4: Liver failure is not anticipated related to postoperative intravenous fluid administration.

An elderly pt with peripheral neuropathy has been taking magnesium supplements. The nurse realizes that which of the following symptoms can indicate hypomagnesaemia? 1. hypotension, warmth, & sweating 2. nausea & vomiting 3. hyperreflexia 4. excessive urination

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Elevations in magnesium levels are accompanied by hypotension, warmth, & sweating. Rationale 2: Lower levels of magnesium are associated with nausea & vomiting. Rationale 3: Lower levels of magnesium are associated & hyperreflexia. Rationale 4: Urinary changes are not noted.

A pt is diagnosed with hypokalemia. After reviewing the pt's current medications, which of the following might have contributed to the pt's health problem? 1. corticosteroid 2. thiazide diuretic 3. narcotic 4. muscle relaxer

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Excess potassium loss through the kidneys is often caused by such meds as corticosteroids, potassium-wasting diuretics, amphotericin B, & large doses of some antibiotics. Rationale 2: Excessive sodium is lost with the use of thiazide diuretics. Rationale 3: Narcotics do not typically affect electrolyte balance. Rationale 4: Muscle relaxants do not typically affect electrolyte balance.

A pt is diagnosed with hyperphosphatemia. The nurse realizes that this pt might also have an imbalance of which of the following electrolytes? 1. calcium 2. sodium 3. potassium 4. chloride

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Excessive serum phosphate levels cause few specific symptoms. The effects of high serum phosphate levels on nerves & muscles are more likely the result of hypocalcemia that develops secondary to an elevated serum phosphorus level. The phosphate in the serum combines with ionized calcium, & the ionized serum calcium level falls.

A pt prescribed spironolactone is demonstrating ECG changes & complaining of muscle weakness. The nurse realizes this pt is exhibiting signs of which of the following? 1. hyperkalemia 2. hypokalemia 3. hypercalcemia 4. hypocalcemia

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Hyperkalemia is serum potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L. Decreased potassium excretion is seen in potassium-sparing diuretics such as spironolactone. Common manifestations of hyperkalemia are muscle weakness & ECG changes. Rationale 2: Hypokalemia is seen in non-potassium diuretics such as furosemide. Rationale 3: Hypercalcemia has been associated with thiazide diuretics. Rationale 4: Hypocalcemia is seen in pts who have received many units of citrated blood & is not associated with diuretic use.

A pt who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) is admitted with possible hypokalemia. Which of the following does the nurse realize might occur with this pt? 1. Digoxin toxicity may occur. 2. A higher dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) may be needed. 3. A diuretic may be needed. 4. Fluid volume deficit may occur.

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digitalis toxicity in pts who receive this drug for heart failure. Rationale 2: More digoxin is not needed. Rationale 3: A diuretic may cause further fluid loss. Rationale 4: There is inadequate information to assess for concerns related to fluid volume deficits.

The nurse is caring for a pt diagnosed with renal failure. Which of the following does the nurse recognize as compensation for the acid-base disturbance found in pts with renal failure? 1. The pt breathes rapidly to eliminate carbon dioxide. 2. The pt will retain bicarbonate in excess of normal. 3. The pH will decrease from the present value. 4. The pt's oxygen saturation level will improve.

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: In metabolic acidosis compensation is accomplished through increased ventilation or "blowing off" C02. This raises the pH by eliminating the volatile respiratory acid & compensates for the acidosis. Rationale 2: Because compensation must be performed by the system other than the affected system, the pt cannot retain bicarbonate; the manifestation of metabolic acidosis of renal failure is a lower than normal bicarbonate value. Rationale 3: Metabolic acidosis of renal failure causes a low pH; this is the manifestation of the disease process, not the compensation. Rationale 4: Oxygenation disturbance is not part of the acid-base status of the pt with renal failure.

A pt is diagnosed with severe hyponatremia. The nurse realizes this pt will mostly likely need which of the following precautions implemented? 1. seizure 2. infection 3. neutropenic 4. high-risk fall

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Severe hyponatremia can lead to seizures. Seizure precautions such as a quiet environment, raised side rails, & having an oral airway at the bedside would be included. Rationale 2: Infection precautions not specifically indicated for a pt with hyponatremia. Rationale 3: Neutropenic precautions not specifically indicated for a pt with hyponatremia. Rationale 4: High-risk fall precautions not specifically indicated for a pt with hyponatremia.

When analyzing an arterial blood gas report of a pt with COPD & respiratory acidosis, the nurse anticipates that compensation will develop through which of the following mechanisms? 1. The kidneys retain bicarbonate. 2. The kidneys excrete bicarbonate. 3. The lungs will retain carbon dioxide. 4. The lungs will excrete carbon dioxide.

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: The kidneys will compensate for a respiratory disorder by retaining bicarbonate. Rationale 2: Excreting bicarbonate causes acidosis to develop. Rationale 3: Retaining carbon dioxide causes respiratory acidosis. Rationale 4: Excreting carbon dioxide causes respiratory alkalosis

The nurse is planning care for a pt with fluid volume overload & hyponatremia. Which of the following should be included in this pt's plan of care? 1. Restrict fluids. 2. Administer intravenous fluids. 3. Provide Kayexalate. 4. Administer intravenous normal saline with furosemide.

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: The nursing care for a pt with hyponatremia is dependent on the cause. Restriction of fluids to 1,000 mL/day is usually implemented to assist sodium increase & to prevent the sodium level from dropping further due to dilution. Rationale 2: The administration of intravenous fluids would be indicated in fluid volume deficit & hypernatremia. Rationale 3: Kayexalate is used in pts with hyperkalemia. Rationale 4: The administration of normal saline with furosemide is used to increase calcium secretion.

The nurse is caring for a pt who is anxious & dizzy following a traumatic experience. The arterial blood gas findings include: pH 7.48, PaO2 110, PaCO2 25, & HCO3 24. The nurse would anticipate which initial intervention to correct this problem? 1. Encourage the pt to breathe in & out slowly into a paper bag. 2. Immediately administer oxygen via a mask & monitor oxygen saturation. 3. Prepare to start an intravenous fluid bolus using isotonic fluids. 4. Anticipate the administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate.

Answer: 1 Rationale 1: This pt is exhibiting signs of hyperventilation that is confirmed with the blood gas results of respiratory alkalosis. Breathing into a paper bag will help the pt to retain carbon dioxide & lower oxygen levels to normal, correcting the cause of the problem. Rationale 2: The oxygen levels are high, so oxygen is not indicated, & would exacerbate the problem if given. Intravenous fluids would not be the initial intervention. Rationale 3: Not enough information is given to determine the need for intravenous fluids. Rationale 4: Bicarbonate would be contraindicated as the pH is already high.

A pt is prescribed 10 mEq of potassium chloride. The nurse realizes that the reason the pt is receiving this replacement is 1. to sustain respiratory function. 2. to help regulate acid-base balance. 3. to keep a vein open. 4. to encourage urine output.

Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Potassium does not sustain respiratory function. Rationale 2: Electrolytes have many functions. They assist in regulating water balance, help regulate & maintain acid-base balance, contribute to enzyme reactions, & are essential for neuromuscular activity. Rationale 3: Intravenous fluids are used to keep venous access not potassium. Rationale 4: Urinary output is impacted by fluid intake not potassium.

A pt with fluid retention related to renal problems is admitted to the hospital. The nurse realizes that this pt could possibly have which of the following electrolyte imbalances? 1. hypokalemia 2. hypernatremia 3. carbon dioxide 4. magnesium

Answer: 2 Rationale 1: The kidneys are the principal organs involved in the elimination of potassium. Renal failure is often associated with elevations potassium levels. Rationale 2: The kidney is the primary regulator of sodium in the body. Fluid retention is associated with hypernatremia. Rationale 3: Carbon dioxide abnormalities are not normally seen in this type of pt. Rationale 4: Magnesium abnormalities are not normally seen in this type of pt.

An elderly pt does not complain of thirst. What should the nurse do to assess that this pt is not dehydrated? 1. Ask the physician for an order to begin intravenous fluid replacement. 2. Ask the physician to order a chest x-ray. 3. Assess the urine for osmolality. 4. Ask the physician for an order for a brain scan.

Answer: 3 Rationale 1: It is inappropriate to seek an IV at this stage. Rationale 2: There is no indication the pt is experiencing pulmonary complications thus a cheat x-ray is not indicated. Rationale 3: The thirst mechanism declines with aging, which makes older adults more vulnerable to dehydration & hyperosmolality. The nurse should check the pt's urine for osmolality as a 1st step in determining hydration status before other detailed & invasive testing is done. Rationale 4: There is no data to support the need for a brain scan.

A postoperative pt is diagnosed with fluid volume overload. Which of the following should the nurse assess in this pt? 1. poor skin turgor 2. decreased urine output 3. distended neck veins 4. concentrated hemoglobin & hematocrit levels

Answer: 3 Rationale 1: Poor skin turgor is associated with fluid volume deficit. Rationale 2: Decreased urine output is associated with fluid volume deficit. Rationale 3: Circulatory overload causes manifestations such as a full, bounding pulse; distended neck & peripheral veins; increased central venous pressure; cough; dyspnea; orthopnea; rales in the lungs; pulmonary edema; polyuria; ascites; peripheral edema, or if severe, anasarca, in which dilution of plasma by excess fluid causes a decreased hematocrit & blood urea nitrogen (BUN); & possible cerebral edema. Rationale 4: Increased hemoglobin & hematocrit values are associated with fluid volume deficit.

A pt's blood gases show a pH greater of 7.53 & bicarbonate level of 36 mEq/L. The nurse realizes that the acid-base disorder this pt is demonstrating is which of the following? 1. respiratory acidosis 2. metabolic acidosis 3. respiratory alkalosis 4. metabolic alkalosis

Answer: 4 Rationale 1& 2: Respiratory acidosis & metabolic acidosis are both consistent with pH less than 7.35. Rationale 3: Respiratory alkalosis is associated with a pH greater than 7.45 & a PaCO2 of less than 35 mmHG. It is caused by respiratory related conditions. Rationale 4: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) show a pH greater than 7.45 & bicarbonate level greater than 26 mEq/L when the pt is in metabolic alkalosis.

A pt is admitted for treatment of hypercalcemia. The nurse realizes that this pt's intravenous fluids will most likely be which of the following? 1. dextrose 5% & water 2. dextrose 5% & ? normal saline 3. dextrose 5% & ? normal saline 4. normal saline

Answer: 4 Rationale 1: If isotonic saline is not used, the pt is at risk for hyponatremia in addition to the hypercalcemia. Rationale 2: This solution is hypotonic. Isotonic saline is used because sodium excretion is accompanied by calcium excretion through the kidneys. Rationale 3: This solution is hypotonic. Isotonic saline is used because sodium excretion is accompanied by calcium excretion through the kidneys. Rationale 4: Isotonic saline is used because sodium excretion is accompanied by calcium excretion through the kidneys.

The nurse is admitting a pt who was diagnosed with acute renal failure. Which of the following electrolytes will be most affected with this disorder? 1. calcium 2. magnesium 3. phosphorous 4. potassium

Answer: 4 Rationale 1: This pt will be less likely to develop a calcium imbalance. Rationale 2: This pt will be less likely to develop a magnesium imbalance. Rationale 3: This pt will be less likely to develop a phosphorous imbalance. Rationale 4: Because the kidneys are the principal organs involved in the elimination of potassium, renal failure

An elderly pt who is being medicated for pain had an episode of incontinence. The nurse realizes that this pt is at risk for developing 1. dehydration. 2. over-hydration. 3. fecal incontinence. 4. a stroke.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Functional changes of aging also affect fluid balance. Older adults who have self-care deficits, or who are confused, depressed, tube-fed, on bed rest, or taking medications (such as sedatives, tranquilizers, diuretics, & laxatives), are at greatest risk for fluid volume imbalance. Rationale 2: There is inadequate evidence to support the risk of over-hydration. Rationale 3: There is inadequate evidence to support the risk of fecal incontinence. Rationale 4: There is inadequate evidence to support the risk of a stroke.

A pt is admitted with burns over 50% of his body. The nurse realizes that this pt is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances? 1. hypercalcemia 2. hypophosphatemia 3. hypernatremia 4. hypermagnesemia

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Pts who experience burns are not at an increased risk for developing increased blood calcium levels. Rationale 2: Causes of hypophosphatemia include stress responses & extensive burns. Rationale 3: Pts who experience burns are not at an increased risk for developing increased blood sodium levels. Rationale 4: Pts who experience burns are not at an increased risk for developing increased blood magnesium levels.

The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient related to fluid intake? a. "Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry. b. "More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty." c. "Drink more fluids in the late evening hours." d. "If you feel lethargic or confused, you need more to drink."

a. "Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry.

A young couple comes to the obstetrician's office prior to attempting to conceive. They have concerns regarding possible genetic defects from a long family history in both families. Which of the following topics should the nurse explore with the couple in order to prepare them for the genetic evaluation? a. Communication should include an assessment of the positive and negative outcomes of the test b. All genetic testing, depending on the results, does not need to remain confidential. c. Informed consent would be nice to have but is not mandatory. d. All genetic testing falls into voluntary and involuntary categories.

a. Communication should include an assessment of the positive and negative outcomes of the test Rationale: With knowledge of available genetic tests and the many implications related to genetic testing, the nurse can assist clients as they weigh choices regarding genetic testing #2 is incorrect because clients should engage in genetic testing with full knowledge, confidentiality and act autonomously. # 3 is incorrect because informed consent in needed in order to do the testing. #4 is incorrect because all genetic testing should be voluntary.

Measurements related to fluid balance of clients that a nurse can initiate without a physician's order include: a. Daily weights, vital signs, and fluid intake and output b. Daily weights, diuretics, and waist measurement c. Monitoring temperature, fluid intake and output, and calorie count d. Auscultating lung sounds, monitoring color of urine, and placing a Foley catheter into the client

a. Daily weights, vital signs, and fluid intake and output Rationale: Daily weights, checking vital signs, and monitoring fluid I&O all fall within the realm of nursing interventions. The remaining interventions either have the nurse perform a task requiring an MD order, such as giving diuretics or placing a Foley catheter, or have an action unrelated to this problem, such as the calorie count.

A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the health care provider immediately that the patient is on which medication? a. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily b. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours c. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily d. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening

a. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily

Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of "a tingling feeling around my mouth." Which assessment should the nurse complete immediately? a. Presence of the Chvostek's sign b. Abnormal serum potassium level c. Decreased thyroid hormone level d. Bleeding on the patient's dressing

a. Presence of the Chvostek's sign

Edema that forms in clients with kidney disease is due to: a. Reduced plasma oncotic pressure, so that fluid is not drawn into the capillaries from interstitial tissues b. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressures pushing fluid into the interstitial tissues c. Capillaries becoming less permeable, allowing fluid to escape into interstitial tissues d. Obstructed lymph flow that assists the movement of fluid from the interstitial tissues back into the vascular compartment

a. Reduced plasma oncotic pressure, so that fluid is not drawn into the capillaries from interstitial tissues Rationale: The edema is due to low levels of plasma proteins that exist with this disease, altering the oncotic pressure that helps regulate fluid movement in the vascular space moving into interstitial area. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure is the cause. Capillaries have increased permeability when edema formation is possible. Obstructed lymph flow impairs the movement of fluid from interstitial tissues back into the vascular compartment, resulting in edema.

A client suffering from a narcotic overdose is seen in the Emergency Department. The client is confused, with warm, flushed skin, headache, and weakness. Vital signs of noted are T 102.6, HR 128, R 24, and BP 130/86. A blood gas analysis sample was drawn on room air, and the results are as follows: pH 7.33, PaCO2 53, PaO2 72, HCO3 24. This client is at risk for: a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

a. Respiratory acidosis Rationale: Narcotic overdose causes more carbonic acid levels to rise because of hypoventilation and carbon dioxode retention.

A couple is undergoing prenatal genetic counseling. The nurse is preparing to deliver genetic education and counseling. What is the best approach for the nurse to take? a. The nurse should discuss the positives and negatives of each decision and present as many options as possible through the use of therapeutic listening and communication skills. b. The nurse should provide genetic counseling in a direct, non threatening way. c. The nurse should attempt to influence the decision of the client because the nurse has more knowledge in this area. d. The nurse should withhold any bad news from the client until the time is right.

a. The nurse should discuss the positives and negatives of each decision and present as many options as possible through the use of therapeutic listening and communication skills. Rationale: Genetic healthcare providers present the client with information to promote informed decisions. # 1 is a correct statement. # 2 is incorrect because the counseling should be provided with a non-directional approach. # 3 is incorrect because clients should be permitted to make decisions that are not influenced by any biases or values from the nurse. # 4 is incorrect because the nurse should not withhold any information from the client regardless of what it is.

Which question by a client hospitalized for a fluid volume deficit would require the nurse to investigate in more detail the probable cause of the dehydration? a. "Do I have to drink everything that is sent on my meal trays? I do not drink that much at home." b. "I have not had a bowel movement for 2 days. Can I get a laxative?" c. "I have tried to limit my sodium intake at home, but I am not very successful. Will I have to continue with this?" d. "I try to use the bathroom many times a day so that I will not have to get up through the night. Do you think this caused me to lose so much water?"

b. "I have not had a bowel movement for 2 days. Can I get a laxative?" Chronic abuse of laxatives and/or enemas may lead to fluid loss in a client. Elderly clients are most at risk for this as their overall fluid composition to total body weight has decreased. The frequent or dependent use of laxatives or enemas may not be readily reported on admission.

A client is brought to the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. There is a moderate amount of blood loss. The physician has ordered 1000 ml of intravenous fluids to infuse over 4 hours. Which type of solution would be appropriate? Select all that apply. a. 5% dextrose with 0.45% sodium chloride b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. 5% dextrose in water d. 0.45% sodium chloride

b. 0.9% sodium chloride d. 0.45% sodium chloride Isotonic solutions (similar to normal body fluid) are used to expand plasma volume in hypotensive clients or to replace abnormal losses. Fluid loss due to injury will usually cause isotonic fluid loss. Expanding plasma volume will increase the overall circulating body volume. 5% dextrose with 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution and is used when electrolyte replacement is also needed.

The nurse working in a clinic determines that which of the following clients should be referred for genetic counseling? a. A woman with no prior history of breast cancer. b. A man with a family history of prostate cancer. c. A man without a mutation in MLH1/MSH2. d. A woman without a mutation in BRCA1 and BRCA2..

b. A man with a family history of prostate cancer. Rationale: With knowledge of genetic conditions, the nurse can ensure health teaching and early detection of complications from genetic conditions with emphasis on primary and secondary care interventions. Without a previous family history or gene mutation a client does not need to be referred to a genetic professional. #1 the client has no prior history. # 2 the client has a family history so he is an appropriate referral. # 3 the client does not need to be referred because he has no gene mutation suggesting colorectal cancer. # 4 the client does not need a referral because she does not have a mutation suggestive of breast cancer.

Which individual would least likely suffer from a disturbance in fluid volume, electrolyte, or acid-base balance? a. An infant suffering from gastroenteritis for three days b. An elderly client suffering from a type I decubitus c. Adults with impaired cardiac function d. Clients who are confused

b. An elderly client suffering from a type I decubitus Rationale: The proportion of body water decreases with aging. Tissue trauma, such as burns, causes fluids and electrolytes to be lost from the damaged cells, and the breakdown in the continuity of the tissue. In Type I Decubitus, the skin remains intact, and any shifting of fluids is due to the inflammatory process and internally maintained within the body. Vomiting and diarrhea can cause significant fluid loses. Age, sex, and body fat affect total body water. Infants have the delete spaces highest proportion of water; it accounts for 70-80% of their body weight. Decreased blood flow to the kidneys as caused by impaired cardiac function stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, causing sodium and water retention. Clients who are confused or unable to communicate are at risk for inadequate fluid intake. Age does not play a significant factor here.

While orienting a new nurse to work in the surgical intensive care unit, the charge nurse quizzes the new nurse as to which of the following postoperative clients would be at highest risk for problems related to excess fluids? Select all that apply. a. Client with diabetes insipidus b. Client with heart failure c. Client with systemic lupus erythematous d. Client with liver cirrhosis

b. Client with heart failure d. Client with liver cirrhosis With fluid volume excess, water and sodium are gained together. This creates a total water increase in the body. A client with a heart that is not able to pump this excess fluid and a liver that is not functioning appropriately will have potential problems. Clients with diabetes insipidus and systemic lupus erythematous are not considered to be at general risk for fluid volume excess. .

An elderly patient was hydrated with lactated Ringer's solution in the emergency room for the last hour. During the most recent evaluation of the patient by the nurse, a finding of a rapid bounding pulse and shortness of breath were noted. Reporting this episode to the physician, the nurse suspects that the patient now shows signs of: a. Hypovolemia, and needs more fluids b. Hypervolemia, and needs the fluids adjusted c. An acid-base disturbance d. Needing no adjustment in fluid administration

b. Hypervolemia, and needs the fluids adjusted Rationale: Isotonic solutions has the same osmolality as body fluids. Isotonic solutions, such as Normal Saline and Ringer's Lactate, initially remain in the vascular compartment, expanding vascular volume. Isotonic imbalances occur when water and electrolytes are lost or gained in equal proportions, and serum osmolality remains constant.

The ambulance arrives with a client who presents with Kussmaul's respirations. The client has a history of diabetes. The nurse does a fingerstick blood sugar test immediately. The nurse is anticipating results that will lead to the diagnosis of which acid-base imbalance: a. Respiratory acidosis. b. Metabolic acidosis. c. Respiratory alkalosis. d. Metabolic alkalosis.

b. Metabolic acidosis. Kussmaul's respirations are deep and rapid respirations that are a compensatory mechanism by the respiratory system to return the blood pH to normal by eliminating carbon dioxide. This occurs when the body is in a metabolic acidotic state. The nurse expects the blood sugar to be very high. When the blood sugar of a diabetic client is very high, diabetic ketoacidosis may result. This is a type of metabolic acidosis. Clients with a history of diabetes are not prone to respiratory imbalances.

A client is admitted to the hospital for dehydration related to a gastrointestinal viral illness. The client is also on an alcohol withdrawal protocol. They complain of their lips and mouth feeling numb and tingling. When the nurse observes the lab results from the morning, which result would provide an insight into this client's complaint: a. low sodium level. b. low calcium level. c. high magnesium level. d. high potassium level.

b. low calcium level. Clients with a history of alcoholism are prone to hypocalcemia. The numbness and tingling of the lips and mouth are symptomatic of this and are referred to as "tetany."

A client recovering from a spinal cord injury becomes angry with the nurse and uses obscenity. The nurse's best response is: a. To laugh in order to relieve the tension b. "Stop it right now. This is uncalled for." c. "I'm listening. Tell me what this is about." d. "What did I do to make you so angry?"

c. "I'm listening. Tell me what this is about." Rationale: Clients with trauma have a need to express anger and have it acknowledged. Laughing does not acknowledge the client's need to express strong displeasure with a severe injury. The client's anger is best acknowledged in such a manner that the client does not suppress future attempts to express emotion. The client owns the anger, and needs to assume responsibility for the anger and deal with it.

The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient's condition has improved? a. Hematocrit 28% b. Absence of skin tenting c. Decreased peripheral edema d. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg

c. Decreased peripheral edema

The nurse is present with the physician when genetic testing results are revealed to expectant parents. Which of the following actions would be an important role of the nurse in this process? a. Realize that a positive test result will lead to elation and relief on the part of the expectant parents. b. The nurse is able to impart expertise on genetic counseling in an unlimited manner. c. Parents are tested to confirm their genotype and non-paternity may be an issue. d. Realize that a negative test result may lead to feelings of unworthiness, confusion, anger, and depression.

c. Parents are tested to confirm their genotype and non-paternity may be an issue. Rationale: Although family and individual anxiety may be decreased with a negative test result, potential problems do exist and the nurse must be prepared to address them. #1 is incorrect because negative test results would lead to elation and relief. # 2 is incorrect because nurses must be able to recognize the limits of their expertise and know how to refer a client to genetic specialists and additional resources. #4 is incorrect because it is a positive result that would elicit these feelings.

The nurse is admitting a new client, 80 years old, with congestive heart failure into your home health agency. The following assessment findings have been determined after meeting the client: overweight but no gain since the client left the hospital two days ago; VS: T 99.0, HR 100, R 22, BP 130/86. Foods eaten include canned soup at each meal, ham, and cheese. When completing the care plan for this client, the nurse should include which of the following nursing diagnosis: a. Improved Gas Exchange b. Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit c. Risk for Fluid Volume Imbalance d. Impaired Skin Integrity

c. Risk for Fluid Volume Imbalance Rationale: Sodium is found in high quantities in the foods noted that the client has consumed. When sodium levels increase in the body, water is retained, adding to the volume of fluid in circulation, making it harder for the body to move fluids through the circulation. Therefore, the excess fluid may in time impair gas exchange if levels eventually act on the lungs; fluid volume is increasing, not decreasing, in this situation, and this problem has no involvement with platelets.

A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action? a. Assess for facial muscle spasms. b. Ask the patient about loose stools. c. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals. d. Ask the health care provider to order a basic metabolic panel.

d. Ask the health care provider to order a basic metabolic panel.

Parents of a newborn are confused when their child is diagnosed with a genetic disorder because neither of them has a defect. Testing is done and it is determined that both parents are carriers of the disorder even though they are asymptomatic. Understanding the principles of the Mendelian Pattern of Inheritance what condition is the likely reason for this genetic disorder? a. Recessive versus dominant condition b. Autosomal dominant conditions c. X-linked recessive condition d. Autosomal recessive condition

d. Autosomal recessive condition Rationale: Knowledge of inheritance allows the nurse to not only offer and reinforce genetic information to clients and their families but also to assist them in managing their care and in making reproductive decisions. The only answer choice here that can be correct is autosomal recessive condition. In this condition the parents would be known to be carriers of the condition and they do not usually exhibit any signs or symptoms of the condition.

The nurse has been invited to discuss "the importance of promoting a good fluid and electrolyte balance in children" for a group of parents at the local school parents club meeting. Of the following actions, which is not representative of this topic? a. Recognizing possible risk factors for fluid and electrolyte balance, such as prolonged or repeated vomiting, frequent watery stools, or inability to consume fluids b. Increasing fluid intake before, during, and after strenuous exercise, particularly when the environmental temperature is high, and replacing lost electrolytes from excessive perspiration as needed with commercial electrolyte solutions c. Consuming six to eight glasses of water daily d. Encouraging excessive amounts of foods or fluids high in salt or caffeine

d. Encouraging excessive amounts of foods or fluids high in salt or caffeine Rationale: Salt causes the body to retain fluids due to an increase in the concentration of sodium and the release of ADH. Caffeine acts as a diuretic in individuals and may lead to loss of excess fluids in the body. The remaining identified measures are all appropriate.

The nurse is evaluating the medication list of a newly-admitted client with hypokalemia. The client has been experiencing dysrhythmias and is on a cardiac monitor. Which medication from the list would alert the nurse to pursue a discussion with the physician? a. an oral antidiabetic agent b. a cardiac rhythm drug c. an over the counter antacid d. a diuretic

d. a diuretic Excess potassium loss through the kidneys is often secondary to drugs such as potassium-wasting diuretics. Hypokalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Potassium-wasting diuretic therapy may require supplemental oral potassium.

While assisting a new client from a wheelchair to a bed in the emergency room, the client complains of being dizzy. Which intervention by the nurse would be the best in this situation: ___________________ . a. assess peripheral pulses b. take an apical pulse c. assess for diuretic use d. assess blood pressure

d. assess blood pressure Postural or orthostatic hypotension is a sign of hypovolemia. A drop of more than 15 mmHg in systolic blood pressure when changing positions (lying to sitting, sitting to standing) often indicates fluid depletion. Assessing for diuretic use may yield information that contributes to the problem, but directly assessing the blood pressure is an immediate response to an exhibited symptom.