Medical Terminology: Chapter 19 Questions, med term chapter 1-19
Western blot
Specific test to detect presence of anti-HIV antibodies in the bloodstream.
The ability of lymphocytes to recognize and accept the body's own antigens as not foreign is called
Tolerance
Masses of lymph tissue in the back of the oropharynx are the
Tonsils
Collection of pus in the pleural cavity:
Pyothorax
The abbreviation for the medical term for the procedure that assesses thyroid function by testing the ability of the thyroid gland to trap and retain radioactive iodine following oral ingestion of the iodine is
RAIU
Exfoliative cytology
Scraping and microscopic examination of cells from the region of suspected disease is called
epidermis
a thin, cellular membrane layer; containing keratin and is the outermost layer of the skin
malignant tumor
a tumor having the characteristics of continuous growth, invasiveness, and metastasis
The suffix that means smell:
-osmia
The suffix that means breathing:
-pnea
The suffix that means pulse:
-sphxia
Hypersensitivity
Abnormal condition characterized by an exaggerated response of the immune system to an antigen.
Onychocryptosis
Abnormal condition of a hidden nail (ingrown nail)
Allergy
Abnormal hypersensitivity acquired by exposure to an antigen (allergen).
Previous exposure to an antibody-producing disease is an example of
Acquired active immunity
Formation of antibodies and lymphocytes after exposure to an antigen is
Acquired immunity
Outward extension of the shoulder bone:
Acromion
Adjuvant therapy
Adding drugs early in the course of treatment to hasten or assist primary treatment in attacking cancer cells would be considered
Adjuvant therapy
Adding drugs early in the course of treatment to hasten or assist primary treatment in attacking cancer cells would be considered Adjuvant therapy. refers to any treatment that is used to assist the main treatment. If chemotherapy is prescribed after surgery removes a tumor, the chemotherapy is adjuvant to the surgery.
Where in the respiratory tract does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
Alveoli
Enzyme that digests starch:
Amylase
Which test measures the number of helper T cells in the bloodstream of patients with AIDS?
CD4 lymphocyte count
Airway obstruction associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis:
COPD
Meta-
Change, exchange, beyond Example: metamorphosis, a change in shape or structure, especially a change from one stage of development to another.
Benign, Metastasize
Characteristically, a ________ tumor grows slowly, is well-differentiated and noninvasive, and does not spread to a distant location; that is, it does not ________.
Buccal means pertaining to the:
Cheek
Anaphylaxis
Exaggerated or unusual hypersensitivity to foreign protein or other substance.
keloid
Excess hypertrophied, thickened scar developing after trauma or surgical incision
Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
Excretion of nitrogenous waste products
Pap-Smear
Exfoliative cystology
Material is expelled from the lungs:
Expectoration
_________ is an inflammatory skin disease with erythematous papulovesicular lesions.
Exzema
Exophthalmometry is the measurement of ____________ with an exophthalmometer
Eyeball protrusion
The name of the procedure that measures the amount of glucose in the blood at the time of the test is
FPG
Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are bones of the:
Face
Achalasia is:
Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter muscle to relax
The combining form adip/o means
Fat
Melena is:
Feces containing digested blood
Smaller of the two lower leg bones:
Fibula
Atopy
Intense allergic reaction (such as asthma) influenced by hereditary tendency or predisposition.
______nodal means between two nodes
Inter
This fluid becomes lymph when it enters lymph capillaries
Interstitial
Fluid in the space between the cells is
Interstitial fluid
In pernicious anemia, RBC production is decreased due to lack of a protein called
Intrinsic factor
Vaccination
Introduction of a vaccine (containing dead or weakened antigen) to produce immunity. It is a type of acquired immunity.
Telescoping of the intestine:
Intussusception
ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION
Invisible light rays that may be responsible for sunburns, skin cancers, and cataract formation
During cellular respiration, what happens to the carbon dioxide?
It leaves the cells and enters the bloodstream
Icterus is another term for:
Jaundice
KS is the abbreviation for
Kaposi sarcoma
Postoperatively, Sheri developed a thickened hypertrophied incisional scar. This type of scar is called a
Keloid
Tests such as the measurement of ALT, AST, and serum bilirubin are known collectively as
LFTs
14. Cheil/o means the same as:
Labi/o
Immunoelectrophoresis
Laboratory test that separates immunoglobulins (IgG, IgM, IgD, IgE, and IgA).
Undifferentiated
Lacking structures typical of mature cells Mature cells that lack typical microscopic structures are called undifferentiated.
Operation performed to relieve the symptoms of a slipped disk:
Laminectomy
The medical term for the endoscopic visual examination of the abdomen is
Laparoscopy
Thoracic duct
Large lymphatic vessel in the upper chest.
Macrophage
Large phagocyte found in lymphatic tissues and connective tissues; derived from a monocyte.
Removal of the voice box:
Laryngectomy
Strata means:
Layers
Malignant tumor of smooth muscle:
Leiomyosarcoma
________ is a general term meaning disease of bone marrow with malignant WBCs filling the marrow and bloodstream
Leukemia
White blood cells are also called
Leukocytes
Removal of liver tissue for the purpose of analysis under a microscope is (a)
Liver biopsy
Fluid transported by the lymphatic vessels is called
Lymph
The combining form lymph/o means
Lymph
________oma is a malignant tumor of lymph nodes and lymphatic tissue
Lymph
The tiniest lymphatic vessels are the
Lymph capillaries
Inguinal node
Lymph node in the groin region.
Mediastinal node
Lymph node in the mediastinum (central area between the lungs in the chest).
Cervical node
Lymph node in the neck.
Axillary node
Lymph node under the arm.
Clusters of small oval-shaped tissue along the path of lymph vessels are
Lymph nodes
Stationary lymph tissues along lymph vessels are called
Lymph nodes
The collection of interstitial fluid within the spaces between cells due to obstruction of lymph vessels and nodes is
Lymphedema
The ring of muscle that controls movement of food from the stomach to the small intestine is the:
Pyloric sphincter
poli/o
gray
Lymphocytopenia
Deficiency of lymphocytes.
A person with type o blood is a(n)
Universal donor
The combining form idi/o means:
Unknown
Another term for blister is:
Vesicle
Gy
gray-unit of absorbed radiation dose
chlor/o
green
fissure
groove or crack-like sore
FUNGATING
growth description of tumor growth in which cells pile one on top of another and project from the tissue surface
polyp
growth extending from the surface of mucous membrane
HER2
growth factor gene highly activated in cells of certain types of breast cancer
ULCERATING
growth that has open, exposed surfaces resulting from death of overlying tissue
The combining form pil/o in the term piloniday cysttells, this type of cyst is filled with ____.
hair
The combining form trich/o means ______.
hair
The compressed, keratinized cells that arise from follicles are called:
hair
pil/o
hair
trich/o
hair
trich/o-
hair
Integumentary system contains....
hair, nails, glands (skin)
what are the accessory organs
hair, nails, sweat and sebaceous glands
pilonidal cyst
hair-containing cyst found in the sacral region of the back
Scirrh/o
hard
The suffix that means condition:
-ema
Which of the following is an endoscopic examination?
Bronchoscopy
Large vesicles are called
Bullae
biopsy
Bx
HIV binds to ___________ and infects and kills T cells bearing this protein
CD+4 cells
New opening from the large bowel to the surface of the body:
Colostomy
Staging
Evaluation of tumors based on the extent of spread.
Another term for jaundice:
Icterus
The loss of peristalsis that results in an obstruction of the intestines is:
Ileus
The ability of the body to resist foreign microorganisms, such as bacteria, parasites, and viruses, is known as
Immunity
The laboratory test used to detect and differentiate abnormal levels of specific antibodies is
Immunoelectrophoresis
IgM is the abbreviation for
Immunoglobulin M
IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM are collectively known as
Immunoglobulins
_____________ is a bacterial inflammatory skin disease characterized by vesicles, pustules, and crusted lesions.
Impetigo
M (metastases)
In cancer staging, representation of metastases found and an entry for location
N (nodes)
In cancer staging, representation of the regional lymph nodes involved
T (tumor)
In cancer staging, representation of the size and degree of local invasion of a primary tumor
Where are the sinuses located?
In the skull surrounding the nasal cavity
A choledochotomy is the:
Incision of a gallstone through the common bile duct
Lymphocytosis
Increase in numbers of lymphocytes in the bloodstream.
Opportunistic infections
Infectious diseases associated with AIDS; toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, herpes simplex, and Pneumocystosis carinii pneumonia (PCP).
Lymphadenitis
Inflammation of lymph nodes.
What respiratory disorders are highly contagious?
Influenza and URI
The collection of stationary lymph tissue in the groin region is comprised of
Inguinal
Mr. Schmitt's doctor discovered a small loop of bowel protruding through a weak muscle in his patient's lower abdomen. Mr. Schmitt was diagnosed with a(n):
Inguinal hernia
A collection of stationary lymph tissue in the groin region is known as the
Inguinal nodes
Mutations
Inheritable changes in genetic material (DNA) are called mutations. Mutations can be caused by chemicals, radiation, or viruses.
NEEDLE BIOPSY
Insertion of a needle into tissue to remove a core of cells to examine under a microscope; needle aspiration
In the process of breathing, during what stage does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?
Inspiration
Examples of this type of disorder include follicular lymphoma and large cell lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin disease
Radionuclide scans
Noninvasive exam involving the use of a radiopharmaceutical and a detection device radioactive substances (radionuclides) are injected intravenously, and scans (images) of organs are obtained The noninvasive examination of various parts of the body, especially the heart, using a radiopharmaceutical such as thallium-201 and a detection device such as a gamma camera, rectilinear scanner, or positron camera.
Tamoxifen
Nonsteroidal antiestrogen used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer It is prescribed to premenopausal and postmenopausal women whose tumors are estrogen dependent. It is also used to reduce the incidence of breast cancer in women with a high risk for it and for treating gynecomastia, precocious puberty, and other instances of estrogen excess.
mediastinoscopy
Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text page: 476 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.11 The correct answer is: mediastinoscopy
Picture
Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text pages: 451, 458, 460, 462 MTO: Section II, Lessons 2.5, 3.4, 3.8, 4.5 The correct answer is: A → Percussion, B → Tuberculin skin test, C → Chest x-ray, D → Pulmonary function test (spirometer)
Brachytherapy
Planting a seed in tissue for irradiation
Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:
Osteomyelitis
Mary increased her susceptibility to malignant melanoma by:
Overexposing her skin to the sun
Which abnormality is characteristic of multiple myeloma
Overproduction of immunoglobulins
A spirometer is used for these respiratory tests:
PFT
John's doctor recommended that he try light therapy for his psoriasis. What is this treatment called?
PUVA
Specialist in gums:
Periodontist
Muscular wave-like movement to transport food through the digestive system:
Peristalsis
Natural immunity
Person's own genetic ability to fight off disease. It includes phagocytes and lymphocytes such as natural killer cells.
Toxic
Pertaining to a toxin, which is a poison or harmful substance.
Viral oncogenes
Pieces of DNA from viruses that infect a normal cell and cause it to become malignant.
Oncogenes
Pieces of DNA that can cause noraml cells to become maligant by mutation
Core needle biopsy
Placement of large-bore needle that extracts a thin coreo f tissue.
The liquid portion of blood is called
Plasma
The primary function of platelets is to
Promote blood clotting
Squamous cell carcinoma
Slow-growing malignant tumor of squamous epithelium
Carcinoma
Solid tumor derived from epithelial cells
Epidermoid
This means resembling squamous epithelial cells
An alveolus is an:
air sac
A person who is prone to allergies can be described as being
atopic
melan/o
black
anthrac/o
black (as coal)
carcinoma
cancerous tumor made up of cells of epithelial origin
cry/o-
cold
Structural protein found in skin and connective tissue
collagen
Grading
evaluation of the degree of maturity of tumor cells
The E in "ABCDE" stands for ___________.
evolution
enlarged lymph node and solid growths
examples of a nodule are ______ and _____
Hemochromatosis is characterized by
excess iron deposits throughout the body
Seborrhea is
excessive discharge of sebum
kerat/o
hard
scler/o-
hard
This is used to inspect the peritoneal cavity for tumors.
laparoscopy
bullae:
large blisters
Clusters of small oval-shaped tissue along the path of lymph vessels are
lymph nodes
lymphaden/o
lymph nodes
Kneecap:
patella
papule
small (less than 1 cm in diameter), solid elevation of the skin
pustule
small abscess
vesicle
small collection (papule) of clear fluid (serum); blister
"Alopecia" is
the absence or loss of hair from areas where it normally grows
thym/o
thymus
The combining form thym/o means:
thymus gland
The suffix hat means assemble, gather together....
-agon
Layers of skin: 1. 2. 3.
1. Epidermis 2. Dermis 3. Subcutaneous layer
5-FU
5-fluorouracil
A person with Type A blood will have type ____ red cell antigens
A
Which blood type contains only anti-B antibodies
A
corn
A ____ is a type of callus that develops a hard core (a whitish, cone-shaped central kernel)
Adenoma
A benign tumor of glandular epithelium The cells of these tumors are arranged in a recognizable glandular structure. The tumor may cause excess secretion by the affected gland.
A clinical procedure that aids in the diagnosis of blood disorders like anemia and leukemia
A bone marrow biopsy
Biologic response modifier
A cancer-treating substance that stimulates the body's immune system or other body defenses is called
A "fissure" is
A crack-like lesion of the skin
Debulking
A debulking procedure may be used if the tumor is attached to a vital organ and cannot be completely removed; instead, as much of the tumor as possible is removed and adjuvant radiation or chemotherapy is given.
Leukemia
A group of malignant neoplasms of hematopoietic tissues It is characterized by diffuse replacement of bone marrow or lymph nodes with proliferative white blood cell precursors. Leukemia may be chronic or acute, lymphoid, myeloid, or erythroid.
Mixed-tissue tumor
A growth composed of more than one kind of neoplastic tissue
A barium enema is used with
A lower gastrointestinal series
B cell
A lymphocyte that originates in bone marrow and transforms into a plasma cell to secrete antibodies.
Basal cell carcinoma
A malignant epithelial cell tumor It begins as a pearly-appearing papule and enlarges peripherally, developing a central crater that erodes, crusts, and bleeds. Metastasis is rare, but local invasion destroys underlying and adjacent tissue.
Chondrosarcoma
A malignant neoplasm of cartilaginous cells or their precursors It occurs most frequently in long bones, the pelvic girdle, and the scapula.
Wilms tumor
A malignant neoplasm of the kidney It occurs in young children before the fifth year in 75% of cases. Chemotherapy combined with surgery and irradiation is proving highly effective.
Osteosarcoma
A malignant tumor of the bone These tumors are composed of anaplastic cells derived from mesenchyme. This is the most common type of primary malignant bone tumor, occurring most often in the distal femur.
Glioblastoma multiforme
A malignant tumor of the cerebrum or spinal cord These tumors are invasive and grow rapidly.
Seminoma
A malignant tumor of the testis
Dysplastic
A mole, or nevus, that displays a highly abnormal but not clearly cancerous appearance. Moles, or nevi, are good examples of dysplastic cell growth. The cells are abnormal in size, shape, or organization, but they are not yet clearly cancerous.
Staging of tumors Stage
A period or distinct phase in the course of a disease In cancer it refers to the presence and amount of spread of the cancer by invasion or metastasis. system of evaluating the extent of spread of tumors; an example is the TNM (tumor-node-metastasis) system
Oncogene
A potentially cancer-inducing gene Under normal conditions, such genes play a role in the growth and proliferation of cells, but when altered in some way by a cancer-causing agent such as radiation, a carcinogenic chemical, or oncogenic virus, they may cause the cell to be transformed to a malignant state. region of DNA in tumor cells (cellular oncogene) or in viruses that cause cancer (viral oncogene); these are designated by a three-letter name such as abl, erb, jun, myc, ras, and src
STAGING LAPAROTOMY
A procedure in which a particular body region is surgically examined to assess the extent of disease with the purpose of determining the stage or extension of a cancer
Neuroblastoma
A sarcoma consisting of malignant neuroblasts A Neuroblastoma is a cancerous tumor derived from embryonic (immature) nerve tissue. It usually arises in the autonomic nervous system or in the adrenal medulla and affects mostly infants and children up to 10 years of age.
Excision of tissue for examination by using a cut parallel to the surface of the skin is:
A shave biopsy
TNM International Staging System
A system for staging malignant neoplastic disease The system uses the letter T to represent the tumor, N for the regional lymph node involvement, M for distant metastases, and numeric subscripts in each category to indicate the degree of dissemination.
Immunohistochemistry
A technique for detecting an antigen in tissue The test works by means of an antibody that is specific for the antigen and is coupled to a label that is visible under light microscopy. localization of antigens or proteins in tissues using labeled (colored or fluorescent) antibodies; this technique allows for evaluation of the presence and amount of specific molecules in normal and tumor cells
Astrocytoma
A tumor composed of astrocytes It is the most common type of primary brain tumor and is also found throughout the central nervous system.
Dendritic cell
A type of macrophage that captures antigens and presents them to T cells for destruction.
Lymphoma
A type of neoplasm of lymphoid tissue It originates in the reticuloendothelial and lymphatic systems.
Protocol
A written plan specifying the procedures to be followed Protocols are valuable in giving a particular examination, in the conduct of research, and in providing care for a particular condition.
Which blood type contains no antibodies?
AB
Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution
ABCDE
Procedure where patient serves as his or her own stem cell donor
ABMT (autologous bone marrow transplantation
Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete hormones?
ACTH
A retroviral disease caused by infection with HIV, its manifestation is associated with suppression of the immune system and is called ________________, which is abbreviate
AIDS
The laboratory test that detects neutropenia
ANC (absolute neutrophil count
Dysplastic
Abnormal but not clearly cancerous
Lymphedema
Abnormal collection of fluid in tissue spaces caused by obstruction of lymph vessels and backflow of lymph.
Masses of lymph tissue in the nasopharynx are called
Adenoids
Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue is called the
Adenoids
Nasopharyngeal lymphatic tissue:
Adenoids
Antimitotics
Agents that inhibit cell division
White blood cells that do not contain granules in their cytoplasm are _______ cytes, or mononuclears
Agranulo
The blood levels of ALT, which is the abbreviation for ___________, and AST, which is the abbreviation for ___________, are elevated when liver cells are damaged
Alanine transaminase, Aspartate transaminase
Protein the maintains proper proportion and concentration of water in blood
Albumin
Chemotherapeutic agents
Alkylating agents, antimetabolites, antibiotics, hormones, and antimiotics all are types of Chemotherapeutic agents.
The medical term for hay fever is
Allergic rhinitis
_________ is the absence of hair from areas where it normally grows, especially from the scalp.
Alopecia
Adjuvant
An additional treatment or therapy
Virus
An infectious agent that reproduces by entering a host cell and using the host's genetic material to make copies of itself.
An abnormal tubelike passageway near the anus is a(n):
Anal fistula
Condition of stiffening and immobility of a joint:
Ankylosis
Lack of appetite:
Anorexia
RNA virus
Another term for a retrovirus is
Interferons
Anti-viral proteins secreted by lymphocytes.
Proteins that destroy antigens are
Antibodies
Immunoglobulins
Antibodies (proteins) secreted by B-cell lymphocytes (plasma cells).
Monoclonal antibody
Antibody produced in a laboratory to attack specific antigens.
Substances capable of inducing an immune response are
Antigens
Interferons
Any of a family of glycoproteins that exert virus-nonspecific but host-specific antiviral activity It induces the transcription of cellular genes coding for antiviral proteins that selectively inhibit the synthesis of viral RNA and proteins. Interferons also have immunoregulatory functions (inhibition of B-cell activation and antibody production enhancement of T-cell activity, and enhancement of NK-cell cytotoxic activity) and can inhibit the growth of nonviral intracellular parasites.
Malignant melanoma
Any of a group of malignant neoplasms that originate in the skin Composed of melanocytes, melanomas are most commonly located on the upper backs and lower legs of fair-skinned individuals and on the palms and soles in dark-skinned individuals.
Uppermost portion of the lung:
Apex
The separation of blood into its component parts by spinning a blood sample at high speeds in a centrifuge
Apheresis
Which kind of anemia is it when bone marrow fails to produce red blood cells?
Aplastic
Grade
Appearance of tumor cells under the microscope in terms of organization and differentiation
Marsha has developed a contact dermatitis on her face, neck, and arms. She has developed such reactions in the past but has been unable to identify the causative agent. She now goes to see the dermatologist for allergy testing. A patch test is done. A patch test is performed by
Application to the skin of test substances under gauze or filter paper
Surgical repair of a joint:
Arthroplasty
A type of pneumoconiosis:
Asbestosis
Bone Marrow
Aspiration and examination of bone marrow for cancer cells
Needle biopsy
Aspitation of a core of tissues for microscopic exam
Bronchial airway obstruction marked by paroxysmal dyspnea, wheezing, and cough:
Asthma
Which test measures the number of helper T cells in the bloodstream of patients with AIDS
CD4 lymphocyte count
Wasting away (no development) of muscle:
Atrophy
A condition in which a person's body makes an antibody that destroys platelets is
Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
The collection of stationary lymph tissue in the armpits is comprised of
Axillary nodes
Lymphocyte that originates in the bone marrow and secretes antibodies is a
B cell
Plasma cell
B cell lymphocyte that secretes antibodies.
Lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies are
B cells
The abbreviation of the medical term for the most commonly occurring malignant skin condition is:
BCC
What is the medical term for an epithelial tumor arising from the epidermis that seldom metastasizes and is common in individuals who have had excessive sun exposure?
Basal cell carcinoma
White blood cell containing heparin and histamine
Basophil
Encapsulated
Benign tumors are often __________, meaning they are contained within a fibrous capsule or cover.
Encapsulated
Benign tumors are often encapsulated, meaning they are contained within a fibrous capsule or cover that keeps the tumor cells from invading surrounding tissue.
This detects human chorionic gonadotropin in serum of patients with testicular cancer.
Beta-hCG test
Pertaining to bile or the bile ducts and gallbladder is
Biliary
Cholangiography is the radiographic examination of the
Biliary system
Formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin
Bilirubin
Heme is broken down apart into iron and the pigment
Bilirubin
Incisional biopsy
Biopsy of a selected portion of a lesion If possible, the biopsy inclues adjacent normal-appearing tissue.
Excisional biopsy
Biopsy of an entire lesion Excisional biopsies also remove a significant margin of contiguous normal-appearing tissue.
Immunosuppression
Blocking or turning off the normal immune response.
A stool guaiac test is a screening tool that chemically reacts to ________ in the feces
Blood
FBS abbreviates the medical term for a
Blood test to determine the amount of glucose in the blood
A child with type 1 diabetes must carefully calculate the number of carbohydrates he has for breakfast so that he can inject, or _____, the correct amount of insulin to handle that amount of carbohydrates
Bolus
Both B cells and T cells originate from stem cells in the
Bone Marrow
Estrogen receptors
Breast Cancer has this. These tumor repond to the removal of estrogen by oophorectomy.**
Tubes that bifurcate from the windpipe:
Bronchi
Spongy, porous bone tissue:
Cancellous bone
Histogenesis
Cancer cells divided into broad groups based on the particular type of tissue from which the tumor cell arises
Adenocorcinoma
Cancer tumor arrising from glandular cells
Lymph vessels
Carry lymph throughout the body.
the suffix in the term electrophoresis means
Carrying
Cauterization
Cauterization is the process of burning tissue to destroy it.
Pertaining to the abdomen:
Celiac
-plasm
Cell or tissue substance OR -plasia Example: cytoplasm, all of the substance of a cell other than the nucleus and the cell wall.
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disrupts
Cell-mediated immunity (T cell lymphocytes)
The collection of stationary lymph tissue in the neck region is known as the
Cervical nodes
Chemotherapy
Chemotherapy is the use of drugs or chemicals (chem/o) to damage the DNA of cancer cells and is the standard treatment for a number of types of cancer. Treatment of disease with chemical agents treatment with drugs the treatment of cancer, infectious diseases, and other diseases with chemical agents.
A diagnostic radiologic imaging study of the bile and pancreatic ducts in which contrast medium is injected via a catheter tube through the mouth, esophagus, stomach, duodenum, and then into the bile ducts is called endoscopic retrograde ______________
Cholangiopancreatography
Mrs. Brainard is scheduled to have her gallbladder removed. This therapeutic surgical procedure is called a:
Cholecystectomy
The medical term for the surgical removal of the gallbladder is
Cholecystectomy
The medical term for an incision into the common bile duct is:
Choledochotomy
Mr. Harris, who does not drink alcohol, is stunned to hear that he has cirrhosis. The physician explains that cirrhosis is a(n):
Chronic degeneration of liver tissue that is replaced with scar tissue
Autoimmune disease
Chronic disabling disease caused by the abnormal production of antibodies to normal body tissues; multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus are examples.
CLL is the abbreviation for
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Serum is plasma minus the
Clotting proteins and cells
The visual examination of the entire large intestine is called a:
Colonoscopy
The visual examination of the mucosal lining of the length of the large intestine is a
Colonoscopy
Special proteins called ______, abbreviated_______, trigger the production, maturation, and activation of granulocytes
Colony-stimulating factors, CSFs
The C in "ABCDE" stands for:
Color
When used with a combining form for an organ, the suffix -stomy means an opening to the outside of the body. What is the medical term for an opening from the colon to the outside of the body?
Colostomy
Cysto
Combining form for sac or fluid
Folliculo
Combining form for small glandular sacs
The sebum plug (blackhead) characteristic of acne is called a
Comedo
A splintered or crushed bone:
Comminuted fracture
Carries bile into the duodenum:
Common bile duct
Proteins in the blood that help antibodies and T cells kill their targets are called the
Complement system
Blood screening that includes an RBC count, a WBC count with differential, a platelet count, hemoglobin and hemocrit, and red blood cell indices is called a(n) _____, which is abbreviated _____.
Complete blood count, CBC
Steroids
Complex, naturally occurring chemicals derived from cholesterol. Some are used in cancer chemotherapy.
What radiographic imaging procedure produces cross-sectional images of internal organs like the liver
Computed tomography
Diagnosis of adenomas, gigantism, and acromegaly can be aided by ____________ (CT) scanning and ____________ (MRI) to evaluate the tumor
Computed tomography, magnetic resonance imaging
Knuckle-like process at the end of a bone:
Condyle
nodular
Containing or resembling a small aggregation (cluster) of cells.
This device senses and records blood glucose levels continuously
Continuous glucose monitoring system
Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are bones of the:
Cranium
An enteroenterostomy is the:
Creation of an artificial opening or connection between two segments of the intestine
An ileostomy is the:
Creation of an opening from the ileum to the surface of the abdomen
Chronic inflammation of the intestinal tract is:
Crohn disease
Chronic inflammation of the intestinal tract:
Crohn disease
Application of intensely cold liquid nitrogen to destroy tissue is called:
Cryosurgery
A group of symptoms produced by excess of cortisol from the adrenal cortex:
Cushing syndrome
Cystic tumors
Cystic tumors have large open spaces filled with fluid, either a sticky, thick fluid (mucinous) or a thin, watery fluid (serous). The most common site of cystic tumors is the ovaries.
Interferon and interleukins are examples of
Cytokines
______________ are chemical messengers secreted by T cells that aid cells to kill antigens
Cytokines
T cells that directly kill foreign cells are
Cytotoxic T cells
_____ is the removal of solid waste through the anus.
Defecation
Stereotactic radiosurgery
Delivery of dose of radiation under stereotactic (highly precise) guidance (gamma knife surgery)
Antigen-resenting cells that they show T and B cells what to attack are
Dendritic cells
Scirrhous
Densely packed or overgornw tissue
DNA
Deoxyribonucleic acid
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
Depression or suppression of the immune system after exposure to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); marked by opportunistic infections, secondary neoplasms, and neurologic problems.
dermatology
Derm
______________ is a surgical procedure for removing scars associated with acne
Dermabrasion
_____logy is the study of the skin and skin diseases.
Dermato
Fulguration
Destruction of tissue by electric sparks generated by a high-freguency current.
The ELISA laboratory test is used to
Detect the presence of HIV antibodies
Thyroid __________ is the best method to evaluate thyroid structures and abnormalities
Diagnostic sonography
The shaft of a long bone is called a/an:
Diaphysis
Abnormal discharge of watery fecal matter is called:
Diarrhea
DES
Diethylstibestrol, a carcingoic drug
Lymphadenopathy
Disease of lymph nodes.
Paronychia is
Diseased state around the nail
Abnormal outpouchings in the intestinal wall are called:
Diverticula
Abnormal side pockets in a hollow organ, such as the intestine:
Diverticula
Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Drug used to treat AIDS by blocking an enzyme (reverse transcriptor), needed to make copies of HIV.
Protease inhibitor (PI)
Drug used to treat AIDS by blocking production of protease, an enzyme that helps HIV to reproduce.
Radiosensitizers
Drugs given to make tumors more sensitive to receive radiation.*
Radiosensitizers
Drugs that enhance the killing effect of radiation on cells drugs that increase the sensitivity of tumors to x-rays
Difficulty in swallowing:
Dysphagia
After a recent river-raft outing, Mary experienced severe itching on her back and noticed redness and swelling around a lesion in the area. Her back was also sunburned. At first Mary thought the lesion was a bug bite and treated it with topical application of calamine and aloe lotion for the burn. When the itching and redness of the lesion did not subside, she went to see her physician. On examination, the physician noticed a raised reddish lesion with irregular borders and found other moles on Mary's legs, arms, and back. He referred Mary to a dermatologist who performed a biopsy that confirmed suspicion of a malignant melanoma. In Mary's case, as in many cases, melanomas often arise in
Dysplastic nevi on the back, lower leg, or neck
The abbreviation for erythropoietin is
EPO
If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop working, what activity could be life threatening?
Eating
Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a chronic cough, bluish tint to his skin, and a barrel chest. He most likely suffers from:
Emphysema
The outermost protective layer of the crown of the tooth is called:
Enamel
Tele-
End, at a distance, far Example: telemetry, the electronic transmission of data between distant points, such as the transmission of cardiac monitoring data.
The use of an endoscope combined with ultrasound to examine the lining of the gastrointestinal tract is called
Endoscopic ultrasonography
Tube is placed through the mouth to the trachea to establish an airway:
Endotracheal intubation
Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler when she starts to wheeze. The purpose of the device is to:
Enlarge the bronchioles
Splenomegaly
Enlargement of the spleen.
A chemical that speeds up a reaction between substances is a(n):
Enzyme
What does ELISA stand for
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
WBCs with dense reddish granules that increase in allergic reactions
Eosinophils
Lid-like piece of cartilage that covers the larynx, preventing food from entering the larynx and trachea during swallowing:
Epiglottis
Nose bleed:
Epistaxis
Condition of redness; flushed
Erythema
Red blood cells are also called
Erythrocytes
The hormone secreted by the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow to make RBCs
Erythropoietin
Varicose veins at the lower end of the esophagus are called:
Esophageal varices
Mrs. Meyer has been diagnosed with oral leukoplakia caused by chronic smoking. Her chronic smoking is described as an:
Etiologic factor
What is the primary function of mucus and cilia in the nostrils?
Filtration
A cracklike sore is termed a(n):
Fissure
Your lungs are divided into lobes. How many lobes do you have?
Five
Lymph
Fluid that circulates within lymph vessels and lymph nodes.
Interstitial fluid
Fluid that fills the spaces in between cells.
Opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave:
Foramen
Acquired immunity
Formation of antibodies and lymphocytes after exposure to an antigen.
Lymphopoiesis
Formation of lymphocytes.
Cryosurgery
Freezing of tissue
Apo-
From, off, away Example: apocrine gland, a gland whose secretion contains part of the secreting cell.
Fungating tumors
Fungating tumors exhibit a mushrooming pattern of growth where the tumor cells pile on top of each other. Fung/i = fungus, mushroom.
This test measures the body's ability to respond to glucose load
GTT
Reducing the size of the stomach and diverting food to the jejunum describes a procedure called
Gastric bypass
A malignant tumor of the stomach is called:
Gastric carcinoma
When solids and fluids return to the mouth from the stomach, the condition is known as:
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
The surgical creation of a new opening between the stomach and the second part of the small intestines is termed
Gastrojejunostomy
Surgical removal of part of the gums is called ______
Gingivectomy
fractionation
Giving radiation in small, repeated doses
Portion of plasma that contains antibodies to protect the body against antigens
Globulin
_________ is a plasma protein that serves as a defense mechanism of the immune system
Globulin
A(n) ____________ is used in blood glucose monitoring
Glucometer
Medical term for simple blood sugar is:
Glucose
The breakdown of glycogen into glucose is called:
Glycogenolysis
To measure long-term blood glucose control, a(n) ___________ test is done
Glycosylated hemoglobin
Inflammation of joints caused by excessive uric acid accumulation:
Gouty arthritis
An abnormal increase in granulocytes in the blood is called
Granuloctytosis
Exophthalmos is a symptom of which endocrine disease?
Graves disease
Pedunculated
Gross examination of the benign polyp in Mr. Devine's colon revealed it extended from a stem; the term for this description is
Molecularly targeted drugs
Group of antineoplastic drugs that target cancer cell-specific pathways on the molecular level It interferes with processes such as growth regulation, cell cycle control, and apoptosis.
Colony-stimulating factors
Group of glycoprotein lymphokine growth factors It is produced by blood monocytes, tissue macrophages, and stimulated lymphocytes. They are required for differentiation of stem cells into granulocyte and monocyte cell colonies. They have been used experimentally as anticancer agents and for the restoration of hematopoietic function after myelosuppression in transplantation and cancer chemotherapy.
Interleukins
Group of multifunctional cytokines that are produced by a variety of lymphoid and nonlymphoid cells They exert effects at least partly within the lymphopoietic system; originally believed to be produced chiefly by and to act chiefly upon leukocytes. Most interleukins direct other cells to divide and differentiate. Each acts on a specific group of cells that have receptors specific to that interleukin.
A stool ______ is a colon cancer screening test that detects occult blood in the stool
Guaiac
Gingiv/o means:
Gums
A sac or tube within which each hair grows is a:
Hair follicle
The abbreviation of the test that measures the average blood sugar concentration over a period of time is
HbA1c
Abbreviation fir hematocrit
Hct
CD4+ cells
Helper T cells that carry the CD4+ protein antigen on their surface.
T cells that aid B cells in recognizing antigens and stimulating antibody production are
Helper cells
Spending short periods of time in the morning sun can be beneficial. How?
Helps in the production of Vitamin D.
The percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood is the
Hematocrit
The blood protein in RBCs that enables the RBCs to carry oxygen is called
Hemoglobin
_______is excessive bleeding caused by a congenital lack of one of the protein factors necessary for blood clotting
Hemophillia
Spitting up blood from the lungs:
Hemoptysis
Which of the following is an anticoagulant substance produced by basophils and tissue cells to prevents formation of thrombi and emboli?
Heparin
Inflammation of the liver caused by a virus is termed:
Hepatitis
_____ stomatitis is inflammation of the mouth caused by infection with the herpesvirus.
Herpetic
Hypercapnia
High carbon dioxide levels in the blood
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Highly malignant tumor derived from primitive striated muscle cells It occurs most frequently in the head and neck and is also found in the genitourinary tract, extremities, body wall, and retroperitoneum
The function of the dermis is to:
House and support a system of nerves, vessels, and glands
Pertaining to the upper arm bone:
Humeral
High blood levels of a pigment released by the liver with bile:
Hyperbilirubinemia
Medical term for a condition of decreased oxygen in the blood:
Hypoxemia
A group of gastrointestinal symptoms associated with stress and tension is:
IBS
What is the correct abbreviation of intradermal?
ID
T cell
Lymphocyte originating in the thymus gland and destroys antigens by direct action or production of cytokines such as interferons and interleukins.
Helper T cell
Lymphocyte that aids a B cell lymphocyte in recognizing antigens and stimulating antibody production.
Suppressor T cell
Lymphocyte that inhibits the activity of B and T cell lymphocytes.
Natural killer cell
Lymphocyte that recognizes and destroys foreign cells by releasing proteins called cytokines.
Agranulocytes that produce antibodies that play a major role in immunity are
Lymphocytes
An abnormal increase in lymphocytes is called?
Lymphocytosis
Thymus gland
Lymphoid organ in the mediastinum that produces T cell lymphocytes and aids in the immune response.
The lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus gland are collectively known as the
Lymphoid organs
Ms. M is being treated for a skin infection. You know she has one of the following but you don't remember which. Knowing that she has an infectious disorder, which of the following is Ms. M's disorder?
MRSA
CSF
MY EDITION SAYS: Cerebrospinal fluid ?? colony-stimulating factor
A ___________ is a large phagocyte found in lymph nodes and other tissues of the body
Macrophage
Phagocytes that clear away dead cells and debris as an infection subsides are called
Macrophages
A freckle is an example of a(n):
Macule
___________ uses magnetic waves to produce images of organs and tissues in all three planes of the body
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Multiple myeloma
Malignant tumor of bone marrow cells (plasma cells that produce immunoglobulins).
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Malignant tumor of cells (lymphocytes and large macrophages called histocytes) found in lymph nodes and spleen
Lymphoma
Malignant tumor of lymph nodes and lymphatic tissue.
Hodgkin disease
Malignant tumor of lymphatic tissue in the spleen and lymph nodes.
Kaposi sarcoma
Malignant tumor of skin and connective tissue; associated with AIDS.
Thymoma
Malignant tumor of the thymus gland.
A ________ can confirm exposure to tuberculosis.
Mantoux skin test
purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test
Mantoux skin test, can indicate exposure to tuberculosis, though not necessarily an active presence of disease.
Lymph node
Mass of stationary lymphatic tissue along the path of lymph vessels.
Adenoids
Masses of lymphatic tissue in the nasopharynx.
Tonsils
Masses of lymphatic tissue on either side of the back of the mouth.
Projection of the temporal bone:
Mastoid process
Viral load test
Measures the amount of HIV in the blood stream.
Space between the lungs in the chest:
Mediastinum
Medullary
Medullary means pertaining to large, soft, fleshy tumors. Thyroid and breast tumors may be Medullary, meaning they are large, soft, and fleshy.
Hair turns gray when the body stops producing:
Melanin
Membrane that connects parts of small intestine:
Mesentery
surgical procedure to treat cancer
Methods of removing cancer: cryosurgery, cauterization, en bloc resection, excisional biopsy, exenteration, fulguration, incisional biopsy
A stool culture is a test for
Microorganisms in feces
Mr. Harper was diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The lesion was treated by excising layers of growth and examining each layer microscopically. This technique is called:
Mohs surgery
Ms. Watkins was diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The lesion was treated by excising layers of growth and examining each layer microscopically. This technique is called __________
Mohs surgery
MOAB is the abbreviation for
Monoclonal antibody
______ are agranulocytes
Monocytes
Epstein-Barr is the virus that causes
Mononucleosis
The presence of antibodies to EBV indicates
Mononucleosis
Stomat/o means:
Mouth
Radiocurable
Mr. Jeeters, 38, had stage I Hodgkin disease. Treatment with extensive external radiation eradicated the disease; therefore, this type of tumor is called.
The abbreviation for non-small cell lung cancer is:
NSCLC
Genetic ability to fight off disease is
Natural immunity
Lymphocytes that recognize and destroy foreign cells without prior sensitization are
Natural killer cells
another set of lymphocytes that attack tumor cells and viruses by releasing cytokines
Natural killer cells (NK) cells
______ are phagocytic granulocytes
Neutophils
A ______phil is a white blood cell that does not stain intensely with either alkaline or acidic dye
Neutorphil
Tumor (neoplasms)
New growth of tissue characterized by progressive, uncontrolled proliferation of cells Tumors may be localized or invasive, benign or malignant.
Picture
Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text pages: 460-462 MTO: Section II, Lessons 1.5, 2.11, 3.12 The correct answer is: A → Tracheostomy, B → Thoracotomy, C → Endotracheal intubation
pertussis
Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text page: 479 MTO: Section II, Lesson 1.2 The correct answer is: pertussis
Picture
Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text pages: 451-453, 456 MTO: Section II, Lessons 1.1, 2.13, 3.10, 4.2, 4.11 The correct answer is: A → Croup, B → Pulmonary fibrosis, C → Emphysema, D → Atelectasis, E → Bronchiectasis
palatine tonsils
Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text page: 477 MTO: Section I, Lesson 1.3 The correct answer is: palatine tonsils
stridor
Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 479 MTO: Section II, Lesson 1.1 The correct answer is: stridor
rale
Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 479 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.2 The correct answer is: rale
Mutations
Once environmentally caused changes in DNA are established in a cell, they are passed on to daughter cells. These inheritable changes, or ________, can lead to malignant growth.
TNM
One of the most common staging systems is referred to as TNM, Tumor, Nodes, Metastasis. A tumor with a label of T1N2M0 would be described as follows: The T refers to the size and extent of the tumor itself; thus, a T1 suggests a small tumor. The letter N refers to the number of regional lymph nodes involved. Finally, the letter M refers to the spread to distant sites—in other words, the number of metastases, which in this case is zero.
Tumor, nodes, metastases
One of the most common staging systems is referred to as TNM, which stands for
Separation of the nail plate from the nail bed in fungal infections is called:
Onycholysis
White plaques on the mucosa of the mouth:
Oral leukoplakia
Spleen
Organ adjacent to the stomach (in the LUQ) that produces, stores, and eliminates blood cells.
Lymphoid organs
Organs containing and derived from lymphatic tissue; spleen, thymus gland and lymph nodes.
Osteosarcoma
Osteo________ is a malignant tumor of bone
Chronic inflammation of bones and joints due to degenerative changes in cartilage:
Osteoarthritis
Poor formation of bone:
Osteodystrophy
Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:
Osteomalacia
The combining form tox/o means
Poison
Toxins
Poison or harmful substance.
Benign growths that protrude from the mucous membrane of the colon are:
Polyps
A small opening on the surface of the skin is a
Pore
When Edmund is diagnosed with oral leukoplakia, his physician explains that this is a(n):
Precancerous condition characterized by white plaques on the oral mucosa
APO
Prefix meaning off or away
Simulation
Process used to plan radiation therapy so the target area is precisely located and marked. It is used in cancer treatments. study using CT or MRI to map the area to receive treatment before radiotherapy is given
apoptosis
Programmed cell death; normal cells undergo this when damaged or aging but cancer cells lose this ability and thus live forever.
Apoptosis
Programmed cell death; normal cells undergo this when they are damaged or aging Generally refers to "programmed" cell death This is necrosis of keratinocytes in which the nuclei of the necrotic cells dissolve and the cytoplasm shrinks, rounds up, and is subsequently phagocytized.
PSA
Prostate specfic antigen
Acid phosphatase
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and Acid phosphatase are protein marker for prostate cancer.
Acid phosphatase
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and __________ are protein marker tests for prostate cancer.
The enzyme that digests protein is:
Protease
Acid phosphatase test
Protein marker tests measure the level of proteins in the blood or on the surface of tumor cells. The prostate-specific antigen and the acid phosphatase test are protein marker tests for prostate cancer.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Protein marker tests measure the level of proteins in the blood or on the surface of tumor cells. The prostate-specific antigen and the acid phosphatase test are protein marker tests for prostate cancer.
Antibody
Protein produced in the bloodstream by lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen, such as a bacterium or toxin. Antibodies destroy or weaken antigens.
Cytokine
Protein that aids cells to destroy antigens. Examples are interleukins and interferons.
Interleukins
Proteins (cytokines) that stimulate the immune system including B & T cell lymphocytes.
The plasma protein converted to thrombin in the clotting process
Prothrombin
__________, which is abbreviated _____, tests the ability of blood to clot by measuring the time elapsed between adding calcium to the sample and the appearance of a clot; it is used to follow patients on anticoagulants
Prothrombin time, PT
Part of the tooth that contains a rich supply of nerves and blood vessels:
Pulp
_____ is the soft, delicate tissue filling the center of the tooth.
Pulp
Rotation of a surgical instrument to remove a core of tissue for examination is called:
Punch biopsy
_________ refers to ecchymoses and petechiae over any part of the body
Purpura
A purulent abscess is a(n)
Pustule
Another term for a retrovirus is:
RNA virus
External beam irradiation
Radiation applied to a tumor from a distant source using a linear accelerator radiation is applied to a tumor from a source outside the body Radiation therapy applied to a tumor from a distant (tele-) source, namely a linear accelerator, is called external beam radiation. External beam therapy delivers a beam of high-energy x-rays to a patient's tumor. The beam is generated outside (external) the patient and is targeted at the tumor site. The beam can be tightly focused so as to not destroy surrounding healthy tissue.
The name of the procedure that measures thyroid function is
Radioactive iodine uptake
Proton therapy
Radiotherapy involving the use of a beam of protons It penetrates tissues with minimal energy deposition before the beam reaches a certain depth, thus localizing the dose to the target area and minimizing irradiation of surrounding tissues. subatomic positively charged particles (protons) produced by a cyclotron deposit a dose of radiation at a tightly focused point in the body
The physician orders a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan, which reveals abnormalities consistent with a pulmonary embolism. You know a pulmonary embolism means:
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism (PE) occurs when a clot (thrombus) or other material lodges in vessels of the lung (pulmonary means pertaining to the lungs). An embolus is a foreign object, air, gas, a piece of tissue or tumor, or a piece of thrombus that circulates in the bloodstream until it becomes lodged in a vessel. Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text page: 456 MTO: Section II, Lessons 4.16-4.17 The correct answer is: a clot forms in distant veins and travels to the lungs
The combining form alveol/o means:
Rationale: Alveol/o means air sac. Alveoli are collections of air sacs that perform the function of gas exchange in the lungs. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 442, 444, 446 MTO: Section I, Lessons 2.4-2.5 The correct answer is: air sac
_____ is an abnormal bluish color to the skin due to deficient blood supply.
Rationale: Cyan/o means blue. Cyanosis is a blue tint to the skin caused by lack of oxygen in the blood. Cyanosis is a common symptom of a coronary embolism. Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text pages: 446, 457 MTO: Section II, Lesson 4.16 The correct answer is: Cyanosis
DOE is the abbreviation for:
Rationale: DOE stands for dyspnea on exertion and means difficulty breathing (dys- = difficult + -pnea = breathing) when the body exerts itself. DOE is an early symptom of emphysema. Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 463 MTO: Section II, Lesson 4.4 The correct answer is: dyspnea on exertion
DPT is the abbreviation for:
Rationale: DPT is the abbreviation for the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus toxoids vaccine. Diphtheria and pertussis are bacterial infections of the upper respiratory tract. Tetanus is a bacterial infection that affects the central nervous system. Children are usually immunized against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus with one DPT injection. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text page: 463 MTO: Section II, Lesson 1.2 The correct answer is: diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (injection)
Mrs. Luce begins ambulating with assistance on her first postoperative day. On the fourth postoperative day, she experiences an acute onset of dyspnea, tachypnea, persistent cough with hemoptysis, and pleuritic pain. Mrs. Luce's symptoms include:
Rationale: Dyspnea is difficult breathing [dys- (difficult) + -pnea (breathing)]. Tachypnea is rapid and shallow breathing [tachy- (rapid) + -pnea (breathing)]. Hemoptysis is spitting up of blood [hemo- (blood) + -ptysis (spitting)]. Pleuritic pain is pain in the pleura. Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 450 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.2; Section IV, Case Study 1 The correct answer is: rapid and shallow breathing, difficult breathing
Mrs. Farrell comes to the emergency department exhibiting the following symptoms: paroxysmal dyspnea, wheezing, and coughing. Dyspnea means that Mrs. Farrell is experiencing:
Rationale: Dyspnea literally means difficult (dys-) breathing (-pnea). It is associated with shortness of breath. Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 450 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.2 The correct answer is: shortness of breath
The combining form epiglott/o means:
Rationale: Epiglott/o means epiglottis. (Watch the spelling!) The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that covers the larynx. Its function is to prevent food from entering the larynx and trachea during swallowing. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 442, 445-446 MTO: Section I, Lesson 1.11 The correct answer is: epiglottis
The exchange of air between the outside environment and the capillaries of the lungs is called:
Rationale: External respiration is correct. Internal respiration describes the exchange of gases in the body at the cellular level. Oxygen passes out of the bloodstream into tissue cells, and at the same time, carbon dioxide passes from tissue cells into the bloodstream. From there it goes to the lungs to be exhaled. Ventilation is the process of breathing in and breathing out. Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 440 MTO: Section I, Lesson 3.8 The correct answer is: external respiration
Midline region where the bronchi, blood vessels, and nerves enter and exit the lungs
Rationale: Hilum is correct. The mediastinum is the region between (in the middle of) the lungs in the chest cavity. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 443, 445 MTO: Section I, Lesson 2.10 The correct answer is: Midline region where the bronchi, blood vessels, and nerves enter and exit the lungs → hilum
The combining form laryng/o means:
Rationale: Laryng/o means larynx, the medical term for voice box. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 440, 445-446 MTO: Section I, Lessons 1.3, 1.7, 1.9, 1.11 The correct answer is: voice box
The central portion or area of the chest that separates the lungs is called the:
Rationale: Mediastinum is correct. Pulmonary parenchyma are the functional parts of the lungs related to respiration, which include bronchioles and alveoli. The hilum is the region where the bronchi, blood vessels, and nerves enter and exit the lungs. A mesothelioma is a rare tumor derived from the mesothelial tissue that covers the surface of the pleural membrane. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 442, 445, 447 MTO: Section I, Lesson 2.2 The correct answer is: mediastinum
OSA is the abbreviation for:
Rationale: OSA stands for obstructive sleep apnea, a sudden cessation of breathing during sleep caused by a narrowing or blocking of the upper airway. Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text page: 463 MTO: Section II, Lesson 1.4 The correct answer is: obstructive sleep apnea
You know that the patient Mrs. Farrell's paroxysmal dyspneic episode is:
Rationale: Paroxysmal means sudden. Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 452 MTO: Section II, Lesson 1.2 The correct answer is: sudden in onset
The combining form pleur/o means:
Rationale: Pleur/o means pleura. The pleura are the double-folded membranes that surround each lung. Diaphragm/o or phren/o mean diaphragm. Halit/o means breath. (Halitosis means bad breath.) Many can mean plural, but this is not a medical term. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 442, 445, 448 MTO: Section I, Lesson 2.8; Section II, Lessons 5.1-5.2 The correct answer is: pleura
Inner fold of pleura lying closest to the lung tissue
Rationale: Pleura is the double-folded membrane that surrounds each lung. The inner fold that lies closer to the lung tissue is the visceral pleura. (Viscera refers to the internal organs enclosed within a body cavity—here the thoracic cavity.) The outer fold that lies closer to the ribs and chest wall is called the parietal pleura. (Parietal means pertaining to the outer wall of a cavity or organ.) Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 442, 445 MTO: Section I, Lesson 2.8 The correct answer is: Inner fold of pleura lying closest to the lung tissue → visceral pleura
Excessive fluid accumulation in the pleural space due to infection, malignancy, or trauma is called:
Rationale: Pleural effusion is correct. Effusion refers to the escape of fluid that seeps into a body cavity. Pneumothorax is a collection of air (not fluid) in the pleural space. Pleurisy (pleuritis) is inflammation of the pleura. Pneumonia is an acute infection and inflammation of the alveoli, which fill with pus or other waste products. Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text page: 457 MTO: Section II, Lesson 5.3 The correct answer is: pleural effusion
Space between the folds of the pleura
Rationale: Pleural means of the pleura and a cavity is a space: Pleural cavity is correct. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text page: 445 MTO: Section II, Lessons 5.3-5.4 The correct answer is: Space between the folds of the pleura → pleural cavity
X-ray of arteries and veins in the lung after injection of dye into a blood vessel
Rationale: Pulmonary angiography is the definitive diagnostic procedure for pulmonary embolism. The pulmonary angiogram (PA) is the x-ray image. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text page: 459 MTO: Section II, Lesson 4.17 The correct answer is: X-ray of arteries and veins in the lung after injection of dye into a blood vessel → pulmonary angiogram
Test used to measure the ventilation mechanics of the lungs
Rationale: Pulmonary function test (PFT) is correct. PFTs measure the ventilation mechanics of the lung (airway function, lung volume, and capacity of the lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide efficiently). These help to diagnose the disease and to determine the extent of airway obstruction. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text pages: 460, 463 MTO: Section II, Lesson 4.5; Section IV, Medical Report The correct answer is: Test used to measure the ventilation mechanics of the lungs → pulmonary function tests
The combining form sinus/o means:
Rationale: Sinus/o means sinus or cavity. You recognize the medical terms sinusitis and paranasal sinuses. The paranasal sinuses are the air-containing cavities around (peri-) the nose (nas/o). Sinusitis is the inflammation of one or more paranasal sinuses. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text page: 449 MTO: Section I, Lesson 1.5 The correct answer is: cavity
The combining form trache/o means:
Rationale: Trache/o means trachea, the medical term for windpipe. The incision made to create an opening in the throat is called a tracheotomy. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 442, 445, 449 MTO: Section I, Lessons 1.3, 2.1-2.3, 3.3 The correct answer is: windpipe
What is the abbreviation for the procedure that uses a thorascope equipped with a camera to magnify the area under observation and projects it onto a video monitor?
Rationale: The correct answer is VATS—video-assisted thorascopy. CPAP stands for continuous positive airway pressure. TLC stands for total lung capacity. A V/Q scan is a radioactive test of lung ventilation and blood perfusion throughout the lung capillaries. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text pages: 461, 464 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.11 The correct answer is: VATS
Mrs. Farrell's symptoms—paroxysmal dyspnea, wheezing, coughing—are indicators of:
Rationale: The correct answer is asthma. Wheezing, coughing, and paroxysmal dyspnea are the classic symptoms of asthma. Asthma is a chronic disorder with airway obstruction caused by swelling and constriction of the bronchi and increased mucous production. Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text page: 452 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.2 The correct answer is: asthma
Muscle separating the chest and abdomen
Rationale: The diaphragm separates the chest and abdomen. It contracts and relaxes to make breathing possible. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 443, 445 MTO: Section I, Lesson 2.8 The correct answer is: Muscle separating the chest and abdomen → diaphragm
Lid-like piece of cartilage covering the larynx
Rationale: The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that protects the glottis and prevents the aspiration of food into the airway by covering the entrance to the larynx during swallowing. Glottis is the medical term for the opening between the vocal cords. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 442, 445 MTO: Section I, Lesson 1.11 The correct answer is: Lid-like piece of cartilage covering the larynx → epiglottis
The function of the thyroid cartilage (Adam's apple) is to:
Rationale: The larynx is surrounded by pieces of cartilage for support. The thyroid cartilage is the largest and is commonly known as the Adam's apple. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text page: 440 MTO: Section I, Lesson 1.9 The correct answer is: provide support for the larynx
Pharyngeal tonsils
Rationale: The pharyngeal tonsils are the adenoids. They are contained in the nasopharynx. The palatine tonsils are contained in the oropharynx, which is closer to the mouth. Palatine refers to the roof of the mouth, or the palate. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text pages: 440, 444 MTO: Section II, Lessons 1.3, 1.7 The correct answer is: Pharyngeal tonsils → adenoids
The laryngopharynx is a subdivision of the:
Rationale: The pharynx, or throat, has three parts: the nasopharynx, the oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx. The larynx is the voice box. The glottis is the opening to the larynx. The trachea is the windpipe. Objective: Name the organs of the respiratory system and describe their locations and functions. Text page: 440 MTO: Section I, Lesson 1.7 The correct answer is: pharynx
With which disorder do the alveolar walls lose their elasticity, become over-inflated, and eventually rupture?
Rationale: The question describes emphysema. With tuberculosis, the bacilli invade the lungs and produce small tubercles of infection. Pneumoconiosis is characterized by chronic inflammation, infection, and bronchitis caused by inhaling dust particles. Bronchiectasis is caused by chronic infection in the lower lobes of the lungs, with loss of elasticity of the bronchi (-ectasis = dilation). Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text page: 453 MTO: Section II, Lessons 4.2, 4.4, 4.8; Section IV, Medical Report The correct answer is: emphysema
Mr. Milorio is 73. He presents to his physician with complaints of a persistent cough. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes a day since he was 17. After a physical examination, the physician schedules Mr. Milorio for a bronchoscopy. The findings were suspicious for an infiltrating tumor. A bronchoscopy is a visual examination of the:
Rationale: The question tells you that -scopy is a visual examination, so you're looking for the meaning of the combining form bronch/o, which is bronchial tube. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text pages: 446, 459 MTO: Section II, Lessons 2.16, 3.11 The correct answer is: bronchial tubes
Creation of an opening into the trachea and insertion of a tube to create an airway
Rationale: This one comes down to knowing your word parts. The suffix -stomy means new opening and the suffix -tomy means incision or the process of cutting. A tracheostomy is the creation of an opening into the trachea for the purpose of inserting a tube. A tracheotomy is the incision made to create the opening. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text page: 462 MTO: Section II, Lesson 1.5 The correct answer is: Creation of an opening into the trachea and insertion of a tube to create an airway → tracheostomy
The combining form thorac/o means:
Rationale: Thorac/o means chest, as in the medical terms thorax and thoracic. Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 449 MTO: Section I, Lesson 2.8 The correct answer is: chest
Surgical puncture to aspirate fluid from the pleural cavity
Rationale: Thoracentesis is a puncture to remove fluid from the pleural space. Thoracoscopy (also called thorascopy) is the visual examination of the chest by inserting an endoscope. Thoracotomy is a major surgical incision into the chest, necessary for lung biopsies and resections. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text page: 461 MTO: Section II, Lesson 5.3 The correct answer is: Surgical puncture to aspirate fluid from the pleural cavity → thoracentesis
Examination of the pleural space, pleura, and lungs with a scope inserted through a small incision between the ribs
Rationale: Thoracoscopy is correct. Thoracentesis is a puncture to remove fluid from the pleural space. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text page: 461 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.11 The correct answer is: Examination of the pleural space, pleura, and lungs with a scope inserted through a small incision between the ribs → thoracoscopy
URI is the abbreviation for:
Rationale: URI stands for upper respiratory infection. Objective: Apply your new knowledge to understanding medical terms in their proper contexts, such as medical reports and records. Text page: 464 MTO: Section II, Lesson 1.3 The correct answer is: upper respiratory infection
Removal of the tonsils is called a:
Rationale: Use your knowledge: tonsill/o = tonsil and -ectomy = surgical removal. The correct answer is tonsillectomy (the removal of the palatine tonsils). Notice that the combining vowel is dropped because the suffix begins with a vowel. Objective: Describe important clinical procedures related to the respiratory system and recognize relevant abbreviations. Text page: 449 MTO: Section I, Lessons 1.3, 1.7 The correct answer is: tonsillectomy
Mrs. Farrell's wheezing indicates:
Rationale: Wheezing is a whistling sound caused by air being forced through narrowed air passages caused by the swelling and constriction of the bronchi associated with asthma. Loss of alveolar elasticity is associated with emphysema. Atelectasis is the medical term for a collapsed lung, characterized by the incomplete (atel/o) expansion (-ectasis) or collapse of the alveoli. Obstruction of the larynx is associated with croup. Objective: Identify pathologic conditions that affect the respiratory system. Text page: 452 MTO: Section II, Lesson 2.2 The correct answer is: bronchial narrowing and inflammation
During inspiration, which of the following actions occur:
Rationale: When you breathe in, the diaphragm contracts and descends. This movement enlarges the chest area, which decreases internal air pressure. Air then flows into the lungs to equalize the pressure. Objective: Recognize medical terms that pertain to respiration. Text page: 443 MTO: Section I, Lesson 3.2 The correct answer is: diaphragm contracts, chest cavity area increases, internal air pressure decreases
Right lymphatic duct
Receives lymph from the right side of the body and empties lymph into a vein in the neck.
RBC is the abbreviation for
Red blood count
Blood has all of the following functions except to
Regulate respiration
En bloc resection
Removal of a large, bulky tumor without dissection En bloc resection is the removal of a tumor along with a large area of the surrounding tissue containing lymph nodes. Classic examples are modified radical mastectomy, colectomy, and gastrectomy. In en bloc resections, the involved organ of origin and regional lymph nodes are removed as one mass of tissue.
Splenectomy
Removal of the spleen.
Thymectomy
Removal of the thymus gland.
Fractionation
Repeated small does of radiation
mitosis
Replication of cells; a stage in a cell's life cycle involving the production of two identical cells from a parent cell
Retinoblastoma
Retinoblastoma is an inherited cancer. Loss or mutation of the retinoblastoma gene (Rb-1) causes a tumor of the retina of the eye. Congenital hereditary neoplasm developing from retinal germ cells
RTI is the abbreviation for
Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Anaplasia
Reversion to a more primitive cell type
Dedifferentiation
Reversion to a more primitive, embryonic cell type is called Dedifferentiation and is characteristic of malignant tumors. Is a loss of differentiation of cells. This is also known as anaplasia, when a cell reverts back to its embryonic type and is no longer capable of differentiation, or specialization.
Dedifferentiation
Reversion to a more primitive, embryonic cell type is called ____________ and is characteristic of malignant tumors
The vessel that receives lymph from the upper right part of the body is the
Right lymphatic duct
subcutaneous
SC
Systemic lupus erythematosus
SLE
Leiomyosarcoma
Sarcoma that contains large spindle cells of unstriated muscle
Exanthematous viral diseases include all of the following except:
Scabies
________ is a contagious parasitic infection of skin with intense pruritus.
Scabies
Squamous cell carcinoma arises from squamous epithelial cells, which are thin, flat, and:
Scalelike
Radionuclide
Scan of organs after abn injection of a radiactive substance.
Shoulder bone:
Scapula
ateral curvature of the spinal column:
Scoliosis
Exfoliative cytology
Scraping and microscopic examination of cells from the region of suspected disease Cells are scraped from the region of suspected disease and examined under a microscope The microscopic examination of desquamated cells for diagnostic purposes The cells are obtained from lesions, sputum, secretions, urine, and other material by means of aspiration, scraping, a smear, or washings of the tissue.
An oil-secreting gland associated with hair follicles is a:
Sebaceous gland
A benign skin neoplasm common in the elderly and characterized by thickened yellow or brown areas of the epidermis is called
Seborrheic keratosis
Autologous
Self
_____ studies include growth hormone, prolactin level, gonadotropin levels, and calcium
Serum
Mr. Randolph is jaundiced. His physician orders a liver function test called
Serum bilirubin
The difference between plasma and serum is that
Serum does not contain clotting elements
red blood cell morphology looks at the ___ of individual red blood cells
Shape
Sarah has a cheat X-ray that shows she has tubercles in her lungs. What does that mean?
She has a dormant form of tuberculosis that could become active if her resistance is lowered
Presence of stone(s) in a salivary gland:
Sialadenolithiasis
______ anemia is a genetic disorder characterized by production of abnormal hemoglobin (HbS), abnormal shape of erythrocytes, and hemolysis.
Sickle Cell
A direct visual examination of the mucous membrane lining of the sigmoid colon is a diagnostic procedure called:
Sigmoidoscopy
The combining form dermat/o means:
Skin
Ring of muscles:
Sphincter
The combining form splen/o means
Spleen
The organ near the stomach that produces, stores, and eliminates blood cells is the
Spleen
The correct term for removal of the spleen is
Splenectomy
________megaly is enlargement of the spleen
Spleno
Slipping or subluxation of a vertebra:
Spondylolisthesis
Diffuse
Spreading evenly throught the cell
The abbreviation of the medical term meaning a malignant growth that develops from scale-like epithelial tissue is:
SqCCA
The epidermis is composed of which type of cell?
Squamous epithelial cells
This keratinized layer of skin functions as a protective barrier against outside elements.
Squamous epithelium
Presence of improperly digested fats in the feces:
Steatorrhea
Unspecialized cells that become specialized when the mature are called
Stem cells
The outermost layer of epidermis is the
Stratum corneum
simulation
Study using CT scan or MRI to map treatment before RT is given.
proton therapy
Subatomic positively charged particles (protons) produced by a cyclotron deposit a dose of radiation at a tightly focused point in the body.
Allergen
Substance capable of causing a specific hypersensitivity in a body; an antigen.
T cells that serve a regulatory function for specific immune responses by stopping the immune response when an antigen has been destroyed are
Suppressor T cells
Stereotactic radiosurgery
Surgery in which the site is localized with 3D coordinates and tissue destruction is performed with ionizing radiation In this surgery, the site to be worked on is localized with three-dimensional coordinates and tissue destruction is performed with ionizing radiation rather than surgical incision. technique in which a single large dose of radiation is delivered under a precise 3D guidance to destroy vascular abnormalities and small brain tumors
The suffix --ectomy means:
Surgical removal
Exenteration or Evisceration.
Surgical removal of the inner organs Exenteration is extensive. The tumor, its organ of origin, and all surrounding tissue is removed. It is also called evisceration.
Onc/o
Swelling, mass, tumor Example: cellular oncogenes, potentially cancer-inducing genes that under normal conditions function in the growth and proliferation of cells but when altered in some way by a cancer-causing agent may cause the cells to be transformed to a malignant state.
Esophageal varices:
Swollen, twisted veins
Hypersplenism
Syndrome of spleen enlargement (splenomegaly) and destruction of red blood cells (hemolysis).
Ms. King presented to her physician with a reddish "butterfly" rash over her nose and cheeks. After further examination and lab results showing high levels of antibodies in the blood, she is told she has a systemic chronic inflammatory collagen disease. Corticosteroid treatment is begun. Ms. King's diagnosis is
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Lymphocytes that act directly on antigens to destroy them or produce chemicals toxic to them are
T Cells
Cytotoxic T cell
T cell lymphocyte that directly kills foreign cells; T8 cell.
Lymphocytes that act directly on antigens to destroy them or produce chemicals toxic to them are
T cells
What is the abbreviation for the term meaning pertaining to through the skin?
TD
This test measures the amount of a hormone in the blood that is secreted by the anterior pituitary lobe to control the release of thyroid hormone and to stimulate the growth and function of the thyroid gland
TSH level
Clubfoot:
Talipes
Fulguration
Technique in which tissue is destroyed by burning with an electric spark It is used primarily for eliminating small superficial growths but may be used with curettage to eradicate abnormal tissue deeper in the skin or to stop bleeding.
ELISA
Test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in blood. This is a screening test for AIDS.
Protein marker tests
Tests for circulating biochemical markers of substances indicative of neoplasm measure the level of proteins in the blood or on the surface of tumor cells; these tests diagnose cancer or detect its recurrence after treament
An inherited defect in the ability to produce hemoglobin, usually seen in persons of Mediterranean background
Thalassemia
Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution
The ABCDEs of Melanoma
CEA test
The CEA test helps diagnose colorectal and GI cancer.
Immune response
The body's capability to resist foreign organisms and toxins that can damage tissue and organs.
Angiogenesis
The formation of new blood vessels The process is controlled by chemicals produced in the body that stimulate blood vessels or form new ones.
Which of the following are a lymphoid organ of the immune system
The lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils, and adenoids
Apoptosis
The medical term for programmed cell death is
Carcinoma in situ
This refers to localized tumor cells that have not invaded adjacent structures
Hematochezia is:
The passage of bright red blood from the rectum
Carcinogenesis
The process of initiating and promoting cancer
Curettage is
The use of a sharp instrument to scrape away a skin lesion
HIV is
The virus that causes AIDS
What do hay fever, anaphylactic shock, and hives have in common
They are hypersensitivity reactions.
A full-thickness burn injury is also called a
Third-degree burn
Beta-hCG protein marker test
This detects human chorionic gonadotropin in serum of patients with testicular cancer. Two serum proteins have been associated with testicular cancer. One is chorionic gonadotropin and the other is alpha-fetoprotein.
Beta-hCG protein marker test
This detects human chorionic gonadotropin in serum of patients with testicular cancer. Two serum proteins have been associated with testicular cancer. One is chorionic gonadotropin and the other is alpha-fetoprotein.
Radionuclide scan
This diagnostic procedure involves the intravenous injection of radioactive substances to reveal abnormalities. Radionuclide organ imaging uses the intravenous injection of radioactive substances to visualize tumors and metastases.
Immunohistochemistry
This diagnostic test localizes antigens, or proteins, in tissues using marked antibodies to assess presence and amount of specific molecules in both normal and tumor cells
Cytogenetic analysis
This diagnostic test localizes antigens, or proteins, in tissues using marked antibodies to assess presence and amount of specific molecules in both normal and tumor cells. Examination of chromosomes for translocations, breaks or deletions of DNA chromosomes of normal or tumor cells are examined for breaks, translocation, or deletions of DNA; the result of this test can help confirm diagnosis of a particular form of leukemia or other cancer
Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
This diagnostic test localizes antigens, or proteins, in tissues using marked antibodies to assess presence and amount of specific molecules in both normal and tumor cells. is a process of localizing antigens (proteins) in tissue cells using marked antibodies. (Antibodies bind specifically to antigens.)
Laparoscopy
This is used to inspect the peritoneal cavity for tumors
Laparoscopy
This is used to inspect the peritoneal cavity for tumors. The procedure for a visual inspection (-scopy) of the peritoneal cavity (lapar/o = abdomen) is laparoscopy. visual examination of the abdominal cavity using small incisions and a laparoscope
Carcinoma in situ
This refers to localized tumor cells that have not invaded adjacent structures. A premalignant neoplasm that has not invaded the basement membrane These neoplasms show cytological characteristics of cancer.
Epidermoid
This term means resembling squamous epithelial cells. Resembling (-oid) squamous epithelial cells (thin, platelike cells) is called epidermoid.
The large lymphatic vessel that receives lymph from the lower portion of the body and from the left side of the body above the diaphragm is the
Thoracic duct
Lymph vessels empty into two large ducts called the
Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
Enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin during coagulation
Thrombin
Another term for platelets is
Thromobocytes
________ectomy means the removal of the thymus gland
Thym
A malignant tumor of the thymus gland is called
Thymoma
The organ located in the upper mediastinum that plays an important role in immunity, especially during fetal life and the early years of growth, is the
Thymus
The combining form thym/o means
Thymus gland
The organ that is the site for production and maturation of one type of lymphocyte is the
Thymus gland
Brenda s doctor ordered a ____________ to measure her blood levels of T3, T4, and TSH m
Thyroid function test
The nuclear medicine test that shows the size, shape, and function of the thyroid gland is a
Thyroid scan
Lymph capillaries
Tiny lymph vessels that carry lymph through the body.
Radioresistant
Tissues that require large does of radiation to destroy them*
The lymphatic system functions to do all of the following except
Transport oxygen to capillaries from the bloodstream
Palliative
Treatment designed to relieve or reduce the intensity of uncomfortable symptoms Palliative treatments are not designed to produce a cure. relieving but not curing symptoms
Excisional
Tumor and normal margins removal*
Grade I
Tumor cells appearing close to normal in organization and differentiation
Grade IV
Tumor cells lacking organization and differentiation
Grade II
Tumor cells retaining some organization and differentiation
Grade III
Tumor cells retaining some poor organization and differentiation
radiosensitive tumor
Tumor in which radiation can cause the death of cells without serious damage to surrounding tissue.
Malignant
Tumor that mltiplies rapidly
Radiocurable
Tumors that can be cured with radiation therapy are said to be radiocurable.
Retinoblastoma
Tunmor in retina of the eye
Persons with ______ blood are referred to as universal recipients
Type AB
_______blood contains only anti-A antibodies
Type B
Humoral immunity
Type of immune response in which a B cell lymphocyte transforms into a plasma cell and secretes antibodies.
Cell-mediated immunity
Type of immune response that involves T cell lymphocytes. These lymphocytes act directly on antigens to destroy them.
Photon therapy
Type of radiation therapy that involves the use of x-rays or gamma rays It comes from a special machine called a linear accelerator.
Ana-
Up, back, again backward Example: anaplastic, characterized by anaplasia or reversed development; said of cells.
Abnormal albumin levels would be detected with a
Urine test
Ketone levels would be checked with a
Urine test
_______ is an acute allergic skin reaction in which red, round wheals develop.
Urticaria
Immunotherapy
Use of immunologic techniques to treat disease.
Cryosurgery
Use of subfreezing temperature to destroy tissue
Which diagnostic procedure involves the injection or inhalation of radioactive material to study its distribution in the lung?
V/Q scan
Visual examination of the chest using an endoscope and a video monitor is:
VATS
Introduction of a modified toxin to produce and immune response and protection against disease is
Vaccination
Pleomorphic
Variety of cell types
Verrucous
Verrucous means resembling a wartlike growth. Verruc/o means wart.
A screening procedure that allows physicians to examine the entire length of the colon over the course of several minutes
Virtual colonoscopy
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Virus (retrovirus) that causes AIDS.
Retrovirus
Virus that makes copies of itself using the host cell's DNA, a process that is the reverse of the normal replication mechanism in cells. HIV is a retrovirus.
Gastrointestinal endoscopy may be defined as
Visual examination of the gastrointestinal tract
Mr. Kennedy, who has pernicious anemia, will need a lifelong administration of which substance?
Vitamin B12
_________ is pigmentation loss in areas of the skin
Vitiligo
Sixteen-year-old David visits a dermatologist. The doctor sees a variety of lesions on the face, shoulders, and upper back. The predominant lesions are papules and pustules; several cysts are also visible. David reports that the skin lesions have developed recently and that over-the-counter topical medications have not worked. The physician diagnoses David with:
Vulgaris acne
The test that determines the number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter or microliter of blood
WBC
___________ is a tumor of malignant B cells that produce too much IgM
Waldenström macroglobulinemia
Vaccine
Weakened or dead antigens to induce antibody production.
Wasting syndrome
Weight loss and decrease in muscle strength, appetite, and mental activity that occurs with AIDS.
Mosquito bites often cause this type of lesion.
Wheal
Which of the following is not an accessory structure of the skin?
Wheal
WBC is the abbreviation for
White blood cell count
The percentage of different types of leukocytes in the blood
White blood cell differential
Lymphocytes
White blood cells that develop primarily in lymph nodes and the spleen and fight against foreign organisms.
Exenteration
Wide resection involving the tumor, its organ of origin, and all surrounding tissue in the body space is called
Protocal
Written treatment plan*
Mammography
X-ray examination of the breast to detect breast cancer
scab
a _____ is a crust
Metamorphosis
a change in shape or structure, especially a change from one stage of development to another.
Anaplasia
a change in the structure and orientation of cells, characterized by loss of differentiation and reversion to a more primitive form.
What best describes the composition of a hormone?
a chemical substance
Myoma
a common, benign fibroid tumor of the uterine muscle.
Brachydactyly
a condition in which fingers or toes are abnormally short.
dermis
a dense, fibrous, connective tissue layer; containing collagen, sebaceous oil glands, and sweat glands. This is the middle layer of the skin
Cystic fibrosis is:
a disorder that affects the mucous membranes of the respiratory system as well as the pancreas and the sweat glands
a "macule" is
a flat, circumscribed area of discoloration on the surface of the skin (Ex. freckels, flat moles)
tinea unguium
a form of tinea that effects the nails
Apocrine gland
a gland whose secretion contains part of the secreting cell.
Margie has always had white spots on her arm. The spots are most likely caused by .
a lack of melanin
Glioblastoma
a malignant, invasive, rapidly growing tumor of the cerebrum or the spinal cord.
ESTROGEN RECEPTOR ASSAY
a microscopic examination of breast tumor tissue used to determine the probable response of a tumor to endocrine therapy
The pathologist's report described the malignant tumor as fungating. According to this gross description, the tumor had:
a mushrooming pattern of growth
cicatrix
a normal scar left by a healed wound is called a _____
albino
a person with skin deficient in pigment (melanin)
patch test
a piece of gauze or filter paper containing an allergen extract is applied to the skin to see if it produces a reaction
a "vesicle" is
a primary lesion; It is a small, circumscribed elevation on the skin that contains serous fluid
abscess
a pustule is a small ______ (collection of pus) on the skin
A "petechia" is
a reddish-purple pinpoint spot that appears on the skin
Fibrosarcoma
a sarcoma that contains fibrous connective tissue.
The removal and examination, usually microscopic, of skin lesions to establish diagnosis is called __________
a skin biopsy
scratch test
a small quantity of a solution containing an allergy-causing substance is placed on a lightly scratched area of the skin.
A "nodule" (larger papule) is
a small, palpable knot-like mass; some nodules can be felt even if they cannot be seen.
A "papule" is
a small, solid, raised skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter
a "bulla" is
a vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter
Movement away from the midline:
abduction
Shannon has cholelithiasis, or gallstones. In this term, the suffix -iasis means _______.
abnormal condition
The suffix -cytosis means
abnormal condition of cells
-ia
abnormal condition or diseased state
gynecomastia:
abnormal development of breast tissue in males
Trichomycosis
abnormal fungal condition in the hair
The medical term for a localized collection of pus is:
abscess
a collection of pus in a confined space is called what
abscess
alopecia
absence of hair from areas where it normally grows (this is the medical term for baldness)
alopecia
absence or loss of hair from areas where it normally grows especially from the scalp
The skin functions to do all of the following except ____________.
absorb oxygen for respiration
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and ________ are protein marker tests for prostate cancer.
acid phosphatase
What skin disorder can be treated with antibiotics?
acne vulgaris
When the presence of a disease generates the production of antibodies to fight it the next time it is called ________________ immunity
acquired active
Formation of antibodies and lymphocytes after exposure to an antigen is
acquired immunity
Post-puberty hypersecretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland:
acromegaly
ABCDE test
acronym for the top five characteristics associated with skin cancers: 1. asymmetry of shape, 2. border that is irregular, 3. color (variation within one lesion), 4. diameter (greater than 6 mm). 5. evolution (change)
urticaria (hives)
acute allergic reaction in which red, round wheals develop on the skin
ALL is the abbreviation for
acute lymphocytic leukemia
Masses of lymph tissue in the nasopharynx are called?
adenoids
Adding drugs early in the course of treatment to hasten or assist primary treatment in attacking cancer cells would be considered:
adjuvant therapy
Which is a description of a thyroid scan?
administration of radioactive compound and visualization with scanner to detect tumors or nodules
Cushing's syndrome is a disorder of the:
adrenal gland
tinea unguium
affects the nails
ana
again, anew
carcinogens
agents that cause cancer; chemicals and drugs, radiation, and viruses
Carcinogens
agents that cause cancer; chemicals and drugs, radiation, and viruses Substance or agent that causes the development or increases the incidence of cancer
Absence of pigment in skin:
albinism
An inherited deficiency or absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes caused by an abnormality in melanin production is _________.
albinism
Condition of partial or total lack of melanin pigment
albinism
Increases reabsorption of sodium by kidney tubules:
aldosterone
The combining form bas/o means
alkaline
Cytoplasm
all of the substance of a cell other than the nucleus and the cell wall.
A substance capable of causing a specific hypersensitivity reaction in the body is a(n
allergen
Which of the following is a permanent disorder of the integumentary system?
alopecia
AFP
alpha-fetoprotein
Emphysema primarily affects which lung structure?
alveoli
Pneumonia is an acute inflammation and infection of ______, which fill with pus or products of the inflammatory reaction
alveoli
If a person could not produce surfactant, his/her:
alveoli would collapse
dermatoconiosis is
an abnormal skin condition caused by exposure to dust
contact dermatitis is...
an allergic reaction that can lead to an acute or chronic inflammation of the skin
pimple
an example of a papule is a _______
hypodermic injection is...
an injection below the dermis
A "wheal" is
an irregularly shaped, solid elevation of the skin
_____________ is an exaggerated, life-threatening hypersensitivity to a foreign protein or other substance
anaphylaxis
whats the function of the subcutaneous layer
anchors the dermis and the epidermis to the underlying muscle and bone
What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair, large muscles, and a deep voice?
androgens
Administration of packed cells is a treatment for
anemia
CTPA is a combination of computed tomography scanning and _________
angiography
Protein stimulated by presence of antigens
antibodies
Proteins that destroy antigens are:
antibodies
molecularly targeted drugs
anticancer drugs designed to block the function of growth factors, their receptors, and signaling pathways in specific tumor cells
Substances capable of inducing an immune response are
antigens
A laboratory test for the presence of antibodies that coat and damage erythrocytes
antiglobulin test
neoplasm
any abnormal growth or formation of new tissue whether it is benign or malignant
CHEMICAL CARCINOGEN
any chemical agent that can induce the development of cancer in living tissue
A "Lesion" is
any visible change in body tissue caused by injury or disease; includes sores, wounds, ulcers, and tumors
This type of sweat gland is large and embedded in the dermal layer of the skin under the arms and near the genitals.
apocrine
The medical term for programmed cell death is:
apoptosis
microscopic description of tumors
appearance of tumors when viewed under a microscope: alveolar, carcinoma in situ, diffuse, dysplastic, epidermoid, follicular, papillary, pleomorphic, scirrhous, undifferentiated
Microscopic description of tumors
appearance of tumors when viewed under a microscope; alveolar, carcinoma in situ, diffuse, dysplastic, epidermoid, follicular, papillary, pleomorphic, scirrhous, or undifferentiated
The pain on Ben's lower right side leads the emergency department team to suspect an inflammation of his ________, the pouch that hangs from his cecum.
appendix
External beam irradiation
applying radiation to a tumor from a source outside the body
axilla
armpit
__________ is an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the abdomen. cirrhosis hepatitis jaundice ascites
ascites
Bone marrow biopsy
aspiration of bone marrow tissue and examination under a microscope for evidence of malignant cells
adjuvant therapy
assisting primary treatment. drugs are given early in the course of treatment, along with surgery or radiation to attack cancer cells that may be too small to be detected by diagnostic techniques
A chronic, intermittent bronchial inflammatory disorder, also known as reactive airway disease, is:
asthma
ABCDE
asymmetry (of shape), border (irregularity), color (variation within one lesion), diameter (greater than 6mm), evolution (change)-characteristics associated with melanoma (ABBREVIATION)
Collapsed lung:
atelectasis
______ means incomplete expansion of a lung (collapsed lung)
atelectasis
Which of the following skin diseases is contagious?
athlete's foot
tinea pedis
athletes foot and it affects the skin between the toes
An inflammatory skin reaction due to sensitivity to an environmental allergen is _______________________.
atopic dermatitis
Listening to sounds within the body with a stethoscope is called:
auscultation
The collection of stationary lymph tissue in the armpits is comprised of:
axillary node
The prefix ana- means:
backward
impetigo
bacterial inflammatory skin disease characterized by vesicles, pustules, and crusted-over lesions. (this is a contagious PYODERMA and usually is caused by staphylococci or streptococci)
gangrene
bacterial invasion and the subsequent decomposition of necrotic tissue
Cac/o
bad
The most common, and slow-growing, skin tumor, called ______________, develops in the epidermis, particularly in sun-exposed areas.
basal cell carcinoma
Which type of skin cancer occurs most frequently?
basal cell carcinoma
What is the deepest region of the epidermis?
basal layer
The ______ of the lung rests on the diaphragm
base
The white blood cell type that has granules that stain dark purple in response to alkaline dye
basophil
decubitus ulcer
bed sore (open sore causes by external pressure such as mattress of a bed)
Seborrheic keratosis
benign lesion that results from overgrowth of the upper epidermis and is dark in color.
hemangioma
benign tumor made up of a bundle of blood vessels
Characteristically, a _______ tumor grows slowly, is well-differentiated and noninvasive, and does not spread to a distant location; that is, it does not_______.
benign, metastasize
-coccus
berry-shaped (form of bacterium)
para-
beside
A cancer-treating substance that stimulates the body's immune system or other body defenses is called a(n):
biologic response modifier
Bx
biopsy
Bx is the abbreviation for:
biopsy
bx abbreviation means what?
biopsy
Bx
biopsy (abbreviation)
what is another name for a blackhead? whitehead?
blackhead-> open comedo ( pore is only partially blocked) whiteheads-> cloud comedones (pore is completely blocked)
open comedo
blackheads are also known as ____
The suffis in the term anemia means
blood conditions
CEA TEST
blood test for carcinoembryonic antigen ( marker for GI cancer)
PSA TEST
blood test for the presence of an antigen related to prostate cancer
When whole blood or cells are taken from a donor and infused into a patient, the procedure is called
blood transfusion
What causes the pinkish tint in an albino's skin?
blood vessels
cyan/o
blue
the combining form myel/o means
bone marrow
The microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle is a
bone marrow biopsy
Bone marrow or stem cell transplantation
bone marrow or stem cells are infused intravenously into a patient
BMT
bone marrow transplant
The B in "ABCDE" stands for ___________.
border
What diagnostic procedure might reveal a pituitary tumor?
brain scan
Bcr
breakpoint cluster region (bcr-abl oncogene is a part of the Philadelphia chromosome associated with chronic myeloid leukemia)
spir/o
breathing
What is the medical term for chronic dilation of the bronchi?
bronchiectasis
The smallest subdivision of the bronchial tree is the:
bronchiole
What diagnostic test provides physicians with a direct look at the lining of the respiratory tract?
bronchoscopy
_______ is the visual examination of the bronchi
bronchoscopy
ecchymoses
bruises
any skin vesicle larger than 1 cm is called a ______
bulla
caus/o
burn, burning
Cauter/o
burn, heat
The abbreviation for biopsy is __.
bx
Heel bone:
calcaneus
CA
cancer
The combining form carcin/o means:
cancer
Immunotherapy
cancer treatment using immune cells and antibodies to kill tumor cells
Carcin/o
cancer, cancerous
malignant melanoma
cancerous growth composed of melanocytes
sarcoma
cancerous tumor derived from connective or flesh tissue
Sarcoma
cancerous tumor derived from connective or flesh tissue A malignant neoplasm of the soft tissues arising in fibrous, fatty, muscular, synovial, vascular, or neural tissue Usually first manifested as a painless swelling.
Carcinoma
cancerous tumor made up of cells of epithelial origin A malignant epithelial neoplasm Carcinomas tend to invade surrounding tissue and to metastasize to distant regions of the body.
Squamous cell carcinoma
cancerous tumor that arises from the squamous epithelial cells of the epidermis.
The medical term meaning skin infection composed of a cluster of boils caused by staphylococcal bacteria is:
carbuncle
CEA
carcinoembyronic antigen
Radiation is a(n) _________ when it produces leukemia in radiologists and survivors of atomic bomb explosions.
carcinogen
An adeno______ is a cancerous tumor arising from glandular cells.
carcinoma
This refers to localized tumor cells that have not invaded adjacent structures.
carcinoma in situ
Mutagen/o
causing genetic change Example: mutagenesis, the induction or occurrence of a genetic mutation.
Destruction of tissue with a hot or cold instrument, electric current or caustic substance is called:
cauterization
When malignant tissue is destroyed by burning, it is called:
cauterization
Combining form for the first part of the large intestine:
cec/o
MITOSIS
cell division or replication of cells; creation of two identical daughter cells from a parent cell
EXFOLIATIVE CYTOLOGY
cells are scraped from a region of suspected disease and examined under the microscope
Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
cellular substance that represents a copy of DNA and directs the formation of new protein inside cells
ribonucleic acid (RNA)
cellular substance that represents a copy of DNA and directs the formation of new protein inside cells
RNA
cellular substance that, along with DNA, plays a role in protein synthesis
cGy
centigray or rad
The largest clusters of lymph nodes are found in the
cervical (neck), (armpit) axillary, mediastinal (between the lungs), inguinal (groin)
MUTATION
change in genetic material (DNA) of a cell
mutation
change in the genetic material (DNA) of a cell; may be caused by chemicals, radiation or viruses or may occur spontaneously
Mutation
change in the genetic material (DNA) of a cell; may be caused by chemicals, radiation, or viruses or may occur spontaneously Unusual change in a gene occurring spontaneously or by induction The change affects the original expression of the gene. If a mutation occurs in the genome of a gamete, the mutation may be transmitted to later generations.
Anaplastic
characterized by anaplasia or reversed development; said of cells.
chemabrasion
chemical abrasion, involves the application of chemicals that remove surface layers of skin cells, such as the phenol peel
antibiotics
chemical substances, produced by bacteria or primitive plants. They inhibit the growth of cells and are used in cancer chemotherapy
Chem/o
chemical, drug A chemical; by chemical reaction Example: medicinal chemistry, chemistry as it relates to medicine.
antimetabolites
chemicals that prevent cell division by inhibiting formation of substances necessary to make DNA; used in cancer chemotherapy
Treatment with drugs to damage the DNA of cancer cells is called _______ therapy.
chemo
Alkylating agents, antimetabolites, antibiotics, hormones, and antimiotics all are types of:
chemotherapeutic agents
Antimetabolites
chemotherapeutic agents that block the synthesis of DNA components (nucleotides) and prevent cells from dividing Drug or other substance that is antagonistic to or resembles a normal human metabolite Antimetabolites interfere with a metabolite's function in the body, usually by competing for its receptors or enzymes.
Antibiotics
chemotherapeutic drugs found in bacteria and fungi, which cause breaks in DNA strands to inhibit cell division
Alkylating agents
chemotherapeutic synthetic drugs that cause crosslinks and breaks DNA to stop cells from dividing Substances containing an alkyl radical and capable of replacing a free hydrogen atom in an organic compound This type of chemical reaction results in interference with DNA synthesis and RNA transcription, which in turn results in interference with mitosis and cell division, especially in rapidly proliferating tissue, causing cell death. Alkylating agents are radiometric in that their action is similar to that of irradiation, making them useful in the treatment of cancer, and they are a common class of chemotherapy.
Chemo
chemotherapy
CXR is the abbreviation for:
chest x-ray
varicella
chickenpox
The surgical removal of Mrs. Jones' gallbladder was called a:
cholecystectomy
psoriasis
chronic inflammatory autoimmune skin disorder which thick scaly lesions form because of an excessive epithelial growth rate
CML is the abbreviation for
chronic myelogenous leukemia
COPD is the abbreviation for:
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
acne
chronic papular and pustular eruption of the skin with increase production of sebum
scleroderma
chronic progressive disease of the skin and internal organs with hardening and shrinking of connective tissue
scleroderma
chronic, progressive autoimmune disorder of the connective tissue-> collagen is overproduced so skin loses its elasticity and becomes thick and taut
psoriasis
chronic, recurrent dermatosis marked by itch, scaly, red plaques covered by silvery gray scales
Mr. Johnson is diagnosed with emphysema. You know that this lung disorder is strongly associated with:
cigarette smoking
ulcer
circumscribed crater like lesion that results from tissue death in response to inflammation infection or malignancy
A degeneration of liver tissue in which the damaged portions are replaced with scar tissue, often caused by chronic alcohol abuse or hepatitis, is:
cirrhosis
Collarbone:
clavicle
the process of blood clotting
coagulation
The time required for venous blood to clot in a test tube
coagulation time
Cry/o
cold
The structural protein material found in the dermal layer of the skin is called _______.
collagen
The structural protein material found in the dermal layer of the skin is called:
collagen
crust
collection of dried serum and cellular debris
Use of several chemotherapeutic agents together for the treatment of tumors is called:
combination chemotherapy
CR
complete response-disappearance of all tumor
What is the best treatment for mild epistaxis caused by a bump in the nose?
compress the nostrils, elevate and tilt the head slightly forward
The suffix -ema means:
condition
-osis
condition of
Morbidity
condition of being unwell or deficient in normal function
morbidity
condition of being unwell; deficient in normal function
erythema
condition of redness
The combining form that means dust:
coni/o
Which is a description of tetany?
constant muscle contraction
scabies
contagious dermatitis caused by penetration into the stratum corneum of the scabies itch mite
impetigo
contagious skin disorder caused by staphylococcal or streptococcal infection
scabies
contagious, parasitic infection of the skin with intense pruritus
mucinous
containing mucus
Mucinous
containing mucus (a thick whitish secretion)
Tube thoracotomy is the:
continuous drainage of the pleural spaces from the chest tube placed through a small incision
Failure of the right side of the heart to pump sufficiently to the lungs causing enlargement of the right ventricle, is known as:
cor pulmonale
another name for dermis
corium
_____ is a viral infection with obstruction of the larynx
croup
The _____ of the tooth lies _____ the gum line.
crown, above
a _____ is a collection of dried serum and cellular debris
crust
Which clinical procedure uses liquid nitrogen to destroy tissue?
cryosurgery
What is the combining form meaning skin?
cutane/o
What is the band of epidermis at the base and side of the nail plate that covers the nail root called?
cuticle
-tome
cutting instrument
A lack of oxygen supply to the skin can cause the sking to become
cyanotic.
Closed sac containing fluid or semi-solid material:
cyst
The ovaries are the most common site of this kind of tumor:
cystic
Interferon and interleukins are examples of
cytokines
proteins produced by T lymphocytes to aid other cells in destroying antigens.
cytokines (interferon and interleukins)
NECROTIC POLYPOID
dead tissue in polypoid growths
necr/o-
death
gangrene
death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply
Necr/o
death, corpse Example: necrosis, localized tissue death that occurs in groups of cells in response to disease or injury.
What is an appropriate part of the treatment of a third-degree burn?
debridement
________ is the removal of contaminated or dead tissue and foreign matter from an open wound.
debridement
The abbreviation for a pressure ulcer is:
decub
Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:
decubitus ulcer
Reversion to a more primitive, embryonic cell type is called ______ and is characteristic of malignant tumors.
dedifferentiation
Lymphocytopenia is a(n)
deficiency of lymph cells
Mrs. Kane complains of trouble with swallowing. Another term for swallowing is ___________. deglutition mastication absorption eructation
deglutition
Antigen-presenting cells that they show T and B cells what to attack are
dendritic cells
reticul/o
dense network
DNA
deoxyribonucleic acid
________ is a procedure for removing scars associated with acne
dermabrasian
Derm
dermatology (abbreviation)
The ______ contains blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessels, muscle fibers, hair follicles, and sweat glands.
dermis
What layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves and hair follicles?
dermis
Which layer of skin contains blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, hair follicles, and sebaceous and sweat glands?
dermis
Which layer of skin contains blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, hair follicles,and sebaceous and sweat glands?
dermis
what layer of the skin is this describing:deeper, dense layer of connective tissue
dermis
Electro_________ is a procedure that destroys tissue by burning with an electric spark.
desiccation
Electro___________ is a procedure that destroys tissue by burning with an electric spark
desiccation
protocol
detailed plan for treatment of an illness
Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:
diabetes mellitus
What disorder might be treated with diet, exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs?
diabetes mellitus
PET/CT scan
diagnostic procedure combining CT and PET; this combination provides a more complete picture of a tumor's location and growth or spread than either done independently Superimposition of computed tomography and positron emission tomography scans into one image The CT and PET scans must be performed in sequence during one patient session. The resulting image has the metabolic activity as shown in the PET more precisely aligned with anatomy as visualized with CT.
Profuse sweating:
diaphoresis
This broad band of muscle separates the chest and abdomen and contracts and expands during respiration:
diaphragm
phren/o
diaphragm
The process by which cells change in size from large immature cells to small mature cells and the cell nucleus shrinks is called
differentiation
cellulitis
diffuse, acute infection of the skin marked by local heat, redness, pain, and swelling
cellulitis
diffuse, acute skin infection marked by local head, redness, pain and swelling
Fields
dimensions of the area of the body undergoing irradiation
fields
dimensions of the area of the body undergoing irradiation
An acute bacterial infection of the upper respiratory tract that causes a leathery false membrane to form in the pharynx and trachea is:
diphtheria
tinea barbae
disease of bearded portions of the neck and face
Adjuvant chemotherapy
drugs are given after primary therapy (surgery or radiation); adjuvant means to assist.
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
drugs are given before primary therapy (surgery or radiation) to reduce the size of a tumor
antimitotics
drugs that block mitosis (cell division). Taxol is an example of one used to treat breast and ovarian cancers
radiosensitizers
drugs that increase the sensitivity of tumors to x-rays
differentiating agents
drugs that promote tumor cells to differentiate, stop growing, and die
Xer/o
dry
xer/o
dry
xer/o means:
dry
xer/o-
dry
Xeroderma is
dry skin
ichthy/o
dry, scaly (fish-like) (combining vowel)
Jennifer's physician suspects she may have an ulcer in the _______, which is the first section of her small intestine.
duodenum
coni/o-
dust
Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short arms and normal mental development. He has:
dwarfism
Ingesting food or water contaminated with viruses, parasites, or protozoa can cause a condition characterized by painful abdominal cramping, inflamed intestines, and diarrhea containing mucus and blood. This condition is known as:
dysentery
A mole, or nevus, that displays a highly abnormal but not clearly cancerous appearance is described as:
dysplastic
DOE stands for ______ on exertion
dyspnea
Difficult breathing:
dyspnea
phag/o
eat
The medical term for a bruise is ___________.
ecchymosis
The medical term for large bluish purple spots of leaked blood under the skin
ecchymosis
`what are the two types of sweat glands
eccrine glands and apocrine glands (sweat glands)
________ is an inflammatory skin disease with erythematous papulovesicular lesions.
eczema
dermatitis
eczema is also known as
moors surgery
effective treatment for removing basal cell carcinoma -> One thin layer of tissue is removed at a time; and each layer is studied to see if it has cancer cells and more layers are taken off until no cancer cells are found
mesenchymal
embryonic connective tissue. This is the tissue from which connective tissues (bone, muscle, fat, cartilage) arise
Mesenchymal
embryonic connective tissue; this is the tissue from which connective tissues (bone, muscle, fat, cartilage, and blood cells) arise
Positron _____ _______ can be used to assess small nodules first discovered on a computed tomography scan
emission tomography
rubella, rubeola, varicella
examples of exanthematous viral diseases are; ______ (german measles), ______ (measles), ______ (chickenpox)
When a tumor is removed along with a large area of surrounding tissue and lymph nodes, it is called:
en bloc resection
Benign tumors are often_________, meaning they are contained within a fibrous capsule or cover.
encapsulated
________ intubation is the insertion and placement of a tube into the trachea through the nose or mouth
endotracheal
RADIATION
energy carried by a stream of particles
radiation
energy carried by a stream of particles
Radiation
energy carried by a stream of particles Radiation as a carcinogen can take many forms: x-rays, sunlight, atomic explosions, and radioactive substances, all of which may cause DNA mutations. Radiation is a Carcinogen when it produces leukemia in radiologists and survivors of atomic bomb explosions.
Acromegaly is caused by the over secretion of somatotropin in adults, causing:
enlarged bones in the hands, face, and feet
Arlando is diagnosed with ________itis, which means he has an intestinal inflammation.
enter
Mandy sees the suffix -ase turn up several times in a patient's lab results. She quickly concludes that this suffix means ________.
enzyme
verruca (aka verrucae)
epidermal growth (wart) caused by a virus
EGFR
epidermal growth factor receptor
When you look at the skin, what layer can you see?
epidermis
what layer of the skin is this describing: thin outer, avascular (without blood vessels) layer
epidermis
This term means resembling squamous epithelial cells:
epidermoid
The ______ prevents choking, or aspiration of food
epiglottis
Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to pound. What hormone is causing her reaction?
epinephrine
End of a long bone:
epiphysis
The medical term for nosebleed is:
epistaxis
A wearing away or loss of epidermis is a(n) ________.
erosion
a ____ is a wearing away or loss of epidermal tissue
erosion
EPO
erythropoietin
Secreted by ovary and adrenal cortex; develops and maintains the female sex characteristics:
estradiol
ER
estrogen receptor
Grading of tumors
evaluating the degree of maturity of tumor cells or degree of differentiation
grading of tumors
evaluating the degree of maturity of tumor cells or indication of malignant transformation
Wide resection involving the tumor, its organ of origin, and all surrounding tissue in the body space is called:
exenteration
Scraping and microscopic examination of cells from the region of suspected disease is called:
exfoliative cytology
Carbon dioxide is:
exhaled through the lungs
What does the pleura allow the lungs to do?
expand during breathing
Irradiation
exposure to any form of radiant energy such as light, heat, or x-rays
irradiation
exposure to any form of radiant energy such as light, heat, or x-rays
Infiltrative
extending beyond normal tissue boundaries into adjacent tissues
infiltrative
extending beyond normal tissue boundaries into adjacent tissues
Radiation applied to a tumor from a distant source using a linear accelerator is:
external beam radiation
Fluid from tumors of infections that can cause pleural effusion are:
exudates
genetic screening
family members are tested to determine whether they have inherited a cancer-causing gene
Fibrous membrane separating muscles:
fascia
Adipocytes are _____ cells.
fat
adip/o
fat
lip/o
fat
steat/o
fat
adipocytes
fat cells (fun fact* predominantly found in the subcutaneous layer of the skin)
Fibr/o
fibers
The combining form fibr/o means:
fibers
Protein converted to fibrin in the clotting process
fibrinogen
Pulmonary _____ is the formation of scar tissue in the connective tissue of the lungs
fibrosis
FNA
fine needle aspiration
Prot/o
first
Sunburn is classified as which type of burn?
first degree
cracklike lesions are called what
fissures
macule
flat lesion measuring less than 1 cm in diameter
The combining form sarc/o means:
flesh, connective tissue
Sarc/o
flesh, connective tissue Example: fibrosarcoma, a sarcoma that contains fibrous connective tissue.
-plasm
formation
Plas/o
formation
The suffix -plasia means:
formation
-genesis
formation Production, procreation Example: pathogenesis, the source or cause of an illness or abnormal condition.
-plasia
formation or development
-plasia (or) -plasm
formation, growth, development OR -plasm Example: anaplasia, a change in the structure and orientation of cells, characterized by loss of differentiation and reversion to a more primitive form.
Greta has macules on her face. The more common term is:
freckles
This is destruction of tissue by high-frequency electric sparks.
fulguration
mycosis
fungal infection
Onychomycosis
fungal infection of the nails
myc/o
fungus
myc/o
fungus (fungi include yeasts, molds, and mushrooms)
Fung/i
fungus, mushroom
Ga
gallium
Death and subsequent decomposition of tissue associated with disruption of blood supply is _________.
gangrene
The medical term that describes the death of tissue caused by loss of blood supply followed by bacterial invasion is:
gangrene
GIST
gastrointestinal stromal tumor
Mut/a
genetic change To change Example: mutant, any individual or organism with genetic material that has undergone mutation.
DNA
genetic material within the nucleus of a cell; controls cell division and protein synthesis
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
genetic material within the nucleus of a cell; controls cell division and protein synthesis
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
genetic material within the nucleus of a cell; controls cell division and protein synthesis
Fractionation
giving radiation in small, repeated doses It minimizes tissue damage, unlike a single large dose. Process of administering a dose of radiation in smaller units over time
The opening between the vocal cords is the:
glottis
Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The enlargement is called:
goiter
thyroid gland enlargement:
goiter
Sessile
having no stem; characteristic of some polypoid tumors
sessile
having no stem; characteristic of some polypoid tumors
Invasive
having the ability to enter and destroy surrounding tissue
invasive
having the ability to enter and destroy surrounding tissue
Serous
having the appearance of a thin, watery fluid (serum)
serous
having the appearance of a thin, watery fluid (serum)
cauter/o-
heart; burn
cauter/o
heat, burn
wha does the sebaceous gland do?
helps lubricate the skin and hair and prevents excessive water loss from the skin
The formation of blood cells
hematopoiesis
During _____ transplantations, peripheral stem cells from a donor are administered to a recipient
hematopoietic stem cell
H&E
hematoxylin and eosin- a dye combination used to stain pathology specimens
the blood protein that enables the transport of oxygen
hemoglobin
________ is the reduction in red blood cells due to excessive destruction
hemolytic anemia
Excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of one of the protein factors necessary for blood clotting is called
hemophilia
Chronic constipation can put pressure on anal veins, causing swollen, twisted varicose veins in the rectal region, called:
hemorrhoids
You might expect a person's skin to be jaundiced if he/she has
hepatitis.
crypt/o
hidden
The midline region where the bronchi, blood vessels, and nerves enter and exit the lungs is called the:
hilum
_______genesis is the identification of the type of tissue from which tumor cells arise.
histo
A wheal is a /an:
hive
urticaria
hives
Diagnosis of ____________ is often made by identifying the Reed Sternberg cell in the lymph nodes
hodgkin disease
A malignant tumor of lymph tissue in the spleen and lymph nodes is called __________ disease, or lymphoma
hodgkins disease
kerat/o, when used to refer to the skin, means
horny tissue or hard
The function of ther dermis is to ____________.
house and support a system of nerves, vessels, and glands
The major component of the gastric juices that reduces the pH of the stomach contents is:
hydrochloric acid
A general term for the condition of having excessive reactions to allergens is called ____________.
hypersensitivity
Low levels of sodium in the blood:
hyponatremia
What endocrine disorder can occur in countries that do not have iodized salt?
hypothyroidism
Federico's doctor believes he may have an obstruction where food enters the large intestine through the cecum. The cecum is a small pouch connected to the ileum at the _________.
ileocecal sphincter
The medical term for the creation of an opening from the final, distal, portion of the small intestine to the surface of the abdomen for emptying feces out of the body is:
ileostomy
The term that means a failure of peristalsis with obstruction of the intestines is ____________:
ileus
AML is a condition characterized by a marked increase in the number of
immature granuloctyes
In acute leukemia, there is an increased number of
immature leukocytes
-blastoma
immature tumor Neoplasm of embryonic tissue Example: glioblastoma, a malignant, invasive, rapidly growing tumor of the cerebrum or the spinal cord.
immune/o
immune
The ability of the body to resist foreign microorganisms, such as bacteria, parasites, and viruses, is known as
immunity
electrophoresis is a test that detects and differentiates abnormal levels of specific antibodies
immuno
A term that describes any of a group of diseases caused by a defect in the immune system, characterized by susceptibility to infection and chronic diseases is
immunodeficiency
Antibodies that bind to and sometimes destroy antigens
immunoglobulins
IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM are collectively known as:
immunoglobulins
IHC
immunohistochemistry
This diagnostic test localizes antigens, or proteins, in tissues using marked antibodies to assess presence and amount of specific molecules in both normal and tumor cells.
immunohistochemistry
The use of immune cells, antibodies, or vaccines to treat disease is called
immunotherapy
patch test
in the ____ test allergen-treated piece of gauze or filter paper is applied to the skin. If the skin becomes red or swollen, the result is positive.
scratch test
in the ____ test, several scratches are made in the skin, and a very minute amount of test material is inserted into the scratches.
third-degree burns (full-thickness burn injury)
in this degree of burns the epidermis and dermis layer are destroyed, and subcutaneous layer is damaged, leaving charred, white tissue
second-degree burns (partial-thickness burn injury)
in this degree of burns there are epidermal and dermal lesions, erythema, blisters, and hyperesthesia
Derek finds it easiest to floss his _______, the four upper front teeth in his dental arch.
incisors
callus
increase growth of cells in the keratin layer of the epidermis caused by pressure or friction
Most respiratory disorders are caused by:
infection
Tinea capitis
infection of the scalp
tinea
infection of the skin caused by a fungus
tinea capitis
infection of the skin caused by a fungus that specifically effects the SCALP
tinea barbae
infection of the skin caused by a fungus that specifically effects the skin under neath a BEARD
VIRUS
infectious agent that reproduces by entering a host cell and using the host's genetic material to make copies of itself
Virus
infectious agent that reproduces by entering a host cell and using the host's genetic material to make copies of itself
comedo
inflamed sebum plug aka blackhead or whitehead
"cellulitis" is
inflammation of the connective tissue
Lymphadenitis is defined as:
inflammation of the lymph glands
The medical term cellulitis means:
inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue caused by infection
INFLAMMATORY
inflammation, the body's response to either invading foreign substances or to direct injury of body tissue
Redness, swelling, and heat are characteristic of _____ tumors.
inflammatory
eczema (aka dermatitis)
inflammatory skin disease with erythematous, papulovesciular, or papalsoquamous lesions.
pyoderma
inflammatory, purulent bacterial dermatitis
The collection of stationary lymph tissue in the groin region is comprised of?
inguinal nodes
albinism
inherited deficiency or absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes caused by an abnormality in melanin production
burns
injury to tissues caused by heat contact
Connection of muscle to the bone that moves:
insertion
Core needle biopsy
insertion of a large-bore needle into tissue to remove a core of cells for microscopic examination
Iron deficiency anemia
insufficient iron production to synthesize hemoglobin
Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas?
insulin
Which of the following is classified as an endocrine hormone?
insulin
IGRT
intensity-modulated gated radiation therapy-use of imaging mechanism attached to linear accelerator is added to IMRT to gate (track) a tumor moving during respiration
IMRT
intensity-modulated radiation therapy-high doses of radiation are delivered directly to cancer cells in a targeted way, more precisely than in conventional radiotherapy
Fluid in the spaces between the cells is
interstitial fluid
IORT
intraoperative radiation therapy
Which is an element that is present in thyroxine?
iodine
Adenocarcinoma
is a cancerous tumor arising from glandular cells.
Neuroblastoma
is a cancerous tumor derived from embryonic (immature) nerve tissue
lunula
is a semilunar (half-moon-shaped) whitish region at the base of the nail plate. (whitish in color)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, ELISA
is a test to screen blood for antibodies to the AIDS virus
lesion
is an area of abnormal tissue anywhere on or in the body that may be caused by a disease or trauma
Histogenesis
is the identification of the type of tissue from which tumor cells arise. Identifying the type of tissue (hist/o) from which tumor cells arise (-genesis) is histogenesis. The three major groups of tissue are carcinomas, sarcomas, and mixed-tissue tumors.
whitehead (aka closed comedo)
is when a pore becomes completely blocked
What statement is true about lung cancer?
it is the leading cause of cancer death in men and women
pruritus
itching
pruritus means
itching
Brian's father takes him to the pediatrician for pruritic, scaly patches with minute vesicles and papules. Brain's signs are __________.
itching, blisters, and slightly elevated skin lesions
Why is the pituitary the "master gland"?
its hormones affect other glands
A new father describes his baby as looking like a "pumpkin." The baby most likely:
jaundiced.
___________ sarcoma is a malignant condition associated with AIDS that arises from the lining of capillaries; it appears as dark purplish skin lesions
kaposi
A _____ is a hypertrophied, thickened scar that develops after trauma to the skin, such as a surgical incision.
keloid
Thickened scar:
keloid
A hard protein material found in the epidermis:
keratin
The hard protein material found in the epidermis, hair, and nails is _______.
keratin
The hard protein material found in the epidermis, hair, and nails is:
keratin
actinic keratosis
keratosis caused by overexposure to UV lig
Abnormal condition of ketones in the blood; complication of diabetes mellitus:
ketoacidosis
Humpback:
kyphosis
Hypochromic means
lacking color
Paul is scheduled to have his gallbladder removed via the insertion of a specialized endoscope through a small abdominal incision. This procedure is called a _____scopic _____ectomy.
laparo, cholecyst
Linear accelerator
large electronic device that produces high-energy x-ray beams for treatment of deep-seated tumors
linear accelerator
large electronic device that produces high-energy x-ray beams for treatment of deep-seated tumors
During _______, a lighted flexible endoscope is passed through the mouth or nose into the larynx
laryngoscopy
The parathyroid glands are located nearest what structure?
larynx
The voice box is also known as the:
larynx
leukoplakia
lesion that has a tendency to become cancerous, evolving into squamous cell carcinoma.-> white patches or plaque on tongue or cheek
keloid
lesion that results from excessive collagen formation in skin during tissue repair after trauma
Harold, 55 years of age, has smoked since he was 17. He presents to his physician with white, thickened patches on the mucous membranes of the tongue and cheek. The likely diagnosis of Harold's skin neoplasm is ________.
leukoplakia
The term for the condition of thick, white patches found on the tongue and other mucous membranes is:
leukoplakia
White patches on a mucous membrane of tongue or cheek
leukoplakia
Mr. Ayers' physician warns him that his _______, the large organ in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen, is not producing bile as efficiently as it normally should.
liver
Which of the following is not a lymphoid organ of the immune system?
liver
The right lung has three _____, whereas the left lung has _____
lobes, two
"vitiligo" is
localized (patchy) areas of loss of skin pigmentation
vitiligo
localized loss of skin pigment (depigmentation) -autoimmune disease characterized by milt white patches surrounded by areas of normal pigmentation
Necrosis
localized tissue death that occurs in groups of cells in response to disease or injury.
-lysis
loosening
Onycholysis
loosening of the nail plate with separation from the nail bed
Anaplasia, Dedifferentiation
loss of differentiation of cells; reversion to a more primitive cell type
anaplasia
loss of differentiation of cells; reversion to a more primitive cell type
dedifferentiation
loss of differentiation of cells; reversion to a more primitive, embryonic cell type; anaplasia or undifferentiation
Dedifferentiation, Anaplasia
loss of differentiation of cells; reversion to a more primitive, embryonic cell type; anaplasia or undifferentiation Characterized by loss of differentiation and reversion to a more primitive form Here, a stomach cell no longer looks or acts like a stomach cell, but instead is more primitive in both form and function.
vitiligo
loss of pigment (depigmentation) in areas of the skin (milk-white patches)
Electron beams
low-energy beams of radiation for treatment of skin or surface tumors
electron beams
low-energy beams of radiation for treatment of skin or surface tumors
Pulmonary means pertaining to the:
lung
What is the removal of lung tissue for the purpose of microscopic examination?
lung biopsy
What is the half-moon-shaped white area at the base of the nail called?
lunula
what is the crescent shaped half moon on our nails called and what is it
lunula, makes the site of nail growth
lymph/o
lymph
The tiniest lymphatic vessels are the
lymph capillaries
A condition of localized fluid retention and tissue swelling caused by a compromised lymphatic system is
lymphedema
A ___________ is a large phagocyte found in lymph nodes and other tissues of the body
macrophage
monocytes that have moved into the tissue to clear away dead cells and debris when infection.
macrophages
Which imaging procedure is useful for detecting mediastinal tumors, such as those seen with Hodgkin disease?
magnetic resonance imaging
basal cell carcinoma
malignant tumor of the basal cell layer of the epidermis
squamous cell carcinoma
malignant tumor of the squamous epithelial cells in the epidermis
kaposi sarcoma
malignant, vascular, neoplastic growth characterized by cutaneous nodules
X-ray examination of the breast is:
mammography
Ple/o
many, more
-oma
mass, tumor Example: myoma, a common, benign fibroid tumor of the uterine muscle.
Adenoids (pharangeal tonsils)
masses of lymphatic tissue behind the nasal cavity
exudate
means fluid that accumulates
Neoplasm
means new growth and refers to either benign or malignant tumors. new growth; benign or malignant tumor
purulent
means pus-filled
rubeola
measles
The region between the lungs in the chest cavity is the:
mediastinum
tinea pedis
medical term for athlete's foot (caused by a fungus)
tinea corporis
medical term for ring worm (caused by a fungus)
Thyroid and breast tumors may be ______, meaning they are large, soft, and fleshy.
medullary
Malignant ________oma is a cancerous growth composed of melanocytes.
melan
The ______ in our skin determines the color of the skin and protects the body from ultraviolet light.
melanin
When compared to someone with very light skin, a person with dark skin has more:
melanin
Cell in the basal layer of the epidermis that contains black pigment
melanocyte
Which type of cell contained in the epidermis produces a pigment that protects the skin against ultraviolet (UV) sunrays?
melanocyte
What skin disorder is often life threatening?
melanoma
Mets
metastases
modality
method of treatment, such as surgery, chemotherapy or irradiation
Modality
method of treatment, such as surgery, chemotherapy, or irradiation
Surgical procedures to treat cancer
methods of removing cancerous tissue; cryosurgery, cauterization, en bloc resection, excisional biopsy, exenteration, fulguration, incisional biopsy
nevus
mole-> hyper pigmented area of skin
Mary is diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma, and her physician recommends _____________ for treatment. This treatment consists of lab-produced antibodies linked to a specific toxin being delivered directly to the tumor cells.
monoclonal antibodies
MoAB
monoclonal antibody
The study of the shape of cells is called
morphology
Dr. Gorman removed Mrs.Jakob's malignant tumor and told her that it was filled with thick, sticky fluid. The term for the gross description of the tumor is:
mucinous
Mucos/o
mucous membrane
A malignant tumor of bone marrow cells associated with high levels of one of the immunoglobulins, usually IgG, is called
multiple myloma
Once environmentally caused changes in DNA are established in a cell, they are passed on to daughter cells. These inheritable changes, or _____ , can lead to malignant growth.
mutations
Granulocytes are formed in red bone marrow or, _________ tissue
myeloid
Pertaining to heart muscle:
myocardial
Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood:
myxedema
onych/o
nail
ungu/o
nail
onych/o ; ungu/o
nails
The entrances to the nasal passageway are the:
nares
Genetic ability to fight off disease is:
natural immunity
death:
necr/o
BONE MARROW BIOPSY
needle aspiration of a small amount of bone marrow followed by examination under a microscope
Neur/o
nerve
A(n) _______oma is a cancerous tumor derived from embryonic nerve tissue.
neuroblast
NF
neurofibrosis
moles
nevi or nevus are the medical terms for ____
The medical term meaning a mole or circumscribed malformation of the skin that is usually brown, black, or flesh-colored is:
nevus
Neo-
new
neo-
new
NEOPLASM
new growth
neoplasm
new growth; benign or malignant tumor
What medical treatment is effective because of the absorption function of the skin?
nicotine patch
Papill/o
nipple-like
NED
no evidence of disease
NHL
non-Hodgkin lymphoma
A group of malignant tumors involving lymphoid tissue is
non-hodgkin lymphoma
NSCLC
non-small cell lung cancer
benign tumor
noncancerous growth (neoplasm)
Benign tumor
noncancerous growth (neoplasm) Noncancerous and therefore not a direct threat to life Treatment may eventually be required for health or cosmetic reasons.
Who would have the greatest likelihood of developing Type 2 diabetes mellitus?
obese adult
Sometimes a narrowing or blockage of the upper airway can cause ______ sleep apnea
obstructive
sebum
oily substance that lubricates the skin
epi-
on, upon, over
A piece of DNA whose activation is associated with the conversion of a normal cell into a cancerous cell is a(n):
oncogene
The prefix mono- means
one or single
Separation of the nail plate from the nail bed in fungal infections is __________.
onycholysis
ulcer
open sore on the skin or mucous membranes (deeper than an erosion)
A(n) ____________ infection is a disease caused by lowered body resistance, which allows infection by bacteria and parasites that are normally easily contained
opportunistic
Connection of muscle to a stationary bone:
origin
Keratogenic means...
originating in horny tissue
When Melanie has her tonsils removed, the surgery will take place in her _______pharynx.
oro
The second division of the pharynx between the soft palate and upper edge of the epiglottis is the:
oropharynx
Which of the following glands produces estrogen?
ovary
If your body produced too much thyrotropin, you would have an:
overactive thyroid gland
All of the following are functions of cilia except:
oxygenating
When doctors which induce to labor, a pregnant woman is give pitocin, a synthetic form of what pituitary hormone?
oxytocin
Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine gland?
pancreas
_______ refers o the deficient production of all cellular elements of the blood
pancytopenia
Pap smear
papanicolaou smear
Elias's sense of taste is assessed by testing the response of the ______, the small elevations on his tongue.
papillae
The small raised areas on the tongue that contain the taste buds are called:
papillae
dermis consists of 2 layers, what are they
papillary layer and reticular layer
Solid elevation of the skin (pimple):
papule
pustule
papule containing pus
Air containing cavity in the bones near the nose is the:
paranasal sinus
Which hormone regulates calcium in the blood and bones?
parathyroid hormone
Receiving nutrition through a site other than the digestive system or alimentary canal is called ___________ nutrition.
parenteral
The soft tissue surrounding the nail border is called ________.
paronychium
remission
partial or complete disappearance of symptoms of a disease
Remission
partial or complete disappearance of symptoms of disease Partial or complete disappearance of the characteristics of a chronic or malignant disease
PR
partial response-tumor is one-half its original size
PTT stands for
partial thomboplastin time
In a ____ test, an allergen-treated piece of gauze or filter paper is applied to the skin to see if it produces a reaction
patch
In a _______ test, an allergen-treated piece of gauze or filter paper is applied to the skin to see if it produces a reaction.
patch
Genetic screening
patients and family members are tested to determine whether they have inherited a cancer-causing gene
The combining form that means chest:
pector/o
Gross examination of the benign polyp in Mr. Devine's colon revealed it extended from a stem; the term for this description is:
pedunculated
Granuloctyo_____ is a deficiency in the total number of basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophil
penia
An ulcer in the lining of the stomach or duodenum is a _______ ulcer.
peptic
Tapping the body with the fingertips to determine the size, borders, and density of an internal organ is called:
percussion
The _____ holds the tooth in place in the tooth socket.
periodontal membrane
PSCT
peripheral stem cell transplantation
Evan has healthy ________, which is the name for the involuntary, rhythmic contractions that move a bolus of food through the GI tract.
peristalsis
subcutaneus means...
pertaining to beneath the skin
CYSTIC
pertaining to or containing cysts
MEDULLARY
pertaining to the medulla or an organ
Ungual means...
pertaining to the nail
The "P" in DPT stands for:
pertussis
_____ is a highly contagious upper respiratory infection characterized by sudden coughing and a whooping inhalation
pertussis
Finger or toe bones:
phalanges
What structure is a passageway for both food and air?
pharynx
The combining form that means voice:
phon/o
Mineral substance in bone:
phosphorus
Viral oncogenes
pieces of DNA from viruses that infect a normal cell and cause it to become malignant
cellular oncogenes
pieces of DNA that, when activated by mutations or by dislocation, can cause a normal cell to become malignant
nevus (aka nevi)
pigmented lesion of the skin
A nevus is a(n) ________.
pigmented skin lesion
A hair-containing cyst found in the sacral region of the back is called a _________ cyst
pilonidal
The combination of the hair follicle and the attached sebaceous gland is called __________.
pilosebaceous unit
phyt/o
plant
Neo_____ means new growth and refers to either benign or malignant tumors.
plasm
The test that determines the number of clotting cells per cubic millimeter of blood
platelet count
The double folded membrane surrounding each lung is called the:
pleura
Asbestosis is a form of:
pneumoconiosis
The medical term for the collection of air in the pleural space is:
pneumothorax
The normal formation of blood cells in the bone marrow is called hemato_____
poiesis
in some anemias, irregularly shaped blood cells are formed, a condition known as_____
poikilocytosis
Which condition is characterized by an abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells?
polycythemia vera
Pain of many muscles:
polymyalgia
Benign growth extending from the surface of a mucous membrane is a ________.
polyp
Benign growth extending from the surface of a mucous membrane is a:
polyp
Mushroom-like growth extending from the surface of a mucous membrane
polyp
Polyp/o
polyp Example: colonic polyps, polyps in the colonic mucosa, usually benign but sometimes preneoplastic.
Colonic polyps
polyps in the colonic mucosa, usually benign but sometimes preneoplastic.
The combining form tox/o means:
posion
Pedunculated
possessing a stem or stalk (peduncle); characteristic of some polypoid tumors
pedunculated
possessing a stem or stalk; characteristic of some polypoid tumors
kal/i is a combining form for which substance?
potassium
cellular oncogenes
potentially cancer-inducing genes that under normal conditions function in the growth and proliferation of cells but when altered in some way by a cancer-causing agent may cause the cells to be transformed to a malignant state.
Actinic keratosis is a _________.
precancerous lesion caused by overexposure to UV rays
Odd as it may seem, Alexis has the same ridges, or ________, on her palate as she has in her stomach.
rugae
angiogenesis
process of forming new blood vessels
LAPARSCOPY
process of visually examining the contents of the abdomen (using an endoscope)
diaphor/o
profuse sweating
PD
progressive disease-tumor increases in size
PSA
prostate-specific antigen
electrophoresis is a test that detects and differentiates abnormal levels of specific antibodies
protease inhibitors
-phylaxis
protection
CA-125
protein marker for ovarion cancer detected in the blood
Prot.
protocol
PSRS
proton stereotactic radiosurgery
itching:
pruritus
Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:
psoriasis
Sarah, 21, goes to see the dermatologist for recurring itching and redness on her elbows. The dermatologist also notes scaly patches covered by silvery gray scales. The dermatologist diagnosed Sarah's skin disorders as __________.
psoriasis
Your friend has developed a patch of red skin that is covered by silver scales. What is it?
psoriasis
Localized area of pus formation in the lungs:
pulmonary abscess
PFT is the abbreviation for:
pulmonary function test
In a ______ biopsy, a surgical instrument removes a core of tissue by rotation of its sharp, circular edge.
punch
In a _________ biopsy, a surgical instrument removes a core of tissue by rotation of its sharp, circular edge.
punch
Multiple pinpoint hemorrhages and accumulation of blood under the skin
purpura
exudates
purulent material within pustules
py/o
pus
purulent
pus filled
RT
radiation therapy
RT, XRT
radiation therapy
Mr. Jeeters, 38, had stage I Hodgkin disease. Treatment with extensive external radiation eradicated the disease; therefore, this type of tumor is called:
radiocurable
This diagnostic procedure involves the intravenous injection of radioactive substances to reveal abnormalities.
radionuclide scan
The wrinkles or ridges on the roof of the mouth are called:
rugae
Brachytherapy
radiotherapy that uses insertion of sealed containers into body cavities or radioactive seeds directly into the tumor Brachytheraphy involves the placement of radioactive sources, such as seeds, needles, or catheters, in contact with or implanted into the tumor tissues to be treated for a specific period. Placement of radioactive sources in contact with or implanted into the tumor tissues to be treated for a specific period
brachytherapy
radiotherapy that uses insertion of sealed containers into body cavities or radioactive seeds directly into the tumor
Crackling sounds heard during inspiration when the alveoli are filled with secretions are called:
rales
kapossi sarcoma
rare cutaneous malignancy until its appearance in association with AIDS
exanthematous viral diseases
rash (exanthem) of the skin due to a viral infection
Radi/o
rays
The combining form radi/o means:
rays or x-rays
Relapse
recurrence of tumor after treatment
relapse
recurrence of tumor after treatment
erythr/o
red
purpura
red or purple discoloration seen on the surface of the skin caused by bleeding under the skin
erythem/o
redness
erythemat/o
redness
erythem/o or erythemat/o
redness of skin
oncogene
region of DNA in tumor cells (cellular ____) or in viruses that cause cancer (viral ____) . These are designated by a three-letter name, such as abl, erb, jun, myc, ras and src
ONCOGENE
region of DNA in tumor cells or in viruses that cause cancer
palliative
relieving but not curing symptoms
PALLIATIVE
relieving symptoms, but not curative
Paul is receiving chemotherapy for his leukemia. Most likely, he will continue to receive chemotherapy until signs of the disease are absent; that is, until he achieves a:
remission
Debridement
removing damaged tissue
Mitosis
replication of cells; a stage in a cell's life cycle involving the production of two identical cells from a parent cell
Enbloc
rescetion of large area around tumor.
The process by which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the body and its environment through the movement of air in and out of the lungs is:
respiration
RT is the abbreviation for
reverse transcriptase
The drug that treats AIDS by blocking reverse transcriptase, an enzyme needed to make copies of HIV, is
reverse transcriptease inhibitor
RNA
ribonucleic acid
The vessel that receives lymph from the upper right part of the body is the
right lymphatic duct
The pediatrician suspects tinea corporis. The common term for tinea is _______.
ringworm
Tinea
ringworm
tinea
ringworm -> fungal infection of the skin that may affect the stratum corneum, the hair, or the nails.
eosin/o
rosy
With spheroctytosis, cells are
rounded
Pleural ______ is the scratchy sound produced by pleural surfaces rubbing against each other
rub
Cyst/o
sac of fluid Bladder, cyst, sac Example: dermoid cysts, tumors, derived from embryonal tissues, consisting of a fibrous wall lined with epithelium and a cavity containing fatty material, hair, teeth, bits of bone, and cartilage.
hair follicle
sac within which each hair grows
bacterial analyses
samples of skin are examined for presence of microorganisms
Osteo_____ is a malignant tumor of bone.
sarcoma
A contagious parasitic infection of the skin with intense pruritus is _________.
scabies
squam-
scale
squam/o
scale-like
The medical term cicatrix refers to a:
scar
cicatrix
scar tissue that develops during the process of normal healing
curettage
scarping lesions away using a scoop shaped tool called a curette
A chronic progressive disease of the skin and internal organs with hardening and shrinking of connective tissue is _________.
scleroderma
Connective tissue in the skin hardens:
scleroderma
abrasian
scraping away of skin
Jay's pediatrician ordered fungal tests and started him on fungicidal medication. Later, the results of the fungal tests confirmed the diagnosis. Fungal tests are performed by _________.
scraping the lesions and placing the cells on a growth medium
Two skin tests for allergic reaction are _____ and ______.
scratch test, patch test
seb/o-
sebum
what is the oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands?
sebum
seb/o
sebum (oily secretion from sebaceous glands)
Which is a description of gonadotropins?
secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
auto-
self
SCID stands for:
sever combined immunodeficiency disease
In a _____ biopsy, tissue is removed using a cut parallel to the surface of the surrounding skin.
shave
In a ______ biopsy, tissue is removed using a cut parallel to the surface of the surrounding skin.
shave
Brachy-
short (distance) Example: brachydactyly, a condition in which fingers or toes are abnormally short.
a "pustule" is
similar to a vesicle; Instead of serous fluid, however, pustules contain purulent material, or pus
The combining form cutane/o means _________.
skin
cutane/o
skin
cutane/o- derm/o- dermat/o-
skin
derm/o
skin
dermat/o
skin
Basal cell and squamous cell are types of:
skin cancer
exanthem
skin eruption or rash accompanied by infection
macule
small flat discoloration lesion less than a centimeter in diameter ex Freckles and flat moles
Follicul/o
small glandular sacs
petechiae
small pinpoint hemorrhages
Alveol/o
small sac
papule
small solid raised skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter
petechiae (aka petechia)
small, pinpoint hemorrhage (associated with purpura)
corn
smooth thick mass that develops from the epidermis of the feet and toes and that develops a hard whitish core ( caused by constant friction and pressure)
wheal
smooth, edematous (swollen) papule or plaque that is redder or paler than the surrounding skin (i.e. mosquito bite)
wheal
smooth, edematous (swollen), irregularly shaped, solid elevation of the skin ex insect bite
electrolyte:
sodium
paronychium
soft tissue around the nail border
Medull/o
soft, inner part
-malacia
softening
Onychomalacia is
softening of the nails
nodule
solid, round or oval elevated lesion 1 cm or more in diameter
A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger and taller might be foolish enough to take what pituitary hormone?
somatotropin
differentiation
specialization of cells
Differentiation
specialization of cells When cells or tissues are modified and altered to achieve specific physical forms, physiological functions, and chemical properties For example, a cell destined to be a stomach cell has developed into looking like and functioning like a stomach cell.
An instrument that measures and records the volume of inhaled and exhaled air is a:
spirometer
The combining form splen/o means
spleen
splen/o
spleen
METASTASIS
spread of a malignant tumor from its original site to a new or distant location
metastasis
spread of a malignant tumor to a secondary site; literally, beyond control
Metastasis, metastasize
spread of malignant tumor to a secondary site; literally, beyond (meta-) control (-stasis) When tumor cells move from the primary location of a cancer and establish remote colonies Because malignant tumors have no enclosing capsule, cells may escape, become emboli, and be transported by the lymphatic circulation or the bloodstream to implant in lymph nodes and other organs far from the primary tumor.
This keratinized layer of skin functions as a protective barrier against outside elements.
squamous epithelium
SD
stable disease-tumor does not shrink but does not grow
The extent of spread of the tumor within the body is called its:
stage
Immunohistochemical
staining is widely used in the diagnosis of abnormal cells such as those found in cancerous tumors.
The combining form that means fat
steat/o
As a result of her acute episode of pancreatitis, Mrs. Dunlap was unable to absorb fat properly. This malabsorption leads to ____rrhea.
steato
Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:
steatoma
whats the most superficial layer of the epidermis called
stratum corneum or squamous epithelium
whats the deepest layer of the epidermis called
stratum germinativum
A high pitched sound produced by the larynx or pharynx on inspiration is:
stridor
pharmacokinetics
study of the distribution in and the removal of drugs from the body over time in humans and animals
The presence of cellulite can be attributed to what layer of the skin?
subcutaneous
Which layer of the skin most protects the deeper tissues of the body and acts as a heat insulator?
subcutaneous
SC
subcutaneous (abbreviation)
what layer of the skin is this describing:a spongy, porous layer with a rich blood supply and a wealth of fat-producing cells.
subcutaneous tissue
skin test
substances are injected intradermally or applied to the skin, and results are observed
biological response modifiers
substances produced by normal cells that either directly block tumor growth or stimulate the immune system to fight cancer
Pertaining to under a nail
subungual
Act of turning the palm upward:
supination
T cells that serve a regulatory function for specific immune responses by stopping the immune response when an antigen has been destroyed are
suppressor T cells
A tracheostomy is the:
surgical creation of an opening into the trachea
Dermabrasion
surgical procedure for removing scars
dermabrasian
surgical procedure for removing scars
encapsulated
surrounded by a capsule; benign tumors are ____
Encapsulated
surrounded by a capsule; benign tumors are this (the term)
skin biopsy
suspected malignant skin lesions are removed and examined microscopically by a pathologist
phag/o
swallow
hidr/o
sweat
hidr/o-
sweat
alkylating agents
synthetic chemicals containing alkyl groups that attack DNA, causing strand breaks
staging of tumors
system of evaluating the extent of spread of tumors. An example is the TNM system (tumor-node-metastasis)
SLE
systematic lupus erythematosus -> chronic inflammatory disease of the connective tissue that affects the skin, joints, kidneys, nervous system, and mucous membranes
Chronic inflammatory disease affecting skin (red rash on the face), kidneys, heart, and lungs as well as joints:
systemic lupus erythematosus
lupus
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is also known as
A chronic inflammatory disease of collagen in the skin, joints, and internal organs is called ________, which is abbreviated ___.
systemic lupus erythematosus, SLE
cirrh/o
tawny yellow
The combining form that means complete:
tel/o
"Pallor" means
temporary paleness
pilosebaceous unit
term for the combination of the hair follicle and the attached sebaceous gland.
BETA-HCG-TEST
test for the presence of a portion of human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (a marker for testicular cancer)
Cryocauterization
the application of any substance, such as solid carbon dioxide, that destroys tissue by freezing.
stratum corneum is sometimes called....
the barrier layer of the skin because of the protective function it performs
Telemetry
the electronic transmission of data between distant points, such as the transmission of cardiac monitoring data.
Mutagenesis
the induction or occurrence of a genetic mutation.
decubitus ulcers
the medical term for bedsores is _____
eccrine sweat glands
the most common type of sweat gland is _____
sebum
the sebaceous glands found in the dermis layer of the skin produce an oily substance called ____ which serves to lubricate the skin
integumentary system
the skin and its accessory structures (hair, nails, and glands) make up the ____ system
integumentary system
the skin and its accessory structures such as hair and nails
Pathogenesis
the source or cause of an illness or abnormal condition.
Dermatology means...
the study of skin
freckles, tattoo marks, and flat moles
the three examples of a macule are ____, _____, and ______
Curettage is __________.
the use of a sharp instrument to scrape away a skin lesion
sweat glands
these glands found in the dermis layer of the skin produce a watery secretion that serves to cool the body by means of evaporation
sebaceous glands
these glands found in the dermis layer of the skin produce sebum, an oily secretion used to lubricate the skin
What do cryptococcal infection, cytomegalovirus infection, histoplasmosis, and pneumocystis have in common?
they are AIDS-related opportunistic infections
subcutaneous layer
thick, fat-containing tissue that is the deepest layer of the skin
cyst
thick-walled, closed sac or pouch containing fluid or semisolid material
keratosis
thickened and rough lesion of the epidermis; associated with aging or skin damage
keratosis
thickened, rough lesion of the epidermis associated with aging or skin damage, an abnormal condition (-osis) in which a lesion develops as a result of excessive growth and thickening or hardening (kerat/o) of the epidermis.
Mohs surgery
thin layers of malignant tissue are removed, and each slice is examined under a microscope to check for adequate extent of the resection
first-degree burns
this degree of burns are superficial epidermal lesions, erythema, hyperesthesia, and no blisters form
bulla
this is a large vesicle
blackhead (aka open comedo)
this is a sebum plug partially blocking the pore
xerosis
this is very dry skin
Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the pleural space is:
thoracentesis
The large lymphatic vessel that receives lymph from the lower portion of the body and from the left side of the body above the diaphragm is the
thoracic duct
Mr. Matthew's surgeon had perform a _______ in order to do a lung biopsy
thoracotomy
The combining form pharyng/o means:
throat
per-
through
Larger of the two lower leg bones:
tibia
Eccrine glands are ___________.
tiny, coiled structures located throughout the dermis
Sudoriferous glands are:
tiny, coiled, tubular structures that secrete sweat
electrodesiccation
tissue is destroyed by burning with an electric spark
electrodesiccation
tissue within a small, well-defined border is destroyed by burning with an electric spark.
-supression
to stop
The medical term for windpipe:
trachea
The windpipe is also called the:
trachea
What structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?
trachea
During a colonoscopy, a polyp was found in Mr. Divers' ________ colon, the part of his colon that passes horizontally to the left toward the spleen.
transverse
Mr. Cawein is informed that his diverticulitis is caused by ________.
trapping of undigested food or bacteria in a diverticulum
Radiotherapy
treatment of tumors using doses of radiation; radiation oncology
radiotherapy
treatment of tumors using doses of radiation; radiation oncology
chemotherapy
treatment with drugs
-therapy
treatment, medical care Example: chemotherapy, the treatment of cancer, infectious diseases, and other diseases with chemical agents.
Fungal infection
trichomycosis
Which diagnostic test involves the introduction of a purified protein derivative (PPD)?
tuberculin test
_______ is an infectious disease caused by rod shaped bacteria called bacilli and usually involves the lungs
tuberculosis
Solid tumor
tumor composed of a mass of cells
solid tumor
tumor composed of a mass of cells
Malignant tumor
tumor having the characteristics of continuous growth, invasiveness, and metastasis Tending to become worse and to cause death When used specifically regarding cancer, it means anaplastic, invasive, and metastatic.
Radiosensitive tumor
tumor in which radiation can cause the death of cells without serious damage to surrounding tissue
Radiocurable tumor
tumor that is completely destroyed by radiation therapy; early hodgkin lymphoma is an example
radiocurable tumor
tumor that is destroyed by radiation therapy
radioresistant tumor
tumor that requires large doses of radiation to be destroyed
Radioresistant tumor
tumor that survives large doses of radiation
One of the most common staging systems is referred to as TNM, which stands for:
tumor, nodes, metastases
VERRUCOUS
tumor, whose growth pattern, resembles a wart
Mixed-tissue tumors
tumors composed of different types of tissue (epithelial as well as connective tissue)
mixed-tissue tumors
tumors composed of different types of tissue (epithelial as well as connective tissue)
Dermoid cysts
tumors, derived from embryonal tissues, consisting of a fibrous wall lined with epithelium and a cavity containing fatty material, hair, teeth, bits of bone, and cartilage.
Lacking structures typical of mature cells is:
undifferentiated
Nucleotide
unit of DNA (gene) composed of a sugar, phosphate, and a base; the sequence or arrangement of nucleotides on a gene is the genetic code
nucleotide
unit of DNA composed of sugar, phosphate and a base. The sequence or arrangement of these units on a gene is the genetic code
Gray (Gy)
unit of absorbed radiation dose
gray (Gy)
unit of absorbed radiation dose
Epi-
upon
The medical term for hives is
urticaria
_________ is an acute allergic skin reaction in which red, round wheals develop.
urticaria
hives
urticaria is also known as
curettage
use of a sharp dermal curette to scrape away a skin lesion
Molecularly targeted therapy
use of drugs to attack specific targets (mutations) that drive cancer cell growth
Combination chemotherapy
use of several chemotherapeutic agents together for the treatment of tumors
combination chemotherapy
use of several chemotherapeutic agents together for the treatment of tumors
cryosurgery
use of subfreezing temperature achieved with liquid nitrogen application to destroy tissue
biological therapy
use of the body's own defenses to destroy tumor cells
The small, fleshy mass dangling from the center of the soft palate is the:
uvula
Introduction of a modified toxin to produce an immune response and protection against disease is
vaccination
VEGF
vascular endothelial growth factor
gross description of tumors
visual appearance of tumors to the naked eye; cystic, fungating, inflammatory, medullary, necrotic, polypoid, ulcerating and verrucous tumors
Gross description of tumors
visual appearance of tumors to the naked eye; cystic, fungating, inflammatory, medullary, necrotic, polypoid, ulcerating, or verrucous
An epidermal growth caused by a virus is called a wart or ___________.
verruca
wart
verruca is the medical term for a ___
Circumscribed collection of clear fluid (blister)
vesicle
Which test measures the amount of AIDS virus (HIV) in the bloodstream?
viral load test
Muscle connected to internal organs:
visceral
Fiberoptic colonoscopy
visual examination of the colon using a fiberoptic instrument
An autoimmune disease characterized by milk-white patches surrounded by area of normal pigmentation is _________.
vitiligo
leukoderma
vitiligo is synonymous to ______
verruca
wart -> benign tumor of the epidermal layer of the skin caused by papilloma virus
The excretory function of the skin allows the body to eliminate excess:
water and heat
erosion
wearing away or loss of epidermis
purpura
when there is a combination of petechiae and ecchymoses it is then referred to as ____
albin/o
white
albin/o (Latin) ; leuk/o (Greek)
white
leuk/o
white
leukoplakia
white, thickened patches on mucous membrane tissue of the tongue or cheek (evolves to squamous cell carcinoma)
closed comedo
whiteheads are also known as ____
intra-
within
intradermal means...
within the skin
rhytid/o
wrinkle
rhytid/o-
wrinkles
Yellow skin or jaundice
xanthoderma
jaund/o
yellow
lute/o
yellow
xanth/o
yellow