MEGA CISCO QUIZLET (all exam answers)
What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch? a. The frame is dropped. b. The frame is returned to the originating network device. c. The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network. d. The frame is sent to the default gateway.
a
What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments? a. sequence numbers b. acknowledgment numbers c. fragment numbers d. port numbers
a
What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack? a. to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address b. to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests c. to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts d. to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses
a
What is the function of the Nslookup utility? a. to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name b. to view the network settings on a host c. to manually force a client to send a DHCP request d. to display all cached DNS entries on a host
a
What is the minimum Ethernet frame size that will not be discarded by the receiver as a runt frame? a. 64 bytes b. 512 bytes c. 1024 bytes d. 1500 bytes
a
What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router? a. It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface. b. It allows a router to be configured using a graphical interface. c. It allows the router to be monitored through a network management application. d. It allows secure transfer of the IOS software image from an unsecure workstation or server.
a
What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific application? a. registered port b. private port c. dynamic port d. source port
a
What service defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice packets over an IP network? a. VoIP b. NAT c. DHCP d. QoS
a
What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses? a. They must be globally unique. b. They are only routable within the private network. c. They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU. d. They have a 32-bit binary value.
a
What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk? a. twisting the wires together into pairs b. wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs c. encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath d. terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
a
What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network? a. broadcast b. multicast c. unicast d. allcast
a
When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business? a. IMAP b. POP c. SMTP d. HTTPS
a
Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer? a. the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer b. the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer c. the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer d. the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router
a
Which statement describes an extended star topology? a. End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices. b. End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device. c. Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device. d. All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
a
Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models? a. The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions. b. The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer. c. The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions. d. The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer.
a
Which type of network threat is intended to prevent authorized users from accessing resources? a. DoS attacks b. access attacks c. reconnaissance attacks d. trust exploitation
a
Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.) a. application b. presentation c. session d. transport e. data link f. physical g. network
a b c
Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) a. VTY interface b. console interface c. Ethernet interface d. boot IOS mode e. privileged EXEC mode f. router configuration mode
a b e
A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its ISP. The services that are required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.) a. FTP b. HTTP c. DNS d. SNMP e. DHCP f. SMTP
a b f
Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router during normal operation? (Choose two.) a. Cisco IOS b. backup IOS file c. IP routing table d. basic diagnostic software e. startup configuration file
a c
A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts? a. 254 b. 251 c. 252 d. 253
b
A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC? a. 1 segment b. 10 segments c. 100 segments d. 1000 segments
b
A host device needs to send a large video file across the network while providing data communication to other users. Which feature will allow different communication streams to occur at the same time, without having a single data stream using all available bandwidth? a. window size b. multiplexing c. port numbers d. acknowledgments
b
A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 e. 12
b
Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? a. Perform the POST routine. b. Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM. c. Load the bootstrap program from ROM. d. Load the running-config file from RAM.
b
What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments? a. port numbers b. sequence numbers c. acknowledgment numbers d. fragment numbers
b
What is a result of connecting two or more switches together? a. The number of broadcast domains is increased. b. The size of the broadcast domain is increased. c. The number of collision domains is reduced. d. The size of the collision domain is increased.
b
What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC? a. if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire b. if there is connectivity with the destination device c. the path that traffic will take to reach the destination d. what type of device is at the destination
b
What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols? a. A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer. b. Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully. c. Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol. d. Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.
b
When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary? a. Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission. b. Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host. c. Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available. d. The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.
b
Which protocol is used by a client to communicate securely with a web server? a. SMB b. HTTPS c. SMTP d. IMAP
b
What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.) a. RAM provides nonvolatile storage. b. The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM. c. The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle. d. RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers. e. RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.
b c
What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.) a. multicast b. loopback c. link-local d. anycast e. broadcast
b c
Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.) a. DSL b. cellular c. satellite d. dialup e. dedicated leased line
b c
Which two definitions accurately describe the associated application layer protocol? (Choose two.) a. SMTP - transfers web pages from web servers to clients b. Telnet - provides remote access to servers and networking devices c. DNS - resolves Internet names to IP addresses d. FTP - transfers email messages and attachments e. HTTP - enables devices on a network to obtain IP addresses
b c
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? (Choose two.) a. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on. b. Flash provides nonvolatile storage. c. The contents of flash may be overwritten. d. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers. e. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle.
b c
What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.) a. The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255. b. A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts. c. Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information. d. The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network. e. Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses. f. Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
b c d
What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.) a. ARP b. DHCP c. DNS d. FTP e. NAT f. PPP
b c d
A network administrator for a small company is contemplating how to scale the network over the next three years to accommodate projected growth. Which three types of information should be used to plan for network growth? (Choose three.) a. human resource policies and procedures for all employees in the company b. documentation of the current physical and logical topologies c. analysis of the network traffic based on protocols, applications, and services used on the network d. history and mission statement of the company e. inventory of the devices that are currently used on the network f. listing of the current employees and their role in the company
b c e
Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.) 1. displays the next screen. 2. scrolls backwards through previously entered commands. 3. provides context-sensitive help. 4. completes abbreviated commands and parameters. 5. aborts commands such as trace and ping. a. Tab b. space bar c. Up Arrow d. Ctrl-C e. ? f. Ctrl-Shift-6
b c e a f
What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.) a. easily overloaded with increased traffic b. grows in size without impacting existing users c. is not as reliable as a small network d. suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion e. offers limited number of applications
b d
What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.) a. to reduce the number of collisions on the media b. to distinguish data bits from control bits c. to provide better media error correction d. to identify where the frame starts and ends e. to increase the media throughput f. to distinguish data from control information
b d
Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.) a. trunking b. dual stack c. encapsulation d. tunneling e. multiplexing
b d
Which two connection options provide an always-on, high-bandwidth Internet connection to computers in a home office? (Choose two.) a. cellular b. DSL c. satellite d. cable e. dial-up telephone
b d
Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.) a. subnet portion b. network portion c. logical portion d. host portion e. physical portion f. broadcast portion
b d
1. ensuring confidentiality 2. maintaining integrity 3. ensuring availability a. Only made possible by requiring validation of the receiver. b. Only the intended recipients can access and read the data. c. Only encrypted connections (VPNs) are allowed to transfer data. d. The assurance that the information has not been altered during transmission. e. The assurance of timely and reliable access to data.
b d e
The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what three layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.) a. physical b. session c. network d. presentation e. data link f. transport g. application
b d g
Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.) (Each matches to two.) 1. peer-to-peer network 2. peer-to-peer application a. Requires a specific user interface. b. No dedicated server is required. c. A background service is required. d. Client and server roles are set on a per request basis. e. Devices can only function in one role at a time.
b d, a c
What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.) a. 56 bytes b. 64 bytes c. 128 bytes d. 1024 bytes e. 1518 bytes
b e
What are two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.) a. SVI b. LAN c. DHCP d. Telnet e. WAN
b e
Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.) a. Branch2! b. RM-3-Switch-2A4 c. Floor(15) d. HO Floor 17 e. SwBranch799
b e
Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.) 1. message encoding 2. message encapsulation 3. message sizing a. the process of determining when to begin sending message on a network b. the process of converting information from one format into another acceptable for transmission c. the process of placing one message format inside another message format d. the process of unpacking one message format from another message format e. the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces before being sent over the network
b e c
A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices? a. random static addresses to improve security b. addresses from different subnets for redundancy c. predictable static IP addresses for easier identification d. dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
c
What is the Internet? a. It is a network based on Ethernet technology. b. It provides network access for mobile devices. c. It provides connections through interconnected global networks. d. It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.
c
What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address? a. to uniquely identify a host on a network b. to identify whether the address is public or private c. to determine the subnet to which the host belongs d. to mask the IP address to outsiders
c
What message type is used by an HTTP client to request data from a web server? a. POST b. ACK c. GET d. PUT
c
Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch? a. the AUX interface b. the console port interface c. the switch virtual interface d. the first Ethernet port interface
c
Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch? a. FastEthernet 0/1 b. GigabitEthernet 0/1 c. VLAN 1 d. VLAN 99
c
What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.) a. It encrypts data packets. b. It determines the path to forward packets. c. It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames. d. It provides media access control and performs error detection. e. It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.
c d
A ___ network is capable of delivering voice, video, text, and graphics over the same communication channels.
converged
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen? a. Telnet b. Console c. AUX d. SSH
d
A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices? a. devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces b. devices that have support for network monitoring c. redundant devices d. devices with support for modularity
d
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file contains an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display? a. global configuration mode b. setup mode c. privileged EXEC mode d. user EXEC mode
d
What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model? a. A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined. b. A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host. c. A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker. d. A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.
d
What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling? a. It is usually cheaper than copper cabling. b. It is able to be installed around sharp bends. c. It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling. d. It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
d
What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4? a. smaller-sized header b. little requirement for processing checksums c. smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses d. efficient packet handling
d
What is the definition of bandwidth? a. the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time b. the speed at which bits travel on the network c. the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time d. the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time
d
Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH? a. debug all b. logging synchronous c. show running-config d. terminal monitor
d
Which information does the show startup-config command display? a. the IOS image copied into RAM b. the bootstrap program in the ROM c. the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM d. the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM
d
Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data? a. internetwork b. session c. presentation d. application e. network access
d
Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business? a. Internet router b. firewall c. low port density switch d. redundancy
d
Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame? a. cut-through b. fast-forward c. fragment-free d. store-and-forward
d
Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection? a. The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading. b. They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection. c. They increase the speed at which the data can travel. d. They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
d
Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol? a. to ensure the fastest possible download speed b. because HTTP is a best-effort protocol c. because transmission errors can be tolerated easily d. because HTTP requires reliable delivery
d
Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.) 1. This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers. 2. This organization is the largest developer of international standards in the world for a wide variety of products and services. It is know for its Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model. 3. This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers a. ISOC b. ISO c. EIA d. IANA
d b a
Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are used.) 1. information theft 2. identity theft 3. data loss 4. disruption of service a. installing virus code to destroy surveillance recordings for certain days -> data loss pretending to be someone else by using stolen personal information to apply for a credit card b. pretending to be someone else by using stolen personal information to apply for a credit card c. preventing users from accessing a website by sending a large number of link requests in a short period d. obtaining trade secret documents illegally e. cracking the password of an administrator account on a server
d b a c
Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.) a. email b. web c. FTP d. voice e. video
d e
Consider the following range of addresses: 2001:DB8:BC15:00A0:0000:: 2001:DB8:BC15:00A1:0000:: 2001:DB8:BC15:00A2:0000:: ... 2001:DB8:BC15:00AF:0000:: The prefix-length for the range of addresses is ___.
60
Fill in the blank. The decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F is __.
63
A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured? a. Reboot the device. b. Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt. c. Exit global configuration mode. d. Power cycle the device. e. Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.
e
What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address? a. The host is cabled properly. b. The default gateway address is correctly configured. c. All hosts on the local link are available. d. The link-local address is correctly configured. e. IP is properly installed on the host.
e
Fill in the blank. The HTTP message type used by the client to request data from the web server is the ___ message.
GET
What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame?
LLC
Fill in the blank. A collision fragment, also known as a ___ frame, is a frame of fewer than 64 bytes in length.
RUNT
Fill in the blank. A physical topology that is a variation or combination of a point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topology is commonly known as a ___ topology.
hybrid
A network administrator for a small campus network has issued the show ip interface brief command on a switch. What is the administrator verifying with this command? a. the status of the switch interfaces and the address configured on interface vlan 1 b. that a specific host on another network can be reached c. the path that is used to reach a specific host on another network d. the default gateway that is used by the switch
a
A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option? a. It forces the trace to use IPv6. b. It limits the trace to only 6 hops. c. It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay. d. It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.
a
What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send? a. It just sends the datagrams. b. It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data. c. It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server. d. It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.
a
Fill in the blank. On a Cisco switch, ___ memory buffering is used to buffer frames in queues linked to specific incoming and outgoing ports.
port-based
What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports? a. 0 to 255 b. 0 to 1023 c. 256 - 1023 d. 1024 - 49151
b
What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64? a. 2001:DB8:BC15 b. 2001:DB8:BC15:A c. 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1 d. 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12
b
A host device is receiving live streaming video. How does the device account for video data that is lost during transmission? a. The device will immediately request a retransmission of the missing data. b. The device will use sequence numbers to pause the video stream until the correct data arrives. c. The device will delay the streaming video until the entire video stream is received. d. The device will continue receiving the streaming video, but there may be a momentary disruption.
d
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display? a. global configuration mode b. setup mode c. ROM monitor mode d. user EXEC mode
d
What is auto-MDIX? a. a type of Cisco switch b. an Ethernet connector type c. a type of port on a Cisco switch d. a feature that detects Ethernet cable type
d
Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model? a. bits b. frame c. packet d. segment
d
Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.) 1. login 2. service password-encryption 3. ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 4. copy run st 5. enable a. R1(config)# b. R1> c. R1(config-router)# d. R1# e. R1(config-line)# f. R1(config-if)#
e a f d b
True or False? When a device is sending data to another device on a remote network, the Ethernet frame is sent to the MAC address of the default gateway. true false
true
Fill in the blank. ___ defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice data over an IP network
VoIP
A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent? a. a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router b. a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network c. an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room d. a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link
a
While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM? a. Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration. b. Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device. c. Close and reopen the terminal emulation software. d. Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
a
What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.) a. does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection b. operates independently of the network media c. retransmits packets if errors occur d. re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end e. guarantees delivery of packets
a b
Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.) a. SMTP b. FTP c. SNMP d. HTTP e. TFTP f. DHCP
a b d
A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.) a. EMI b. crosstalk c. RFI d. signal attenuation e. extended length of cabling
a c
A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.) a. implementing a firewall b. installing a wireless network c. installing antivirus software d. implementing an intrusion detection system e. adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device
a c
Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.) a. Give the router a host name and domain name. b. Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect. c. Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption. d. Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests. e. Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.
a c
Which two characteristics are associated with UDP sessions? (Choose two.) a. Destination devices receive traffic with minimal delay. b. Transmitted data segments are tracked. c. Destination devices reassemble messages and pass them to an application. d. Received data is unacknowledged. e. Unacknowledged data packets are retransmitted.
a d
Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful network attack on an email server account? (Choose two.) a. Never send the password through the network in a clear text. b. Never use passwords that need the Shift key. c. Use servers from different vendors. d. Distribute servers throughout the building, placing them close to the stakeholders. e. Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.
a e
Which two characters are allowed as part of the hostname of a Cisco device? (Choose two.) a. numbers b. question mark c. space d. tab e. dash
a e
Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.) a. ACK b. FIN c. PSH d. RST e. SYN f. URG
a e
Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.) a. It eliminates most address configuration errors. b. It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address. c. It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one. d. It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network. e. It reduces the burden on network support staff.
a e
What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer? a. ping b. ipconfig c. show interfaces d. show ip interface brief
b
What criterion must be followed in the design of an IPv4 addressing scheme for end devices? a. Each IP address must match the address that is assigned to the host by DNS. b. Each IP address must be unique within the local network. c. Each IP address needs to be compatible with the MAC address. d. Each local host should be assigned an IP address with a unique network component.
b
What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common? a. Both models have dedicated servers. b. Both models support devices in server and client roles. c. Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols. d. Both models are used only in the wired network environment.
b
A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission? a. HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet b. HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet c. Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP d. Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
b
An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured? a. SLAAC b. stateless DHCPv6 c. stateful DHCPv6 d. RA and EUI-64
b
How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches? a. It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network. b. It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files. c. It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch. d. It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
b
How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks? a. two b. three c. four d. five
b
Open the PT Activity. The enable password on all devices is cisco. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. For what reason is the failure occurring? a. PC1 has an incorrect default gateway configured. b. SW1 does not have a default gateway configured. c. The IP address of SW1 is configured in a wrong subnet. d. PC2 has an incorrect default gateway configured.
b
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices? :PC1:__1__:switch:__2__:router:__3__:router2: a. 1 - rollover, 2 - crossover, 3 - straight-through b. 1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover c. 1 - crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover d. 1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through
b
Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe? a. configuration b. environmental c. electrical d. maintenance
b
Which statement is correct about network protocols? a. Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks. b. They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination. c. They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP. d. They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
b
Which statement is true about FTP? a. The client can choose if FTP is going to establish one or two connections with the server. b. The client can download data from or upload data to the server. c. FTP is a peer-to-peer application. d. FTP does not provide reliability during data transmission.
b
Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity? a. convergence b. congestion c. optimization d. synchronization
b
What are two examples of hybrid topologies? (Choose two.) a. point-to-point b. partial mesh c. extended star d. hub and spoke e. full mesh
b c
What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.) a. Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing. b. On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays. c. Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic. d. Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network. e. Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
b c
What are two reasons a network administrator might want to create subnets? (Choose two.) a. simplifies network design b. improves network performance c. easier to implement security policies d. reduction in number of routers needed e. reduction in number of switches needed
b c
A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it? a. limited broadcast b. multicast c. directed broadcast d. unicast
c
A network administrator is implementing a policy that requires strong, complex passwords. Which data protection goal does this policy support? a. data integrity b. data quality c. data confidentiality d. data redundancy
c
What is a characteristic of port-based memory buffering? a. Frames in the memory buffer are dynamically linked to destination ports. b. All frames are stored in a common memory buffer. c. Frames are buffered in queues linked to specific ports. d. All ports on a switch share a single memory buffer.
c
The term ___ indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).
bandwidth
*beginning card* Includes all answers for all chapter exams. A few questions had to be skipped because they had images. You have to be able to look at a topology and be able to tell where an error is located in the network infrastructure.
beginning card
The acronym ___ refers to the policy that allows employees to use their personal devices in the business office to access the network and other resources.
byod
Match the functions to the name of the application. (Not all options are used.) 1. maps URLs to numerical addresses 2. dynamically assigns IP address to clients 3. displays web pages 4. allows viewing of messages on email clients 5. sends email messages a. Telnet b. DHCP c. DNS d. IMAP e. HTTP f. SMTP g. FTP
c b e d f
What are two characteristics of the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.) a. responsibility for logical addressing b. responsibility for physical addressing c. the creation and maintenance of dialogue between source and destination applications d. closest to the end user e. the establishing of window size
c d
Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.) a. Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work. b. Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center. c. Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. d. Perform the capture on different network segments. e. Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.
c d
Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.) a. Intermediary devices generate data content. b. Intermediary devices alter data content. c. Intermediary devices direct the path of the data. d. Intermediary devices connect individual hosts to the network. e. Intermediary devices initiate the encapsulation process.
c d
A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet? a. when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message b. when the RTT value reaches zero c. when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message d. when the value in the TTL field reaches zero e. when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero
d
Say that a computer wants to transfer files on a LAN to a server. What layers of the TCP/IP model would be used? a. only application and Internet layers b. only Internet and network access layers c. only application, Internet, and network access layers d. application, transport, Internet, and network access layers e. only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers f. application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
d
What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table? a. the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets b. the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames c. the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets d. the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames
d
What is a role of the Logical Link Control sublayer? a. to provide data link layer addressing b. to provide access to various Layer 1 network c. technologies d. to define the media access processes performed by network hardware to mark frames to identify the network layer protocol being carried
d
What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame? a. logical address b. physical address c. data d. error detection
d
What is indicated by the term throughput? a. the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP b. the capacity of a particular medium to carry data c. the measure of the usable data transferred across the media d. the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time e. the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver
d
What is the function of the kernel of an operating software? a. It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task. b. The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer. c. It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device. d. The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.
d
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies? a. The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology. b. Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames. c. Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network. d. Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.
d
What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host? a. The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network. b. The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host. c. The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway. d. The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks. e. A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
d
When should an administrator establish a network baseline? a. when the traffic is at peak in the network b. when there is a sudden drop in traffic c. at the lowest point of traffic in the network d. at regular intervals over a period of time
d
Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame? a. source IP address b. source MAC address c. destination IP address d. destination MAC address e. source Ethernet address
d
Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications? a. HTTP b. SMTP c. DHCP d. SMB
d
Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST? a. DNS b. DHCP c. SMTP d. HTTP e. POP3
d
Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school resources? a. extranet b. intranet c. wired LAN d. wireless LAN e. wireless WAN
d
Which type of connector does a network interface card use? a. DIN b. PS-2 c. RJ-11 d. RJ-45
d
Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.) 1. 192.168.1.32/27 2. 192.168.1.64/27 3. 192.168.1.96/27 a. 192.168.1.63 b. 192.168.1.68 c. 192.168.1.128 d. 192.168.1.48 e. 192.168.1.121
d b e
Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.) a. the number of routers between the source and destination device b. the IP address of the router nearest the destination device c. the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for d. the response to return to the source e. the destination device is reachable through the network f. the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
d e
An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered. (Not all options are used.) 1. First mode 2. Second mode 3. Third mode 4. Final mode a. interface configuration mode b. privileged EXEC mode c. line configuration mode d. global configuration mode e. user EXEC mode
e b d c
Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.) 1. A private address 2. A loopback address 3. An experimental address 4. A TEST-NET address 5. A link-local address a. 64.102.90.23 b. 169.254.1.5 c. 192.0.2.123 d. 240.2.6.255 e. 172.19.20.5 f. 127.0.0.1
e f d c b
Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.) (Each matches to three.) 1. cut-through 2. store-and-forward a. always stores the entire frame b. checks the CRC before forwarding c. checks the frame length before forwarding d. does not forward broadcasts e. has low latency f. may forward runt frame g. begins forwarding when the destination address is received
e f g, a b c
Fill in the blank. <output omitted> >cisco.netacad.net Server: Unknown Address: 192.168.0.1 Non-authoritative answer: Name: cisco.netacad.net Address: 72.163.6.223 <output omitted> Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers?
nslookup
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. The ___ command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register.
show version
Fill in the blank. ARP ___ is a technique that is used to send fake ARP messages to other hosts in the LAN. The aim is to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC addresses.
spoofing
Fill in the blank. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is __.
11101000
Fill in the blank. The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is __.
149
What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server?
HTTPS
Which networking trend involves the use of personal tools and devices for accessing resources on a business or campus network? a. video conferencing b. cloud computing c. BYOD d. powerline networking
c
A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after this command is issued? a. The ARP cache is cleared. b. The current content of the ARP cache is displayed. c. The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed. d. The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface.
a
An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access? a. an intranet b. the Internet c. an extranet d. a local area network
a
As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame? a. The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame. b. The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached. c. The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address. d. The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.
a
How many bits are in an IPv4 address? a. 32 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256
a
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is the purpose of this command? SW1# configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. SW1(config)# banner motd #Use of this device is restricted to authorized members of the Admin group.# SW1(config)# end SW1# a. to display a message when a user accesses the switch b. to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1 c. to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication d. to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command
a
The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together? a. Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address b. Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address c. Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address d. Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address
a
Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is being used? a. peer-to-peer b. client-based c. master-slave d. point-to-point
a
What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet? a. Protocol b. Identification c. Version d. Differentiated Services
a
What information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show version command? a. the value of the configuration register b. the administrative distance used to reach networks c. the operational status of serial interfaces d. the routing protocol version that is enabled
a
What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP? a. Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client. b. When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time. c. IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email. d. POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
a
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232? a. 11101000 b. 11000110 c. 10011000 d. 11110010
a
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101? a. 149 b. 157 c. 168 d. 192
a
What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame? a. to verify the integrity of the received frame b. to verify the physical address in the frame c. to verify the logical address in the frame d. to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame
a
What is the purpose of the network security authentication function? a. to require users to prove who they are b. to determine which resources a user can access c. to keep track of the actions of a user d. to provide challenge and response questions
a
What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the top-level DNS domain? a. .com b. www c. http d. index
a
What statement describes Ethernet? a. It defines the most common LAN type in the world. b. It is the required Layer 1 and 2 standard for Internet communication. c. It defines a standard model used to describe how networking works. d. It connects multiple sites such as routers located in different countries.
a
Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks? a. a router b. a firewall c. a web server d. a DSL modem
a
Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly? a. Time-to-Live b. Sequence Number c. Acknowledgment Number d. Differentiated Services
a
Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time? a. full duplex b. half duplex c. multiplex d. simplex
a
Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device? a. It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified. b. It is stored in NVRAM. c. It should be deleted using the erase running-config command. d. It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
a
Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.) (Each matches to three.) 1. Multimode Fiber 2. Single-mode Fiber a. laser as light source b. generally used with LANs c. only one ray of light into the fiber d. several paths of light into the fiber e. generally used for campus backbone f. LED as light source g. supports full-duplex operation
a c e, b d f
What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.) a They originate the data that flows through the network. b. They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures. c. They filter the flow of data to enhance security. d. They are the interface between humans and the communication network. e. They provide the channel over which the network message travels.
a d
Which phrase describes an FTP daemon? a. a diagnostic FTP program b. a program that is running on an FTP server c. a program that is running on an FTP client d. an application that is used to request data from an FTP server
b
Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.) a. Logical link control is implemented in software. b. Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard. c. The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data. d. The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite. e. The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.
a d
Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.) a. 10.1.1.1 b. 172.32.5.2 c. 192.167.10.10 d. 172.16.4.4 e. 192.168.5.5 f. 224.6.6.6
a d e
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media? a. application b. transport c. data link d. physical
c
What does TCP do if the sending source detects network congestion on the path to the destination? a. The source host will send a request for more frequent acknowledgments to the destination. b. The source will decrease the amount of data that it sends before it must receive acknowledgements from the destination. c. The destination will request retransmission of the entire message. d. The source will acknowledge the last segment that is sent and include a request for a smaller window size in the message.
b
What happens if the first packet of a TFTP transfer is lost? a. The client will wait indefinitely for the reply. b. The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received. c. The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code. d. The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.
b
What is a characteristic of a TCP server process? a. Every application process running on the server has to be configured to use a dynamic port number. b. There can be many ports open simultaneously on a server, one for each active server application. c. An individual server can have two services assigned to the same port number within the same transport layer services. d. A host running two different applications can have both configured to use the same server port.
b
What is a socket? a. the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address b. the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number c. the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers d. the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers
b
What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols? a. Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor. b. A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data. c. Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market. d. Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.
b
What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router? a. to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device b. to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup c. to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using d. to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS
b
What is true about the Server Message Block protocol? a. Different SMB message types have a different format. b. Clients establish a long term connection to servers. c. SMB messages cannot authenticate a session. d. SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.
b
What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly? a. encapsulation b. flow control c. access method d. response timeout
b
What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface? a. global unicast b. link-local c. loopback d. unique local
b
What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping? a. an intranet b. the Internet c. an extranet d. a local area network
b
Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host? a. file b. frame c. packet d. segment
b
Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4? a. IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing. b. The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling. c. Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities. d. The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.
b
Which characteristic describes crosstalk? a. the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting b. the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires c. the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths d. the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point
b
Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy? a. end b. exit c. Ctrl-Z d. Ctrl-C
b
Which expression accurately defines the term bandwidth? a. a method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure on the network b. a measure of the data carrying capacity of the media c. a state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity d. a set of techniques to manage the utilization of network resources
b
Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses initiated from internal hosts? a. application filtering b. stateful packet inspection c. URL filtering d. packet filtering
b
Which flag in the TCP header is used in response to a received FIN in order to terminate connectivity between two network devices? a. FIN b. ACK c. SYN d. RST
b
Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment? a. Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network. b. Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC. c. Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network. d. Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.
b
Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing? a. A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP. b. Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using any device, anywhere in the world. c. Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring. d. Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud.
b
A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.) a. mobility options b. security c. interference d. coverage area e. extensive cabling f. packet collision
b c d
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.) a. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host b. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP c. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site d. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator e. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
b c e
A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.) a. 192.168.1.16/28 b. 192.168.1.64/27 c. 192.168.1.128/27 d. 192.168.1.96/28 e. 192.168.1.192/28
b d
Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.) a. providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted b. displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode c. allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key d. determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command e. selecting the best command to accomplish a task
b d
A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network. What are three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.) a. better security b. easy to create c. better device performance when acting as both client and server d. lacks centralized administration e. less cost to implement f. scalable
b d e
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.) a. The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF). b. The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255. c. The message comes from a server offering an IP address. d. The message comes from a client seeking an IP address. e. All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies. f. Only the DHCP server receives the message.
b d e
A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices: IP phones - 22 addresses PCs - 20 addresses needed Printers - 2 addresses needed Scanners - 2 addresses needed The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks? a. 255.255.255.0 b. 255.255.255.192 c. 255.255.255.224 d. 255.255.255.240 e. 255.255.255.248 f. 255.255.255.252
c
A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this? a. The IOS image is corrupt. b. Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory. c. The configuration file is missing from NVRAM. d. The POST process has detected hardware failure.
c
A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display? a. privileged EXEC mode b. setup mode c. user EXEC mode d. global configuration mode
c
A technician is adding a new PC to a LAN. After unpacking the components and making all the connections, the technician starts the PC. After the OS loads, the technician opens a browser, and verifies that the PC can reach the Internet. Why was the PC able to connect to the network with no additional configuration? a. The PC does not require any additional information to function on the network. b. The PC came preconfigured with IP addressing information from the factory. c. The PC was preconfigured to use DHCP. d. The PC used DNS to automatically receive IP addressing information from a server. e. The PC virtual interface is compatible with any network.
c
At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation? a. physical layer b. data link layer c. network layer d. transport layer
c
At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated? a. physical layer b. data link layer c. network layer d. transport layer
c
During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent? a. the total number of bytes that have been received b. one number more than the sequence number c. the next byte that the destination expects to receive d. the last sequence number that was sent by the source
c
How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0? a. 510 b. 512 c. 1022 d. 1024 e. 2046 f. 2048
c
Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the subnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site? 2001:DB8:1234:*0000*::/64 first bolded zero: site second and third bolded zeros: sub-site fourth bolded zero: subnet a. 0 b. 4 c. 16 d. 256
c
Refer to the exhibit. A switch was configured as shown. A ping to the default gateway was issued, but the ping was not successful. Other switches in the same network can ping this gateway. What is a possible reason for this? Switch# configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. Switch(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.0 Switch(config-if)# exit Switch# %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console Switch# ping 192.168.10.220 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 192.168.10.220, timeout is 2 seconds: . . . . . Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) a. The VLAN IP address and the default gateway IP address are not in the same network. b. The local DNS server is not functioning correctly. c. The no shutdown command was not issued for VLAN 1. d. The ip default-gateway command has to be issued in the VLAN interface configuration mode. e. The default gateway address must be 192.168.10.1.
c
What are proprietary protocols? a. protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware b. protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor c. protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation d. a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite
c
What benefit does DHCP provide to a network? a. Hosts always have the same IP address and are therefore always reachable. b. DHCP allows users to refer to locations by a name rather than an IP address. c. Hosts can connect to the network and get an IP address without manual configuration. d. Duplicate addresses cannot occur on a network that issues dynamic addresses using DHCP and has static assignments.
c
What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent? a. network address b. multicast address c. host address d. broadcast address
c
What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired? a. TTL field b. CRC field c. Hop Limit field d. Time Exceeded field
c
What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination? a. The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery method. b. The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host. c. The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent. d. The entire FTP message is re-sent.
c
What is a characteristic of UDP? a. UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination. b. Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable. c. UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received. d. UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.
c
What is a characteristic of a converged network? a. it provides only one path between the source and destination of a message b. it limits the impact of a failure by minimizing the number of devices affected c. it delivers data, voice, and video over the same network infrastructure d. A converged network requires a separate network infrastructure for each type of communication technology
c
What is a result of using the service password-encryption command on a Cisco network device? a. The command encrypts the banner message. b. The command encrypts the enable mode password. c. All passwords in the configuration are not shown in clear text when viewing the configuration. d. A network administrator who later logs into the device will be required to enter an administrator password in order to gain access to the Cisco device.
c
What is the purpose of ICMP messages? a. to inform routers about network topology changes b. to ensure the delivery of an IP packet c. to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions d. to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
c
What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination? a. access control b. decoding c. encapsulation d. flow control
c
What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network? a. directly-connected routes b. local routes c. remote routes d. C and L source routes
c
What security violation would cause the most amount of damage to the life of a home user? a. denial of service to your email server b. replication of worms and viruses in your computer c. capturing of personal data that leads to identity theft d. spyware that leads to spam emails
c
What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20? a. 255.255.255.248 b. 255.255.224.0 c. 255.255.240.0 d. 255.255.255.0 e. 255.255.255.192
c
What type of information is included in the transport header? a. destination and source logical addresses b. destination and source physical addresses c. destination and source port numbers d. encoded application data
c
What type of network traffic requires QoS? a. email b. on-line purchasing c. video conferencing d. wiki
c
What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router? a. static route b. default route c. directly connected route d. dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP
c
When is UDP preferred to TCP? a. when a client sends a segment to a server b. when all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful c. when an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission d. when segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully
c
Which characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model allows carrying packets for multiple types of communications among many hosts? a. the de-encapsulation of headers from lower layers b. the selection of paths for and direct packets toward the destination c. the ability to operate without regard to the data that is carried in each packet d. the ability to manage the data transport between processes running on hosts
c
Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame? a. 0.0.0.0 b. 255.255.255.255 c. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF d. 127.0.0.1 e. 01-00-5E-00-AA-23
c
Which factor determines TCP window size? a. the amount of data to be transmitted b. the number of services included in the TCP segment c. the amount of data the destination can process at one time d. the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time
c
Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address: 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB:0000:0000:0057? a. 3FFE:1044::AB::57 b. 3FFE:1044::00AB::0057 c. 3FFE:1044:0:0:AB::57 d. 3FFE:1044:0:0:00AB::0057 e. 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::57 f. 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::0057
c
Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host? a. ARPv6 b. DHCPv6 c. ICMPv6 d. UDP
c
Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router that has the default hardware configuration? a. It does not have an AUX port. b. It has three FastEthernet interfaces for LAN access. c. It has two types of ports that can be used to access the console. d. It does not require a CPU because it relies on Compact Flash to run the IOS.
c
Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology? a. New "smart" electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN. b. A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling. c. A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet. d. Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.
c
Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device? a. The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity. b. To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used. c. CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface. d. Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.
c
Which statement is true about MAC addresses? a. MAC addresses are implemented by software. b. A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN. c. The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI. d. The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.
c
Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available? a. 255.255.255.0 b. 255.255.255.128 c. 255.255.255.224 d. 255.255.255.240
c
Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device? a. a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set b. a hostname must be configured before any other parameters c. to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet) d. to allow local access to the device through the console port
c
Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address? a. to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs b. to enable the switch to function as a default gateway c. to enable the switch to be managed remotely d. to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
c
Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.) a. providing IP addresses to local hosts b. allowing data transfer between two network devices c. mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts d. forwarding name resolution requests between servers e. retrieving email messages
c d
1. Interactive websites where people create and share user-generated content with friends and family. 2. Web pages that groups of people can edit and view together. 3. An audio-based medium that allows people to deliver their recordings to a wide audience. 4. Real-time communication between two or more people. a. podcast b. weblog (blog) c. social media d. wiki e. instant messaging
c d a e
1. Not suited for heavily wooded areas. 2. Uses coaxial cable as a medium. 3. Typically has very low bandwidth. 4. High bandwidth connection that runs over telephone line. 5. Typically uses a T1/E1 or T3/E3 circuit. a. DSL b. Dialup telephone c. satellite d. cable
c d b a
What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.) a. the types of data that need to be prioritized b. the cost of the end devices utilized in the network c. the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal d. the number of intermediary devices installed in the network e. the environment where the selected medium is to be installed
c e
Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.) 1. preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media 2. managing the individual conversations between web servers and web clients 3. governing the way a web server and a web client interact 4. taking the segments from transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, and assigning them with appropriate addresses a. application protocol b. internet protocol c. network access protocol d. network time protocol e. transport protocol
c e a b
A network administrator is planning an IOS upgrade on several of the head office routers and switches. Which three questions must be answered before continuing with the IOS selection and upgrade? (Choose three.) a. Are the devices on the same LAN? b. Do the devices have enough NVRAM to store the IOS image? c. What models of routers and switches require upgrades? d. What ports are installed on the routers and switches? e. Do the routers and switches have enough RAM and flash memory for the proposed IOS versions? f. What features are required for the devices?
c e f
Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.) a. interface fastethernet 0/0 b. line vty 0 4 c. line console 0 d. enable secret cisco e. login f. password cisco
c e f
What are two functions of intermediary devices on a network? (Choose two.) a. They are the primary source and providers of information and services to end devices. b. They run applications that support collaboration for business. c. They form the interface between the human network and the underlying communication network. d. They direct data along alternate pathways when there is a link failure. e. They filter the flow of data, based on security settings.
d e
Match the description to the common IOS CLI access method. (Each matches to two.) 1. console port 2. visual interface 3. AUX port a. It requires an active network connection. b. It is not supported on Catalyst switch devices. c. It allows access through the use of Telnet or SSH protocols. d. It displays startup, debugging, and error messages by default. e. It uses a DVI port on the device. f. It connects through dialup connections. g. It can be used to restore an out-of-box configuration on a switch or router.
d g, c a, f b
If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network? a. 256 b. 254 c. 62 d. 32 e. 16 f. 14
f
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. The show ___ command provides information about the amount of free nvram and flash memory with the permissions for reading or writing data.
file systems
