Micro #2

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Trp Operon

A group of genes that are used together that codes for the components for production of tryptophan.

Which phylum of protozoa contains organisms that are non-motile, obligate intracellular parasites? - Euglenozoa - Amoebozoa - Apicomplexa - ciliates

Apicomplexa

A deep ground water source:

Aquifer

Members of this group have hard exoskeletons and jointed appendages. Members of this group serve as vectors, transmitting several different viruses, bacteria, and protozoan parasites between hosts.

Arthropods

Which disease was once thought to be due to stress but is now known to be caused by a bacterium: a. smallpox b. peptic ulcers c. AIDS d. plague e. influenza

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the A) Specific epithet. B) Genus. C) Family. D) Order. E) Kingdom.

B) Genus.

What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? A) All members are photosynthetic. B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter. C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter. D) All members are microscopic. E) All members are macroscopic.

B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter

In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related? A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium

Who is credited with first observing cells? A) Louis Pasteur B) Robert Hooke C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek D) Robert Koch E) Carolus Linnaeus

B) Robert Hooke Cork, common bread mold

_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. T cells, B cells B. B cells, neutrophils C. B cells, T cells D. Basophils, T cells E. Monocytes, Basophils

C Got this right

To study the phylogeny of eukaryotes, A. 80S rRNA is used. B. 18S rRNA is used. C. 40S rRNA is used. D. 16S rRNA is used. E. 70S rRNA is used.

B. 18S rRNA is used.

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the A. urinary system. B. respiratory system. C.gastrointestinal system. D.skin. E. genital system.

B. B. respiratory system. Got this right

THIS TEST WAS INSANE. CRAZY AND I'M POSITIVE FULL OF THINGS NOT IN THE 7 CHAPTERS WE WERE SUPPOSED TO COVER.

BEWARE, I GOT SOME WRONG! But I'm working to get the right answers.

The prokaryotic cell scheme is found in Bacteria. Archaea. Eucarya. All of the choices are correct. Bacteria AND Archaea.

Bacteria AND Archaea.

Catabolite Repression

Bacteria inhibit synthesis of enzymes involved in the catabolism of carbon sources other than a preferred source.

Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be all of the following EXCEPT Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages. bacteriophages. Clostridia. Enterococci. Bacteroides.

Bacteroides.

All of the following genera are spirochetes:

Borrelia, Leptospira, Spirochaeta, Treponema CAULOBACTER IS NOT A SPIROCHETE

To increase the proportion of mutants in a population of bacteria one may use: A. a direct selection. B. replica plating. C. penicillin enrichment. D. individual transfer.

C - in INDIRECT SELECTION the mutants and the prototrophs can grow on the same medium so PENICILLIN ENRICHMENT is used to increase the proportion of mutants in the population. On a glucose-salt agar add penicillin which will kill any growing cells, the mutants exist on this medium but don't grow so they are safe. You end up with a higher amount of mutants comparitively and then can move on to replica plating.

Which of the following locations pertaining to the GI tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms? A. Liver B.PancreasC.Large intestineD.Small intestineE.Salivary glands

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the: A. Antibiogram B. Kirby-Bauer C. Therapeutic index (TI) D. E-test E. MIC

C Got this right

Which bacteria ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle milk? A. Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae D. Propionibacterium E. Spirulina

Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus

- was isolated from prontosil by Pasteur institute investigators -was the first of the modern chemotherapeutic agents - is an example of a true chemotherapeutic agent - is not produced by a living organism - interferes with folic acid metabolism in susceptible bacteria

Sulfonamide

Primase

Synthesizes a RNA primer so DNA polymerase III can add on to a 3' OH. Makes a series of RNA primers.

Diatoms are algae whose silicon dioxide-containing shells are useful economically as: 1. Fertilizers 2. Filters 3. Stabilizers 4. Agar 5. Thickeners

Filters

True or False: F plasmids and oftentimes R plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus

T/F - Bacteria and Archaea both have members that use sulfur compounds as a terminal electron acceptor.

TRUE

T/F - Endospores of Bacillus stearothermophilus are used in testing autoclave operation.

TRUE

T/F - The most medically relevant species of Pseudomonas is P. aeruginosa.

TRUE

Prokaryotic Transcription

Takes place in the cytoplasm. Less complex.

Eukaryotic Transcription

Takes place in the nucleus. Has more transcription factors. Processing occurs after termination: addition of a 5' guanine cap, 3' polyadenylation, and splicing of introns/exons.

Which is/are the correct form(s)? Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus aureus staphylococcus aureus S. aureus Staphylococcus aureus AND S. aureus

Staphylococcus aureus AND S. aureus

A pure or mixed sample of known microbes that are added to food is a/an A. Starter culture B. Aerator C. Flavor inducer D. Fermenter E. Leavening

Starter Culture

Which of the following foods has the greatest amount of available water? Syrup Steak Cake Bread Jam

Steak

Translation Termination

Stop codon aligned to A site. Proteins called release factors stop elongation and activate riboenzymes in the large subunit to sever polypeptide from the tRNA in the P site.

Which of the following is NOT associated with a Clostridium species? - Botulism - Antibiotic-associated diarrheal disease - Gas gangrene - Strep throat - Tetanus

Strep throat

A catalase-negative colony growing on a plate that was incubated aerobically could be which of the following genera?

Streptococcus

This strep throat bacteria yields Beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar.

Streptococcus pyogenes

Documented transmission of HIV involves: A. Mosquitoes B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products C. Respiratory droplets D. Contaminated food E. All of the choices are correct

Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products

In prokaryotes, the mRNA transcript encounters ribosomal subunits immediately as it leaves the DNA

True - creation of polyribosome (polysome)

T/F - Rhizobium is considered an endosymbiont with plants.

True - specifically with root nodules of legumes where they fix nitrogen

Replication, transcription and translation take place in the bacterial cytoplasm

True -in eukaryotes, 1 &2 in nucleolus, 3 in cytoplasm

If one strand of DNA contains the bases ACAGT, what would be the complementary bases on the mRNA strand?

UGUCA

The formation of a covalent bond between two adjacent thymines is caused by mustard gas. alkylating agents. microwave radiation. UV radiation.

UV radiation

RNA Polymerase

Unzips DNA. No primer necessary. Uses ribonucleotides. Less efficient proofreading. Transcribes one DNA strand, (-) stand. Is complementary to (+) DNA strand..

Triphosphate Deoxyribonucleotides

Used to build new DNA. dATP, dGTP, dCTP, and dTTP.

Eukaryotic Chromosome

Usually multiple, linear, and diploid. Found in the nucleus. Circular in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

Prokaryotic Chromosome

Usually single, circular. Always haploid. Found in the nucleoid.

Soft shell clams that live buried in the mud on tidal mudflats: Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio parahaemolyticus E. coli 0157:H7 Listeria monocytogenes Campylobacter

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

In the phototrophic production of energy, the oxygen originates from A. carbon dioxide. B. water. C. glucose.

Water

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is: A. Water and electrolyte replacement B. Antimicrobials C. Antitoxin D. Surgery E. None of the choices is correct

Water and electrolyte replacement

Biofilms are likely to be found in environments that are nutrient rich. with rapidly flowing water. with low nutrients. that are relatively warm. with abundant nutrients.

with low nutrients.

Fungi capable of dimorphism grow either as: - yeast-like or mycelium. - rhizoids or hyphae. - spores or mushrooms. - germ tubes or buds. - yeast-like or mushrooms.

yeast-like or mycellium

The organisms isolated from hydrothermal vents are typically phototrophs, rhizobia, AND bacteroid. bacteroid. phototrophs. chemolithoautotrophs. rhizobia.

chemolithoautotrophs.

All fungi have ________ in their cell walls. chitin cellulose peptidoglycan pectin ergesterol

chitin

The site in a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell where photosynthesis occurs is the: - carotenoid. - Golgi. - chloroplast. - nucleus. - mitochondria.

chloroplast.

__________ are groups of three bases in mRNA that specify one amino acid in the amino acid chain

codons - also called a triplet

The accepted method of testing water supplies for the possible presence of pathogens is to determine the presence of Streptococci. Staphylococci. Streptomyces. coliforms. vibrios.

coliforms.

Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve:

comparison of DNA or RNA

Gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is transformation. competency. conjugation. functional genomics.

conjugation

When bacterium is grown on glucose only,

it must synthesize all the amino acids it needs

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except: A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger C. it has a reservoir of cattle intestines D. it causes a bloody diarrhea E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure

it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals

In an inducible operon, when a substrate or inducer is present,

it reacts with the pressor and inactivates it

What role does the sigma factor of RNA polymerase have in transcription?

it recognizes and binds to the promoter region of the template RNA

mycoplasma

lack peptidoglycan, are the smallest free-living organisms AND have sterols in their membranes - mycoplasma has NO CELL WALL

The idea of Spontaneous Generation postulated that

living organisms could spontaneously arise from non-living material.

Prosthecae are an adaptation for

low nutrient aquatic environments - for attachment and nutrient absorption

A site used for disposal of non-hazardous solid wastes in a manner that minimizes damage to human health and the environment is a(n) activated sludger. sanitary landfill. septic tank. composter. water treatment facility.

sanitary landfill

The system by which organisms are named is referred to as systematics. naming. nomenclature. cladistics.

nomenclature

RNA is a chain of ______

nucleotides

Lactic acid bacteria such as Lactococcus

obligate fermentors

The Golden Age of Medical Microbiology

occurred during the late 1800s to early 1900s, is a time when the knowledge of and techniques to work with bacteria blossomed AND was when people realized that diseases could be caused by invisible agents.

Where is the majority of earth's water found? A. Soil moisture B. Freshwater lakes C. Icecaps and glaciers D. Oceans E. Ground water

oceans The ocean holds about 97 percent of the Earth's water. Next comes glaciers, rivers, lakes...

Algae: - are always saprophytic or parasitic. - are only found in the soil. - have a vascular system similar to that of plants. - often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty. - are strictly macroscopic organisms.

often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty.

Pediculus humanus

only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease

Pediculus humanus... 1. only uses humans as a host AND is carried by mosquitoes. 2. is an obligate intracellular parasite AND only uses humans as a host. 3. can transmit a bacterial disease AND only infects feet. 4. only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease. 5. only infects feet AND can transmit a bacterial disease.

only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease.

Viruses, viroids and prions all operate intracellularly. may be considered acellular agents of disease. contain DNA. infect only animals. operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

A _______ is a cluster of genes that perform related functions, found in ____________

operon, prokaryotes

Coordinated sets of genes that are regulated as a single unit are referred to as

operons - regulated by an operon

the specific point on the dna molecule where replication begins is the

origin of replication

Treating foods with large amounts of salt draws the water out of foods by A. reverse osmosis B. efflux C. active transport D. osmosis E. lyophilization

osmosis The water follows the salt.

Clostridium, Lactobacillus, and Propionibacterium all: - oxidize inorganic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - neutralize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize inorganic compounds AND use sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize organic compounds AND use sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

oxidize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

Comparatively greater energy is released when: - carbon dioxide is the final electron acceptor. - oxygen is the final electron acceptor. - fermentation occurs. - nitrate is the final electron acceptor. - hydrogen is the final electron acceptor.

oxygen is the final electron acceptor.

To increase the proportion of mutants in a population of bacteria one may use direct selection. replica plating. penicillin enrichment. individual transfer.

penicillin enrichment

The bond connecting amino acids is a ______ bond

peptide

A __________ is the physical expression of the genes present and can change depending upon what genes are turned "on"

phenotype

The characteristics displayed by an organism in any given environment is its genotype. archaetype. mutatotype. phenotype.

phenotype

The properties of a cell which are determined by its DNA composition are its phenotype. genotype. metabolism. nucleoid.

phenotype

3 basic parts of a DNA nucleotide are

phosphate deoxyribose sugar nitrogenous base

What 3 components make up RNA subunits?

phosphate nitrogenous base ribose sugar

Thymine dimers are dealt with by no repair mechanisms. photoreactivation repair. SOS repair. excision repair. photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.

photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.

Free-floating, photosynthetic organisms found in marine environments are blue-green algae. phytoplankton. omega-3s Bucella. krill.

phytoplankton

The floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.

plankton

Mycorrhizae are a symbiotic association of plant roots and fungi. bacteria and virus. plants roots and bacteria. fungi and virus. bacteria and algae.

plant roots and fungi

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following diseases except A. strep throat B. scarlet fever C. pneumococcal pneumonia D. glomerulitis E. All of the choices are correct

pneumococcal pneumonia - is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, a Gram-positive diplococcus known as pneumococcus.

What usually terminates the process of translation?

presence of a stop codon on mRNA - UAA, UAG, UGA

The problem(s) with using sludge as a fertilizer is/are the inhibitory effect it has on plant growth AND stimulatory effect it has on methane production. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND inhibitory effect it has on plant growth. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses. presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses AND inhibitory effect it has on plant growth. stimulatory effect it has on methane production AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses. ***NOT TRUEEE****

Bdellovibrio species: - are parasites of plants. - are filamentous. - may fix nitrogen. - prey on other bacteria. - are photosynthetic.

prey on other bacteria.

In sewage treatment, the removal of large objects and particulate matter is achieved during primary treatment. quaternary treatment. the night. secondary treatment. tertiary treatment.

primary treatment.

Live, beneficial microbes provided to populate the intestines are known as: A. Prebiotics B. Phytobiotics C. Lantibiotics D. Probiotics E. Riboswitches

probiotics Got this right

The term "potable water" refers to water that is in carrying containers. contaminated with chemicals. safe to drink. only good for irrigation of crops. safe to swim in but not to drink.

safe to drink.

The term "potable water" refers to water that is safe to swim in but not to drink. safe to drink. only good for irrigation of crops. in carrying containers. contaminated with chemicals.

safe to drink.

For growth, most bacteria require water activity levels above 0.90. 0.70. 0.80. 100. 1.00.

0.90.

T/F Size and shape may allow one to differentiate between a bacterium, fungus, or protozoan.

True

T/F: For prokaryotes, species is a group of closely related isolates or strains.

True

The organisms found near warm vents on the bottom of the ocean are typically chemoautotrophic. True False

True

The sequence of DNA bases ultimately determines the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

True

The term "potable water" refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink. True False

True

Lac Operon

A gene system whose operator gene and three structural genes control lactose metabolism. Only transcribed when glucose levels are low.

In treating an oil spill, why might biostimulation be preferred over bioaugmentation? Biostimulation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are generally genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Bioaugmentation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function. In fact, biostimulation is not generally favored as an approach. Biostimulation often leads to the generation of antibiotic—resistant microbes, which become a problem for other organisms in the environment. Bioaugmentation is the favored approach because adding nutrients to the area simply enhances the activities of the bacteria already present. ******Adding new microbes (bioaugmentation) poses some risk—when new microbes are added to an environment, the consequences of those additions on resident populations are unknown. Adding nutrients (biostimulation) is safer because once those nutrients are used up, the microbial populations are likely to return to their original levels. ******** Biostimulation and bioaugmentation are always used simultaneously. This is done because neither one of these approaches works well individually. Adding bacteria to an environment will never be successful unless nutrients are also added to that environment. Bioaugmentation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are highly genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Biostimulation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function.

******Adding new microbes (bioaugmentation) poses some risk—when new microbes are added to an environment, the consequences of those additions on resident populations are unknown. Adding nutrients (biostimulation) is safer because once those nutrients are used up, the microbial populations are likely to return to their original levels. ******** THIS IS TRUE!!!!!!!!

Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? - Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal. - They are heterotrophic. - They have eukaryotic cells. - They are multicellular animals. - All are parasites.

- All are parasites. Some are parasites. Helminths are worms, a type of animal.

Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits: - are yeasts. - are facultative anaerobes. - grow well at acid pH. - secrete enzymes that degrade organic molecules. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? - Some protozoa are parasitic. - All protozoa lack mitochondria. - Protozoa are unicellular organisms. - Some protozoa are photosynthetic. - Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan.

- All protozoa lack mitochondria.

Yeast infections are caused by: - Saccharomyces cerevisiae. - Candida albicans. - Histoplasma. - Penicillium. - Aspergillus.

- Candida albicans.

Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? - Phytophthora - plasmodial slime mold - cellular slime mold - Euglena - oomycote

- Euglena

Which of the statements regarding Naegleria fowleri is FALSE? - Once in a human host, it assumes an amoeboid form. - It is swims though water as a flagellated form. - It causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis (brain eating disease). - It is a small, Gram-negative, flagellated diplococcus. - It forms a cyst under adverse environmental conditions.

- It is a small, Gram-negative, flagellated diplococcus. - an amoeboid Protozoa Naegleria fowleri infects people when water containing the AMOEBA enters the body through the nose. This typically occurs when people go swimming or diving in warm freshwater places, like lakes and rivers. The Naegleria fowleri ameba then travels up the nose to the brain where it destroys the brain tissue. - can't live in salt or treated water.

You have isolated a bacterium from a contaminated river but you are unable to culture it in the laboratory. Which method could you use to identify the organism? - Gram staining - Biochemical testing - MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry - Nucleic acid amplification tests - Antibiograms

- Nucleic acid amplification tests

Why is translation needed? Translation is needed because:

- The subunits of nucleic acids are nucleotides, while those of proteins are amino acids - the subunits of DNA and RNA are nucleotides while those of protein are amino acids

Which of the following are characteristics of fungi? -They have a nuclear membrane AND their cell wall contains cellulose. - Their cell wall contains chitin AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter. - Their cytoplasmic membrane contains ergesterol AND they are always multicellular. - They have a peptidoglycan cell wall AND they may be photosynthetic. - Their cell wall contains cellulose AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.

- Their cell wall contains chitin AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.

Using genotypic characteristics to identify prokaryotes - detecting specific nucleotide sequences (Nucleic acid probes and nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) - sequencing Ribosomal RNA genes

- Think DNA probes from Ch9 - PCR is a NAAT

The lactobacilli, in their role as normal microbiota of the vagina, help the vagina resist infection by contributing to: - a high vaginal pH. - the neutrality of the vaginal mucus. - food for the resident vaginal microbiota. - fertility of the host. - acidity of the vagina.

- acidity of the vagina

Streptococcus pyogenes would be - beta hemolytic and catalase negative. - beta hemolytic and catalase positive. - alpha hemolytic and catalase negative. - alpha hemolytic and catalase positive.

- beta hemolytic and catalase negative.

The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a: - metacercaria. - redia. - proglottid. - cercaria. - cysticercus.

- cysticercus.

Sequencing of rRNA is useful for:

- determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

microscopic morphology

- fresh or stained microorganisms from specimen; shape, size, stain reaction, cell structures; quick

In conjugation, transformation, or transduction, the recipient bacteria is most likely to accept donor DNA: - from any species of bacteria. - from the same species of bacteria. - from any source AND only through plasmids. - only through plasmids. - from any source.

- from the same species of bacteria.

Ringworm is caused by a(n)? - trematode. - nematode. - fungus. - cestode. - protozoan.

- fungus

Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by: - aerosols. - vectors. - respiratory route. - genitourinary route. - gastrointestinal route.

- gastrointestinal route.

All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they? - are multicellular animals. - are hermaphroditic. - are dorsoventrally flattened. - can be divided into flukes and tapeworms. - have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

- have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

Helicobacter pylori: - causes crown gall in plants. - inhabits the stomach. - has axonemes. - produces luminescence. - inhabits squid ink sacs.

- inhabits the stomach

Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they: - are motile. - lack nuclei. - lack mitochondria. - do produce cysts. - do not produce cysts.

- lack mitochondria. Giardiasis is an intestinal infection in humans and animals, caused by a microscopic protozoan parasite Giardia duodenalis (also known as G. intestinalis or G. lamblia). "Giardia is not a "worm", bacteria or virus." Trichomoniasis (or "trich") is a very common sexually transmitted disease (STD). It is caused by infection with a protozoan parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. Although symptoms of the disease vary, most people who have the parasite cannot tell they are infected.

Algae are important environmentally as: - local contaminants. - major producers of oxygen. - supporting fungal growth. - local flora. - major producers of carbon dioxide.

- major producers of oxygen.

Fungi are classified according to their - mode of locomotion. - this is protozoans - cap color. - morphology. - method of sexual reproduction. - mode of nutrition.

- method of sexual reproduction. - found it. slide 18 - The sexual forms (of reproduction) play an important role in FUNGAL CLASSIFICATION and some are commercially valuable.

The human body only contains bacteria during illness. True or Flase False Viruses, viroids and prions all: - operate intracellularly. - may be considered acellular agents of disease. - contain DNA. - infect only animals. - operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

- operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits: - grow well at neutral pH. - are mushrooms. - are obligate aerobes. - secrete degradative enzymes. - All of the choices are correct.

- secrete degradative enzymes.

Which of the following occurs in both prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes

- transcription - translation - DNA replication

gene regulation may entail

- turning on genes only when needed - turning off genes when not needed - turning on or off entire groups of genes

In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Cytosine D) Guanine E) Uracil

Answer: B

The genus of bacteria that is able to fix nitrogen and form heterocysts is

-Anabeana

Algae

-May be green, red, or brown. -Lack roots, stems, leaves, and vascular tissues that are found in terrestrial plants. -Some marine produce neurotoxins that can be concentrated in shellfish and pose a risk of paralytic shellfish poisoning to humans who consume the shellfish. -Both asexual and sexual reproduction occurs among the diversity of species. -Most have a plantlike cell wall composed of cellulose.

Protozoa

-Most protozoa are motile via pseudopods, flagella, cilia, or undulating membranes. -Cysts enable parasites to survive during passage from one host to the next. -While living in the gut of their host, intestinal parasites are usually in the trophozoite form. -As a group exhibit both asexual and sexual reproduction.

Helminths

-The major organ system apparent in tapeworm proglottids is the reproductive system. -Some helminth infections involve more than one intermediate host. -Either eggs or larval stages may be infectious, depending on the species. -Parasitic lack a complete digestive system and they absorb nutrients directly through their cuticles. -Humans can serve as either definitive or intermediate hosts of flatworms.

The causative agent of Lyme disease is: A. Ixodes scapularis B.Bordetella pertussisC.Brucella melitensisD.Borrelia burgdorferiE.Aedes aegypti

Some fungi reproduce sexually by forming----- which are sexual spores contained within a sac structure.

-ascospores

One of the greatest causes of human deaths through time has been due to: 1.Plasmodium spp. 2.Giardia spp. 3.Escherichia spp. 4.Trypanosoma spp. 5.Histoplasma spp.

1.Plasmodium spp. - causes malaria

The properties of a cell that are determined by its DNA composition are its: - nucleoid. - phenotype. - metabolism. - plasmids. - genotype.

-phenotype

Rhizopus stolonifer, the common black bread mold, forms asexual spores called----- which are contained in a sac at the end of aerial hyphae.

-sporangiospores

Indicator organism Intrinsic factor Microbial mat Nitrifiers Presence/absence test

. Microbe commonly found in the intestinal tract whose presence in other environments suggests fecal contamination. B. A type of microbial community characterized by distinct layers of different groups of microorganisms that together make up a thick, dense, highly organized structure. C. In food microbiology, the natural characteristics of a food that influence the rate of microbial growth. D. A water sample added to lactose-containing broth with a vial to trap gas which would confirm the presence of coliform bacteria. E. Group of Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic nitrogen compounds such as ammonia or nitrate.

The toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is heat-stable. True False

True

When using metabolic capabilities to phenotypically identify the unknown microorganism, the results of tests follow a type of decision tree to reach an answer. What is this decision tree called?

A dichotamous key

Which are the three ways in which fungi cause illness in humans? 1. Hypersensitivity - person has allergic reaction to fungal components. 2. Intoxication - fungus produces a toxin that is ingested. 3. Immune suppression - fungus destroys all red blood cells. 4. Infection - fungus grows on body as a mycosis. -- 1. 1, 2, and 4 2. 4 only 3. 2, 3, and 4 4. 1, 3, and 4 5. 1, 2, and 3

1. 1, 2, and 4

Organize the steps that are involved in the mechanism of RNA interference (RNAi)

1. cell produces short single-stranded RNA 2. and RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) assembles 3. Binding of the RNA in the RISC to mRNA tags the mRNA for destruction 4. Enzymes cut mRNA; RISC can then bind to another mRNA molecule

One of the organisms that may cause red tide is: 1. dinoflagellates. 2. euglenids. 3. diatoms. 4. green algae. 5. brown algae.

1. dinoflagellates.

Organisms that grow very slowly, are non-culturable, are present in very small numbers, or are mixed with a number of bacteria may still be identified using: A. PCR. B. Southern blotting. C. colony blotting. D. replica plating. E. gas chromatography of fatty acids.

Transposons may leave a cell by incorporating themselves into a plasmid. True False

True

Most large cities have required the pasteurization of milk and milk products since ________. 1985 1920 1900 1850 1800

1900

The return of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and nitrogen to the soil is due to the action of: 1. fungi and viruses. 2. fungi and bacteria. 3. viruses and plants. 4. plants and bacteria. 5. bacteria and viruses.

2. fungi and bacteria.

Lice and mites... 1. cause Lyme disease. 2. may both be spread by personal contact. 3. are both arachnids. 4. are intestinal parasites. 5. both cause respiratory illness.

2. may both be spread by personal contact.

Once Y. pestis is in the human host, it is ingested by macrophages. Conditions within the macrophage activate certain genes in the bacterium, one of which is a gene for a capsule production. The capsule: 1.allows the bacteria to survive excess heat. 2.allows the bacteria to avoid phagocytosis. 3.provides a source of nutrients for the bacteria. 4. allows the bacteria to float in water. 5.allows the bacteria to exchange DNA with other bacteria.

2.allows the bacteria to avoid phagocytosis.

Select the TRUE statement regarding algae. 1. Algae are plants and therefore possess a highly organized vascular system. 2. Algae are generally saprophytic, living off dead and decaying matter. 3. Some algae can directly cause infectious diseases in humans and other animals. 4. Although most algae have a cellulose/pectin cell wall, some algae lack a cell wall. 5.Algae always reproduce sexually, producing both haploid and diploid generations.

4. Although most algae have a cellulose/pectin cell wall, some algae lack a cell wall.

Protozoans are an important part of the food chain, ingesting large numbers of: 1. other protozoans. 2. bacteria and fungi. 3. bacteria and algae. 4. fish and crabs. 5. shellfish and algae.

3. bacteria and algae.

Sarcodina move by means of: 1. microvilli. 2. apicomplexans. 3. pseudopodia. 4. flagella. 5. cilia.

3. pseudopodia.

The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is 300-400 milligrams per liter. 300-400 grams per liter. 500-800 grams per milliliter. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter.

300-400 milligrams per liter.

The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is 500-800 grams per milliliter. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter. 300-400 grams per liter. 300-400 milligrams per liter.

300-400 milligrams per liter.

Most human pathogens grow best at temperatures near 45ºC. 25ºC. 37ºC. 20ºC. 97ºF.

37ºC.

Most bacteria are inhibited by a pH of 7.0. 4.5. 6.0. 7.2. 6.5.

4.5

The pH at which most fungi thrive is ________.

5 - some fungal species can grow in concentrations of salts, sugars or acids that inhibit the growth of most bacteria. Fungi can grow on pH 2.2-9.6 and usually grow well at pH 5.0 or lower.

Eukaryotic Translation

5' guanine cap on mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit in initiation. In the cytoplasm. First amino acid is Met.

Which disease is INCORRECTLY matched with its arthropod vector? 1. Dengue fever—mosquitoes 2. Malaria—Anopheles mosquito 3. Lyme disease—ticks 4. Plague—fleas 5. African sleeping sickness—sand fly

5. African sleeping sickness—sand fly

The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC. 55-66ºC. 97ºF. 90-100ºC. 62-75ºC.

55-66ºC.

An mRNA has the codon 5′ UAC 3′. What tRNA anticodon will bind to it?

5′ GUA 3′ - remember that the nucleotides match up antiparallel so this is 3' AUG 5' so UAC matches AUG and the answer flipped it around.

Typically, arthropods serve as vectors of disease, while helminths directly cause disease, true or false?

True

A common causative agent of acute endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B.Listeria monocytogenesC.Candida albicansD.Neisseria gonorrheaE.All of the choices are correct.

A three base sequence on mRNA is called a(n) a. codon. b. exon. c. anticodon. d. intron.

All fungi have __________ in their cell walls: A. chitin. B. pectin. C. peptidoglycan. D. phospholipids. E. cellulose.

All of the following pertain to transcription except a. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. b. occurs before translation. c. requires RNA polymerase. d. requires a template DNA strand. e. proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction of the growing mRNA molecule.

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by a. polymerase chain reaction. b. DNA sequencing. c. gene probes. d. southern blot. e. western blot.

Anaerobic cellular respiration: A. is also called fermentation B. only involves glycolysis C. does not generate ATP D. utilizes an electron transport system E. uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration

DNA Polymerase I a. removes primers. b. adds bases to new DNA chain. c. supercoils DNA. d. unzips DNA. e. synthesizes RNA primer.

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. electron transport B. TCA cycle C. glycolysis D. processing of pyruvic acid for the TCA cycle E. all phases produce the same number of ATP molecules

Important components of coenzymes are: A. vitamins B. metallic ions C. active sites D. substrates E. ribozymes

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the: A. cell membrane B. mitochondria C. chloroplasts D. ribosomes E. cytoplasm

Most electron carriers are: A. coenzymes B. enzymes C. hydrogens D. inorganic phosphate E. all of the choices are correct

Negative control means that a regulator molecule is A. bound and transcription is inhibited AND removed and transcription begins. B. bound and transcription is inhibited. C. bound and transcription begins. D. removed and transcription begins. E. removed and transcription begins.

Nucleoids are associated with: 1. genetic information 2. prokaryotes 3. eukaryotes 4. viruses 5. prions A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 & 5 E) 1 & 5

Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by a. DNA ligases. b. DNA polymerases. c. DNA helicases. d. DNA gyrates e. primases.

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A.Clostridium botulinumB.Clostridium perfringensC.Clostridium difficileD.Clostridium tetaniE.All of the choices are correct.

Propionibacterium A. produces propionic acid. B. produces lactic acid. C. is responsible for the blue color of Stilton cheese. D. requires aerobic environments. E. produces propionic acid and is responsible for peptic ulcers.

The Archaea: 1. are microscopic 2. are commonly found in extreme environments 3. contain peptidoglycan 4. contain mitochondria 5. are most commonly found in the soil A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 & 5 E) 1 & 5

The causative organism for mumps is: A. Paramyxovirus B.CorynebacteriumC.Streptococcus pyogenesD.VibrioE.Morbillivirus

The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the a. promoter. b. operator. c. operon. d. exon. e. intron.

The placement of the amino acid during translation is determined by the: A. complementarity of the codon-anticodon. B. DNAse which transcribes both molecules. C. sequence of nucleotides at the 5' end of the tRNA. D. 16S rRNA sequence. E. secondary structure of the newly forming protein.

The primers in PCR are a. synthetic short strands of DNA (oligonucleotides). b. bacterial enzymes. c. short RNA strands. d. DNA polymerases. e. reverse transcriptases.

The size of the amplified DNA fragment generated during PCR is determined by A. the locations to which the primers anneal. B. how many cycles are performed. C. the size of the template DNA. D. how much Taq polymerase is used.

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called a. genetic engineering. b. biotechnology. c. recombinant DNA. d. gel electrophoresis. e. gene probes.

Thymine dimers are dealt with by A. Photoreactivation repair AND excision repair B. Excision repair C. SOS repair D. No repair mechanisms E. Photoreactivation repair

Viruses: 1. contain both protein and nucleic acid 2. infect all domains of life 3. can grow in absence of living cells 4. are generally the same size as prokaryotes 5. always kill the cells they infect A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 & 5 E) 1 & 5

What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for? a. silent b. back c. point d. nonsense e. missense

Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands? a. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C b. cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C c. add primers d. heat target DNA to 94°C e. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

Which is incorrect about purines? a. only found in DNA, not in RNA b. are nitrogenous bases c. always paired with a specific pyrimidine d. include adenine and guanine e. found within nucleotides

A student complains that it makes no sense to worry about coliform bacteria in water, since we naturally possess harmless coliforms in our intestines anyway. Why do regulatory agencies worry about coliform bacteria in water supplies, then? A. Not all coliforms are harmless and symbiotic with human beings and some may carry genes/proteins that can make them dangerous to humans; it is best to keep coliforms OUT of our drinking water, since it is difficult to identify which ones might be harmless and which ones might be harmful. B. Regulatory agencies simply need something to do to justify their existence; there is no real danger from coliforms in water supplies. C. The coliforms in our intestines can sometimes turn harmful, causing intestinal infections; we need to constantly be on guard against this happening; coliforms in water might add to this potential problem. D. Regulatory agencies are worried that multiple types of coliforms in water might lead to greater antibiotic resistance in the bacterial populations; they try to keep them out of water to keep antibiotic resistance levels down.

A - B and D are just silly, and 'constantly on guard' in C = nope. coliforms refers to enterics - are an indicator that the water could be contaminated with fecal matter.

Single-celled eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll are called A. protozoa. B. saprophytes. C. algae. D. Chlorophyta. E. Salmonella.

A - Eurkaryotes we talked about - fungi, algae, protozoa, slime mold, water mold - Single celled and no chlorophyll adds up to protozoa.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to perform DNA sequencing reactions. In this case, are 2 primers (a forward and a reverse) necessary? A. No; dideoxynucleotide sequencing depends on different length fragments being formed and then separated based on size and this can take place with only a specific forward primer OR a specific reverse primer. B. No; you actually need a primer pair for each round of DNA amplification and so you will need many, many primer pairs. C. Yes; it will be important to make sure that the primer pairs are made with dideoxynucleotides that are labeled with fluorescent dyes otherwise you will not be able to detect the fragments that are made in the PCR process. D. Yes; PCR cannot be performed without 2 specific primers to amplify the region in question in the DNA

A - I got this one wrong once before. Still not sure I understand this one but it is A.

In E. coli 0157:H7 the 0157:H7 refers to the A. specific LPS and flagella type present. B. specific biotype. C. specific type of DNA present. D. general family. E. specific genus.

A - O antigen is on LPS in out membrane of G- bacteria - H refers to the flagella type - K refers to the capsule

The agarose used in electrophoresis: A. acts as a sieve. B. interacts electrically with the DNA. C. chemically binds to the DNA. D. selectively sorts recombinant DNA from host DNA.

A - does not change the DNA at all, just lets the fragments move through it.

The lactobacilli, in their role as normal flora of the vagina, help it resist infection by contributing to: A. the acidity of the vagina. B. fertility of the host. C. food for the resident vaginal flora. D. urease production. E. the neutrality of the vaginal muscles.

A - lactic acid bateria. Breaks down glycogen deposited in vaginal walls due to estrogen and lowers the pH to prevent bacterial overgrowth.

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during: A. release. B. assembly. C. penetration. D. adsorption. E. replication.

A - lipid bilayer with virus and host proteins

To maximize the number of thymine dimer mutations following UV exposure, should you keep a plate of fungal cells in the dark, in the light, or does it matter at all? A. It does not matter; fungal cells do not possess the enzymes needed for photorepair of thymine dimers because these enzymes are only found in prokaryotes. B. It is best to alternate light and dark every hour to increase the chances that thymine dimers will form in the fungal cells, but still keep the photorepair systems from correcting them as they are formed. C. Keep then in the dark; light will activate the photorepair systems that can break the thymine dimers induced by UV light. D. Keep them in the light; it is important to keep on producing thymine dimers by keeping the plate exposed to light as much as possible.

A - options for repair are light repair (photorepair - in PROKARYOTES only), dark repair {excision repair), SOS repair when the damage is terrible - means C would be true IF it was PROKARYOTES

Post-translational modification may include: A. the folding of the protein, often with the aid of chaperones AND the removal of the signal sequence B. removal of the signal sequence. C. the folding of the protein often with the aid of chaperones. D. the formation of exons and introns. E. the addition of glycine tags.

A - proteins don't stay in long strings, they have to fold up. Signal sequence is on proteins destined to outside the cell and the sequence is taken off as it moves through the cytoplasmic membrane.

What structure is indicated by: 10A, 15T, 3G, 7C? A. Single-stranded DNA. B. Double-stranded DNA. C. Double-stranded RNA. D. Single-stranded RNA.

A - still haven't seen mention of this in the text.

The lagging strand: A. is necessary due to the properties of the enzymes and the antiparallel nature of DNA. B. is always the bottom strand. C. is found during RNA replication. D. is the third type of RNA. E. iIs the strand always associated with the primer.

A -Also, is still replicated along the 3 to 5 direction since DNA polymerase works in 5 to 3 direction. Results in Okazaki fragments - another polymerase will replace the RNA primer with DNA and DNA ligase will covalently bond the nucleotides together.

There are fewer antifungal, anti-protozoan and anti-helminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths A. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult. B. are parasites found inside human cells. C. are not affected by antimicrobials. D. do not cause many human infections. E. Because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria

A Got this right

Virulence factors include all the following except A. ribosomes. B. flagella. C. exotoxins. D. capsules. E. exoenzymes.

A Got this right

Which is mismatched? A. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites B. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues C. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site D. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms E. Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site

A - I think that is the definition for metastasis Got this right

Missense Mutation

A base-pair substitution that results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid.

Explain the difference between a biotype and a serotype.

A biotype is the biochemical profile of a particular microorganism, while the serotype is the difference in its surface structures/antigens that will lead to separate immune responses from an organism (characterized by presence of different antibodies in the individual's serum).

Nonsense Mutation

A mutation in which a coding codon is changed to a stop codon.

Silent Mutation

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, but does not change the amino acid created.

Mutation

A permanent change in the DNA or RNA sequence.

Rhizobium - fix nitrogen inside nodules on the roots of legumes.

A symbiotic bacterium that lives in the nodules on roots of specific legumes and that incorporates nitrogen gas from the air into a form of nitrogen the plant requires

Figure 10.3 This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of the DNA of different organisms. In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related? A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 3 and 5 D) 2 and 5 E) 4 and 5

A) 1 and 3

Table 10.1 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae 32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in all Eukarya? A) 2, 3, 5 B) 1, 4, 6 C) 3, 5 D) 2, 3 E) 1, 2, 5

A) 2, 3, 5

Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

A) Animalia

Table 10.2 Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source. A) Citrobacter B) Escherichia C) Lactobacillus D) Pseudomonas E) Staphylococcus

A) Citrobacter

Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner's vaccination process? A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. B) Disease is caused by viruses. C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again. D) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner. E) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.

A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. Milder coxpox protected milk maids from smallpox.

A clone is A) Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell. B) A genetically engineered cell. C) A taxon composed of species. D) A mound of cells on an agar medium. E) None of the above.

A) Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus. A) Neisseria B) Pseudomonas C) Staphylococcus D) Streptococcus E) Micrococcus

A) Neisseria

9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system? A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains. B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions. C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions. D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments. E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.

A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.

The arrangement of organisms into taxa A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms. B) Shows relationships to common ancestors. C) Was designed by Charles Darwin. D) Is arbitrary. E) Is based on evolution.

A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

22) Which of the following best defines a strain? A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution C) a population of cells with similar characteristics D) a group of cells derived from a single parent E) same as a species

A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species

The tart taste of yogurt, pickles, and sharp cheeses is due to the presence of A) lactic acid. B) acetic acid. C) sorbic acid. D) benzoic acid. E) hydrochloric acid.

A) lactic acid.

Microorganisms play a role in: a. disease b. biodegradation c. cheese production d. nitrogen recycling e. all of the above

Protist is a diverse group of organisms that are similar in A) rRNA sequences. B) Metabolic type. C) Motility. D) Ecology. E) None of the above.

A) rRNA sequences.

Aflatoxin Anaerobic digestion Baker's yeast Bioremediation Biosphere

A. Selected strains of Saccharomyces cerevisiae that are used to make yeast bread. B. The sum of all the regions of the earth where life exists. C. Process that uses anaerobic microbes to degrade the sludge obtained during wastewater treatment. D. Potent toxin made by Aspergillus flavus. E. Process that uses microorganisms to degrade harmful chemicals.

Canning Curd Diazotroph Effluent Hypoxic

A. The liquid portion of treated wastewater. B. Deficient in O 2. C. Processing using steam under pressure (autoclaving) to destroy endospores. D. Organism that can fix nitrogen. E. Coagulated milk proteins, produced during cheese making

The three domain classification scheme uses A. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya. B. Protista, Prokaryotae, Fungi. C. Plants, Animals, Bacteria. D. order, phylum, class. E. Bacteria, Archaea, Animalia

A. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya.

A.Wherein a parasite sexually reproduces B. Taxonomic category of related organisms, usually containing several species; the first name of an organism in the Binomial System of Nomenclature C. Flowchart of tests used for identifying an organism; each test gives either a positive or negative result D. Characteristic structures of motility in spirochetes E. The group of Gram-negative oxygenic phototrophs genetically related to chloroplasts

A. Definitive Host B. Genus C. Dichotamous Key D. Endoflagella E. Cyanobacteria

You suspect that she may have Helicobacter pylori gastritis, and send her for a urea breath test. The breath test is positive; based on this, you get the patient's stool tested for blood, and you send her for an endoscopy, during which a biopsy is taken. Your diagnosis is confirmed by the results of these tests and that she does indeed have H. pylori. Your patient asks you how a bacterium can survive in her stomach, which she knows is very acidic. You explain that: A. H. pylori produces urease that converts urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia; the ammonia neutralizes the pH of the stomach, allowing the bacteria to survive. B. H. pylori is an acidophile, and as such prefers acidic pH levels of 1-3; gastric juices contain hydrochloric acid which has a very low pH. C. H. pylori is encased in the very thick polysaccharide capsule that protects it from the degradative effects of the HCl found in the stomach. D. H. pylori forms a biofilm with the other normal microbiota of the stomach. The structure of the biofilm covers and protects the bacteria within it. E H. pylori has the ability to form endospores in hostile environmental conditions. It does this in the acidic stomach, only germinating once they reach the small intestine.

A. H. pylori produces urease that converts urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia; the ammonia neutralizes the pH of the stomach, allowing the bacteria to survive.

Wisconsin state health authorities alerted the CDC about an E. coli O157:H7 outbreak. Soon thereafter, officials from two other states reported that they also had cases of illness associated with this pathogen. Within days, the CDC determined that the E. coli strains from all three states were the same, and the likely source of the outbreak was a particular brand of pre-packaged fresh spinach. The CDC then issued a press release advising people not to eat bagged fresh spinach. Please select the FALSE definition regarding microbial identification: A. RFLPs are patterns of fragment sizes obtained by digesting polypeptides with one or more proteases. B. A signature sequence is a nucleotide sequence in rRNA that characterizes a certain species or a group of related organisms. C. A biotype is a group of strains that have a characteristic biochemical pattern different from other strains. D. A species is a group of closely related strains; it is the basic unit of taxonomy. E. A serovar is a group of strains that have a characteristic antigenic structure that differs from other strains.

A. RFLPs are patterns of fragment sizes obtained by digesting polypeptides with one or more proteases.

Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease? A. Removal of blood B. Urogenital tract and feces C. Coughing and sneezing D. Skin E. All of the choices are normal exit portals

A. Removal of blood Got it Right!

Chemoheterotroph (energy source + carbon source)

A. Uses chemical reactions for energy and uses organic compounds

A.In molecular biology, a piece of DNA acting as a carrier of a cloned fragment of DNA; in epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe, most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks B. Organism utilizing nutrients from dead and decaying matter C. Isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens, it allows those organisms to cause tumors in plants; a derivative is used as a vector to introduce DNA into plants by genetic engineering D. Pattern of fragment sizes obtained by digesting DNA with one or more restriction enzymes E. Evolutionary relatedness of organisms

A. Vector B. Saprophyte C. Tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) E. Phylogeny

Purple sulfur bacteria and filamentous sulfur-oxidizers both: A. accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules. B. fix nitrogen. C. produce oxygen from carbon dioxide. D. use gliding motility

A. accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules.

A. A poisonous substance made by Aspergillus flavus B. Lacking O2 C. Microbiological group of strains having a characteristic biochemical pattern different from other strains; also called a biovar D. Biological production of light E. Organism that obtains energy by oxidizing organic compounds such as glucose

A. aflatoxin B. anoxic C. biotype D. bioluminescense E. chemoorganotroph

Streptococcus pyogenes would be

A. beta hemolytic and catalase negative.

The point at which two organisms diverged from a common ancestor: A. can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences. B. is determined on MacConkey's media. C. depends on transcriptional and translational control. D. depends on metabolic activity and antibiotic resistance. E. is impossible to determine.

A. can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences.

APITM, EnterotubeTM, and VitekTM are all: A. commercially available methods used to identify bacteria. B. methods for extracting protein from bacteria. C. used to show the presence of bacteria in a sample. D. methods for extracting DNA from bacteria. E. used to measure gas production.

A. commercially available methods used to identify bacteria. (kits or computerized analysis designed to make metabolic capability testing quick and easy.)

Agrobacterium : A. contain the Ti plasmid which modifies the growth of plant tissue. B. produce antibiotics. C. infect animal cells. D. resemble fungus.

A. contain the Ti plasmid which modifies the growth of plant tissue.

he most significant cells in graft rejection are: A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper T cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Natural killer (NK) cells E. Both cytotoxic T cells AND natural killer (NK) cells

A. cytotoxic T cells Got this WRONG. Think it might be E

Class switching: A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class B. is a direct result of affinity maturation C. is the T cell decision to interact with a different antigen D. is T cell differentiation into a helper, natural killer, cytotoxic, or effector cell E. All of the choices are correct

A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class Got this right

Swarmer cells are: A. formed by sheathed bacteria. B. also known as coliforms. C. part of the green non-sulfur bacteria. D. formed by Myxobacteria. E. used in sewage treatment.

A. formed by sheathed bacteria

Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rRNA/rDNA data and other techniques may be explained by: A. horizontal DNA transfer. B. vertical DNA transfer. C. differences in post-replication modification. D. the difference in translation machinery. E. vertical RNA transfer.

A. horizontal DNA transfer.

Penicillin is most effective against: A. log phase Gram (+) bacteria. B. stationary phase Gram (-) bacteria. C. spores. D. stationary phase Gram (+) bacteria. E. log phase Gram (-) bacteria.

A. log phase Gram (+) bacteria. Got this right

You tell the patient that his sample contains white blood cells in which Gram-negative diplococci can be detected. Your patient asks how you obtained this result and you tell him you: A. performed a Gram stain. B. cultured his discharge on Gram-negative medium. C. cultured his discharge on Gram-positive medium. D. performed an antibiogram. E. performed an acid-fast stain.

A. performed a Gram stain.

Two isolates with identical RFLPs are considered: A. possibly the same strain. B. identical. C. different strains. D. different genera. E. definitely the same strain.

A. possibly the same strain.

Coliforms: - are an informal grouping of enterics. - ferment lactose. - include E. coli. - are used as indicators of fecal contamination. - All of the choices are correct.

All the choices are correct - enteric = fecal coliform

A DNA similarity of 75% between two organisms: A. suggests the organisms are closely related at the species level. B. suggests the organisms may or may not be related. C. suggests the organisms are not closely related at all. D. means the GC content in both organisms is 45%. E. means the GC content in one organism is 75% and 25% in the other.

A. suggests the organisms are closely related at the species level.

Nucleic acid techniques have great power as diagnostic tools because they may be A. very specific. B. quick and easy to perform. C. used to enhance the growth of bacteria. D. used to selectively inhibit the growth of certain bacteria.

A. very specific.

A. Phototrophic organism producing O2 B. A common name for members of the family Enterobacteriaceae C. Roundworms D. The group of Gram-positive bacteria generating lactic acid as the major end product of their fermentive metabolism E. A method of distinguishing strains that relies on determining the nucleotide sequence of select DNA regions

A.Oxygenic phototroph B. Enterics C. Nematodes D. Lactic Acid Bacteria E. Multilocus Sequence Typing

tRNA

About 75 nucleotides long. Delivers the correct amino acid to the ribosome bases on the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA.

If you examined the acidic runoff from a coal mine, which of the following would you most likely find grow there?

Acidithiobacillus

Horizontal Gene Transfer

Acquisition of genes from cells of the same generation.

DNA Methylation

Adds a CH3. Usually on adenines in bacteria. Defines the origin, involved in DNA repair and regulation, and helps identify bacterial DNA from foreign DNA.

DNA Polymerase III

Adds new nucleotides to 3' end of the growing strand. Has a proofreading function. Needs helicase to function. Replicates both strands.

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. Adjuvant B. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine C. Booster D. Antibodies to toxin E. Gamma globulin

Adjuvant Got this right

Sulfolobus species are found at the surface of acidic sulfur-containing hot springs such as many of those found in Yellowstone National Park. They only grow at temperatures above 50°C and at a pH between 1 and 6. How would you classify these organisms? - Psychrotrophic neutrophiles - Aerobic, psychrophilic acidophiles - Anaerobic, acidophilic mesophiles - Microaerophilic, halotolerant basophiles - Aerobic, acidophilic thermophiles

Aerobic, acidophilic thermophiles

Found in grains spoiled by Aspergillus

Aflatoxin

Members of this group generally don't cause infections, but some produce neurotoxins that cause intoxications in animals that consume them. Members of this group are found predominantly in aquatic environments.

Algae

Explain how nutrient-rich runoff can cause waters to become hypoxic. Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff, using oxygen in the process. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. The nutrients in the runoff often include chemicals that spontaneously oxidize in the presence of oxygen. They tend to deplete the amount of oxygen present in an area simply by being present themselves. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. It doesn't. This claim is a scare tactic used by environmental extremists to prevent farmers and individuals from fertilizing their crops and lawns. There is no induction of a hypoxic state in bodies of water where runoff occurs. Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff. Heterotrophic microbes then flourish on the organic molecules produced by these organisms, using oxygen in the process and leading to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. The nutrients in the runoff often include toxic chemicals that kill anaerobes such as cyanobacteria. Aerobes flourish, depleting the amount of oxygen present. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area.

Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff. Heterotrophic microbes then flourish on the organic molecules produced by these organisms, using oxygen in the process and leading to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area.

Why are we concerned at all with monitoring emerging/reemerging diseases? All of the above. Because the speed of travel has increased greatly. With increased speed of travel, it is far more likely that a serious pathogenic threat from one area of the world can spread rapidly across the globe in a very fast manner. We need to monitor the occurrence of these illnesses to try to protect populations. These represent growing threats to human health that will require new scientific research and resources to effectively combat. Because globalization (greater trade and travel between countries) leads to more chances for spread of illnesses into new areas and populations. Monitoring these illnesses will help us to protect people.

All of the above

Indicator organisms are A. Coliforms B. Enterococci C. Suggestive of fecal contamination D. Used in water quality tests E. All of the choices are correct