Micro #2

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Trp Operon

A group of genes that are used together that codes for the components for production of tryptophan.

Which phylum of protozoa contains organisms that are non-motile, obligate intracellular parasites? - Euglenozoa - Amoebozoa - Apicomplexa - ciliates

Apicomplexa

A deep ground water source:

Aquifer

Members of this group have hard exoskeletons and jointed appendages. Members of this group serve as vectors, transmitting several different viruses, bacteria, and protozoan parasites between hosts.

Arthropods

Which disease was once thought to be due to stress but is now known to be caused by a bacterium: a. smallpox b. peptic ulcers c. AIDS d. plague e. influenza

B

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the A) Specific epithet. B) Genus. C) Family. D) Order. E) Kingdom.

B) Genus.

What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? A) All members are photosynthetic. B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter. C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter. D) All members are microscopic. E) All members are macroscopic.

B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter

In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related? A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium

Who is credited with first observing cells? A) Louis Pasteur B) Robert Hooke C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek D) Robert Koch E) Carolus Linnaeus

B) Robert Hooke Cork, common bread mold

_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. T cells, B cells B. B cells, neutrophils C. B cells, T cells D. Basophils, T cells E. Monocytes, Basophils

C Got this right

To study the phylogeny of eukaryotes, A. 80S rRNA is used. B. 18S rRNA is used. C. 40S rRNA is used. D. 16S rRNA is used. E. 70S rRNA is used.

B. 18S rRNA is used.

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the A. urinary system. B. respiratory system. C.gastrointestinal system. D.skin. E. genital system.

B. B. respiratory system. Got this right

THIS TEST WAS INSANE. CRAZY AND I'M POSITIVE FULL OF THINGS NOT IN THE 7 CHAPTERS WE WERE SUPPOSED TO COVER.

BEWARE, I GOT SOME WRONG! But I'm working to get the right answers.

The prokaryotic cell scheme is found in Bacteria. Archaea. Eucarya. All of the choices are correct. Bacteria AND Archaea.

Bacteria AND Archaea.

Catabolite Repression

Bacteria inhibit synthesis of enzymes involved in the catabolism of carbon sources other than a preferred source.

Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be all of the following EXCEPT Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages. bacteriophages. Clostridia. Enterococci. Bacteroides.

Bacteroides.

All of the following genera are spirochetes:

Borrelia, Leptospira, Spirochaeta, Treponema CAULOBACTER IS NOT A SPIROCHETE

To increase the proportion of mutants in a population of bacteria one may use: A. a direct selection. B. replica plating. C. penicillin enrichment. D. individual transfer.

C - in INDIRECT SELECTION the mutants and the prototrophs can grow on the same medium so PENICILLIN ENRICHMENT is used to increase the proportion of mutants in the population. On a glucose-salt agar add penicillin which will kill any growing cells, the mutants exist on this medium but don't grow so they are safe. You end up with a higher amount of mutants comparitively and then can move on to replica plating.

Which of the following locations pertaining to the GI tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms? A. Liver B.PancreasC.Large intestineD.Small intestineE.Salivary glands

C

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the: A. Antibiogram B. Kirby-Bauer C. Therapeutic index (TI) D. E-test E. MIC

C Got this right

Which bacteria ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle milk? A. Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae D. Propionibacterium E. Spirulina

Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus

- was isolated from prontosil by Pasteur institute investigators -was the first of the modern chemotherapeutic agents - is an example of a true chemotherapeutic agent - is not produced by a living organism - interferes with folic acid metabolism in susceptible bacteria

Sulfonamide

Primase

Synthesizes a RNA primer so DNA polymerase III can add on to a 3' OH. Makes a series of RNA primers.

Diatoms are algae whose silicon dioxide-containing shells are useful economically as: 1. Fertilizers 2. Filters 3. Stabilizers 4. Agar 5. Thickeners

Filters

True or False: F plasmids and oftentimes R plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus

T

T/F - Bacteria and Archaea both have members that use sulfur compounds as a terminal electron acceptor.

TRUE

T/F - Endospores of Bacillus stearothermophilus are used in testing autoclave operation.

TRUE

T/F - The most medically relevant species of Pseudomonas is P. aeruginosa.

TRUE

Prokaryotic Transcription

Takes place in the cytoplasm. Less complex.

Eukaryotic Transcription

Takes place in the nucleus. Has more transcription factors. Processing occurs after termination: addition of a 5' guanine cap, 3' polyadenylation, and splicing of introns/exons.

Which is/are the correct form(s)? Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus aureus staphylococcus aureus S. aureus Staphylococcus aureus AND S. aureus

Staphylococcus aureus AND S. aureus

A pure or mixed sample of known microbes that are added to food is a/an A. Starter culture B. Aerator C. Flavor inducer D. Fermenter E. Leavening

Starter Culture

Which of the following foods has the greatest amount of available water? Syrup Steak Cake Bread Jam

Steak

Translation Termination

Stop codon aligned to A site. Proteins called release factors stop elongation and activate riboenzymes in the large subunit to sever polypeptide from the tRNA in the P site.

Which of the following is NOT associated with a Clostridium species? - Botulism - Antibiotic-associated diarrheal disease - Gas gangrene - Strep throat - Tetanus

Strep throat

A catalase-negative colony growing on a plate that was incubated aerobically could be which of the following genera?

Streptococcus

This strep throat bacteria yields Beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar.

Streptococcus pyogenes

Documented transmission of HIV involves: A. Mosquitoes B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products C. Respiratory droplets D. Contaminated food E. All of the choices are correct

Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products

In prokaryotes, the mRNA transcript encounters ribosomal subunits immediately as it leaves the DNA

True - creation of polyribosome (polysome)

T/F - Rhizobium is considered an endosymbiont with plants.

True - specifically with root nodules of legumes where they fix nitrogen

Replication, transcription and translation take place in the bacterial cytoplasm

True -in eukaryotes, 1 &2 in nucleolus, 3 in cytoplasm

If one strand of DNA contains the bases ACAGT, what would be the complementary bases on the mRNA strand?

UGUCA

The formation of a covalent bond between two adjacent thymines is caused by mustard gas. alkylating agents. microwave radiation. UV radiation.

UV radiation

RNA Polymerase

Unzips DNA. No primer necessary. Uses ribonucleotides. Less efficient proofreading. Transcribes one DNA strand, (-) stand. Is complementary to (+) DNA strand..

Triphosphate Deoxyribonucleotides

Used to build new DNA. dATP, dGTP, dCTP, and dTTP.

Eukaryotic Chromosome

Usually multiple, linear, and diploid. Found in the nucleus. Circular in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

Prokaryotic Chromosome

Usually single, circular. Always haploid. Found in the nucleoid.

Soft shell clams that live buried in the mud on tidal mudflats: Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio parahaemolyticus E. coli 0157:H7 Listeria monocytogenes Campylobacter

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

In the phototrophic production of energy, the oxygen originates from A. carbon dioxide. B. water. C. glucose.

Water

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is: A. Water and electrolyte replacement B. Antimicrobials C. Antitoxin D. Surgery E. None of the choices is correct

Water and electrolyte replacement

Biofilms are likely to be found in environments that are nutrient rich. with rapidly flowing water. with low nutrients. that are relatively warm. with abundant nutrients.

with low nutrients.

Fungi capable of dimorphism grow either as: - yeast-like or mycelium. - rhizoids or hyphae. - spores or mushrooms. - germ tubes or buds. - yeast-like or mushrooms.

yeast-like or mycellium

The organisms isolated from hydrothermal vents are typically phototrophs, rhizobia, AND bacteroid. bacteroid. phototrophs. chemolithoautotrophs. rhizobia.

chemolithoautotrophs.

All fungi have ________ in their cell walls. chitin cellulose peptidoglycan pectin ergesterol

chitin

The site in a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell where photosynthesis occurs is the: - carotenoid. - Golgi. - chloroplast. - nucleus. - mitochondria.

chloroplast.

__________ are groups of three bases in mRNA that specify one amino acid in the amino acid chain

codons - also called a triplet

The accepted method of testing water supplies for the possible presence of pathogens is to determine the presence of Streptococci. Staphylococci. Streptomyces. coliforms. vibrios.

coliforms.

Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve:

comparison of DNA or RNA

Gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is transformation. competency. conjugation. functional genomics.

conjugation

When bacterium is grown on glucose only,

it must synthesize all the amino acids it needs

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except: A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger C. it has a reservoir of cattle intestines D. it causes a bloody diarrhea E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure

it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals

In an inducible operon, when a substrate or inducer is present,

it reacts with the pressor and inactivates it

What role does the sigma factor of RNA polymerase have in transcription?

it recognizes and binds to the promoter region of the template RNA

mycoplasma

lack peptidoglycan, are the smallest free-living organisms AND have sterols in their membranes - mycoplasma has NO CELL WALL

The idea of Spontaneous Generation postulated that

living organisms could spontaneously arise from non-living material.

Prosthecae are an adaptation for

low nutrient aquatic environments - for attachment and nutrient absorption

A site used for disposal of non-hazardous solid wastes in a manner that minimizes damage to human health and the environment is a(n) activated sludger. sanitary landfill. septic tank. composter. water treatment facility.

sanitary landfill

The system by which organisms are named is referred to as systematics. naming. nomenclature. cladistics.

nomenclature

RNA is a chain of ______

nucleotides

Lactic acid bacteria such as Lactococcus

obligate fermentors

The Golden Age of Medical Microbiology

occurred during the late 1800s to early 1900s, is a time when the knowledge of and techniques to work with bacteria blossomed AND was when people realized that diseases could be caused by invisible agents.

Where is the majority of earth's water found? A. Soil moisture B. Freshwater lakes C. Icecaps and glaciers D. Oceans E. Ground water

oceans The ocean holds about 97 percent of the Earth's water. Next comes glaciers, rivers, lakes...

Algae: - are always saprophytic or parasitic. - are only found in the soil. - have a vascular system similar to that of plants. - often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty. - are strictly macroscopic organisms.

often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty.

Pediculus humanus

only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease

Pediculus humanus... 1. only uses humans as a host AND is carried by mosquitoes. 2. is an obligate intracellular parasite AND only uses humans as a host. 3. can transmit a bacterial disease AND only infects feet. 4. only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease. 5. only infects feet AND can transmit a bacterial disease.

only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease.

Viruses, viroids and prions all operate intracellularly. may be considered acellular agents of disease. contain DNA. infect only animals. operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

A _______ is a cluster of genes that perform related functions, found in ____________

operon, prokaryotes

Coordinated sets of genes that are regulated as a single unit are referred to as

operons - regulated by an operon

the specific point on the dna molecule where replication begins is the

origin of replication

Treating foods with large amounts of salt draws the water out of foods by A. reverse osmosis B. efflux C. active transport D. osmosis E. lyophilization

osmosis The water follows the salt.

Clostridium, Lactobacillus, and Propionibacterium all: - oxidize inorganic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - neutralize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize inorganic compounds AND use sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize organic compounds AND use sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

oxidize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

Comparatively greater energy is released when: - carbon dioxide is the final electron acceptor. - oxygen is the final electron acceptor. - fermentation occurs. - nitrate is the final electron acceptor. - hydrogen is the final electron acceptor.

oxygen is the final electron acceptor.

To increase the proportion of mutants in a population of bacteria one may use direct selection. replica plating. penicillin enrichment. individual transfer.

penicillin enrichment

The bond connecting amino acids is a ______ bond

peptide

A __________ is the physical expression of the genes present and can change depending upon what genes are turned "on"

phenotype

The characteristics displayed by an organism in any given environment is its genotype. archaetype. mutatotype. phenotype.

phenotype

The properties of a cell which are determined by its DNA composition are its phenotype. genotype. metabolism. nucleoid.

phenotype

3 basic parts of a DNA nucleotide are

phosphate deoxyribose sugar nitrogenous base

What 3 components make up RNA subunits?

phosphate nitrogenous base ribose sugar

Thymine dimers are dealt with by no repair mechanisms. photoreactivation repair. SOS repair. excision repair. photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.

photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.

Free-floating, photosynthetic organisms found in marine environments are blue-green algae. phytoplankton. omega-3s Bucella. krill.

phytoplankton

The floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.

plankton

Mycorrhizae are a symbiotic association of plant roots and fungi. bacteria and virus. plants roots and bacteria. fungi and virus. bacteria and algae.

plant roots and fungi

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following diseases except A. strep throat B. scarlet fever C. pneumococcal pneumonia D. glomerulitis E. All of the choices are correct

pneumococcal pneumonia - is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, a Gram-positive diplococcus known as pneumococcus.

What usually terminates the process of translation?

presence of a stop codon on mRNA - UAA, UAG, UGA

The problem(s) with using sludge as a fertilizer is/are the inhibitory effect it has on plant growth AND stimulatory effect it has on methane production. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND inhibitory effect it has on plant growth. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses. presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses AND inhibitory effect it has on plant growth. stimulatory effect it has on methane production AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses. ***NOT TRUEEE****

Bdellovibrio species: - are parasites of plants. - are filamentous. - may fix nitrogen. - prey on other bacteria. - are photosynthetic.

prey on other bacteria.

In sewage treatment, the removal of large objects and particulate matter is achieved during primary treatment. quaternary treatment. the night. secondary treatment. tertiary treatment.

primary treatment.

Live, beneficial microbes provided to populate the intestines are known as: A. Prebiotics B. Phytobiotics C. Lantibiotics D. Probiotics E. Riboswitches

probiotics Got this right

The term "potable water" refers to water that is in carrying containers. contaminated with chemicals. safe to drink. only good for irrigation of crops. safe to swim in but not to drink.

safe to drink.

The term "potable water" refers to water that is safe to swim in but not to drink. safe to drink. only good for irrigation of crops. in carrying containers. contaminated with chemicals.

safe to drink.

For growth, most bacteria require water activity levels above 0.90. 0.70. 0.80. 100. 1.00.

0.90.

T/F Size and shape may allow one to differentiate between a bacterium, fungus, or protozoan.

True

T/F: For prokaryotes, species is a group of closely related isolates or strains.

True

The organisms found near warm vents on the bottom of the ocean are typically chemoautotrophic. True False

True

The sequence of DNA bases ultimately determines the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

True

The term "potable water" refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink. True False

True

Lac Operon

A gene system whose operator gene and three structural genes control lactose metabolism. Only transcribed when glucose levels are low.

In treating an oil spill, why might biostimulation be preferred over bioaugmentation? Biostimulation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are generally genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Bioaugmentation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function. In fact, biostimulation is not generally favored as an approach. Biostimulation often leads to the generation of antibiotic—resistant microbes, which become a problem for other organisms in the environment. Bioaugmentation is the favored approach because adding nutrients to the area simply enhances the activities of the bacteria already present. ******Adding new microbes (bioaugmentation) poses some risk—when new microbes are added to an environment, the consequences of those additions on resident populations are unknown. Adding nutrients (biostimulation) is safer because once those nutrients are used up, the microbial populations are likely to return to their original levels. ******** Biostimulation and bioaugmentation are always used simultaneously. This is done because neither one of these approaches works well individually. Adding bacteria to an environment will never be successful unless nutrients are also added to that environment. Bioaugmentation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are highly genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Biostimulation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function.

******Adding new microbes (bioaugmentation) poses some risk—when new microbes are added to an environment, the consequences of those additions on resident populations are unknown. Adding nutrients (biostimulation) is safer because once those nutrients are used up, the microbial populations are likely to return to their original levels. ******** THIS IS TRUE!!!!!!!!

Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? - Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal. - They are heterotrophic. - They have eukaryotic cells. - They are multicellular animals. - All are parasites.

- All are parasites. Some are parasites. Helminths are worms, a type of animal.

Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits: - are yeasts. - are facultative anaerobes. - grow well at acid pH. - secrete enzymes that degrade organic molecules. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? - Some protozoa are parasitic. - All protozoa lack mitochondria. - Protozoa are unicellular organisms. - Some protozoa are photosynthetic. - Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan.

- All protozoa lack mitochondria.

Yeast infections are caused by: - Saccharomyces cerevisiae. - Candida albicans. - Histoplasma. - Penicillium. - Aspergillus.

- Candida albicans.

Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? - Phytophthora - plasmodial slime mold - cellular slime mold - Euglena - oomycote

- Euglena

Which of the statements regarding Naegleria fowleri is FALSE? - Once in a human host, it assumes an amoeboid form. - It is swims though water as a flagellated form. - It causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis (brain eating disease). - It is a small, Gram-negative, flagellated diplococcus. - It forms a cyst under adverse environmental conditions.

- It is a small, Gram-negative, flagellated diplococcus. - an amoeboid Protozoa Naegleria fowleri infects people when water containing the AMOEBA enters the body through the nose. This typically occurs when people go swimming or diving in warm freshwater places, like lakes and rivers. The Naegleria fowleri ameba then travels up the nose to the brain where it destroys the brain tissue. - can't live in salt or treated water.

You have isolated a bacterium from a contaminated river but you are unable to culture it in the laboratory. Which method could you use to identify the organism? - Gram staining - Biochemical testing - MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry - Nucleic acid amplification tests - Antibiograms

- Nucleic acid amplification tests

Why is translation needed? Translation is needed because:

- The subunits of nucleic acids are nucleotides, while those of proteins are amino acids - the subunits of DNA and RNA are nucleotides while those of protein are amino acids

Which of the following are characteristics of fungi? -They have a nuclear membrane AND their cell wall contains cellulose. - Their cell wall contains chitin AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter. - Their cytoplasmic membrane contains ergesterol AND they are always multicellular. - They have a peptidoglycan cell wall AND they may be photosynthetic. - Their cell wall contains cellulose AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.

- Their cell wall contains chitin AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.

Using genotypic characteristics to identify prokaryotes - detecting specific nucleotide sequences (Nucleic acid probes and nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) - sequencing Ribosomal RNA genes

- Think DNA probes from Ch9 - PCR is a NAAT

The lactobacilli, in their role as normal microbiota of the vagina, help the vagina resist infection by contributing to: - a high vaginal pH. - the neutrality of the vaginal mucus. - food for the resident vaginal microbiota. - fertility of the host. - acidity of the vagina.

- acidity of the vagina

Streptococcus pyogenes would be - beta hemolytic and catalase negative. - beta hemolytic and catalase positive. - alpha hemolytic and catalase negative. - alpha hemolytic and catalase positive.

- beta hemolytic and catalase negative.

The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a: - metacercaria. - redia. - proglottid. - cercaria. - cysticercus.

- cysticercus.

Sequencing of rRNA is useful for:

- determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

microscopic morphology

- fresh or stained microorganisms from specimen; shape, size, stain reaction, cell structures; quick

In conjugation, transformation, or transduction, the recipient bacteria is most likely to accept donor DNA: - from any species of bacteria. - from the same species of bacteria. - from any source AND only through plasmids. - only through plasmids. - from any source.

- from the same species of bacteria.

Ringworm is caused by a(n)? - trematode. - nematode. - fungus. - cestode. - protozoan.

- fungus

Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by: - aerosols. - vectors. - respiratory route. - genitourinary route. - gastrointestinal route.

- gastrointestinal route.

All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they? - are multicellular animals. - are hermaphroditic. - are dorsoventrally flattened. - can be divided into flukes and tapeworms. - have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

- have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

Helicobacter pylori: - causes crown gall in plants. - inhabits the stomach. - has axonemes. - produces luminescence. - inhabits squid ink sacs.

- inhabits the stomach

Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they: - are motile. - lack nuclei. - lack mitochondria. - do produce cysts. - do not produce cysts.

- lack mitochondria. Giardiasis is an intestinal infection in humans and animals, caused by a microscopic protozoan parasite Giardia duodenalis (also known as G. intestinalis or G. lamblia). "Giardia is not a "worm", bacteria or virus." Trichomoniasis (or "trich") is a very common sexually transmitted disease (STD). It is caused by infection with a protozoan parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. Although symptoms of the disease vary, most people who have the parasite cannot tell they are infected.

Algae are important environmentally as: - local contaminants. - major producers of oxygen. - supporting fungal growth. - local flora. - major producers of carbon dioxide.

- major producers of oxygen.

Fungi are classified according to their - mode of locomotion. - this is protozoans - cap color. - morphology. - method of sexual reproduction. - mode of nutrition.

- method of sexual reproduction. - found it. slide 18 - The sexual forms (of reproduction) play an important role in FUNGAL CLASSIFICATION and some are commercially valuable.

The human body only contains bacteria during illness. True or Flase False Viruses, viroids and prions all: - operate intracellularly. - may be considered acellular agents of disease. - contain DNA. - infect only animals. - operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

- operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits: - grow well at neutral pH. - are mushrooms. - are obligate aerobes. - secrete degradative enzymes. - All of the choices are correct.

- secrete degradative enzymes.

Which of the following occurs in both prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes

- transcription - translation - DNA replication

gene regulation may entail

- turning on genes only when needed - turning off genes when not needed - turning on or off entire groups of genes

In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Cytosine D) Guanine E) Uracil

Answer: B

The genus of bacteria that is able to fix nitrogen and form heterocysts is

-Anabeana

Algae

-May be green, red, or brown. -Lack roots, stems, leaves, and vascular tissues that are found in terrestrial plants. -Some marine produce neurotoxins that can be concentrated in shellfish and pose a risk of paralytic shellfish poisoning to humans who consume the shellfish. -Both asexual and sexual reproduction occurs among the diversity of species. -Most have a plantlike cell wall composed of cellulose.

Protozoa

-Most protozoa are motile via pseudopods, flagella, cilia, or undulating membranes. -Cysts enable parasites to survive during passage from one host to the next. -While living in the gut of their host, intestinal parasites are usually in the trophozoite form. -As a group exhibit both asexual and sexual reproduction.

Helminths

-The major organ system apparent in tapeworm proglottids is the reproductive system. -Some helminth infections involve more than one intermediate host. -Either eggs or larval stages may be infectious, depending on the species. -Parasitic lack a complete digestive system and they absorb nutrients directly through their cuticles. -Humans can serve as either definitive or intermediate hosts of flatworms.

The causative agent of Lyme disease is: A. Ixodes scapularis B.Bordetella pertussisC.Brucella melitensisD.Borrelia burgdorferiE.Aedes aegypti

D

Some fungi reproduce sexually by forming----- which are sexual spores contained within a sac structure.

-ascospores

One of the greatest causes of human deaths through time has been due to: 1.Plasmodium spp. 2.Giardia spp. 3.Escherichia spp. 4.Trypanosoma spp. 5.Histoplasma spp.

1.Plasmodium spp. - causes malaria

The properties of a cell that are determined by its DNA composition are its: - nucleoid. - phenotype. - metabolism. - plasmids. - genotype.

-phenotype

Rhizopus stolonifer, the common black bread mold, forms asexual spores called----- which are contained in a sac at the end of aerial hyphae.

-sporangiospores

Indicator organism Intrinsic factor Microbial mat Nitrifiers Presence/absence test

. Microbe commonly found in the intestinal tract whose presence in other environments suggests fecal contamination. B. A type of microbial community characterized by distinct layers of different groups of microorganisms that together make up a thick, dense, highly organized structure. C. In food microbiology, the natural characteristics of a food that influence the rate of microbial growth. D. A water sample added to lactose-containing broth with a vial to trap gas which would confirm the presence of coliform bacteria. E. Group of Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic nitrogen compounds such as ammonia or nitrate.

..

..

The toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is heat-stable. True False

True

When using metabolic capabilities to phenotypically identify the unknown microorganism, the results of tests follow a type of decision tree to reach an answer. What is this decision tree called?

A dichotamous key

Which are the three ways in which fungi cause illness in humans? 1. Hypersensitivity - person has allergic reaction to fungal components. 2. Intoxication - fungus produces a toxin that is ingested. 3. Immune suppression - fungus destroys all red blood cells. 4. Infection - fungus grows on body as a mycosis. -- 1. 1, 2, and 4 2. 4 only 3. 2, 3, and 4 4. 1, 3, and 4 5. 1, 2, and 3

1. 1, 2, and 4

Organize the steps that are involved in the mechanism of RNA interference (RNAi)

1. cell produces short single-stranded RNA 2. and RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) assembles 3. Binding of the RNA in the RISC to mRNA tags the mRNA for destruction 4. Enzymes cut mRNA; RISC can then bind to another mRNA molecule

One of the organisms that may cause red tide is: 1. dinoflagellates. 2. euglenids. 3. diatoms. 4. green algae. 5. brown algae.

1. dinoflagellates.

Organisms that grow very slowly, are non-culturable, are present in very small numbers, or are mixed with a number of bacteria may still be identified using: A. PCR. B. Southern blotting. C. colony blotting. D. replica plating. E. gas chromatography of fatty acids.

A

Transposons may leave a cell by incorporating themselves into a plasmid. True False

True

Most large cities have required the pasteurization of milk and milk products since ________. 1985 1920 1900 1850 1800

1900

The return of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and nitrogen to the soil is due to the action of: 1. fungi and viruses. 2. fungi and bacteria. 3. viruses and plants. 4. plants and bacteria. 5. bacteria and viruses.

2. fungi and bacteria.

Lice and mites... 1. cause Lyme disease. 2. may both be spread by personal contact. 3. are both arachnids. 4. are intestinal parasites. 5. both cause respiratory illness.

2. may both be spread by personal contact.

Once Y. pestis is in the human host, it is ingested by macrophages. Conditions within the macrophage activate certain genes in the bacterium, one of which is a gene for a capsule production. The capsule: 1.allows the bacteria to survive excess heat. 2.allows the bacteria to avoid phagocytosis. 3.provides a source of nutrients for the bacteria. 4. allows the bacteria to float in water. 5.allows the bacteria to exchange DNA with other bacteria.

2.allows the bacteria to avoid phagocytosis.

Select the TRUE statement regarding algae. 1. Algae are plants and therefore possess a highly organized vascular system. 2. Algae are generally saprophytic, living off dead and decaying matter. 3. Some algae can directly cause infectious diseases in humans and other animals. 4. Although most algae have a cellulose/pectin cell wall, some algae lack a cell wall. 5.Algae always reproduce sexually, producing both haploid and diploid generations.

4. Although most algae have a cellulose/pectin cell wall, some algae lack a cell wall.

Protozoans are an important part of the food chain, ingesting large numbers of: 1. other protozoans. 2. bacteria and fungi. 3. bacteria and algae. 4. fish and crabs. 5. shellfish and algae.

3. bacteria and algae.

Sarcodina move by means of: 1. microvilli. 2. apicomplexans. 3. pseudopodia. 4. flagella. 5. cilia.

3. pseudopodia.

The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is 300-400 milligrams per liter. 300-400 grams per liter. 500-800 grams per milliliter. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter.

300-400 milligrams per liter.

The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is 500-800 grams per milliliter. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter. 300-400 grams per liter. 300-400 milligrams per liter.

300-400 milligrams per liter.

Most human pathogens grow best at temperatures near 45ºC. 25ºC. 37ºC. 20ºC. 97ºF.

37ºC.

Most bacteria are inhibited by a pH of 7.0. 4.5. 6.0. 7.2. 6.5.

4.5

The pH at which most fungi thrive is ________.

5 - some fungal species can grow in concentrations of salts, sugars or acids that inhibit the growth of most bacteria. Fungi can grow on pH 2.2-9.6 and usually grow well at pH 5.0 or lower.

Eukaryotic Translation

5' guanine cap on mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit in initiation. In the cytoplasm. First amino acid is Met.

Which disease is INCORRECTLY matched with its arthropod vector? 1. Dengue fever—mosquitoes 2. Malaria—Anopheles mosquito 3. Lyme disease—ticks 4. Plague—fleas 5. African sleeping sickness—sand fly

5. African sleeping sickness—sand fly

The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC. 55-66ºC. 97ºF. 90-100ºC. 62-75ºC.

55-66ºC.

An mRNA has the codon 5′ UAC 3′. What tRNA anticodon will bind to it?

5′ GUA 3′ - remember that the nucleotides match up antiparallel so this is 3' AUG 5' so UAC matches AUG and the answer flipped it around.

Typically, arthropods serve as vectors of disease, while helminths directly cause disease, true or false?

True

A common causative agent of acute endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B.Listeria monocytogenesC.Candida albicansD.Neisseria gonorrheaE.All of the choices are correct.

A

A three base sequence on mRNA is called a(n) a. codon. b. exon. c. anticodon. d. intron.

A

All fungi have __________ in their cell walls: A. chitin. B. pectin. C. peptidoglycan. D. phospholipids. E. cellulose.

A

All of the following pertain to transcription except a. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. b. occurs before translation. c. requires RNA polymerase. d. requires a template DNA strand. e. proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction of the growing mRNA molecule.

A

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by a. polymerase chain reaction. b. DNA sequencing. c. gene probes. d. southern blot. e. western blot.

A

Anaerobic cellular respiration: A. is also called fermentation B. only involves glycolysis C. does not generate ATP D. utilizes an electron transport system E. uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration

A

DNA Polymerase I a. removes primers. b. adds bases to new DNA chain. c. supercoils DNA. d. unzips DNA. e. synthesizes RNA primer.

A

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. electron transport B. TCA cycle C. glycolysis D. processing of pyruvic acid for the TCA cycle E. all phases produce the same number of ATP molecules

A

Important components of coenzymes are: A. vitamins B. metallic ions C. active sites D. substrates E. ribozymes

A

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the: A. cell membrane B. mitochondria C. chloroplasts D. ribosomes E. cytoplasm

A

Most electron carriers are: A. coenzymes B. enzymes C. hydrogens D. inorganic phosphate E. all of the choices are correct

A

Negative control means that a regulator molecule is A. bound and transcription is inhibited AND removed and transcription begins. B. bound and transcription is inhibited. C. bound and transcription begins. D. removed and transcription begins. E. removed and transcription begins.

A

Nucleoids are associated with: 1. genetic information 2. prokaryotes 3. eukaryotes 4. viruses 5. prions A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 & 5 E) 1 & 5

A

Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by a. DNA ligases. b. DNA polymerases. c. DNA helicases. d. DNA gyrates e. primases.

A

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A.Clostridium botulinumB.Clostridium perfringensC.Clostridium difficileD.Clostridium tetaniE.All of the choices are correct.

A

Propionibacterium A. produces propionic acid. B. produces lactic acid. C. is responsible for the blue color of Stilton cheese. D. requires aerobic environments. E. produces propionic acid and is responsible for peptic ulcers.

A

The Archaea: 1. are microscopic 2. are commonly found in extreme environments 3. contain peptidoglycan 4. contain mitochondria 5. are most commonly found in the soil A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 & 5 E) 1 & 5

A

The causative organism for mumps is: A. Paramyxovirus B.CorynebacteriumC.Streptococcus pyogenesD.VibrioE.Morbillivirus

A

The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the a. promoter. b. operator. c. operon. d. exon. e. intron.

A

The placement of the amino acid during translation is determined by the: A. complementarity of the codon-anticodon. B. DNAse which transcribes both molecules. C. sequence of nucleotides at the 5' end of the tRNA. D. 16S rRNA sequence. E. secondary structure of the newly forming protein.

A

The primers in PCR are a. synthetic short strands of DNA (oligonucleotides). b. bacterial enzymes. c. short RNA strands. d. DNA polymerases. e. reverse transcriptases.

A

The size of the amplified DNA fragment generated during PCR is determined by A. the locations to which the primers anneal. B. how many cycles are performed. C. the size of the template DNA. D. how much Taq polymerase is used.

A

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called a. genetic engineering. b. biotechnology. c. recombinant DNA. d. gel electrophoresis. e. gene probes.

A

Thymine dimers are dealt with by A. Photoreactivation repair AND excision repair B. Excision repair C. SOS repair D. No repair mechanisms E. Photoreactivation repair

A

Viruses: 1. contain both protein and nucleic acid 2. infect all domains of life 3. can grow in absence of living cells 4. are generally the same size as prokaryotes 5. always kill the cells they infect A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 & 5 E) 1 & 5

A

What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for? a. silent b. back c. point d. nonsense e. missense

A

Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands? a. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C b. cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C c. add primers d. heat target DNA to 94°C e. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

A

Which is incorrect about purines? a. only found in DNA, not in RNA b. are nitrogenous bases c. always paired with a specific pyrimidine d. include adenine and guanine e. found within nucleotides

A

A student complains that it makes no sense to worry about coliform bacteria in water, since we naturally possess harmless coliforms in our intestines anyway. Why do regulatory agencies worry about coliform bacteria in water supplies, then? A. Not all coliforms are harmless and symbiotic with human beings and some may carry genes/proteins that can make them dangerous to humans; it is best to keep coliforms OUT of our drinking water, since it is difficult to identify which ones might be harmless and which ones might be harmful. B. Regulatory agencies simply need something to do to justify their existence; there is no real danger from coliforms in water supplies. C. The coliforms in our intestines can sometimes turn harmful, causing intestinal infections; we need to constantly be on guard against this happening; coliforms in water might add to this potential problem. D. Regulatory agencies are worried that multiple types of coliforms in water might lead to greater antibiotic resistance in the bacterial populations; they try to keep them out of water to keep antibiotic resistance levels down.

A - B and D are just silly, and 'constantly on guard' in C = nope. coliforms refers to enterics - are an indicator that the water could be contaminated with fecal matter.

Single-celled eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll are called A. protozoa. B. saprophytes. C. algae. D. Chlorophyta. E. Salmonella.

A - Eurkaryotes we talked about - fungi, algae, protozoa, slime mold, water mold - Single celled and no chlorophyll adds up to protozoa.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to perform DNA sequencing reactions. In this case, are 2 primers (a forward and a reverse) necessary? A. No; dideoxynucleotide sequencing depends on different length fragments being formed and then separated based on size and this can take place with only a specific forward primer OR a specific reverse primer. B. No; you actually need a primer pair for each round of DNA amplification and so you will need many, many primer pairs. C. Yes; it will be important to make sure that the primer pairs are made with dideoxynucleotides that are labeled with fluorescent dyes otherwise you will not be able to detect the fragments that are made in the PCR process. D. Yes; PCR cannot be performed without 2 specific primers to amplify the region in question in the DNA

A - I got this one wrong once before. Still not sure I understand this one but it is A.

In E. coli 0157:H7 the 0157:H7 refers to the A. specific LPS and flagella type present. B. specific biotype. C. specific type of DNA present. D. general family. E. specific genus.

A - O antigen is on LPS in out membrane of G- bacteria - H refers to the flagella type - K refers to the capsule

The agarose used in electrophoresis: A. acts as a sieve. B. interacts electrically with the DNA. C. chemically binds to the DNA. D. selectively sorts recombinant DNA from host DNA.

A - does not change the DNA at all, just lets the fragments move through it.

The lactobacilli, in their role as normal flora of the vagina, help it resist infection by contributing to: A. the acidity of the vagina. B. fertility of the host. C. food for the resident vaginal flora. D. urease production. E. the neutrality of the vaginal muscles.

A - lactic acid bateria. Breaks down glycogen deposited in vaginal walls due to estrogen and lowers the pH to prevent bacterial overgrowth.

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during: A. release. B. assembly. C. penetration. D. adsorption. E. replication.

A - lipid bilayer with virus and host proteins

To maximize the number of thymine dimer mutations following UV exposure, should you keep a plate of fungal cells in the dark, in the light, or does it matter at all? A. It does not matter; fungal cells do not possess the enzymes needed for photorepair of thymine dimers because these enzymes are only found in prokaryotes. B. It is best to alternate light and dark every hour to increase the chances that thymine dimers will form in the fungal cells, but still keep the photorepair systems from correcting them as they are formed. C. Keep then in the dark; light will activate the photorepair systems that can break the thymine dimers induced by UV light. D. Keep them in the light; it is important to keep on producing thymine dimers by keeping the plate exposed to light as much as possible.

A - options for repair are light repair (photorepair - in PROKARYOTES only), dark repair {excision repair), SOS repair when the damage is terrible - means C would be true IF it was PROKARYOTES

Post-translational modification may include: A. the folding of the protein, often with the aid of chaperones AND the removal of the signal sequence B. removal of the signal sequence. C. the folding of the protein often with the aid of chaperones. D. the formation of exons and introns. E. the addition of glycine tags.

A - proteins don't stay in long strings, they have to fold up. Signal sequence is on proteins destined to outside the cell and the sequence is taken off as it moves through the cytoplasmic membrane.

What structure is indicated by: 10A, 15T, 3G, 7C? A. Single-stranded DNA. B. Double-stranded DNA. C. Double-stranded RNA. D. Single-stranded RNA.

A - still haven't seen mention of this in the text.

The lagging strand: A. is necessary due to the properties of the enzymes and the antiparallel nature of DNA. B. is always the bottom strand. C. is found during RNA replication. D. is the third type of RNA. E. iIs the strand always associated with the primer.

A -Also, is still replicated along the 3 to 5 direction since DNA polymerase works in 5 to 3 direction. Results in Okazaki fragments - another polymerase will replace the RNA primer with DNA and DNA ligase will covalently bond the nucleotides together.

There are fewer antifungal, anti-protozoan and anti-helminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths A. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult. B. are parasites found inside human cells. C. are not affected by antimicrobials. D. do not cause many human infections. E. Because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria

A Got this right

Virulence factors include all the following except A. ribosomes. B. flagella. C. exotoxins. D. capsules. E. exoenzymes.

A Got this right

Which is mismatched? A. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites B. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues C. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site D. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms E. Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site

A - I think that is the definition for metastasis Got this right

Missense Mutation

A base-pair substitution that results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid.

Explain the difference between a biotype and a serotype.

A biotype is the biochemical profile of a particular microorganism, while the serotype is the difference in its surface structures/antigens that will lead to separate immune responses from an organism (characterized by presence of different antibodies in the individual's serum).

Nonsense Mutation

A mutation in which a coding codon is changed to a stop codon.

Silent Mutation

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, but does not change the amino acid created.

Mutation

A permanent change in the DNA or RNA sequence.

Rhizobium - fix nitrogen inside nodules on the roots of legumes.

A symbiotic bacterium that lives in the nodules on roots of specific legumes and that incorporates nitrogen gas from the air into a form of nitrogen the plant requires

Figure 10.3 This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of the DNA of different organisms. In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related? A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 3 and 5 D) 2 and 5 E) 4 and 5

A) 1 and 3

Table 10.1 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae 32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in all Eukarya? A) 2, 3, 5 B) 1, 4, 6 C) 3, 5 D) 2, 3 E) 1, 2, 5

A) 2, 3, 5

Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

A) Animalia

Table 10.2 Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source. A) Citrobacter B) Escherichia C) Lactobacillus D) Pseudomonas E) Staphylococcus

A) Citrobacter

Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner's vaccination process? A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. B) Disease is caused by viruses. C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again. D) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner. E) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.

A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. Milder coxpox protected milk maids from smallpox.

A clone is A) Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell. B) A genetically engineered cell. C) A taxon composed of species. D) A mound of cells on an agar medium. E) None of the above.

A) Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus. A) Neisseria B) Pseudomonas C) Staphylococcus D) Streptococcus E) Micrococcus

A) Neisseria

9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system? A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains. B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions. C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions. D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments. E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.

A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.

The arrangement of organisms into taxa A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms. B) Shows relationships to common ancestors. C) Was designed by Charles Darwin. D) Is arbitrary. E) Is based on evolution.

A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

22) Which of the following best defines a strain? A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution C) a population of cells with similar characteristics D) a group of cells derived from a single parent E) same as a species

A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species

The tart taste of yogurt, pickles, and sharp cheeses is due to the presence of A) lactic acid. B) acetic acid. C) sorbic acid. D) benzoic acid. E) hydrochloric acid.

A) lactic acid.

Microorganisms play a role in: a. disease b. biodegradation c. cheese production d. nitrogen recycling e. all of the above

E

Protist is a diverse group of organisms that are similar in A) rRNA sequences. B) Metabolic type. C) Motility. D) Ecology. E) None of the above.

A) rRNA sequences.

Aflatoxin Anaerobic digestion Baker's yeast Bioremediation Biosphere

A. Selected strains of Saccharomyces cerevisiae that are used to make yeast bread. B. The sum of all the regions of the earth where life exists. C. Process that uses anaerobic microbes to degrade the sludge obtained during wastewater treatment. D. Potent toxin made by Aspergillus flavus. E. Process that uses microorganisms to degrade harmful chemicals.

Canning Curd Diazotroph Effluent Hypoxic

A. The liquid portion of treated wastewater. B. Deficient in O 2. C. Processing using steam under pressure (autoclaving) to destroy endospores. D. Organism that can fix nitrogen. E. Coagulated milk proteins, produced during cheese making

The three domain classification scheme uses A. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya. B. Protista, Prokaryotae, Fungi. C. Plants, Animals, Bacteria. D. order, phylum, class. E. Bacteria, Archaea, Animalia

A. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya.

A.Wherein a parasite sexually reproduces B. Taxonomic category of related organisms, usually containing several species; the first name of an organism in the Binomial System of Nomenclature C. Flowchart of tests used for identifying an organism; each test gives either a positive or negative result D. Characteristic structures of motility in spirochetes E. The group of Gram-negative oxygenic phototrophs genetically related to chloroplasts

A. Definitive Host B. Genus C. Dichotamous Key D. Endoflagella E. Cyanobacteria

You suspect that she may have Helicobacter pylori gastritis, and send her for a urea breath test. The breath test is positive; based on this, you get the patient's stool tested for blood, and you send her for an endoscopy, during which a biopsy is taken. Your diagnosis is confirmed by the results of these tests and that she does indeed have H. pylori. Your patient asks you how a bacterium can survive in her stomach, which she knows is very acidic. You explain that: A. H. pylori produces urease that converts urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia; the ammonia neutralizes the pH of the stomach, allowing the bacteria to survive. B. H. pylori is an acidophile, and as such prefers acidic pH levels of 1-3; gastric juices contain hydrochloric acid which has a very low pH. C. H. pylori is encased in the very thick polysaccharide capsule that protects it from the degradative effects of the HCl found in the stomach. D. H. pylori forms a biofilm with the other normal microbiota of the stomach. The structure of the biofilm covers and protects the bacteria within it. E H. pylori has the ability to form endospores in hostile environmental conditions. It does this in the acidic stomach, only germinating once they reach the small intestine.

A. H. pylori produces urease that converts urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia; the ammonia neutralizes the pH of the stomach, allowing the bacteria to survive.

Wisconsin state health authorities alerted the CDC about an E. coli O157:H7 outbreak. Soon thereafter, officials from two other states reported that they also had cases of illness associated with this pathogen. Within days, the CDC determined that the E. coli strains from all three states were the same, and the likely source of the outbreak was a particular brand of pre-packaged fresh spinach. The CDC then issued a press release advising people not to eat bagged fresh spinach. Please select the FALSE definition regarding microbial identification: A. RFLPs are patterns of fragment sizes obtained by digesting polypeptides with one or more proteases. B. A signature sequence is a nucleotide sequence in rRNA that characterizes a certain species or a group of related organisms. C. A biotype is a group of strains that have a characteristic biochemical pattern different from other strains. D. A species is a group of closely related strains; it is the basic unit of taxonomy. E. A serovar is a group of strains that have a characteristic antigenic structure that differs from other strains.

A. RFLPs are patterns of fragment sizes obtained by digesting polypeptides with one or more proteases.

Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease? A. Removal of blood B. Urogenital tract and feces C. Coughing and sneezing D. Skin E. All of the choices are normal exit portals

A. Removal of blood Got it Right!

Chemoheterotroph (energy source + carbon source)

A. Uses chemical reactions for energy and uses organic compounds

A.In molecular biology, a piece of DNA acting as a carrier of a cloned fragment of DNA; in epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe, most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks B. Organism utilizing nutrients from dead and decaying matter C. Isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens, it allows those organisms to cause tumors in plants; a derivative is used as a vector to introduce DNA into plants by genetic engineering D. Pattern of fragment sizes obtained by digesting DNA with one or more restriction enzymes E. Evolutionary relatedness of organisms

A. Vector B. Saprophyte C. Tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) E. Phylogeny

Purple sulfur bacteria and filamentous sulfur-oxidizers both: A. accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules. B. fix nitrogen. C. produce oxygen from carbon dioxide. D. use gliding motility

A. accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules.

A. A poisonous substance made by Aspergillus flavus B. Lacking O2 C. Microbiological group of strains having a characteristic biochemical pattern different from other strains; also called a biovar D. Biological production of light E. Organism that obtains energy by oxidizing organic compounds such as glucose

A. aflatoxin B. anoxic C. biotype D. bioluminescense E. chemoorganotroph

Streptococcus pyogenes would be

A. beta hemolytic and catalase negative.

The point at which two organisms diverged from a common ancestor: A. can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences. B. is determined on MacConkey's media. C. depends on transcriptional and translational control. D. depends on metabolic activity and antibiotic resistance. E. is impossible to determine.

A. can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences.

APITM, EnterotubeTM, and VitekTM are all: A. commercially available methods used to identify bacteria. B. methods for extracting protein from bacteria. C. used to show the presence of bacteria in a sample. D. methods for extracting DNA from bacteria. E. used to measure gas production.

A. commercially available methods used to identify bacteria. (kits or computerized analysis designed to make metabolic capability testing quick and easy.)

Agrobacterium : A. contain the Ti plasmid which modifies the growth of plant tissue. B. produce antibiotics. C. infect animal cells. D. resemble fungus.

A. contain the Ti plasmid which modifies the growth of plant tissue.

he most significant cells in graft rejection are: A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper T cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Natural killer (NK) cells E. Both cytotoxic T cells AND natural killer (NK) cells

A. cytotoxic T cells Got this WRONG. Think it might be E

Class switching: A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class B. is a direct result of affinity maturation C. is the T cell decision to interact with a different antigen D. is T cell differentiation into a helper, natural killer, cytotoxic, or effector cell E. All of the choices are correct

A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class Got this right

Swarmer cells are: A. formed by sheathed bacteria. B. also known as coliforms. C. part of the green non-sulfur bacteria. D. formed by Myxobacteria. E. used in sewage treatment.

A. formed by sheathed bacteria

Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rRNA/rDNA data and other techniques may be explained by: A. horizontal DNA transfer. B. vertical DNA transfer. C. differences in post-replication modification. D. the difference in translation machinery. E. vertical RNA transfer.

A. horizontal DNA transfer.

Penicillin is most effective against: A. log phase Gram (+) bacteria. B. stationary phase Gram (-) bacteria. C. spores. D. stationary phase Gram (+) bacteria. E. log phase Gram (-) bacteria.

A. log phase Gram (+) bacteria. Got this right

You tell the patient that his sample contains white blood cells in which Gram-negative diplococci can be detected. Your patient asks how you obtained this result and you tell him you: A. performed a Gram stain. B. cultured his discharge on Gram-negative medium. C. cultured his discharge on Gram-positive medium. D. performed an antibiogram. E. performed an acid-fast stain.

A. performed a Gram stain.

Two isolates with identical RFLPs are considered: A. possibly the same strain. B. identical. C. different strains. D. different genera. E. definitely the same strain.

A. possibly the same strain.

Coliforms: - are an informal grouping of enterics. - ferment lactose. - include E. coli. - are used as indicators of fecal contamination. - All of the choices are correct.

All the choices are correct - enteric = fecal coliform

A DNA similarity of 75% between two organisms: A. suggests the organisms are closely related at the species level. B. suggests the organisms may or may not be related. C. suggests the organisms are not closely related at all. D. means the GC content in both organisms is 45%. E. means the GC content in one organism is 75% and 25% in the other.

A. suggests the organisms are closely related at the species level.

Nucleic acid techniques have great power as diagnostic tools because they may be A. very specific. B. quick and easy to perform. C. used to enhance the growth of bacteria. D. used to selectively inhibit the growth of certain bacteria.

A. very specific.

A. Phototrophic organism producing O2 B. A common name for members of the family Enterobacteriaceae C. Roundworms D. The group of Gram-positive bacteria generating lactic acid as the major end product of their fermentive metabolism E. A method of distinguishing strains that relies on determining the nucleotide sequence of select DNA regions

A.Oxygenic phototroph B. Enterics C. Nematodes D. Lactic Acid Bacteria E. Multilocus Sequence Typing

tRNA

About 75 nucleotides long. Delivers the correct amino acid to the ribosome bases on the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA.

If you examined the acidic runoff from a coal mine, which of the following would you most likely find grow there?

Acidithiobacillus

Horizontal Gene Transfer

Acquisition of genes from cells of the same generation.

DNA Methylation

Adds a CH3. Usually on adenines in bacteria. Defines the origin, involved in DNA repair and regulation, and helps identify bacterial DNA from foreign DNA.

DNA Polymerase III

Adds new nucleotides to 3' end of the growing strand. Has a proofreading function. Needs helicase to function. Replicates both strands.

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. Adjuvant B. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine C. Booster D. Antibodies to toxin E. Gamma globulin

Adjuvant Got this right

Sulfolobus species are found at the surface of acidic sulfur-containing hot springs such as many of those found in Yellowstone National Park. They only grow at temperatures above 50°C and at a pH between 1 and 6. How would you classify these organisms? - Psychrotrophic neutrophiles - Aerobic, psychrophilic acidophiles - Anaerobic, acidophilic mesophiles - Microaerophilic, halotolerant basophiles - Aerobic, acidophilic thermophiles

Aerobic, acidophilic thermophiles

Found in grains spoiled by Aspergillus

Aflatoxin

Members of this group generally don't cause infections, but some produce neurotoxins that cause intoxications in animals that consume them. Members of this group are found predominantly in aquatic environments.

Algae

Explain how nutrient-rich runoff can cause waters to become hypoxic. Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff, using oxygen in the process. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. The nutrients in the runoff often include chemicals that spontaneously oxidize in the presence of oxygen. They tend to deplete the amount of oxygen present in an area simply by being present themselves. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. It doesn't. This claim is a scare tactic used by environmental extremists to prevent farmers and individuals from fertilizing their crops and lawns. There is no induction of a hypoxic state in bodies of water where runoff occurs. Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff. Heterotrophic microbes then flourish on the organic molecules produced by these organisms, using oxygen in the process and leading to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. The nutrients in the runoff often include toxic chemicals that kill anaerobes such as cyanobacteria. Aerobes flourish, depleting the amount of oxygen present. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area.

Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff. Heterotrophic microbes then flourish on the organic molecules produced by these organisms, using oxygen in the process and leading to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area.

Why are we concerned at all with monitoring emerging/reemerging diseases? All of the above. Because the speed of travel has increased greatly. With increased speed of travel, it is far more likely that a serious pathogenic threat from one area of the world can spread rapidly across the globe in a very fast manner. We need to monitor the occurrence of these illnesses to try to protect populations. These represent growing threats to human health that will require new scientific research and resources to effectively combat. Because globalization (greater trade and travel between countries) leads to more chances for spread of illnesses into new areas and populations. Monitoring these illnesses will help us to protect people.

All of the above

Indicator organisms are A. Coliforms B. Enterococci C. Suggestive of fecal contamination D. Used in water quality tests E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Limiting the activity of microbes in food can be accomplished by cold storage. lowering the pH. growth inhibiting substances. pasteurization. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

Microorganisms are involved in

All of the choices are correct

Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes A. High temperature and pressure B. Pasteurization C. Refrigeration and freezing D. Irradiation E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Sludge may be a source of pollution. is a byproduct of sewage treatment. takes up space in a landfill. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.

All of the choices are correct

Smallpox aided European domination of New World Nations. has not occurred naturally anywhere in the world since 1977. has potential as a weapon of bioterrorism. has killed millions of people. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

The opposite results obtained by scientists apparently doing the same experiments in investigating spontaneous generation

All of the choices are correct

Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include: A. Polysaccharides on the cell wall B. Lipoteichoic acid C. Spiky M-proteins D. Capsule to provide adherence E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Which is usually true of Archaea? They are found as rods, spheres, or spirals. They reproduce by binary fission. They contain rigid cell walls. They are found as single cells. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

Fungi are important in: - food production. - disease of plants. - food spoilage. - production of antibiotics. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Naturally occurring antimicrobial chemicals may include lysozyme. peroxidase. allicin. benzoic acid. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The growth of microorganisms in a food product is influenced by the availability of acidity. moisture. temperature. nutrients. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Transposons are informally known as jumping genes. may cause insertion mutations. may cause knockout mutations. were first recognized in plants. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Wastewater treatment decreases the amount of phosphate. biodegradable carbon. pathogens. ammonia and nitrate. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is/are microorganisms that can be used as food? A. Spirulina B. Single-cell protein C. Algae D. Fusarium graminearum E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct.

Advanced treatment of sewage involves the removal of phosphates and sulfur compounds. is done to promote nutrient enrichment. is done to promote growth of photosynthetic organisms. is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. ****NOT TRUE*****

Which is not true about a crown gall tumor? It is a bacterial infection of plants. It requires a plasmid. It produces a large amount of opines that neither the plant nor bacteria synthesizes. It is due to the incorporation of bacterial plasmid DNA into the plant chromosome. All of the choices are true.

All of the choices are true

The problem of not being able to cultivate most microorganisms has led to the use of FISH. FISH and 16s rRNA analysis. 16s rRNA analysis. microscopy with fluorescent dyes. All of these methods help identify microorganisms in the environment.

All of these methods help identify microorganisms in the environment.

Genome

All the DNA in a cell

Luminescence: - may be produced by bacteria. - may be controlled by quorum sensing. - is catalyzed by luciferase. -All of the choices are correct. - None of the choices is correct.

All the choices are correct. - bioluminescence - density-dependent light emission

Which of the following is used to cause flocculation? Methane Chlorine Natrium potassium phosphate (nalum) Aluminum potassium phosphate (alum) Charcoal

Aluminum potassium phosphate (alum)

A quick microbiological test for potential carcinogens was developed by Fleming. Lederberg. Ames. Crick.

Ames

Which statement describes the relationship between ammonia oxidizers and nitrite oxidizers? Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers. Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, reducing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers. Ammonium oxidizers use urea as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrite. The nitrite produced then serves as the carbon source for nitrite oxidizers. Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrite. The nitrite produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers. None of these explains the relationship—ammonia and nitrite are produced by different nutrient cycles which also involve sulfur reduction.

Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers.

What is a definitive host in the life cycle of a parasite? 1. An organism in which the parasite multiplies asexually, without causing any damage to the host. 2. An organism in which either sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction of the parasite occurs. 3. An organism in which sexual reproduction or the adult form of a parasite occurs. 4. An organism from which a parasite typically is not passed to another host, so that the parasite cannot complete its life cycle. 5.An organism in which asexual reproduction or an immature form of a parasite occurs.

An organism in which sexual reproduction or the adult form of a parasite occurs.

Which of the following genera fix nitrogen?

Anabaena, Azotobacter, and Rhizobium

Under what conditions would the patient's stool sample be cultured in order to detect Clostridium botulinum? Aerobic, refrigerator temperature, high acidity Anaerobic, body temperature, neutral pH Aerobic, body temperature, neutral pH Anaerobic, refrigerator temperature, low acidity Aerobic or anaerobic, body temperature, low acidity

Anaerobic, body temperature, neutral pH

An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called A) An inducible enzyme. B) A repressible enzyme. C) A restriction enzyme. D) An operator. E) A promoter.

Answer: A

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) Restriction enzyme. D) Transposase. E) DNA polymerase.

Answer: A

If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A) The primary structure of the protein B) The secondary structure of the protein C) The tertiary structure of the protein D) The quaternary structure of the protein E) Can't tell

Answer: A

In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 4'? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Cytosine D) Guanine E) Uracil

Answer: A

Table 8.1 Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine- In Table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2? A) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leucine-, histidine- B) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu-, his- C) 1 will become F-, leu-, his-; 2 will remain the same D) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+ E) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+ and recombination may occur

Answer: A

The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A) Catabolite repression. B) Translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) Repression. E) Induction.

Answer: A

The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to A) Human DNA. B) T. aquaticus DNA. C) A mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA. D) Human RNA. E) T. aquaticus RNA.

Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription? A) A new strand of DNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA E) None of the above

Answer: A

An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between nucleotide sequences in DNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) Restriction enzyme. D) Transposase. E) DNA polymerase.

Answer: B

In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is an inducible enzyme, A) Compound C would bind to the repressor. B) Compound A would bind to the repressor. C) Compound B would bind to enzyme A. D) Compound A would react with enzyme B. E) Compound C would react with gene a.

Answer: B

In transcription, A) DNA is changed to RNA. B) DNA is copied to RNA. C) DNA is replicated. D) RNA is copied to DNA. E) Proteins are made.

Answer: B

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, the coding for the antisense strand of DNA is A) 5' ACAGTTTCAAT B) 5' TCTGCAAAGTTA C) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA D) 3' UCUCGAAAGUUA E) 3' TCACGUUUCAAU

Answer: B

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine 22) (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, what is the order of bases in the sense strand of DNA? A) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA B) 3' AGACGTTTCAAT C) 3' TCTCGTTTGTTA D) 5' TGTGCTTTCTTA E) 5'AGAGCTTTGAAT

Answer: B

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell A) By a bacteriophage. B) As naked DNA in solution. C) By cell-to-cell contact. D) By crossing over. E) By sexual reproduction.

Answer: B

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) DNA polymerase - makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template B) RNA polymerase - makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template C) DNA ligase - joins segments of DNA D) Transposase - insertion of DNA segments into DNA E) DNA gyrase - coils and twists DNA

Answer: B

Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is false? A) The genes coding for them are on plasmids. B) They cause food-poisoning symptoms. C) Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative. D) They can be used to identify certain bacteria. E) Bacteriocins kill baceria.

Answer: B

A gene is best defined as A) A segment of DNA. B) Three nucleotides that code for an amino acid. C) A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product. D) A sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product. E) A transcribed unit of DNA.

Answer: C

According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the A) End-product must not be in excess. B) Substrate must bind to the enzyme. C) Substrate must bind to the repressor. D) Repressor must bind to the operator. E) Repressor must not be synthesized.

Answer: C

An enzyme that cuts double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. A) RNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) Restriction enzyme D) Transposase E) DNA polymerase

Answer: C

Assume the two E.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate. Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive F: pro-, arg-, his-, lys-, met-, ampicillin-resistant What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant? A) Ampicillin, lysine, arginine B) Lysine arginine C) Ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine D) Proline, histidine, methionine E) Ampicillin, prolein, histidine, lysine

Answer: C

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation A) Replicates DNA. B) Transfers DNA vertically, to new cells. C) Transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. D) Transcribes DNA to RNA. E) Copies RNA to make DNA.

Answer: C

DNA is constructed of A) A single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding. B) Nucleotides bonded A-C and G-T. C) Two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel. D) Two strands of identical nucleotides with hydrogen bonds between them. E) None of the above.

Answer: C

In Figure 8.2, base 2 is attached to A) Ribose. B) Phosphate. C) Deoxyribose. D) Thymine. E) Can't tell.

Answer: C

In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, this would exemplify A) A mutation. B) Repression. C) Feedback inhibition. D) Competitive inhibition. E) Transcription.

Answer: C

In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would A) Always be in excess. B) Bind to the enzyme. C) Bind to the corepressor. D) Bind to RNA polymerase. E) Bind to gene a.

Answer: C

In Table 8.1, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures? A) They will both remain the same B) 1 will become F+, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+ C) 1 will remain the same; Recombination will occur in 2 D) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+ E) Can't tell

Answer: C

When glucose is high, cAMP is ________ : CAP ________ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase ________ bind the lac promoter. A) low, doesn't, doesn't B) high, does, does C) low, doesn't, doesn't D) high, doesn't, does E) low, does, does

Answer: C

In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring? A) 1, 2, 3, and 9 B) 3 and 9 C) 4, 6, and 8 D) 4 and 8 E) 5 and 6

Answer: D

In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosome as shown. From this information you can conclude that chloramphenicol A) Prevents transcription in eukaryotes. B) Prevents translation in eukaryotes. C) Prevents transcription in prokaryotes. D) Prevents translation in prokaryotes. E) Prevents mRNA-ribosome binding.

Answer: D

In Figure 8.5, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

Answer: D

Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? A) Animalia B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Fungi E) Plantae

Answer: D

Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) Helicase. D) Methylase. E) Primase.

Answer: D

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by A) The allosteric transition. B) The substrate binding to the repressor. C) The corepressor binding to the operator. D) The corepressor-repressor binding to the operator. E) The end-product binding to the promoter.

Answer: D

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) The anticodon for valine is A) GUU B) CUU C) CTT D) CAA E) GTA

Answer: D

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) What is the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following sequence of bases in a strand of DNA? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC A) Leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine B) Asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine C) Asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine D) Transcription would stop at the first codon E) Can't tell

Answer: D

Table 8.3 Amino Acids Encoded by the Human p53 Gene Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind of mutation? A) Analog B) Frameshift C) Missense D) Nonsense E) None of the above

Answer: D

The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by A) A chemical mutagen. B) DNA polymerase. C) Photolyases. D) snRNPs. E) UV radiation.

Answer: D

The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A) Never repaired. B) Repaired during transcription. C) Repaired during translation. D) Cut out and replaced. E) Repaired by DNA replication.

Answer: D

The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes A) DNA to break. B) Bonding between adjacent thymines. C) Base substitutions. D) The formation of highly reactive ions. E) The cells to get hot.

Answer: D

Which of the following statements is false regarding a bacterium that is R+? A) It possesses a plasmid. B) R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species. C) It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. D) It is F+. E) R+ can be transferred to a different species.

Answer: D

Which of the following statements is false? A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only. B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously. C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer. D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.

Answer: D

Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A) Mutation. B) Conjugation. C) Transduction. D) Transformation. E) All of the above.

Answer: E

Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes A) Have exons. B) Have introns. C) Require snRNPS. D) Use methionine as the "start" amino acid. E) Use codons to arrange amino acids.

Answer: E

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) If a frameshift mutation occurred in the sequence of bases shown below, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded for? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC A) Leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine B) Asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine C) Asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine D) Translation would stop at the first codon E) Can't tell

Answer: E

The mechanism by which the presence of arabinose controls the arabinose operon is A) Catabolite repression. B) Translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) Repression. E) Induction.

Answer: E

1) The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage.

Answer: FALSE

4) The highest level in the taxonomic hierarchy is "Kingdom."

Answer: FALSE

6) At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered.

Answer: FALSE

7) Once a culture is purified, the next step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.

Answer: FALSE

9) Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antigens in an individual suspected of having Lyme disease.

Answer: FALSE

10) When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.

Answer: TRUE

2) Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission

Answer: TRUE

3) As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera.

Answer: TRUE

5) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.

Answer: TRUE

8) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.

Answer: TRUE

Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called ________, or __________, a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain. A. Antigenic drift, antigenic shift B. Antigenic shift, antigenic drift C. Antigenic drift, antigenic drift D. Antigen resistance, antigen cooperation E. None of these

Antigenic drift, antigenic shift drift is a small change, shift is big and serious.

Please select the FALSE statement regarding arthropod vectors. - Mechanical vectors simply transfer a pathogen from one surface to another. - The incidence of vector-borne diseases can be decreased by controlling the vector or the infected hosts. - Biological vectors play an essential role in the life cycle of the pathogen. - Arthropods are very specific and always bite only one type of host. - Some arthropods cause disease even when they do not act as a vector.

Arthropods are very specific and always bite only one type of host.

This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin A. Aspergillus flavis B. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci C. Fusarium species D. Rhizopus species E. Geotrichum candidum

Aspergillus flavis

Soy sauce is made by fermentation of soybeans and wheat by Saccharomyces species. lactic acid bacteria AND Saccharomyces species. lactic acid bacteria. Aspergillus species. lactic acid bacteria, Aspergillus species, AND Saccharomyces species.​

Aspergillus species.

The material responsible for transformation was shown to be DNA by Watson and Crick. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty. Lederberg. Stanley.

Avery, MacLeod and McCarty.

A common way to identify E. coli that carry the desired recombinant DNA is by using a: A. vector. B. probe. C. host. D. plasmid. E. restriction enzyme.

B

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except: A. Virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease B.Common cause of bacterial pneumoniaC.Causes the most serious form of acute meningitisD.Causes formation of petechiaeE.More easily transmitted in schools, day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks

B

Bacterial conjugation involves a. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell. b. a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus. c. naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell. d. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells. e. None of the choices is correct.

B

Direct selection involves inoculating cells onto growth media upon which A. the nutrients necessary for mutation to occur are present. B. the mutant, but not the parental cell type, will grow. C. the mutagen is present. D. the mutation will be reversed.

B

Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rDNA data and other techniques may be explained by: A. differences in the translation machinery. B. horizontal DNA transfer. C. vertical DNA transfer. D. the lack of DNA polymerase proof-reading. E. vertical RNA transfer.

B

During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is: A. pyruvic acid B. oxygen C. nitrate D. cytochrome c E. FAD

B

During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands. a. copy point b. template c. comparison molecule d. scaffold e. reservoir

B

Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ______ ATP. A. 2 B. 3 C. 24 D. 36 E. 38

B

Zero coliforms per 100 ml of water is considered safe for treated potable water. True False

True

Enzymes are: A. broken down in reactions that require energy input B. proteins that function as catalysts C. electron carrier molecules D. not needed for catabolic reactions E. all of the choices are correct

B

Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called: A. phosphotransferases B. oxidoreductases C. decarboxylases D. aminotransferases E. ligases

B

Geneticists can make complimentary DNA from messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using a. palindromes. b. reverse transcriptase. c. restriction endonucleases. d. ligases. e. DNA polymerases.

B

Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host. a. DNA b. libraries c. clones d. digests e. books

B

If the G+C content of two organisms is 45% in both A. the A+T content is 65%. B. they may or may not be related. C. they are definitely not related. D. they are definitely related AND the A+T content is 65%. E. they are definitely related.

B

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosephorylate: A. ATP B. ADP C. pyruvic acid D. oxygen E. NAD

B

In which pathway is the most NADH generated? A. electron transport system B. TCA cycle C. glycolysis D. alcoholic fermentation E. mixed acid fermentation

B

Outside of living cells, viruses are: A. scavenging glucose. B. metabolically inert. C. using cilia to move to the next host. D. slowly stockpiling ATP from the mitochondria.

B

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called a. codons. b. palindromes. c. introns. d. exons. e. genes.

B

Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires a. repressor alone bound to operator. b. substrate bound to repressor. c. substrate bound to promoter. d. corepressor and repressor binding to operator. e. None of the choices is correct.

B

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called a. mitosis. b. replication. c. transcription. d. translation. e. mutation.

B

The name Lactococcus (Streptococcus) lactis: A. indicates that Lactococcus is the old class name. B. indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name. C. indicates that the subgenus is Streptococcus. D. indicates that the family is Lactococcus.

B

The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called a. transduction. b. excision repair. c. frame shift. d. back-mutation. e. transformation.

B

When DNA probes are used to identify bacterial DNA similarities by hybridization, the probe DNA is heated and the template DNA is treated to separate the 2 strands. Why would the probe DNA be heated? A. DNA hybridization can only take place at high temperatures so all the DNA must be heated up prior to hybridization. B. The probe DNA is single stranded but it may have folded back on itself and formed portions that are double-stranded; heating it up breaks any possible hydrogen bonds that may have formed, returning it to a single-stranded state prior to hybridization. C. Heating up the probe DNA activates the tag on the probe DNA before it hybridizes to the bacterial template DNA D. This is the only way to properly label the probe DNA.

B

Which is true of viral conjunctivitis? A. Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhea B.Caused by adenovirusesC.Caused by MoraxellaD.Must be treated with topical and oral antibioticsE.Has a mucopurulent, milky discharge

B

Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? a. where the bond between the final tRNA and the finished polypeptide chain is broken b. include AUG c. include UAA, UAG, and UGA d. do not have corresponding tRNA e. can also be called nonsense codons

B

Wolbachia are found only in A. plants. B. arthropods. C. mammals. D. hot springs. E. fungi.

B

DNA transfer by conjugation is more efficient in a liquid medium setting, subjected to very mild agitation (stirring), rather than on an agar plate format. Why? A. Trick question; it can take place with the same degree of efficiency on either format and it does not matter. B. Direct cell-to-cell contact is required for this process, and this more likely to be achieved in the fluid liquid format than on an agar plate (especially for relatively non-motile types of bacteria) C. Direct cell-to-cell contact is required for this process, and this is more likely to be achieved in the plate format than in the fluid format (especially for relatively non-motile types of bacteria) D. Direct cell-to-cell contact isn't required for this process, so the ability to secrete the DNA into a surrounding fluid medium makes the process more efficient than the dry surface of an agar plate

B - Conjugation, plasmids, DNA transfer - it does require cell-to-cell contact.

Comparatively greater energy is released when: A. carbon dioxide is the final electron acceptor. B. oxygen is the final electron acceptor. C. sulfur is the final electron acceptor. D. hydrogen is the final electron acceptor. E. nitrate is the final electron acceptor.

B - there is a chart in Ch3 that shows how the differences in electronegativity between electron donors and terminal electron receptors determine how much energy is released. Oxygen is way at the bottom, MAX energy released what it is the final electron acceptor.

An acute, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is: A. Atopic B. Systemic anaphylaxis C. Delayed D. T-cell mediated E. Antibody-mediated

B Got this right

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A.Reverse transcriptase inhibitorsB.Protease inhibitorsC.Fusion InhibitorsD.Integrase inhibitorsE.All of the choices are correct

B They stop the virions from maturing CORRECT!!!

Operon(s) in bacteria: A. are also known as Wagnerons. B. refers to a group of genes that are coordinately controlled AND involve polycistronic mRNA. C. involve monocistronic mRNA. D. involve polycistronic mRNA. E. refers to a group of genes that are coordinately controlled.

B - remember that eukaryotes have monocistronic mRNA - codes for 1 gene.

Table 10.1 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes? A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4, 6 C) 2 D) 1 E) 2, 4, 5

B) 4, 6

A genus can best be defined as A) A taxon composed of families. B) A taxon composed of one or more species and below family. C) A taxon belonging to a species. D) A taxon comprised of classes. E) The most specific taxon.

B) A taxon composed of one or more species and below family.

Serological testing is based on the fact that A) All bacteria have the same antigens. B) Antibodies react specifically with an antigen. C) The human body makes antibodies against bacteria. D) Antibodies cause the formation of antigens. E) Bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.

B) Antibodies react specifically with an antigen.

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group A) Animalia. B) Archaea. C) Bacteria. D) Fungi. E) Plantae. Answer: B

B) Archaea.

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protista

B) Bacteria

Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protist

B) Bacteria

Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? A) Both ferment lactose. B) Both are gram-positive. C) Both are motile. D) Both are aerobic. E) All are equally important.

B) Both are gram-positive.

Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data? A) The two organisms are related. B) The two organisms are unrelated. C) The organisms make entirely different enzymes. D) Their nucleic acids will not hybridize. E) None of the above.

B) The two organisms are unrelated.

The methanogens, produces of methane gas, require environments that A) have abundant oxygen and CO2 B) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2 C) are extremely cold D) have sunlight E) are very acidic

B) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2

Figure 10.2 A nucleic acid hybridization experiment produced the following results. 31) In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

B) b

3) If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they A) live in the same place. B) evolved from a common ancestor. C) will have different G-C ratios. D) will both ferment lactose. E) mated with each other.

B) evolved from a common ancestor.

Trichomonas vaginalis can be distinguished from other parasitic protozoa by which of the characteristics listed below? A-It is usually found in drinking water and is associated with fecal contamination. B-It has an undulating membrane, infects the vagina, and is frequently transmitted by sexual contact. C-It is a photosynthetic organism that lives in fresh water. D-It infects Anopheles mosquitoes and can be transmitted by a bite.

B-It has an undulating membrane, infects the vagina, and is frequently transmitted by sexual contact.

Drug susceptibility testing: A. Determines the patient's response to various antimicrobials B. Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials C. Determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobials D. Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient E. None of the choices is correct.B

B. Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials Got this right.

67. Relatively little is known about many obligate anaerobes. Why might this be so? A. The obligate aerobes are far more numerous, and also ...cont B. It's much harder to provide the right atmospheric ...cont C. Only obligate aerobes cause disease, so we've had ...cont D. The majority of obligate anaerobes are very ...cont

B. It's much harder to provide the right atmospheric ...cont

Which of the following statements about members of the family Enterobacteriaceae is NOT true? A. It includes many medically relevant bacteria. B. Members only reside in the intestinal tract of humans. C. It includes E. coli, Enterobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella. D. Members are facultative anaerobes. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Members only reside in the intestinal tract of humans. -members also reside in the intestinal tract of animals and in the soil

Intracellular Gram-negative diplococci found in a urethral sample from a male is indicative of: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C. Streptococcus pneumoniae. D. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. (used a microscope to see this - sometimes microscopic morphology is enough to diagnose eukaryotic infections)

Cyanobacterium (energy source + carbon source)

B. Uses light energy and uses carbon dioxide

Photoautotroph (energy source + carbon source)

B. Uses light energy and uses carbon dioxide

One notable side effect of rifampin therapy is: A. tinitis (ringing of the ears). B. an orange-red color in urine, tears, and other body secretions. C. whole body allergic reactions called anaphylaxis. D. interruption of the auditory response. E. pseudomembranous colitis.

B. an orange-red color in urine, tears, and other body secretions Rifampin - inhibits nucleic acid sysnthesis - antibiotic that blocks bacterial RNA polymerase from starting transcription = no RNAs. - treats leprosy (Hansen's disease), TB and prevents meningitis after exposure to Neisseria meningitidis - bacteria get resistant quick - mutation in the gene that codes for RNA polymerase.

Serological methods: A. can rarely be used to identify bacteria. B. are useful in identifying bacteria. C. rely on the specificity of an antibody-antibody interaction. D. may be simple but are always time consuming. E. All of the answer choices are correct.

B. are useful in identifying bacteria.

Opportunistic pathogens: A. cause disease in every individual. B. cause disease in compromised individuals. C. are always pathogens. D. have well developed virulence factors. E. none of the choices is correct.

B. cause disease in compromised individuals. Got this right

The earliest oxygenic phototrophs are thought to be: A. purple non-sulfur bacteria. B. cyanobacteria. C. cyanoarchaea. D. green non-sulfur bacteria. E. purple sulfur bacteria.

B. cyanobacteria

DNA probes have been very useful in A. coding the DNA of organisms grown in vivo. B. identifying organisms in pure culture. C. detecting toxins. D. diagnosing diseases of protozoa.

B. identifying organisms in pure culture.

Streptococcus pyogenes: A. may form endospores. B. is beta-hemolytic. C. is alpha-hemolytic. D. is gamma-hemolytic. E. is alpha-hemolytic AND may form endospores.

B. is beta-hemolytic

Diapedesis is the A. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets. B. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. C. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. D. production of only red blood cells. E. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.

B. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. Got this right

Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except: A. the overuse of antibiotics. B. multiple drug therapy. C. the ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed. D. the improper use of antibiotics. E. the addition of antibiotics to common household products.

B. multiple drug therapy. Got this right - we use multiple drugs so that the bacteria WON'T become resistant.

Sphaerotilus and Leptothrix are examples of A. purple sulfur bacteria. B. sheathed bacteria. C. prosthecate bacteria. D. Enterobacteriaceae. E. green non-sulfur bacteria.

B. sheathed bacteria

A male patient comes to the clinic where you work complaining of urethral discharge and pain on urination. He has recently had unprotected sex with someone he met at a party. You take a sample of the urethral discharge for analysis. Based on the Gram stain results, you tell your patient that you think he has gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. You are able to make this diagnosis based on: A. signs and symptoms AND the fact that there are bacteria in the urethral discharge. B. signs and symptoms AND because N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within white blood cells in the male urethra. C. signs and symptoms AND the fact that bacteria in the discharge are Gram-positive. D. the fact that bacteria are present in red blood cells AND because N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within the male urethra. E. the fact that N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within white blood cells in the male urethra.

B. signs and symptoms AND because N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within white blood cells in the male urethra.

In higher organisms, successful mating can occur between members of the same A. genus. B. species. C. class. D. order.

B. species

The basic taxonomic unit in the classification scheme of plants and animals is:

B. species

The more closely related two organisms are, A. the less they look alike. B. the more similar the nucleic acid sequence. C. the less similar the nucleic acid sequence. D. the more they are phenotypically similar. E. the more similar the nucleic acid sequence AND the more they are phenotypically similar.

B. the more similar the nucleic acid sequence

A good range of temperature to store food is A. Below 4º C and above 60º C B. 20º-80º C C. Below -10º C and above 100º C D. 0º-50º C E. Below 10ºC and above 80º C

Below 4º C and above 60º C

Characterizing strain differences - how can we tell strains of the same species apart?

Biochemical typing Serological typing Molecular typing Phage typing Antobiograms

What is the difference between biostimulation and bioaugmentation? Biostimulation is a bioremediation process designed to remove pollutants from an environment. Bioaugmentation is a method used in laboratories to promote the growth of fastidious microbes. Biostimulation generally occurs in situ and is less disruptive while bioaugmentation is performed off site using a bioreactor, a large tank designed to accelerate microbial processes. Biostimulation is a method of degrading environmental pollutants while bioaugmentation is a method of supplementing microbial populations in landfills and composters. Bioaugmentation enhances the growth of local microbes in a contaminated site by providing additional nutrients while biostimulation relies on activities of microorganisms added to the contaminated material, complementing the resident population. Biostimulation enhances the growth of local microbes in a contaminated site by providing additional nutrients while bioaugmentation relies on activities of microorganisms added to the contaminated material, complementing the resident population.

Biostimulation enhances the growth of local microbes in a contaminated site by providing additional nutrients while bioaugmentation relies on activities of microorganisms added to the contaminated material, complementing the resident population.

In treating an oil spill, why might biostimulation be preferred over bioaugmentation? Biostimulation and bioaugmentation are always used simultaneously. This is done because neither one of these approaches works well individually. Adding bacteria to an environment will never be successful unless nutrients are also added to that environment. Bioaugmentation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are highly genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Biostimulation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function. Biostimulation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are generally genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Bioaugmentation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function. Adding new microbes (bioaugmentation) poses some risk—when new microbes are added to an environment, the consequences of those additions on resident populations are unknown. Adding nutrients (biostimulation) is safer because once those nutrients are used up, the microbial populations are likely to return to their original levels. In fact, biostimulation is not generally favored as an approach. Biostimulation often leads to the generation of antibiotic—resistant microbes, which become a problem for other organisms in the environment. Bioaugmentation is the favored approach because adding nutrients to the area simply enhances the activities of the bacteria already present.

Biostimulation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are generally genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Bioaugmentation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function. ***NOT TRUUUEEE***

The causative organism of whooping cough is: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphyloccus aureus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Bordetella pertussis E. Haemophilus influenzae

Bordetella pertussis

You are cleaning out your pantry and find that your bread has spoiled. Which organism caused the spoilage, and why? Bread is spoiled by bacteria because it does not have enough water available for mold growth. Bread is spoiled by mold because it does not have enough water available for bacterial growth. Bread is spoiled by both bacteria and mold simultaneously—these organisms always act synergistically in spoilage. Bread is spoiled by mold because there is too much water present for bacterial growth. Pseudomonas aeruginosa—this bacterium is the primary cause of spoilage in grain products.

Bread is spoiled by mold because it does not have enough water available for bacterial growth.

A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a. translation. b. transcription. c. mutation. d. alteration. e. regeneration.

C

All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except: A.Most destructive of the periodontal diseasesB.Involves Treponema spirochete and other anaerobic bacteriaC.Very communicableD.Associated with severe pain, bleeding, abscessed gums, and necrosisE.Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease

C

An apoenzyme: A. is part of a simple enzyme B. is also called a coenzyme C. contains the active site D. is often an inorganic metal ion E. is an RNA molecule

C

Bacteria use ___________ attached to the polymerase and they direct RNA polymerase to promoters; eukaryotic cells use __________ that instead attach directly to the DNA first. A. transcription factors; sigma factors B. tRNA; rRNA C. sigma factors; transcription factors D. ribosomes; sigma factors

C

DNA polymerases used in PCR a. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA. b. must remain active at very cold temperatures. c. include Taq polymerase. d. are labeled with fluorescent dyes. e. All of the choices are correct.

C

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called a. palindromes. b. reverse transcriptase. c. restriction endonucleases. d. ligases. e. DNA polymerases.

C

Each _____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product. a. intron b. exon c. gene d. operator e. triplet

C

EcoRI and HindIII are a. palindromes. b. reverse transcriptase. c. restriction endonucleases. d. ligases. e. DNA polymerases.

C

Full induction of the lactose operon requires a. lactose present. b. lactose and glucose present. c. lactose present without glucose. d. lactose and arabinose present. e. All of the choices induce the lactose operon.

C

Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription. a. DNA polymerase I b. DNA polymerase III c. RNA polymerase d. mRNA e. rRNA

C

If the wild-type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T? a. missense b. nonsense c. insertion d. deletion e. silent

C

Mixed acid fermentation: A. produces butyric acid B. occurs in all bacteria C. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases D. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus E. also produces ethanol

C

Phages that can either replicate and cause cell lysis or can integrate their DNA into the host DNA are called A. segmented phages. B. virulent phages. C. temperate phages. D. lytic phages. E. acute phages.

C

Prokaryotes typically do not have: a. cell walls b. flagella c. a nuclear membrane d. specific shapes e. genetic information

C

Replication of DNA begins at a(n) ____ rich area. a. guanine-cytosine. b. uracil-adenine. c. adenine-thymine. d. adenine-cytosine. e. guanine-adenine.

C

The "Golden Age of Microbiology" was the time when: a. microorganisms were first used to make bread b. microorganisms were first used to make cheese c. most pathogenic bacteria were identified d. a vaccine against influenza was developed e. antibiotics became available

C

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called a. histones. b. amino acids. c. nucleotides. d. mRNA. e. polymerases.

C

The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called a. ribosomal RNA. b. messenger RNA. c. transfer RNA. d. primer RNA. e. ribozymes.

C

The cyclic bout of fever and chills in malaria are caused by: A.liver cell lysisB.white blood cell lysisC.red blood cell lysisD.neurological involvementE.None of the choices is correct

C

The gene that codes for a protein capable of repressing an operon is called the a. operator. b. structural locus. c. regulator. d. promoter. e. None of the choices is correct.

C

The lactose repressor a. is transcribed with the structural lac genes. b. is activated by binding lactose. c. is inactivated by binding lactose. d. requires lactose for its transcription. e. None of the choices is correct.

C

The most serious type of mutation is a a. point mutation. b. silent mutation. c. frame shift mutation. d. back mutation. e. All the choices are equally serious.

C

The property of endospores that led to confusion in the experiments on spontaneous generation is their: a. small size b. ability to pass through cork stoppers c. heat resistance d. presence in all infusions e. presence on cotton plugs

C

The viral envelope resembles the A. prokaryotic cell wall. B. cytoplasm. C. eukaryotic cell membrane. D. capsomere.

C

Three consecutive bases in the DNA of a gene represent the code for one a. protein. b. nucleotide. c. amino acid. d. purine. e. None of the choices is correct.

C

Treponema and Borrelia: A.are endosymbionts. B.are both transmitted by mosquitoes. C.are spirochetes. D. are luminescent. E.are both easily grown on artificial media.

C

Which cell can transfer chromosomal and plasmid genes to a recipient cell by conjugation? a. F+ cell b. F- cell c. Hfr cell d. R cell e. B cell

C

Which of the following is a viral hemorrhagic fever? A. Cat Scratch fever B.Rocky Mountain spotted feverC. Yellow fever D.Rabbit feverE.Q fever

C

Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? a. transformation b. conjugation c. mitosis d. transduction e. meiosis

C

rRNA sequence comparisons are useful for determining evolutionary relationships. True False

True

Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except: A.Resistant to cold B.Possesses flagella C.Penetrates alveolar macrophages D.Can result in septicemia E.Can be controlled by viral lysis

C p703 - Listeria monocytogenes is a motile, non-spore forming, facultatively aerobic G+ rod that can grow at 4 C (in your fridge) A yes, B yes (I put B and got wrong), C = gets in by GI tract so probably C, D. Does enter bloodstream so perhaps and E. they spray bacteriophages during packaging to lyse the bacteria so is true.

Who is credited with first observing microorganisms? A) Robert Koch B) Robert Hooke C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek D) Carolus Linnaeus E) Louis Pasteur

C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek Made his own 300x microscope and say "animalcules" in pond water.

Phage typing is based on the fact that A) Bacteria are destroyed by viruses. B) Viruses cause disease. C) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells. D) Staphylococcus causes infections. E) Phages and bacteria are related.

C) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells.

The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by: A) Semmelweis. B) Pasteur. C) Lister. D) Holmes. E) Koch.

C) Lister.

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by: A) Francesco Redi. B) John Needham. C) Louis Pasteur. D) Lazzaro Spallanzani. E) Rudolf Virchow.

C) Louis Pasteur. Made swan neck flasks, boiled broth and showed there was no 'vital force' in the air that created life, the broth would stay sterile even exposed to air if the microorganisms were filtered out and only when tipped to meet the filter would the broth cloud with growth.

Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that A) The strands of DNA can be separated. B) A chromosome is composed of complementary strands. C) Pairing between complementary bases occurs. D) DNA is composed of genes. E) All cells have DNA.

C) Pairing between complementary bases occurs.

Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria? A) Prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids B) Eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids C) Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids D) Complex cellular structures E) Multicellular

C) Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related? A) Both are cocci. B) Both ferment lactose. C) Their DNA can hybridize. D) Both normally live in clams. E) Both are motile.

C) Their DNA can hybridize.

Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is false? A) They are multicellular. B) They have eukaryotic cells. C) They can photosynthesize. D) They use organic carbon sources. E) They use organic energy sources.

C) They can photosynthesize.

Robert Koch identified the cause of: A) diphtheria. B) tuberculosis. C) anthrax. D) smallpox. E) AIDS.

C) anthrax.

Reticulate and elementary bodies are two forms in the life cycle of - Mycoplasma. - Caulobacter. - Treponema. - Chlamydia. - Myxobacteria.

Chlamydia

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on A) Cell morphology. B) Gram reaction. C) rRNA sequences. D) Habitat. E) Diseases.

C) rRNA sequences.

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? A-Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors. B-Most protozoa reproduce asexually. C-Nearly all protozoa cause disease. D-Protozoa are common in water and soil. E-Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes.

C-Nearly all protozoa cause disease.

The reference for taxonomic descriptions of bacteria is A. Gray's Anatomy. B. Websters Manual of Taxonomic Bacteriology. C. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. D. Bacteriology.

C. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. - I had this as a T/F question. - It describes descriptions of all known species.

Which statement regarding the Gram stain is FALSE? A. A Gram stain may give sufficient information to start appropriate antibiotic treatment—for example a Gram-positive diplococcus in sputum is likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. A Gram stain can sometimes be used to make a diagnosis—for example a Gram-negative diplococcus in WBC from urethral discharge is Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C. Gram staining can be used to differentiate intestinal normal microbiota from pathogens—for example differentiating E. coli from Salmonella enterica. D. In most cases, Gram staining is not sufficient to identify an organism—for example, Gram-positive staphylococci on skin may be either S. aureus or S. epidermidis. E. Medically important bacteria can seldom be identified by Gram staining alone—for example the throat may harbor Streptococcus pyogenes (pathogen) as well as Streptococcus species that are normal microbiota.

C. Gram staining can be used to differentiate intestinal normal microbiota from pathogens—for example differentiating E. coli from Salmonella enterica.

What roles do hydrogen gas and carbon dioxide play in the metabolism of methanogens? A. They use hydrogen gas in respiration, and they use carbon dioxide in photosynthesis. B. Hydrogen gas is their terminal electron acceptor, and carbon dioxide is their energy source. C. Hydrogen gas is their energy source, and carbon dioxide is their terminal electron acceptor. D. Hydrogen gas is their energy source, and carbon dioxide is their carbohydrate source. E. Hydrogen gas is their initial electron acceptor, and carbon dioxide is their energy source.

C. Hydrogen gas is their energy source, and carbon dioxide is their terminal electron acceptor.

Histamine causes all the following except: A. Fever and headache B. Wheal and flare reaction in skin C. Increased sensitivity to pain D. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle E. Constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine

C. Increased sensitivity to pain Got this right

Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Hansen's disease (leprosy)? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Mycobacterium avium C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Mycobacterium smegmatis

C. Mycobacterium leprae

A soluble greenish pigment is produced by: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Escherichia coli. C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D. Serratia marcescens. E. all streptococci.

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. - also there's a fruity smell

You have identified the causative organism of the outbreak as E. coli. In an effort to characterize the strain of the organism involved, you do different tests. The results are as follows: Gram stain—Gram-negative rods; Oxidase test—negative; Lactose fermentation—positive; Serological testing—O157:H7; Colony morphology—smooth, creamy colonies; RFLPs—E. coli O157:H7; Antibiogram—resistant to ampicillin. Which test(s) confirm the identity of the organism at the strain level? A. Lactose fermentation AND oxidase test B. Gram stain AND antibiogram C. RFLPs AND serological testing D. Serological testing AND colony morphology E. Oxidase test AND RFLPs

C. RFLPs AND serological testing

Chemoautotroph (energy source + carbon souce)

C. Uses chemical reactions for energy

Each axial filament is made up of fibrils identical in structure to : A. cilia. B. pili. C. flagella. D. pseudopods.

C. flagella.

The name Lactococcus (Streptococcus) lactis A. indicates that the subgenus is Streptococcus. B. indicates that the family is Lactococcus. C. indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name. D. indicates that Lactococcus is the old class name.

C. indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name. - the naming system isn't static. Changing names means for more accurate descriptions but is bad in medical situations when people don't know/remember about the name change.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is one of the few species of bacteria that A. stains Gram-positive. B. lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. C. is acid-fast. D. is encapsulated. E. stains Gram-negative.

C. is acid-fast. It is the waxy mycolic acid that prevents stain uptake. Remember that it is stained with carbol fuschin first (mycobacterium shows up red) and everything else is stained with methylene blue (shows blue)

The Euryarchaeota includes all A. known thermophilic extreme acidophiles. B. the bacteria. C. known methanogens. D. green sulfur bacteria.

C. known methanogens.

In 1908 Orla-Jensen suggested that bacteria be grouped according to their A. arrangement. B. morphology. C. physiology. D. Gram stain.

C. physiology.

In the 1930s Kluyver and van Niel proposed a classification scheme based on A. Gram reactions. B. biochemical relationships. C. presumed evolutionary relationships. D. DNA sequences.

C. presumed evolutionary relationships.

Thermus and Deinococcus: A. are both radiation resistant. B. are both Gram-positive. C. survive in extreme environments. D. both serve as the source of Taq polymerase. E. are both thermophilic.

C. survive in extreme environments - Thermus is thermophilic and Deinococcus can survive radiation. . Thermus is G-, Deinococcus is G+ Thermus is the source of Taq polymerase Deinococcus can survive gamma radiation

Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A. Destroy microbes. B. Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site. C. To cause a fever. D. Start tissue repair. E. Block further invasion.

C. to cause a fever Got this right

Nucleic acid techniques have great power as diagnostic tools because they may be: A. used to inhibit the growth of certain bacteria. B. used to enhance the growth of bacteria. C. used to differentiate species. D. quick and easy to perform. E. All of the answer choices are correct.

C. used to differentiate species.

Chicken shish kebab prepared on a camping trip: Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio parahaemolyticus E. coli 0157:H7 Listeria monocytogenes Campylobacter

Campylobacter

Using phenotypic characteristics to identify prokaryotes -

Can use microscopic morphology (size, shape, staining under a microscope), Culture characteristics (what it looks like on a petri dish), Metabololic capabilities, Serology, Fatty Acid analysis, and MOLDI-TOF MS.

When the center of a tubercle breaks down into a ________________, it gradually heals by calcification that forms a tuberculous cavity. A. Caseous necrosis B. Granuloma C. Primary lesion D. Tertiary E. Miliary tubercle

Caseous necrosis

Nucleotide Analogs

Cause gene mutations. AZT (lacks 3' OH), 5'bromouracil.

Nonionizing Radiation

Causes gene mutations. UV light. Pyrimidine dimers.

Ionizing Radiation

Causes gene mutations. X-rays, gamma rays. Removes an electron from atoms, breaks DNA.

Serological methods : - are useful in identifying bacteria. - rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction. - may be simple and rapid. - All of the choices are correct.

Ch 11 - - All of the choices are correct.

A clever technique that streamlines the identification of auxotrophic mutants is - gas chromatography. - replica plating. - direct selection. - reversion

Ch 11 - Replica plating - auxotroph = a mutant organism (especially a bacterium or fungus) that requires a particular additional nutrient which the normal strain does not.

The paroxysms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are: A. Urinary frequency and pain and vaginal discharge B. Bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea and weight loss C. Fever, swollen lymph nodes and joint pain D. Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis E. Sore throat, low grade fever and swollen lymph nodes

Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis Cold, Hot and Wet stages.

Which of the following genera are obligate intracellular parasites? - Chlamydia, Coxiella, AND Rickettsia - Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, AND Micrococcus - Escherichia AND Erlichia - Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Coxiella, AND Rickettsia - Chlamydia AND Mycoplasma

Chlamydia, Coxiella, AND Rickettsia

Which of the following contains bacteriochlorophyll? - Streptococcus, Chromatium, Thidictyon - Staphylococcus, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon - Bacillus, Chromatium, Thiospirillum - Escherichia, Chromatium, Thiospirillum - Chromatium, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon

Chromatium, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon

Define competitive and non-competitive inhibition in an enzyme regulation.

Competitive inhibitions: A 'mimic' of the substrate is supplied by the cell, which goes and occupies the enzyme's substrate-binding site and prevents the actual substrate to bind there. Non-competitive inhibition: The regulator molecule, which is mostly the product of enzyme-substrate interaction, binds to the regulatory site of the enzyme and blocks further reaction.

What are the components of a conjugated enzyme? Where does the substrate bind and how that site is formed?

Conjugated enzyme consists of a protein component called apoenzyme and one or more cofactors, which are either organic molecules called coenzymes or inorganic molecules like metallic ions. The substrates bind to the active sites which are formed by 3-dimensional folding of apoenzyme.

Operator

Controls movement of RNA polymerase. Repressors bind here.

Yeast alone cannot convert grain to alcohol. True/False

Correct answer: true

Mismatch Repair

Correct strand determined by level of methylation.

A common vector used for cloning genes is/are A. bacteria. B. viroids. C. nucleotides. D. plasmids. E. viruses.

D

A frame shift is caused by ______ mutations. a. missense and insertion b. missense and nonsense c. nonsense and deletion d. deletion and insertion e. insertion and nonsense

D

A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more of the substances called: A. substrates B. apoenzymes C. catalysts D. cofactors E. none of the choices are correct

D

All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called: A. catabolism B. redox reactions C. phosphorylation D. metabolism E. cellular respiration

D

Anoxygenic phototrophs: A. produce oxygen AND use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants. B. produce oxygen. C. use water as a source of electrons D. use hydrogen sulfide or organic compounds as a source of electrons. E. use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants.

D

Antony van Leeuwenhoek could not have observed: a. roundworms b. E. coli c. yeasts d. viruses

D

Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds. a. peptide b. nonpolar covalent c. polar covalent d. hydrogen e. sulfhydryl

D

DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because a. nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge. b. nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge. c. phosphate groups have a net positive charge. d. phosphate groups have a net negative charge. e. None of the choices is correct.

D

DNA is denatured at a. 37oC. b. 42oC. c. 60oC. d. 94oC. e. 100oC.

D

Each of the following is associated with pneumonic plague except: A.Can progress to a septicemiaB.Patient has fever, headache, nausea, pneumoniaC. Transmitted by respiratory droplets D.Severe internal hemorrhagingE.Caused by Yersinia pestis

D

Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed: A. exoenzymes B. endoenzymes C. constitutive enzymes D. induced enzymes E. conjugated enzymes

D

In recombinant DNA technique, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes? a. DNA polymerase I b. DNA polymerase II c. DNA helices d. DNA ligase e. primase

D

Protozoan classification is based on their means of: A. reproduction. B. growth. C. fermentation. D. locomotion. E. obtaining nutrients.

D

Semiconservative replication refers to a. each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar. b. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. c. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction. d. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. e. None of the choices is correct.

D

Split genes a. are common in bacteria and eukaryotes. b. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA. c. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. d. use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. e. All of the choices are correct.

D

Strain differences are helpful in: A. transduction. B. electrophoresis. C. replica plating. D. tracing the source of outbreaks of disease. E. transformation.

D

Strong chemical mutagens may be used to treat cancer cells. Is this a good idea or a bad idea? A. It is a bad idea; the cancer cells are already mutated and it is undesirable to mutate them further and make them more cancerous. B. It is a bad idea; the mutagens will also affect the non-cancerous cells, possibly leading to new cancerous states. C. It is a good idea; cancer cells must be killed as quickly as possible to cure the patient. D. The idea is both good and bad; the mutagens are very good at killing cancer cells but depending upon the mode of administration, they could also be a danger to non-cancerous cells.

D

The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in a. bacterial conjugation. b. transformation. c. generalized transduction. d. specialized transduction. e. All of the choices are correct.

D

The enzyme associated with the release of influenza virions from the infected cell is: A. Catalase B.KinaseC.Reverse transcriptaseD.NeuraminidaseE.Hyaluronidase

D

The expression of genetic traits is the a. genome. b. genotype. c. proteome. d. phenotype. e. proteotype.

D

The prokaryotic members of the microbial world include: 1. algae 2. fungi 3. prions 4. bacteria 5. archaea A) 1 & 2 B) 2 &3 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 & 5 E) 1 & 5

D

The terms yeast, mold, and mushrooms refers to fungal: A. reproduction. B. parasites. C. nutrition. D. morphology. E. biochemistry.

D

Which change in a gene's DNA sequence would likely have the least effect on the eventual amino acid sequence produced from it? A. Substitution of 1 nucleotide B. Addition of 1 nucleotide C. Deletion of 2 consecutive nucleotides D. Addition/deletion of 3 consecutive nucleotides E. Substitution of 1 nucleotide AND addition of 1 nucelotide

D

Which is TRUE about the RNA transcript? A. The template starts at the promoter region. B. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template. C. It has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand. D. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template, it has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand AND the template starts at the promoter region. E. It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.

D

Which is incorrect about warts? A.Are transmitted by direct contact or fomitesB.Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feetC.Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removalD.Are frequently cancerousE.Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)

D

Which of the following is not true about mismatch repair? A. It utilizes the state of methylation of the DNA to differentiate between strands. B. It requires DNA polymerase and DNA ligase. C. It utilizes an endonuclease. D. It removes both strands in the mismatch area.

D

An example of natural passive immunity would be: A. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E. None of the choices is correct

D Got this right

Serological methods: A. are useful in identifying unknown bacteria. B. rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction. C. may be simple and rapid. D. use cellular proteins and carbohydrates as markers. E. All choices are correct.

D - NOT B - I've seen others say B, it's not, got it wrong with B. I got nervous and changed my answer.

Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth A) 350 years ago. B) 3500 years ago. C) 3.5 million years ago. D) 3.5 billion years ago. E) 3.5 × 1012 years ago.

D) 3.5 billion years ago.

The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by: A) Robert Koch. B) Ignaz Semmelweis. C) Aristotle. D) Carolus Linnaeus. E) Louis Pasteur.

D) Carolus Linnaeus.

What is the purpose of the mashing step in beer making? A) During mashing, the enzymes of malted barley degrade fermentable sugars, converting them to starches. B) Mashing increases the surface area available for microbes to adhere to during the fermentation process. C) Mashing is required to remove residual solids, leaving wort that can be fermented by bacteria. D) During mashing, the enzymes of malted barley degrade starches, converting them to fermentable sugars. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

D) During mashing, the enzymes of malted barley degrade starches, converting them to fermentable sugars.

Biochemical tests are used to determine A) Staining characteristics. B) Amino acid sequences. C) Nucleic acid-base composition. D) Enzymatic activities. E) All of the above.

D) Enzymatic activities.

A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species A) Does not breed with other species. B) Has a limited geographical distribution. C) Can be distinguished from other bacterial species. D) Is a population of cells with similar characteristics. E) Breeds with its own species.

D) Is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by: A) Wasserman. B) Semmelweis. C) Lister. D) Koch. E) Pasteur.

D) Koch Studied anthrax in mice. Koch's Postulates

It has been estimated that most of the intestinal bacteria are A) Facultative anaerobes B) Facultative aerobes C) Obligate aerobes D) Obligate anaerobes

D) Obligate anaerobes

Bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following? A) Peptidoglycan cell walls B) Methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis C) Sensitivity to antibiotics D) Possessing prokaryotic cells E) Plasma membrane ester linkage

D) Possessing prokaryotic cells

Which of the following statements about archaea is false? A) They are prokaryotes. B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls. C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles. D) They evolved before bacteria. E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

D) They evolved before bacteria.

Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Plantae is false? A) They are multicellular. B) They have eukaryotic cells. C) They can photosynthesize. D) They use organic carbon sources. E) They use inorganic energy sources.

D) They use organic carbon sources.

A researcher noted in a bacterium that there were more mutations in stretches of DNA having higher proportions of thymine than the other bases. Which is the most probable explanation for this observation? A) Thymine is easily converted to uracil by mutagens. B) The other bases are not prone to mutation. C) Thymine mutations cannot be repaired by the SOS system. D) Thymine dimers are more likely to form in those stretches. E) Most mutagens do not alter thymine.

D) Thymine dimers are more likely to form in those stretches.

Which of the following statements is NOT a reason why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists? A) It allows for detection of uncultured microbes. B) It demonstrates the diversity of microbes in an environment. C) It allows observation of microbes in their natural environment in association with other microbes. D) To obtain pure cultures of microbes. E) All of the above.

D) To obtain pure cultures of microbes.

Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for classifying viruses in the three domains rather than in a fourth domain? A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a host's genome. B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells. C) Viruses are obligate parasites. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) None of the above.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

Most bacteria, as well as all fungi and protozoa, are A) chemolithtrophs B) photoautotrophs C) photoheterotrophs D) chemoheterotrophs E) chemoautotrophs

D) chemoheterotrophs "Chemoheterotroph" is the term for an organism which derives its energy from chemicals, and needs to consume other organisms in order to live. - people are chemoheterotrophs. - Animals, most bacteria, fungi, and protozoa are chemoheterotrophs.

In Figure 10.1, species "c." is most closely related to A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

D) d

Repression

Negative control. A co-repressor activates the repressor. Usually anabolic pathways that are regulated this way. Trp operon.

The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch's postulates is to: A) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal. B) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals. C) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal. D) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. E) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium.

D) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. From this list the order would be: D,E,C,A,B - I think. :)

Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A-Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores. B-Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition. C-Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions. D-Most fungi are pathogenic for humans. E-Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs.

D-Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector. A-vector, intermediate B-intermediate, intermediate C-temporary, final D-intermediate, definitive E-definitive, intermediate

D-intermediate, definitive The parasite which causes malaria (called Plasmodium) requires two different hosts—a vertebrate intermediate host, such as a human, and an insect definitive host, also known as the vector. For the types of malaria which infect humans and other mammals, the vector is always a mosquito of the genus Anopheles.

Which of the rRNA molecules has proven the most useful in taxonomy/identification? A. 70S B. 23S C. 80S D. 16S E. 5S

D. 16S

Serological methods A. are useful in identifying unknown bacterium. B. rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction. C. may be simple and rapid. D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

In 1970 Stanier proposed that classification be based on A. evolution. B. Gram stain. C. physiology. D. DNA sequence.

D. DNA sequence.

E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that is found as intestinal normal microbiota. Which of the following would not be useful for an initial step in identifying E. coli O157:H7 strains in a stool sample? A. Growth on selective media, because all strains of E. coli will have the same metabolic capabilities. B. Serology, because E. coli strains all express the same antigens. C. RFLPs, because E. coli strains will be identical at the genome level. D. Gram staining, because E. coli strains will appear identical using this approach. E. These methods can all be used to differentiate between E. coli strains.

D. Gram staining, because E. coli strains will appear identical using this approach.

A breath test assaying for radioactive carbon dioxide may be used to indicate the presence of :

D. Helicobacter pylori.

Plasma cells: A. Function in cell-mediated immunity B. Are derived from T-lymphocytes C. Function in blood clotting D. Produce and secrete antibodies E. All of the choices are correct

D. Produce and secrete antibodies Got this right

Gram-positive encapsulated diplococci found in sputum are likely: A. Bacillus cereus. B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. C. Escherichia coli. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. E. Neisseria gonorrhea.

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. (C and D are G-)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Hemolysins and damage to red blood cells B. Capsules and antiphagocytic factor C. Slime layer and adherence to substrate D. Streptolysin O and hydrolysis of phospholipids E. Leukocidins and damage to white blood cells

D. Streptolysin O and hydrolysis of phospholipids Got this right

Photoheterotrophs (energy source + carbon source)

D. Uses light energy and uses organic compounds

Purple nonsulfur bacteria (energy source + carbon source)

D. Uses light energy and uses organic compounds

Very often clinically relevant information may be obtained by examining: A. the sequence of proteins. B. the size and shape of the organism. C. the transformation ability. D. a wet mount AND the size and shape of the organism. E. a wet mount.

D. a wet mount AND the size and shape of the organism.

Chemoorganotrophs A. may use substrate-level phosphorylation to produce ATP. B. may use oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP. C. utilize an electrochemical gradient. D. all of the above are true

D. all of the above are true

Methanogens often grow in association with: A. nitrifying bacteria. B. lithotrophic bacteria. C. photosynthetic bacteria. D. fermentative bacteria.

D. fermentative bacteria. (someone else said: chemoorganotrophs)

Phage typing: A. is used to extract DNA from cells. B. is used to distinguish bacterial strains AND is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell. C. is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell. D. is used to distinguish bacterial strains. E. is useful for determining eukaryotic cell types.

D. is used to distinguish bacterial strains.

The relatedness of organisms determined by counting common characteristics is called A. evolutionary taxonomy. B. amino acid sequences. C. DNA sequences. D. numerical taxonomy. E. suggests the organisms are very closely related at the species level AND means the GC content is 45%.

D. numerical taxonomy.

You are working in a clinical lab. Two E. coli samples are sent to you for analysis and you are asked to determined whether they are the same strain. You perform an antibiogram and find that the two samples exhibit the same sensitivity to the antibiotics you use in the procedure. This indicates: A. the organisms are the same strains but they will react differently in serology tests. B. the organisms are likely different strains but you need to confirm this with other methods. C. the two organisms are not likely to be susceptible to the same bacteriophages. D. the organisms are likely the same strain but you need to confirm this with other methods. E. the two organisms will show different results if they are Gram stained.

D. the organisms are likely the same strain but you need to confirm this with other methods

In E. coli O157:H7, the O157:H7 refers to the A. specific type of DNA present. B. specific genus. C. general family. D. the specific LPS and flagella type present

D. the specific LPS and flagella type present

If the GC content of two organisms is 45% in both, D. they may or may not be related.

D. they may or may not be related. - similarity doesn't mean relatedness - if the ratio deviates by more than a few %, organisms are not related.

Media that change color as a result of the biochemical activity of growing bacteria: A. usually require the addition of various reagents before the color is evident. B. contain a colorless reagent that breaks down. C. usually contain blood. D. usually contain a pH indicator. E. are always selective media.

D. usually contain a pH indicator.

A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans. A. secondary infection B. sequelae C. nosocomial infection D. zoonosis E. None of the choices is correct.

D. zoonosis Got this right

Which of the following shows the direction genetic information flows?

DNA → RNA → protein

Organisms inhabiting soil or water which breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms.

Decomposer

Which of the following statements about landfills is FALSE? Dangerous levels of methane gas can accumulate. The excavated site has a plastic liner to prevent wastes from leaching into groundwater. Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive. Recycling greatly reduces the amount of wastes sent to landfills. All of the answer choices are true

Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive.

DNA Structure

Deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate backbone with a nitrogenous base.

The group of Fungi in which sexual reproduction has not been observed is: Deuteromycetes has been further classified using:

Deuteromycetes. rRNA analysis

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is: A.MyelomaB.LeukemiaC.MelanomaD.Hodgkin's lymphomaE.Kaposi's sarcoma

E

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a a. point mutation. b. silent mutation. c. back mutation. d. missense mutation. e. nonsense mutation.

E

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except: A.Transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated waterB.Can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever and nauseaC.Caused by Poliovirus (genus Enterovirus)D.If virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed E.Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing

E

Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include a. chromosomes. b. plasmids. c. mitochondrial DNA. d. chloroplast DNA. e. All of the choices are correct.

E

An ideal vector A. may be a plasmid or bacteriophage. B. has multiple restriction enzyme recognition sites. C. contains an origin of replication. D. contains a selectable marker. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves a. larger fragments that move slowly and remain closer to the wells. b. DNA that has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole. c. DNA fragments that are stained to see them. d. an electric current through the gel that causes DNA fragments to migrate. e. All of the choices are correct.

E

Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are a. plasmids. b. viruses. c. bacteriophages. d. artificial chromosomes. e. All of the choices are correct.

E

DNA Polymerase III a. synthesizes primer. b. removes primer. c. joins Okazaki fragments. d. unzips the DNA helix. e. adds new bases and proofreads new DNA.

E

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have a. histone proteins. b. chromosomes in a nucleus. c. several to many chromosomes. d. elongated, not circular, chromosomes. e. All of the choices are correct.

E

Fungal diseases are generally referred to as: A. systemics. B. infections. C. infestations. D. polymorphic. E. mycoses.

E

In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated? A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP

E

In order to get around the lack of ability of prokaryotes to remove introns from precursor RNA, it may be necessary to A. use different promoters. B. use the DNA after it has been processed. C. use the DNA directly. D. use the DNA directly AND use the DNA after it has been processed. E. turn mRNA into cDNA.

E

Luminescence A. is catalyzed by luciferase. B. may be controlled by quorum sensing. C. may be produced by bacteria. D. is triggered by high bacterial density. E. All of the choices are correct

E

PCR is particularly useful in A. detecting viable yet non-culturable organisms. B. assessing impure (multiple types of bacteria present) samples. C. dealing with very small numbers of bacteria. D. relatively quickly producing results. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

RNA molecules differ from DNA a. molecules because only RNA b. has ribose. c. has uracil. d. is typically one strand of nucleotides. does not have thymine. e. All of the choices are correct.

E

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA a. has ribose. b. has uracil. c. is typically one strand of nucleotides. d. does not have thymine. e. All of the choices are correct.

E

Ribozymes are: A. ribosomes which catalyze reactions B. unique to prokaryotes C. unique to eukaryotes D. catalysts for RNA splicing E. catalysts for DNA splicing

E

Spongiform encephalopathies are: A.Associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brainB.Chronic, fatal infections of the nervous systemC.Caused by prionsD.Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, scrapie, and bovine spongiform encephalopathyE.All of the choices are correct

E

Swarmer cells are: A. Characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B. formed by Myxobacteria. C.part of the green nonsulfur bacteria. D. also known as coliforms. E. formed by sheathed bacteria.

E

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is: A. mitochondria B. within the cell membrane C. lysosomes D. cytoplasm E. outside of the cell

E

The normal biota of the CNS consists of: A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Herpes simplex I C. Herpes simplex II D.Streptococcus agalactiaeE. The CNS has no normal biota

E

The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the a. primer. b. Okazaki fragment. c. template. d. rolling circle. e. replication fork.

E

What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection? A.Nasal hairsB.CiliaC.MucusD.MacrophagesE.All of the choices are correct

E

When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called: A. negative feedback B. competitive inhibition C. enzyme induction D. enzyme repression E. none of the choices are correct

E

Which is incorrect about rabies? A.Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats and canines are primary reservoirsB.Is a zoonotic diseaseC.Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysisD.Transmission can involve bites, scratches and inhalationE.Average incubation in human is 1 week

E

Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA? a. It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon. b. An anticodon is complementary to a codon. c. It contains a binding site for an amino acid. d. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC. e. The initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.

E

Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype? a. is inherited b. are structural genes coding for proteins c. are genes coding for RNA d. are regulatory genes controlling gene expression e. are the expressed traits governed by the genes

E

Why is it a good idea for a bacterial cell to be able to utilize glucose FIRST as an energy source (until it is used up), THEN switch to lactose? A. Glucose provides 10 times as much energy when broken down as lactose B. Glucose is an easier compound to break down and obtain energy from than lactose C. Lactose cannot be used by bacterial cells as an energy source D. It's about conservation of energy; bacteria will not expand the energy to make the extra enzymes for breaking down lactose if glucose is available and the extra breakdown enzymes are not needed E. Glucose is an easier compound to break down and obtain energy from than lactose AND it's about conservation of energy-why expend the energy to make the extra enzymes for breaking down lactose when glucose is right there and doesn't need extra enzymes for breakdown

E

rotective features of the skin include all of the following except: A.Low pHB.High salt contentC.Keratinized surfaceD.Resident biotaE.Lysozyme

E

The Ames test is useful as a rapid screening test to identify those compounds that: A. will respond to chemical agents. B. will respond to chemical agents AND will protect an organism from cancer. C. will protect an organism from cancer. D. respond to the deletion of DNAses. E.have a high probability of being carcinogenic.

E - Ames test is about identifying if a chemical is a mutagen. Some can become carcinogenic in the body when they come into contact with animal enzymes so rat liver extract is added to check. E is the only one in that ball park or that made any sense.

DNA is characterized by which of the following feature(s)? A. Thymine. B. Ribose. C. Single-stranded. D. Deoxyribose. E. Deoxyribose AND Thymine.

E - DNA - ds, deoxyribose sugar, thymine - RNA - ss, ribose sugar, uracil, no thymine

Endospores: A. are a form of sexual reproduction. B. are involved in anaerobic respiration. C. are a dominant form of a bacterium. D. are formed by members of medically relevant groups of fungi. E.are a dormant form of a bacterium formed by members of medically relevant groups of bacteria.

E - Genus Bacillus and Clostridium - dormant form and Clostridium is responsible for many medical issues like botulism, gangrene, tetnus. Also, not fungi - are BACTERIA.

The specific sequence of nucleotides in the DNA to which the RNA polymerase binds is the: A.sigma region. B.signal sequence. C.core region. D.regulatory region. E.promoter region.

E - RNA polymerase binds to the promoter on DNA for transcription. It is upstream of the operator that a repressor can bind to/release to regulate transcription.

Planar molecules used as chemical mutagens are called: A. nitrous oxides. B. alkylating agents. C. base analogs. D. intercalating agents.

E - example is ethidium bromide that is used in gel electrophoresis - It is used because upon binding of the molecule to the DNA and illumination with a UV light source, the DNA banding pattern can be visualized. - alkylating agents are the most common chemical mutagens.

Coliforms: A. are an informal grouping of enterics. B. ferment lactose. C. includes E. coli. D. are used as indicators of fecal contamination. E. All of the choices are correct.

E - the enterics are FERMENTORS.

Immunotherapy is the: A. Use of antitoxins B. Use of immune serum globulin C. Conferring of passive immunity D. Administering of preformed antibodies E. All of the choices are correct

E Got this right

Titer is the amount of: A. Complement in serum B. Memory cells in serum C. WBC in serum D. Antigen in serum E. Antibody in serum

E Got this right

Movement of spirochetes occurs by means of structures called: A. cilia. B. flagella. C. pili. D. pseudopods. E. axial filaments.

E - also called endoflagella - Any of a series of flagella, wound around spirochetes, that form an axial filament.

In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

E) 5

Regarding Louis Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The possibility of contamination was removed. B) All preexisting microorganisms were killed. C) A food source was provided. D) Air exchange was involved. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the others? A) Nucleic acid hybridization B) Nucleic acid-base composition C) Amino acid sequencing D) Biochemical tests E) Cladogram

E) Cladogram

Data collected to date indicate that A) Humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens. B) Marine mammals do not get infectious diseases. C) New species of bacteria may be discovered in wild animals. D) Marine mammals don't have an immune system. E) None of the above.

E) None of the above.

In anaerobic respiration, all of the following molecules can be used as final electron acceptors except A) SO4- B) NO3- C) H2O D) NO2- E) O2

E) O2

The term phototroph refers to an organism that A) Obtains energy by oxidizing chemical compounds B) Uses CO2 for its carbon C) Does not need a carbon source D) Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs E) Obtains energy from sunlight

E) Obtains energy from sunlight

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization? A) DNA chip B) FISH C) PCR D) Southern blotting E) Western blotting

E) Western blotting

Antibiotics are produced by: A) bacteria. B) protozoa. C) fungi. D) viruses. E) bacteria and fungi.

E) bacteria and fungi.

27) One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about A) enzymatic activities. B) protein composition. C) the presence of specific genes. D) antigenic composition. E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.

E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.

The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen A) Does not require sunlight B) Does not require CO2 as a reactant C) Occurs in algae and plants D) Occurs in cyanobacteria E)Occurs in certain bacteria

E)Occurs in certain bacteria

Helper T cells: A. Secrete antibodies B. Directly destroy target cells C. Function in allergic reactions D. Suppress immune reactions E. Activate B cells, macrophages, and assist other T cells

E. Activate B cells, macrophages, and assist other T cells Got this right

Fatty acid analysis A. can be used to identify Gram-negative bacteria. B. can be used to identify Gram-positive bacteria. C. uses gas chromatography to analyze fatty acid methyl esters. D. requires that cells be grown under standardized conditions. E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Antigen presenting cells: A. Include dendritic cells B. Include macrophages C. Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic D. Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Members of the Archaea typically thrive in conditions of excessive A. heat. B. acidity. C. alkalinity. D. salinity. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which technique(s) is/are used to help identify and classify bacteria? A. microscopic examination B. culture characteristics C. biochemical tests D. nucleic acid analysis E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Autoimmunity is typically due to: A. A deficiency in T-cell development B. Transfusion reaction C. IgE and mast cells D. Graft rejection E. Autoantibodies and T cells

E. Autoantibodies and T cells Got this right.

Nystatin is the recommended drug for: A. viral infections of the skin. B. cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) fungal infection. C. infections of the intestine due to Gram-negative bacteria. D. malaria and tuberculosis. E. Candida albicans infections of the oral cavity.

E. Candida albicans infections of the oral cavity. Got this right

Wisconsin state health authorities alerted the CDC about an E. coli O157:H7 outbreak. Soon thereafter, officials from two other states reported that they also had cases of illness associated with this pathogen. Within days, the CDC determined that the E. coli strains from all three states were the same, and the likely source of the outbreak was a particular brand of pre-packaged fresh spinach. The CDC then issued a press release advising people not to eat bagged fresh spinach. Which of the following is NOT a method used to differentiate E. coli O157:H7 from other strains based directly on genotype? A. Radioisotope-labeled probes or fluorescent dye-labeled probes B. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) C. 16S rRNA gene sequencing D. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) E. Matrix assisted laser desorption ionization time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS)

E. Matrix assisted laser desorption ionization time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS)

Which organism(s) is/are acid-fast? A. Nocardia B. Pseudomonas C. E. coli D. Mycobacterium E. Nocardia AND Mycobacterium

E. Nocardia AND Mycobacterium

Organisms that grow very slowly, cannot be cultured, are present in very small numbers, or are mixed with a number of other bacteria may still be identified using: A. replica plating. B. the Ames test. C. positive selection. D. Southern blotting. E. PCR. F. Escherichia coli.

E. PCR.

Approximately 99% of the microbes in the intestines are obligate anaerobes. We have plenty of blood vessels that can bring oxygen to the tissues of the intestines. Why would there be obligate anaerobes within these areas? A. The aerobic microbes are outcompeted for nutrients in these areas by the anaerobic microbes. B. The inside space of the intestines is highly anaerobic. It is deep inside the body where carbon dioxide accumulates. C. The bacteria consume all the oxygen in the tissue areas brought by the blood vessels, creating an anaerobic environment. D. The bacteria in the intestines are protected from exposure to the oxygen in the tissues by the lining of the intestines. E. The inside space of the intestines is highly anaerobic. It is deep inside the body where oxygen cannot reach and it is not supplied with blood.

E. The inside space of the intestines, [where bacteria reside], is highly anaerobic. It is deep inside the body where oxygen cannot reach AND, [unlike the surrounding tissues], it is not supplied with blood.

In a MALDI-TOF assay, A. part of a colony is transferred to a microscope slide, and a drop of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is added to it to test for catalase. B. the nucleotide sequence of ribosomal RNA molecules (rRNAs), or the DNA that encodes them (rDNAs), is used to identify microbes. C. specimens are inoculated onto differential media and a set of biochemical tests are used to identify a microorganism. D. antibodies are used to detect specific proteins and polysaccharides, particularly those that make up surface structures. E. a microorganism's proteins are separated and sorted by mass to generate a profile that provides a fast way to identify a colony.

E. a microorganism's proteins are separated and sorted by mass to generate a profile that provides a fast way to identify a colony.

A selective growth medium: A. accentuates differences between the growing bacteria. B. allows no bacteria to grow. C. allows all bacteria to grow. D. is cultured anaerobically. E. allows only certain bacteria to grow.

E. allows only certain bacteria to grow.

Wolbachia are found only in: A. plants. B. marine water. C. hot springs. D. mammals. E. arthropods.

E. arthropods - like insects, spiders and mites

Steak tartare (minced raw beef): Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio parahaemolyticus E. coli 0157:H7 Listeria monocytogenes Campylobacter

E. coli 0157:H7

Sequencing of rRNA is useful for A. determining evolutionary relationships. B. determining protein sequences. C. identification of unknown bacteria. D. serological relationships. E. determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

E. determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

Phycobiliproteins are A. found in purple sulfur bacteria. B. found in cyanobacteria. C. used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll. D. are used to reduce hydrogen sulfide. E. found in cyanobacteria AND used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll.

E. found in cyanobacteria AND used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll.

You examine a patient who is complaining of belching (burping), bloating, and some vomiting. She also has some abdominal discomfort which she describes as a dull, burning pain that is worse when she is hungry and is often relieved when she takes antacids. You suspect that she may have Helicobacter pylori gastritis, and send her for a urea breath test. The breath test is positive; based on this, you get the patient's stool tested for blood, and you send her for an endoscopy, during which a biopsy is taken. Your diagnosis is confirmed by the results of these tests and that she does indeed have H. pylori. Your patient asks you to explain how the urea breath test works. You tell her that in the test, she had been asked to swallow urea containing an unusual form of carbon—non-radioactive 13C (an isotope). After 10-30 minutes, she was asked to breathe into a receptacle, and her breath had been analyzed for the presence of this form of carbon in the carbon dioxide that she exhaled. You explain that the CO2 she exhaled contained 13C, so: A. her test indicates that her stomach cells used the 13C-containing urea in cellular respiration, producing glucose and releasing CO2 containing 13C as a byproduct. B. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism contains 13C in its cell wall, and in the presence of stomach acid, the cell wall is broken down to release CO2 containing 13C which could be measured. C. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism produces ammoniase that breaks down the 13C-containing urea that the patient swallowed into urea and CO2 containing 13C which could be measured. D. nobody really understands how the urea breath test works, but that it is well known that anybody who drinks urea containing 13C and exhales CO2 containing this element afterwards needs treatment for an ulcer. E. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism produces urease that breaks down the 13C-containing urea that the patient swallowed into ammonia and CO2 containing 13C which could be measured.

E. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism produces urease that breaks down the 13C-containing urea that the patient swallowed into ammonia and CO2 containing 13C which could be measured.

Phenotypically identical bacteria A. look the same. B. are genetically exactly the same. C. may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis. D. may not be told apart by any means. E. look the same AND may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis.

E. look the same AND may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis.

Various strains of E. coli: A. may be harmless. B. are all exactly the same. C. are all very different from one another. D. may cause disease. E. may cause disease AND may be harmless.

E. may cause disease AND may be harmless.

Woese

E. was involved in determining rRNA sequences AND proposed breaking prokaryotes into two groups.

Why were the slime molds and water molds once considered to be fungi? - They have the same material in their cell walls (chitin) that fungi possess. - Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than genetic similarities/differences. - Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than biochemical characteristics. - Water molds and slime molds are STILL considered to be fungi. - Water molds and slime molds always occur in the same habitats as fungi.

Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than genetic similarities/differences.

Which of the following structures would be the best choice as a biological indicator to test autoclave operations? - Cysts formed by Azotobacter species. - Dormant spores in the conidia of Streptomyces species. - Microcysts within the fruiting bodies of myxobacteria. - Sulfur granules produced by Thiothrix species. - Endospores formed by Geobacillus stearothermophilus.

Endospores formed by Geobacillus stearothermophilus.

DNA Helicase

Enzyme that breaks down hydrogen bonds between complementary bases. Replication proceeds in both directions.

What are enzymes? How do they speed up a chemical reaction? How can this initial resistance be overcome in a lab experiment?

Enzymes are organic catalysts that speed up a chemical reaction by lowering the energy of activation. In a lab experiment, this initial resistance can be overcome by application of heat or increasing the concentration of the reactant.

Base-Excision Repair

Enzymes recognize the altered base and remove and correct only that base.

If you read that coliforms had been found in a lake, the repot could have been referring to which of the following genera?

Escherichia

Which of the following are mismatched? A. propionic acid-Swiss cheese B. brewer's yeast-S. carlbergensis C. glycocalyx-milk ropiness D. botulinum-neurotoxin E. starter culture-Pseudomonas

Estarter culture-Pseudomonas Wound and spoilage bacteria that turns things green as a starter culture? Just no. The point of the starter culture is to get the ball rolling for fermentation. B - that's the yeast Saccharomyces and this one is used in the production of Lager bear. (I don't drink alcohol, do I have to know this?!)

Why would it be more difficult to treat diseases in humans caused by members of the Eukarya than diseases caused by the Bacteria?- - Eukaryotic microbes (unlike prokaryotes) often secrete compounds that breakdown and eliminate drugs used against them. This makes them much harder to effectively eliminate than bacteria. - Multicellular organisms always have their own immune systems for protection, so any treatment we develop needs to overcome this built-in protection mechanism. - Since bacteria are so much simpler (being single-celled) than multi-cellular eukaryotic microbes, they are naturally easier to kill off. - Eukaryotic pathogens multiply much more effectively in a human host than bacterial pathogens do; they attain extremely high numbers in the host, making it very difficult to get rid of them. - Eukaryotic microbes use many of the same enzymes and systems as humans, so we lose the ability to target certain molecules that might be present ONLY in the cell type we want to eliminate.

Eukaryotic microbes use many of the same enzymes and systems as humans, so we lose the ability to target certain molecules that might be present ONLY in the cell type we want to eliminate.

Metabolic capabilities . A set of biochemical tests can be used to ID an organism. - a lot of these rely on pH indicators

Ex) catalase test Ex) sugar fermentation Ex) urease production

Define exoenzyme endoenzyme, constitutive enzyme and regulated enzymes.

Exoenzyme: Extracellular enzymes Endoenzymes: Intracellular enzymes Constitutive enzymes: Are always present and in a constant amount Regulated enzymes: Production is turned on or off in response to the substrate concentration.

T/F - Anoxygenic phototrophs grow photosynthetically only under aerobic conditions.

FALSE

Egg white is rich in the antimicrobial lysosome. True False

FALSE!!!!!!

Algae have a vascular system very similar to that found in plants, true or false?

False

Double-stranded DNA enters the recipient cell during transformation. True False

False

Eukaryotic mRNA usually specifies multiple proteins

False

Foodborne intoxication requires the ingestion of living organisms. True False

False

Oligotrophic waters are usually hypoxic. True False

False

Organisms termed his- are considered prototrophic for histidine. True False

False

Protozoans are eukaryotes and as such will always possess a nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts, true or false?

False

T-F: ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and 3 phosphate groups.

False

T-F: ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction.

False

T-F: Only yeast produces alcohol as a fermentation product.

False

T/F - Fungi are often capable of locomotion through the use of flagella.

False

T/F - If each of two bacteria have a GC content of 50%, they are both definitely closely related.

False

T/F - Slime molds and water molds are types of fungi.

False

T/F - Streptococcus pyogenes can be easily distinguished microscopically from other Streptococcus species.

False

T/F: Strains of an organism can always reliably be identified using RFLPs (restriction fragment length polymorphisms).

False

The Ames test determines antibiotic sensitivity of a bacterium. True False

False

The human body only contains bacteria during illness. True False

False

The purpose of RNA synthesis is to provide a new copy of DNA as the original deteriorates over time.

False

The water activity in foods with high levels of salt or sugar is high. True False

False

The most difficult aspect of the new field of metagenomics is generating sequence data reliably and cost-effectively.

False -that' the easy part!

T/F - Obligate aerobes may transform energy via fermentation.

False - THEY NEED O2, it's the terminal e- acceptor

T/F - Algae may directly infect humans and cause disease.

False - indirectly - toxins

Translation of eukaryotic mRNA can occur in the nucleus after exons are spliced together

False - must leave, translation in cytoplasm

T/F - Lactic acid bacteria such as Streptococcus are obligate fermenters that can exist in an aerobic environment due to their use of catalase to mitigate the presence of oxygen.

False - obligate fermenters = aerotolerant anaerobes that don't notice of oxygen is even present. Don't make catalase. - catalase breaks down the ROS hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen

Translation occurs on ribosomes only in prokaryotes

False, eukaryotes too.

The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC. True False

False, it's 55-66

T/F - Serratia marcescens are red when incubated at 37°C.

False. - red at 22°C.

T/F Numerical taxonomy uses a battery of genotypic characteristics to classify bacteria.

False. It uses comparison of a lot of phenotypic traits.

If the name given ends in -aceae, it's a ________________ name but if it ends in -ales it is a(n) _________________ name.

Family, Order

Device used for growing mass fermenting cultures.

Fermenter

What is meant by 'final electron acceptor'? What are the final electron acceptors in fermentation and aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

Final electron acceptor is the molecule which accepts the electrons (hydrogen) at the end of the respiration process. In aerobic respiration, it is free oxygen; in anaerobic it is nitrate or nitrite and in fermentation the final electron acceptors are pyruvate or acetaldehyde.

What is the likely fate of a fish living in a eutrophic stream? Eutrophic streams have low levels of nutrients in them. Only fish that feed off other fish will be able to survive in these streams. Eutrophic streams are always anoxic. This means that only anaerobic fish will be able to survive in a eutrophic environment. Eutrophic streams have high levels of carbon dioxide. Fish will be able to use this for aerobic respiration, so will thrive in this environment. Fish will first thrive as they have more oxygen from the increase in photosynthetic organisms; eutrophic streams are low in nutrients however, so they will quickly die. Fish will first thrive as they have more food from the increase in photosynthetic organisms; as they deplete the dissolved oxygen, however, they will die.

Fish will first thrive as they have more food from the increase in photosynthetic organisms; as they deplete the dissolved oxygen, however, they will die.

Which are not arthropods? - Mosquitoes - Flukes - Lice - Fleas - Ticks

Flukes - flukes (trematodes) are helminths (parasitic worms) - arthropods are insects and arachnids

The genomes of free-living spirochetes are larger than those living in animal hosts. Why might this be so? A.Parasitic spirochetes are smaller than free-living spirochetes. Because of this, their genomes are also smaller; they need less genes. B. It isn't so—all spirochetes would have the same size genomes, since they're all the same species of microbe. C. A smaller genome implies simplicity—the spirochetes living in animal hosts have fewer needs, so they need fewer genes. D. The spirochetes in animal hosts are different species entirely. As different species, they would naturally have smaller genomes. E. Free-living spirochetes will need genes for additional proteins to synthesize or obtain their own food from the environment. Parasitic spirochetes obtain nutrients from the animal host.

Free-living spirochetes will need genes for additional proteins to synthesize or obtain their own food from the environment. Parasitic spirochetes obtain nutrients from the animal host.

This group includes unicellular as well as filamentous forms, a number of which cause infections. Members of this group produce a variety of different reproductive spores and filaments referred to as hyphae.

Fungi

Operons

Genes that coordinate the regulation of gene expression. Promoter, operator, structural genes, regulatory genes.

Which of the following are diseases caused by protozoa? 1. Schistosomiasis, amebiasis, AND primary amebic meningoencephalitis. 2. Dengue fever, malaria, AND plague. 3. Amebiasis, malaria, AND plague. 4. Giardiasis, malaria, AND toxoplasmosis. 5. Giardiasis, malaria, AND trichinellosis.

Giardiasis, malaria, AND toxoplasmosis.

Paralytic shellfish poisoning occurs when humans eat shellfish that have fed on: - Vibrio cholerae. - Salmonella species. - Volvox species. - E. coli. - Gonyaulax species.

Gonyaulax species.

Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide that could disrupt the temperature balance of the earth.

Greenhouse gas

What is the purpose of grinding yard waste before putting it into composting piles? Grinding the material increases the surface area available for microbial action, so that the material can be degraded more efficiently. Bacteria are microscopic organisms and can only break down very small pieces of matter, which grinding produces. Grinding the material breaks down some of the components that microbes cannot digest, such as cellulose. Grinding yard waste is a method for introducing degradative microbes into the mix, needed for composting. Grinding the matter introduces large amounts of oxygen into the material, which is essential for microbial degradation of matter.

Grinding the material increases the surface area available for microbial action, so that the material can be degraded more efficiently.

Members of this group come in flat or round forms, and although many parasitize animals, there are also free-living forms. Parasitic members of this group often have complex life cycles involving one or more intermediate hosts in which larvae develop.

Helminths

Select the pair that is INCORRECTLY matched. Primary treatment—removal of material that settles Potable water—lacks pathogenic microbes and harmful chemicals High BOD—low organic content Total coliforms—lactose-fermenting members of the family Enterobacteriaceae High BOD—high organic content

High BOD—low organic content

Transduction

Horizontal gene transfer. Bacterial DNA transferred by bacteriophage.

Conjugation

Horizontal gene transfer. Genes passed by direct cell-cell contact mediated by pilus. Donor cells remain alive.

Transformation

Horizontal gene transfer. Recipient cells take up DNA from environment.

Slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues found in the soil

Humus

Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a(n): A. hemolysin. B. toxemia. C. antitoxin. D. index case. E. pandemic.

I picked B. toxemia and got it right. Shouldn't it be intoxication?

If you were the lab technician trying to identify the causative organism of this foodborne outbreak, would you inoculate several biochemical tests at the same time, or would you inoculate each test after getting the results from the previous test?

I would inoculate several tests simultaneously, because most biochemical tests require at least 18 hours of incubation, so inoculating several tests simultaneously saves time and also aids in conclusive identification.

Taxonomy involves 3 separate but interrelated areas:

Identification (what), Classification (where), Nomenclature (who)

After mRNA is made, what generally occurs?

it is translated to protein

nucleic acid probe Ch9

In DNA technology, a labeled single-stranded nucleic acid molecule used to locate a specific nucleotide sequence in a nucleic acid sample. Molecules of the probe hydrogen-bond to the complementary sequence wherever it occurs; radioactive, fluorescent, or other labeling of the probe allows its location to be detected.

E Site

In ribosome. The exit site, where discharged tRNAs leave the ribosome.

A Site

In ribosomes. Acceptor. Holds the tRNA that carries the next amino acid to be added to the chain.

P Site

In ribosomes. Peptide. Holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.

How does Ascaris lumbricoides, an intestinal parasite, cause choking and pulmonary symptoms in some people? - Ingested Ascaris larvae penetrate intestinal capillaries, from where they are carried to the lungs, causing coughing and shortness of breath. - Ascaris is a pulmonary parasite; it only enters the intestine of people with other lung conditions, including asthma. - Ascaris larvae are highly allergenic; when they are ingested, they cause an allergic reaction which includes coughing. - People inadvertently inhale Ascaris worms when they bring contaminated food close to their mouths; these cause pulmonary blockages. - Ascaris, being anaerobic, form large cysts in pulmonary tissue; these accumulate in the lungs, causing coughing.

Ingested Ascaris larvae penetrate intestinal capillaries, from where they are carried to the lungs, causing coughing and shortness of breath.

Negative Control

Inhibition of transcription of the DNA to mRNA by the action of specific repressor proteins. Repressor binds to the operator region of the operon.

Culture characteristics give clues to the identity of an unknown organism. - size of the colony (Streptococci make small colonies) - colony color - the color the growth medium turns/smells - Differential media can aid in identification

Initial clues from colony morphology but other tests are needed for more reliable identification.

Which of the following would be least likely to produce an acquired immune deficiency? A. Radiation treatment B. Malnutrition C. Pregnancy D. Stress E. Bacterial infection

It isn't Stress - got it wrong Maybe it's E... It is E. Bacterial infection

Which is not true about mismatch repair? It utilizes an endonuclease. It requires DNA polymerase and DNA ligase. It utilizes the state of methylation of the DNA to differentiate between strands. It removes both strands in the mismatch area.

It removes both strands in the mismatch area.

________ is the physician first associated with vaccination. A) Koch B) Escherich C) Pasteur D) Jenner E) Lister

Jenner - better/safer methods of variolation with cowpox to grant immunity to smallpox. - Pasteur coined 'vaccination' - vacca = cow

Which of the higher taxanomic rankings is within Domain Bacteria is still in flux?

Kingdom

Which of the following microbes is (are) important to cheese-making?

LACTIC ACID BACTERIA & PROPINONIBACTERIUM

Which of the following colonize the vagina during childbearing years? - Enterobacter - Lactobacilli - Clostridium - Clostridium AND lactobacilli - Streptococci

Lactobacilli

Induction

Negative control. An inducer deactivates the repressor. Usually catabolic pathways that are regulated this way. Lac operon.

Which organisms are used to make salt pickles? A. Lactobacillus species and Leuconostoc mesenteroides B. Propionibacterium and Spirulina C. Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Spirulina D. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus E. Pediococcus cerevisiae and Lactobacillus plantarum

Lactobacillus species and Leuconostoc mesenteroides

Translation Initiation

Large and small ribosomal subunits spontaneously assemble. mRNA binding site for ribosome aligns with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence on mRNA. fMet is first for prokaryotes, Met for eukaryotes.

DNA Ligase

Links together adjacent Okazaki fragments.

Artisanal cheese prepared with raw milk: Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio parahaemolyticus E. coli 0157:H7 Listeria monocytogenes Campylobacter

Listeria monocytogenes

The water activity in foods that have high levels of salt or sugar is low. osmotic. high. dense. All of the answer choices are correct.

Low

Thermoplasma and Picrophilus grow best in which of the following extreme conditions?

Low pH and high temperature

Effective treatment of wastewater/sewage is reflected in a(n) higher BOD. increase in sulfur. unchanging BOD. decrease in biomass. lower BOD.

Lower BOD

Abundant egg white component that degrades peptidoglycan

Lysozyme

How would increased travel lead to increased spread of multicellular eukaryotic parasites? - Many eukaryotic parasites depend on vectors (often small blood-sucking insects) for transmission, so moving an infected individual into an area with new vectors and new susceptible humans would increase spread. - It really would NOT; most individuals are screened for parasitic infections prior to traveling out of highly infected areas. We also have quarantine abilities at customs stations for individuals entering the United States. - Eukaryotic parasites are too small to travel great distances effectively; by hitching a ride on luggage, clothing, fruit/vegetables, and other food products, they can enter new geographic areas. - Traveling generally weakens a person's immune system, making them vulnerable to parasitic eukaryotes in any new place that they visit. - Many eukaryotic parasites are transmitted directly from person to person via airborne transmission, so getting an infected individual onto a plane of susceptible individuals would increase spread.

Many eukaryotic parasites depend on vectors (often small blood-sucking insects) for transmission, so moving an infected individual into an area with new vectors and new susceptible humans would increase spread.

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except: A. Scarlet fever B. Rheumatic fever C. Otitis media D. Glomerulonephritis E. Pneumococcal pneumonia

Pneumococcal pneumonia The others are due to Streptococcus pyogenes but Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae - a gram-positive diplococcus known as pneumococcus.

Why might a large number of competing microorganisms in a food sample result in lack of sensitivity of culture methods for detecting pathogens? The sheer number of microbes present might shut down the growth/replication of a pathogenic microbe in a food sample due to a "starving out" effect. If it can't grow/replicate, it won't be detectable by a culturing method test. Many microbes secrete compounds that can be toxic for their competitors. If you need a pathogenic microbe to grow in a culture in order to detect it, these toxic compounds might inhibit the growth of the pathogen and impede the test AND culture methods often rely on biochemical changes taking place in medium for identification. With multiple microbes present, you may not be sure that the biochemical change observed is from the presence of a pathogen or from some other non-dangerous bacterium that also induces the biochemical change. Many microbes secrete compounds that can be toxic for their competitors. If you need a pathogenic microbe to grow in a culture in order to detect it, these toxic compounds might inhibit the growth of the pathogen and impede the test. Culture methods often rely on biochemical changes taking place in medium for identification. With multiple microbes present, you may not be sure that the biochemical change observed is from the presence of a pathogen or from some other non-dangerous bacterium that also induces the biochemical change. You can't obtain a pure culture from a food sample that has a large number of microbes present. It would be impossible to detect only one from within the sample.

Many microbes secrete compounds that can be toxic for their competitors. If you need a pathogenic microbe to grow in a culture in order to detect it, these toxic compounds might inhibit the growth of the pathogen and impede the test AND culture methods often rely on biochemical changes taking place in medium for identification. With multiple microbes present, you may not be sure that the biochemical change observed is from the presence of a pathogen or from some other non-dangerous bacterium that also induces the biochemical change.

Regulatory Genes

May encode for a repressor. Has its own promoter region.

Which of the following cannot be used in composting? Nutrient-poor potting soil Leaves Meats and fats Vegetable peelings Grass clippings

Meats and fats

What are indicator organisms? Microbes that alert a physician to the presence of a gastrointestinal illness. Microbes that are contaminants in laboratory media. Microbes whose presence in an environment suggests the presence of animal urine. Microbes whose presence in an environment suggests fecal contamination. All of the choices are correct.

Microbes whose presence in an environment suggests fecal contamination.

rRNA

Most of the RNA content in the cell. Can be catalytic. Makes up the ribosome.

Frameshift Mutation

Mutation that involves the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in the DNA sequence.

Please select the definition that is INCORRECT. - Mycobacteria—Gram-negative bacteria that group together to form complex fruiting bodies. - Chemolithotrophs—organisms that harvest energy by oxidizing inorganic chemicals. - Anoxygenic phototrophs—photosynthetic organisms that do not produce O2. - Chemotrophs—organisms that obtain energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. - Nitrifiers—Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic nitrogen compounds.

Mycobacteria—Gram-negative bacteria that group together to form complex fruiting bodies.

The Gram-positive rod that is also acid-fast and is a human pathogen is

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

What is the sequence of electron carriers in a respiratory chain?

NADH dehydrogenase, FMN, Co Q, Cytochrome b, Cytochrome c1, Cytochrome c, Cytochrome a and a3.

What is the advantage of removing phosphates and nitrates from wastewater? Nitrates and phosphates can support the growth of algae and cyanobacteria, and these photosynthetic organisms will then produce organic compounds, thereby increasing the BOD of the water. Phosphates are an integral part of prokaryote cytoplasmic membranes. If there are too many phosphates in the water, microbial growth is stimulated, leading to the risk of contamination. Nitrates are usually removed by denitrifying bacteria that use nitrate during anaerobic respiration to form N2, a gas that is toxic and detrimental to other organisms. Removing nitrates protects these organsisms. Nitrates and phosphates can support the growth of fish, which then produce increased amount of wastes, thereby increasing the BOD of the water. Nitrates and phosphates inhibit the growth of bacteria that normally purify the water; without them, the BOD of the water rapidly increases.

Nitrates and phosphates can support the growth of algae and cyanobacteria, and these photosynthetic organisms will then produce organic compounds, thereby increasing the BOD of the water.

What is the advantage of removing phosphates and nitrates from wastewater? Nitrates are usually removed by denitrifying bacteria that use nitrate during anaerobic respiration to form N2, a gas that is toxic and detrimental to other organisms. Removing nitrates protects these organsisms. Phosphates are an integral part of prokaryote cytoplasmic membranes. If there are too many phosphates in the water, microbial growth is stimulated, leading to the risk of contamination. Nitrates and phosphates can support the growth of fish, which then produce increased amount of wastes, thereby increasing the BOD of the water. Nitrates and phosphates can support the growth of algae and cyanobacteria, and these photosynthetic organisms will then produce organic compounds, thereby increasing the BOD of the water. Nitrates and phosphates inhibit the growth of bacteria that normally purify the water; without them, the BOD of the water rapidly increases.

Nitrates and phosphates can support the growth of algae and cyanobacteria, and these photosynthetic organisms will then produce organic compounds, thereby increasing the BOD of the water.

The conversion of ammonia (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) occurs during A. Ammonification B. Photosynthesis C. Nitrogen fixation D. Nitrification E. Denitrification

Nitrification

The conversion of ammonium to nitrate could be accomplished by the presence of: - Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, and Anabaena. - Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter. - Anabaena alone. - Nitrosomonas alone. - Nitrobacter alone.

Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between natural selection and mutation? A) Natural selection creates mutations. B) Mutations assist natural selection. C) Mutations produce natural selection. D) Natural selection does not rely on mutations. E) None of the above are true.

No answer - I think it's B.

Which of the following best explains why Bruce Ames added a rat liver step to his mutagen testing? A) It better modeled how carcinogens act in the body. B) The rat liver extracts increased the mutation rate in the bacteria. C) Rat liver cells detected the mutagens. D) The rat liver produces histidine. E) None of the above are correct.

No answer but I think it's A. - add rat liver to the Ames test so see if a suspected mutagen becomes a problem when in the presence of bodily enzymes.

Viruses are in the group Viridaeae. Eukarya. Archaea. Bacteria. None of the choices is correct.

None of the choices are correct

Are all fungi detrimental (bad) for other organisms?

No—it depends on the fungus and the relationship it has with the other organism. Some fungi can form a symbiotic relationship with plant roots that increases their nutrient and water absorption. This is good.

- is used for Candida albicans infection of the vaginal tract - retards fungal overgrowth of the human intestine - retards fungal growth by ergosterol binding - acts by changing the permeability of the fungal cell membrane

Nystatin p.525 - is an anitfungal medication - a polyene - it attacks ergosterol in fungal cell membrane - disrupts cell, insides leak out, cell dies - systemically toxic so used topically/oral rinse - Candida (yeast) infections of vagina and oral thrush Amphotericin B - another polyene, antifungal - last resort -> life threatening infections as side effects are very severe.

On one of the strands of bacterial DNA, the new complementary strand is synthesized discontinuously into small pieces of DNA called _______

Okazaki fragments

Semi Conservative

One original strand and one new strand make up a new DNA.

You are sent three clinical samples and are asked to determine whether they are the same strain. You perform standard identification techniques but cannot come to a conclusion. You decide to do an RFLP test. You digest the genomes of the organisms with the same restriction enzyme and run a gel. Each organism yields 5 bands on the gel, of the following sizes: Organism A: 3 kb, 7 kb, 11 kb; 14 kb, 21 kb; Organism B: 3 kb, 7 kb, 2 kb, 8 kb, 11 kb; Organism C: 11 kb, 3 kb, 14 kb, 7 kb; 21 kb What conclusion(s) can you make from this result?

Organisms A and C are likely the same strain but are different from organism B.

If the GC content to two organisms is 60%, the

Organisms are most likely related

The initial transfer RNA occupies the _______ site on the ribosome

P site

- is a molecule that contains a beta-lactam nucleus - prevents the cross linking of carbs in peptidoglycan in cell walls - can cause an anaphylactic reaction in sensitive individuals - includes semisynthetic derivatives such as amoxicillin and ampicillin

Penicillin

Fungus imparting texture, flavor and bluish green veins in cheese

Penicillin roquefortii

Light Repair

Photolyase activated by visible light. Breaks pyrimidine-pyrimidine bonds.

This term means 'evolutionary relatedness'.

Phylogeny. -studying this yields the 3-domain system based on Carl Woese and replaces Whitaker's 5-kingdom approach.

You and your exercise buddy decide to go to Yosemite National Park to hike the famous El Capitan trail. You book your trip through a well known agency but before you leave for your vacation, you learn that there have been two cases of plague reported in people who recently visited a different area of the park. Your friend is anxious and tells you he thinks that plague is really dangerous and kills people everyone who gets it. He points out that this disease killed a lot of people during the Middle Ages, and says he doesn't want to do the trip after all. You decide to do some research on the plague and its causative agent before making a decision about your trip. Please select the FALSE statement regarding plague and its transmission. - People can contract plague when they are bitten by fleas from rodents infected with the causative organism. - Y. pestis is typically transmitted by the bites of infected fleas, an example of biological transmission. Plague is caused by a Gram-negative organism and is thus completely untreatable with antibiotics. - Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative organism and thus possess an outer lipopolysaccharide layer. - The incidence of vector-borne diseases such as plague can be decreased by controlling the vector or the infected hosts.

Plague is caused by a Gram-negative organism and is thus completely untreatable with antibiotics. - you can use antibiotics on G-. - The three main antimicrobial agents recommended to treat plague are streptomycin, tetracycline, and chloramphenicol (1). Streptomycin remains the drug of choice. See? - is a Gram-negative, nonmotile, rod-shaped, coccobacillus bacteria, with no spores. It is a facultative anaerobic organism that can infect humans via the Oriental rat flea. It causes the disease plague, which takes three main forms: pneumonic, septicemic and bubonic plagues.

Replicate independently of the chromosome in prokaryotes. Carries gene not essential for survival: fertility, resistance, toxins, or pathogenic.

Plasmids

An early attempt by Cohn at bacterial classification grouped bacteria according to their A. biochemistry. B. Gram stain. C. shape. D. arrangement.

Shape

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients: A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Malassezia furfur D. Pneumocystis jiroveci E. None of the choices is correct

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Substitution

Point mutation. A mutation in which a nucleotide or a codon in DNA is replaced with a different nucleotide.

Insertion

Point mutation. A mutation involving the addition of one or more nucleotide pairs to a gene.

Deletion

Point mutation. The loss of one or more nucleotides from a gene by mutation.

mRNA

Polycistronic in prokaryotes (encodes for more than one protein), monocistronic in eukaryotes. Type of RNA that carries instructions from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosome.

Which definition is INCORRECT? Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)—the amount of O2 required for the microbial decomposition of organic matter in a sample. Primary treatment—a wastewater treatment process that uses microbes to convert suspended solids to inorganic compounds and removable cell mass. Indicator organisms—microbes whose presence in an environment suggests fecal contamination. Constructed wetland—method of wastewater treatment in which water is channeled into ponds where aerobic and anaerobic degradation occurs. Anaerobic digestion—process that uses anaerobic microbes to degrade the sludge obtained during wastewater treatment.

Primary treatment—a wastewater treatment process that uses microbes to convert suspended solids to inorganic compounds and removable cell mass.

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. Gram negative B. Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity C. Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea D. Lives in the stomach E. Curved rods

Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea Helicobacter pylori is a short, curved, gram-negative, microaerophilic bacterium with multiple flagella that are unusual because they are covered by sheaths.

The processes of transcription and translation differ between prokaryotes and eukaryotes in the following way:

Prokaryotes transcribe and translate simultaneously - remember the polyribosome (polysome)!

Why did scientists originally believe that genetic material was protein rather than DNA?

Proteins are more complex in structure than DNA; they though DNA was too simple in structure to have such an important cellular role

Members of this group cause malaria and diarrheal illnesses such as amebiasis and giardiasis. Many members of this group are motile by means of cilia, flagella, or pseudopods

Protozoa

Which of the following is most likely to grow at refrigerator temperatures? Psychrophiles Mesophiles Acidophiles Hyperthermophiles Thermophiles

Psychrophiles

Which is the first step in wastewater purification? A. Storage B. Bioremediation or BOD removal C. Aeration and settling D. Chlorination E. Sedimentation

Sedimentation Primary treatment - physical removal of what settles out.

Which of the following happens when food is placed in the refrigerator? A. Refrigeration eliminates the most resistant bacterial spores, especially those of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium B. Refrigeration eliminates pathogenic bacteria from milk; the process also lowers the total number of bacteria and thereby reduces the change of spoilage C. Refrigeration results in low oxygen levels which prevent the growth of facultative aerobes, limiting them to fermentative ATP production D. Refrigeration destroys many enzymes in the food product and prevents any further cellular metabolism from taking place E. Refrigeration reduces the rate of enzyme activity in a microorganism and thus lowers the rate of growth and reproduction

Refrigeration reduces the rate of enzyme activity in a microorganism and thus lowers the rate of growth and reproduction

Positive Control

Regulator (activator) protein facilitates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. CAP-cAMP (low when glucose is present, accumulates when glucose is absent. Binds to CAP protein near promoter of lac operon).

Okazaki Fragments

Relatively short fragment of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication.

Which statement is FALSE? Trickling filter systems are used for secondary water treatment. Removal of nitrates by microorganisms requires aerobic conditions. Methane is a by-product of anaerobic digestion. Artificial wetlands provide a habitat for wildlife. Chlorine, ozone and UV light can be used to disinfect water.

Removal of nitrates by microorganisms requires aerobic conditions.

DNA Gyrase

Removes DNA supercoils as well as generates them when replication is finished.

Promotes protein coagulation in fermenting milk

Rennin

Plasmids

Replicate independently of the chromosome in prokaryotes. Carries gene not essential for survival: fertility, resistance, toxins, or pathogenic.

The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is: A. Herpes simplex virus B. Rhinovirus C. Retrovirus D. Coronavirus E. Adenovirus

Rhinovirus

The zone of soil around roots of plants is called the A. Rhizosphere B. Ionosphere C. Hydrosphere D. Lithosphere E. Biosphere

Rhizosphere lots of gram-negative bacteria found here.

How could heavily fertilized lawns contribute to cyanobacterial blooms in lakes and oceans? -Large amounts of fertilizer will lead to excessive production of greenhouse gases (like CO2) from grass in lawns. Excessive CO2 production will lead to large blooms of cyanobacteria in water systems. -They won't—the two systems are completely unrelated. How could grass in lawns contribute to effects in lakes and oceans? -Nutrient-rich grass will be mowed down, with grass clipping bits eventually washing into sewer systems and into larger bodies of water. These grass clippings will serve as a nutrient source for cyanobacteria, leading to blooms. -Run-off from the lawns will get into the water system, leading to large amounts of nitrogen that can be used by cyanobacteria in water systems. - Fertilizers contains compounds that encourage the production of bacteriochlorophylls; after rain, fertilizers get into water and are used by cyanobacteria.

Run-off from the lawns will get into the water system, leading to large amounts of nitrogen that can be used by cyanobacteria in water systems. Cyanobacteria are PROKARYOTES

The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is A. Spirulina B. Propionibacterium C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae D. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus E. Leuconostoc mesenteroides

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Which of the following is often associated with poultry products? Lactobacillus AND Salmonella Campylobacter AND Lactobacilllus Pseudomonas AND Campylobacter Salmonella AND Pseudomonas Salmonella AND Campylobacter

Salmonella AND Campylobacter

On which of the following foods can Staphylococcus aureus multiply with little competition? Bread and jam Jam Salty ham Milk Bread

Salty ham

Which of the following definitions is CORRECT? - Zooplankton—microscopic free-floating photosynthetic organisms. - Saprophytes—organisms that take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter. Proglottids—short, non-segmented, bilaterally symmetrical flatworms. Kinetoplastids—a group of protozoa that penetrate host cells by means of a structure called an apical complex. Mycelium—thread-like structure that characterizes the growth of most fungi and some bacterial species.

Saprophytes—organisms that take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter. - zoo = animal - flatworms (Platyhelminthes) - proglottids are the tapeworm segments with both male and female reproductive structures. - Apicomplexans have the apical complex. - the threadlike structures are filaments and a visible mass of them is the mycellium.

Why does secondary treatment of wastewater require O2? Secondary treatment relies on anaerobic microbes to oxidize organic material. Secondary treatment relies on aerobic microbes to oxidize organic material. Secondary treatment relies on anaerobic microbes to reduce organic material. Flocs require oxygen to facilitate biofilm formation. Photosynthetic bacteria are involved in secondary treatment and they require O2.

Secondary treatment relies on aerobic microbes to oxidize organic material.

Nucleotide Excision Repair

Short section removed and corrected on one strand.

- Tightly binds and solubilizes iron for uptake by bacteria. - Provides adhesion to select tissues. - Increases penetration through or between cells to underlying tissues. - Interferes with phagocytosis. - Confers motility to reach infective site.

Sidiophore Fimbriae Exoenzyme Slime Layer Flagella Got these right

Why are molecular methods particularly useful for identification of microbes when they are difficult to grow?

Since all microbes use DNA, and we can sometimes detect and identify them through even very small amounts of their DNA, molecular methods allow us to identify microbes even when they can't be grown at all. (I'm thinking PCR here.)

RNA Structure

Single stranded with nucleotide bases. Ribose sugar.

Please select the INCORRECT statement regarding helminths and the diseases they cause. - Sometime helminth eggs are ingested on the surface of contaminated foods. For example, pinworm eggs (Enterobius vermicularis) may be transmitted a food surface. - Some helminths are inadvertently ingested. For example, Onchocerca volvulus, the cause of River blindness, is transmitted by drinking contaminated water or eating fish carrying this parasite. - Some helminths are inadvertently eaten with food. For example, eating undercooked pork containing Trichinella spiralis larvae is the most common cause of trichinellosis. - Some helminths burrow into people. For example, immature forms of hookworm larvae live in the soil and can burrow through human skin. - Some helminths are transmitted through insect bites. For example, Wuchereria bancrofti, the cause of elephantiasis, is transmitted by mosquitoes.

Some helminths are inadvertently ingested. For example, Onchocerca volvulus, the cause of River blindness, is transmitted by drinking contaminated water or eating fish carrying this parasite. - it is transmitted by black flies

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include: A. Vesicular lesions in oral mucosa B. Fever and pocks on skin C. Sore throat with pus coating, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly D. Fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis E. None of the choices is correct

Sore throat with pus coating, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly

Promoter Region

Specific site for the start of replication. Prokaryotes only have one, eukaryotes have multiple.

Causes of Mutation

Spontaneous, Radiation, chemical mutagens.

Which of the following is a foodborne intoxication? A. Salmonellosis B. Staphyloccocal aureus C. Listerosis D. Vibrio enteritis E. Campylobacteriosis

Staphyloccocal aureus It and Clostridum - they make toxins we ingest = foodborne intoxication. A and E create foodborne infections when live cells are ingests, Vibrio you get from seafood.

Why is ham is a common vehicle for S. aureus food poisoning? A) S. aureus is part of the normal microbiota of cows, so is a frequent cause of S. aureus food poisoning. B) Staphylococci are adapted to salty conditions and thrive with little competition on cured meats such as ham. C) Staphylococci are able to act synergistically with the normal microbiota of pigs, creating toxins that result in food poisoning. D) Ham is a particularly moist meat, so encourages the growth of the staphylococci, which can only survive on foods with a high aw. E) Ham is an untreated raw meat. As such, it is prone to contamination by the staphylococci that thrive on meat, resulting in food poisoning.

Staphylococci are adapted to salty conditions and thrive with little competition on cured meats such as ham.

Boston cream pie contender at the Los Angeles County Fair pastry competition: Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio parahaemolyticus E. coli 0157:H7 Listeria monocytogenes Campylobacter

Staphylococcus aureus You cooked it (hot), let it cool and now Staphylococcus aureus is making toxins in there and you're going to eat it and end up with a foodborne intoxication.

- interferes with protein synthesis in bacteria **- is a molecule that blocks tRNA access to the ribosome** - is active against rickettsiae, chlamydiae, and gram-negative bacteria - is an antibacterial drug related to Streptomyces-produced drugs - overuse can lead to Candida albicans infection - **can cause a yellow-gray-brown discoloration of teeth** - **use is restricted in pregnant women and in young children**

Tetracycline p.508 - Inhibits Protein Synthesis - bacteriostatic - reversibly binds to the 30S subunit, blocking the attachment of tRNA and preventing the continuation of translation. - ""resistance likely due to active efflux"" (elimination) - cell is using efflux pumps to kick it out.

Which would be more likely to cause illness: a water sample that tested positive for coliforms or one that tested positive for E. coli O157:H7? The coliform-positive sample would be more likely to cause illness. Coliforms indicate the presence of fecal contamination, which always leads to illness. The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness. This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage. Both would be equally capable of causing illness because all coliforms cause illness. Neither; there is usually a small amount of coliforms (including E. coli O157:H7) in all water. The coliform-positive sample would be more likely to cause illness. Coliforms are inherently more pathogenic than the weak O157:H7 lab strain of E. coli.

The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness. This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage.

How did the antitoxin help the patient? The antitoxin stimulates phagocytes to neutralize botulinum toxin type A. The antitoxin binds to and destroys Clostridium botulinum cells, preventing them from releasing botulinum toxin. The antitoxin is a mixture of antibodies that bind to and thereby neutralize the different serotypes of botulinum toxin. The antitoxin contains antibodies to botulinum toxin type A, which is the type that causes illness. The antitoxin is a mixture of antigens that bind to and thereby neutralize the different serotypes of botulinum toxin.

The antitoxin is a mixture of antibodies that bind to and thereby neutralize the different serotypes of botulinum toxin.

A sample must contain many microorganisms in order for them to be seen any using microscopy techniques. Why is this so?

The area on a microscope slide is very large compared to the relative size of microbes, and you take a very small amount of your sample to place on the slide surface. Therefore, you must have a large number of microbes initially in the culture to increase the chances that you'll be able to see bacteria on the slide.

Why is botulism primarily a problem in canned foods rather than fresh ones? The causative agent is an obligate anaerobe—the canning process removes O2. The canning process dramatically reduces the pH of food, and C. botulinum is an acidophile. Fresh food contains normal microbiota that prevents the growth of pathogens such as C. botulinum. Canned food is never sterilized, so bacteria such as C. botulinum thrive in cans. All of the answer choices are correct.

The causative agent is an obligate anaerobe—the canning process removes O2.

Why might it be easier to determine the bacterium that caused pneumonia than one that caused a wound infection?

The lungs are generally free of bacteria, while the skin may have a number of different types of bacteria . on it. This could complicate identification processes for a wound infection, as bacteria normally found on the skin may be in the wound along with the particular bacterium causing the infection.

Sarcoptes scabiei

The mite that causes scabies in humans and mange in dogs.

What component of RNA is different from one person (or bacterium) to the next?

The order or nitrogenous bases

Why would soil and water be added to a compost pile? Without adding soil and water, no decomposition of the material can take place. The material would simply sit there. The organisms in the soil, along with the moisture from the water, would facilitate the natural decomposition of the material in the compost pile. Water is the medium that photosynthetic organisms use to break down the organic materials in the compost pile. Water provides the energy that soil organisms need to break down the material in the compost pile. Soil spreads out the material in the pile. If the material is too close together, natural aeration cannot occur and decomposition stops.

The organisms in the soil, along with the moisture from the water, would facilitate the natural decomposition of the material in the compost pile

When DNA probes are used to identify bacterial DNA similarities by hybridization, the probe DNA is heated and the template DNA is treated to separate the 2 strands. Why would the probe DNA be heated?

The probe DNA is single-stranded, but it may have folded back on itself and formed portions that are double-stranded. Heating it up breaks any possible hydrogen bonds that may have formed, returning it to a single-stranded state prior to hybridization.

Transcription

The process of synthesizing RNA from DNA. Three steps.

What distinguishes Staphylococcus, species from Streptococcus, Enterococcus and Lactococcus species? - Their morphology. - The production of catalase. - The nature of their cell walls. - Their ability to cause disease. - All of these.

The production of catalase.

You make two agar plates: one is a nutrient agar plate (plate A) that contains histidine and penicillin. The other is a glucose salts agar (plate B) that also contains penicillin. You inoculate a sample onto both plates using replica plating technique, incubate the plates, and compare the growth after 48 hours. There are 12 colonies on the nutrient agar plate and 11 colonies on the glucose salts medium. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? - Prototrophs and auxotrophs in this experiment are resistant to penicillin. - Approximately 92% of the bacteria in the original sample are prototrophs. - The colony that is missing from plate B is an auxotroph that cannot synthesize histidine. - This experiment describes indirect selection of a mutant. - The prototrophs are resistant to penicillin but the auxotrophs are sensitive to this antibiotic.

The prototrophs are resistant to penicillin but the auxotrophs are sensitive to this antibiotic.

A researcher discovered a mutation in bacteria that causes rapid degradation of the bacterial DNA. Which of the following provides the best explanation of the mutation? A) Restriction enzyme function was hindered by the mutation. B) The mutation increased DNA methylation. C) Methylation of the bacterial DNA was decreased by the mutation. D) The mutation disabled SOS repair. E) Thymine dimers were not repaired as a result of the mutation.

There was no answer but I think it's C. Why? Unmethylated isn't seen as self and is destroyed by restriction enzymes.

Some arthropods cause disease even when they do not act as a vector. Which of the following is an example of this? - Dust mites do not transmit infectious disease, but inhalation of the mites and their waste products can sometimes trigger asthma. - The larvae of some mites are called "chiggers" and may cause intense itching where they attach and feed on fluids within skin cells. - Scabies is characterized by an itchy rash caused by allergic reactions to female mites that have burrowed into the outer layers of skin. - The pubic louse is commonly transmitted during sexual intercourse and can cause an unpleasant itch associated with "crabs." - These are all examples of the situation described.

These are all examples of the situation described.

What are the characteristics of Lactic acid bacteria such as Streptococci?

They are obligate fermentors.

Which statement about aflatoxins is NOT true? They are possible carcinogens. They are produced by Aspergillus. They are toxins. They are produced by Candida. They may be found in peanuts.

They are produced by Candida.

Which of the following statements regarding tapeworms is FALSE? - They absorb nutrients from the host's gut through their skin. - A single worm contains broth male and female reproductive organs. - They do not have a digestive system. - They complete their life cycle in a single host. - They can sometimes cause neurological signs and symptoms in the host.

They complete their life cycle in a single host. -tapeworms don't have a complete digestive system because they latch on and absorb nutrients from the host's gut through their SKIN - the SCOLEX is the head with suckers or hooklets, attached by the neck to PROSTIGLIDS that have both male and female reproductive parts so that as the worm elongates the segments farther way are full of fertilized eggs that come off and get pooped out. - they can sometimes cause neurological signs and symptoms in the host and no, they don't live their whole lives in one host - some use fleas, rabbits, deer, sheep, etc for their INTERMEDIATE HOST

Which of the statements BEST describes tapeworms? - They may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat. - They do not have a digestive system AND they may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat. - They have a complicated digestive system. - They have a complicated digestive system AND they may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat. - They do not have a digestive system.

They do not have a digestive system AND they may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat.

How do anoxygenic phototrophs benefit from having accessory pigments that allow light to be harvested at deeper areas of a moist or aquatic environment? - This allows even anaerobic microbes to conduct photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present, use wavelengths of light not absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the water; AND don't have to compete with other cells that use oxygen in the upper levels for the scarce nutrients in the fluid environment. - These organisms don't have to compete with other cells that use oxygen in the upper levels for the scarce nutrients in the aquatic environment. - Accessory pigments allows even anaerobic microbes to carry out photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present. - The cells can use wavelengths of light that have not been absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the water. - This allows even anaerobic microbes to conduct photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present AND can use wavelengths of light not absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the fluid.

This allows even anaerobic microbes to conduct photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present, use wavelengths of light not absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the water; AND don't have to compete with other cells that use oxygen in the upper levels for the scarce nutrients in the fluid environment.

How can the biomass of fungi in soil be greater than that of bacteria, considering that bacteria are more numerous? This is a matter of size. Fungi, whether unicellular or multicellular, are eukaryotic and are generally larger than bacteria (which are prokaryotic). This means that, even with a lower overall number, they will have more total biomass. Fungi are always multicellular organisms, while bacteria are unicellular. As such, biomass of fungi would always be larger than that of bacteria, since they possess more cells in each individual organism. Bacteria may be more numerous, but in soil they exist mostly in a dehydrated state. Because they lack moisture, they weigh less than fungi, which may occur in lower numbers but are heavier because they are well hydrated in all soil environments. Fungi are capable of incorporating the dead materials around them into themselves as nutrient sources. This capacity allows them to greatly increase their biomass per each organism, well beyond what a simple bacterial cell could hold. This capability is what allows them to achieve higher biomass than bacteria. It depends on where they grow. Fungi generally grow in the most moist areas near the top of soil, giving them an advantage over bacteria. They may not be as numerous, but this advantage in location and nutrients is what makes them larger than the bacteria (and therefore having more biomass).

This is a matter of size. Fungi, whether unicellular or multicellular, are eukaryotic and are generally larger than bacteria (which are prokaryotic). This means that, even with a lower overall number, they will have more total biomass.

An illness outbreak occurs in New York City birds in the late 1990s. After a lengthy scientific investigation, the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) determine that the agent causing the birds to die is the West Nile virus. Outbreaks of this illness have been observed in several other countries in Asia and the Middle East across the last 50 years, but not in the United States. With this information, what would be the best categorization of this infectious agent/disease? This is clearly a reemerging infection. It's been around for a long time, and it is reappearing in a susceptible population again. This is clearly a nosocomial infection. It's transmitted from animals to human beings in urban environments. This is clearly an emerging infection. It hasn't been around that long, and it has made a jump across continents into a new susceptible population. This is clearly not a concern to human beings-maybe it's emerging in animals, maybe it's reemerging, maybe it's nosocomial. But who cares? It's only in birds.

This is clearly an emerging infection. It hasn't been around that long, and it has made a jump across continents into a new susceptible population.

Got partial credit Roseola, a viral childhood rash. A. Koplik spots characteristic symptom of rabies rhabdovirus infection triggered by pain associated with swallowing water. C. hydrophobia Transmitted via an arthropod insect vector. E. arbovirus A Chlamydia antigenic type causes this serious infection of the eye. D. trachoma Bucchal mucosa membrane lesions typical of paramyxovirus infection. B. exanthema subitum

This is the correct pairing Roseola, a viral childhood rash. = exanthema subitum characteristic symptom of rabies rhabdovirus infection triggered by pain associated with swallowing water. = hyrdrophobia Transmitted via an arthropod insect vector. = arbovirus Bucchal mucosa membrane lesions typical of paramyxovirus infection.= Koplik spots Chlamydia antigenic type causes this serious infection of the eye = trachoma

Which nucleotide is not found in RNA?

Thymine - has Uracil instead, A-T is U-T in RNA

Initiation

Transcription. Binding of RNA polymerase to double stranded DNA at the promoter region.

Elongation

Transcription. RNA polymerase moves along the DNA, adding triphosphate ribonucleotides on the 3' OH end.

Termination

Transcription. Recognition of the transcription termination sequence and release of RNA polymerase.

As much as 95% of BOD can be removed during secondary treatment. True False

True

Crown gall is caused by a prokaryote plasmid that can be expressed in plant cells. True False

True

DNA polymerase is able to proofread the DNA sequence. True False

True

Each gene mutates at a characteristic frequency. True False

True

F plasmids and oftentimes R plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus. True False

True

Fungi are able to handle acidic environments much better than bacteria. True

True

If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks. True False

True

If you know the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA, you can deduce the DNA sequence it was transcribed from

True

Most of the medically important multicellular parasites are arthropods or helminths, true or false?

True

Only eukaryotic mRNA is processed before translation

True

Plasmids often carry the information for antibiotic resistance. True False

True

Prokaryotes lack membrane-enclosed organelles

True

T-F: ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation.

True

T-F: Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment.

True

T/F - A probe is a single-stranded piece of nucleic acid labeled with a detectable marker, used to locate a unique nucleotide sequence that identifies a particular microbial species.

True

T/F - All known species of bacteria are described in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.

True

T/F - Based on DNA hybridization, humans and chimpanzees are the same species.

True

T/F - Chlamydia occurs in two forms, a reticulate body and an elementary body.

True

T/F - The skin and oral cavity may have anaerobic microenvironments.

True

T/F - Viruses, viroids, and prions are obligate intracellular agents.

True

T/F - You isolate a prokaryote. After performing analysis on the organism, you cannot find a description matching that of your organism in the reference text Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. This suggests that you have likely isolated a new organism.

True

T/F Horizontal DNA transfer may make it more difficult to construct phylogenetic trees.

True

Which of the following is the confirming test for people who initially tested HIV antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? A. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) B. Immunelectrophoresis C. Western blot D. Therapeutic index E. Ouchterlony double diffusion

Western Blot Got this right

What metabolic process creates the rotten egg smell characteristic of many anaerobic environments?

When sulfur compounds are used as terminal electron acceptors, they become reduced to hydrogen sulfide (chemical responsible for smell)

What is the purpose of coagulation in drinking water treatment? Pollutants such as lead are combined into clumps using toxic chemicals, for easy removal. When suspended material clumps, it sinks and can be easily removed. Antibodies are used bind bacteria into large masses that can be removed by filtration. Suspended material is combined using toxic chemicals for easy removal from water. To bind together pollutants, bacteria, and other organisms for removal by chemicals.

When suspended material clumps, it sinks and can be easily removed.

Why would all protozoa be expected to require large amounts of water in their habitats? - They require water to help them during photosynthesis by providing an electron source. - Without being in water, they would quickly undergo plasmolysis (due to their small size) and die. - Without being in water, they would quickly dehydrate (due to their small size) and die. - They require water to move around in to seek food particles and would be unable to move without water. - None of the statements is correct.

Without being in water, they would quickly dehydrate (due to their small size) and die.

Primary producers Rhizobia Rhizosphere Starter culture Trickling filter

Zone around plant roots containing organic materials exuded by the roots. B. A group of Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria that form symbiotic relationships with leguminous plants such as clover and soybeans. C. Organisms that convert CO2 into organic compounds; by doing so, they sustain other life forms, including humans. D. Wastewater treatment method in which a rotating arm sprays wastewater onto a bed of rocks coated with a biofilm of organisms that aerobically degrades the wastes. E. Strains of microorganisms added to a food to initiate the fermentation process.

The study of the crown gall tumor found a bacterial plasmid promoter that was similar to plant promoters. an R plasmid. incorporation of the bacterial chromosome into the plant. incorporation of the plant chromosome into the bacteria.

a bacterial plasmid promoter that was similar to plant promoters.

Which world in the description tells us that Hershey and Chase used high speed spinning to separate 2 things?

centrifugation

Coccidioidomycosis is: - a protozoan disease caused by Candida sp. - a viral disease caused by Coccidioides sp. - a protozoan disease caused by Coccidioides sp. - a fungal disease caused by Candida sp. - a fungal disease caused by Coccidioides sp.

a fungal disease caused by Coccidioides sp. - Valley Fever - The name and the myco- = fungal was the give away.

Macroscopic algae possess a special structure that acts as an anchor and is commonly called: 1. the stipe. 2. roots. 3. the bladder. 4. a thallus. 5. a holdfast.

a holdfast

A high BOD value means a small number of viruses are present AND a large amount of oxygen has been used. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a small amount of degradable organic matter is present. a large amount of degradable organic matter is present AND a small number of viruses are present. a small amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

Plague is caused by Yersinia pestis, a Gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rod. It is non-motile and grows best at 28°C. Because you are a microbiology student, you know that the organism is: - a mesophile that cannot grow when oxygen is present. - a mesophile that grows best in the presence of oxygen but can also grow without it. - a mesophile that grows best without oxygen but can also grow when oxygen is present. - a psychrophile that grows best in the presence of oxygen but can also grow without it. - a psychrophile that grows best without oxygen but can also grow when oxygen is present.

a mesophile that grows best in the presence of oxygen but can also grow without it.

In the absence of lactose

a repressor protein binds to the operator - keeps it shut off. Off when glucose present

If the codon CCU is positioned in the A site of the ribosome, which of the following will occur?

a tRNA with the anticodon CCA will deliver its amino acid to the site - Should be GG

The bacteria cultured from a soil sample typically represents all the metabolically active bacteria. a very small number of bacteria present in that soil. all the bacteria present in that sample. all the metabolically inactive bacteria. most of the types of bacteria in that soil.

a very small number of bacteria present in that soil.

Discuss the relationship of: a) Anabolism to catabolism b) ATP to ADP c) Glycolysis to fermentation d) Electron transport to oxidative phosphorylation

a) Anabolism results in synthesis of cell molecules; catabolism breaks down larger to smaller molecules. b) When ATP is utilized by the removal of the terminal phosphate group, ADP forms. c) Glycolysis is the first step in aerobic respiration where glucose is enzymatically converted to pyruvic acid. Fermentation is incomplete oxidation of glucose in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration). d) Electron Transport: Electrons are passed from one electron carrier to another in the respiratory chain. Energy is released during this transfer which is captured by ATP synthase complex. Oxidative phosphorylation: The coupling of ATP synthesis to electron transport is known as oxidative phosphorylation.

Give six main characteristics of enzymes.

a) Substrate-specific b) Associate closely with the substrates, but do not become a part of the reaction product. c) Can be regulated by feedback and genetic mechanisms. d) Can be recycled. e) Lower the energy of activation in a reaction. f) Can be regulated by feedback and genetic mechanisms.

Clostridium botulinum typically does not produce its toxin under conditions that are anaerobic AND acid. acid. neutral. anaerobic. alkaline.

acid.

Intercalating agents act during DNA synthesis. often result in frame shift mutations. only act in dormant cells. alter the hydrogen bonding properties of the bases. act during DNA synthesis AND often result in frame shift mutations.

act during DNA synthesis AND often result in frame shift mutations.

If an organism lost the ability to make primase, what would it be unable to do?

add a short sequence of complementary RNA to the existing DNA strand

Most fungi are: - obligate anaerobes. - microaerophiles. - photosynthetic. - aerobes or facultative anaerobes. - obligate aerobes.

aerobes or facultative anaerobes

Agar is obtained from: - protozoans. - bacteria. - plants. - algae. - yeasts.

algae

Which group(s) below contain single-celled and multicellular organisms? algae fungi protozoa All of the choices are correct. algae AND fungi

algae AND fungi

The largest group of chemical mutagens consists of radiation. base analogs. nitrous acid. alkylating agents.

alkylating agents

Antimicrobial chemical in garlic

allicin

Sulfur occurs in all living matter primarily as a component of carbohydrates. nucleotides. amino acids. DNA and RNA. fatty acids.

amino acids.

The nitrogen in our atmosphere is only usable to us after it is converted to nitrous oxide. fertilizer. oxygen. ammonia. amino acids.

amino acids.

The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of the A. B-cell receptors of dendritic cells B. degree of chemical pollution in water C. number of hepatitis viruses in underground springs D. effectiveness of fluoroidation in the preparation of drinking water E. amount of biological pollution in water

amount of biological pollution in water

In conjugation the donor cell is recognized by the presence of an F plasmid. a Y chromosome. diploid chromosomes. an SOS response. an F plasmid AND diploid chromosomes.

an F plasmid

Clostridium botulinum toxin is heat-sensitive. an exotoxin AND heat-sensitive. an exotoxin. endotoxin. heat-stable.

an exotoxin AND heat-sensitive.

Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food? A. Sulfite B. Salt C. Ethylene and propylene oxide gases D. Antibiotics E. Organic acids

antibiotics

Competent cells are able to take up naked DNA. are antibiotic resistant. occur naturally. can be created in the laboratory. are able to take up naked DNA, occur naturally AND can be created in the laboratory.

are able to take up naked DNA, occur naturally AND can be created in the laboratory.

Synthetic compounds are most likely to be biodegradable if they are chemically similar to naturally occurring substances. are present in very large amounts. have three chlorine atoms per molecule. are chemically different form naturally occurring substances. None of these is true.

are chemically similar to naturally occurring substances

Prions are only composed of RNA. are only composed of DNA. are only composed of protein. cause diseases in plants. are only composed of RNA AND cause diseases in plants.

are composed only of protein

Heterocysts: - are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND generate oxygen. - are used to protect nitrogenase AND generate oxygen. - are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND are used to protect nitrogenase. - produce catalase AND are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria. - are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND produce catalase.

are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND are used to protect nitrogenase. - made by Anabeana

The Ames test is useful as a rapid screening test to identify those compounds that will respond to chemical agents. are mutagens. respond to the deletion of DNases. will protect an organism from cancer. will respond to chemical agents AND will protect an organism from cancer.

are mutagens

Viroids are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of RNA. are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of DNA. are known to cause neurodegenerative diseases in animals. are composed of protein encasing DNA. are known to cause neurodegenerative diseases in animals AND are composed of protein encasing DNA.

are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of RNA.

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. are single-celled organisms. consist of only proteins. are in the Domain Archaea. are obligate intracellular parasites AND are single-celled organisms.

are obligate intracellular parasites.

The methanogens: - are part of the domain Archaea AND appear only in aerobic environments. - are part of the domain Archaea AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane. - use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor AND appear only in aerobic environments. - oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane AND appear only in aerobic environments. - use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane.

are part of the domain Archaea AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane.

Pseudomonas

are resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobials AND are mostly harmless except for the opportunistic P. aeruginosa.

Ribozymes

are self-catalytic RNA AND suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins

Haustoria... 1. are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi. 2. are a form of parasitic protozoan. 3. are the reproductive form of protozoans. 4. are a type of root used by all climbing plants. 5. refers to the reproductive structure formed by slime molds.

are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi.

Treponema and Borrelia

are spirochaetes.

Azotobacter are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands AND form symbiotic associations with algae. have a very low respiratory rate. are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands. form symbiotic associations with algae. are methanogens.

are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands

Insertion sequences are the simplest type of transposon. code for a transposase enzyme. are characterized by an inverted repeat. can produce pili. are the simplest type of transposon, code for a transposase enzyme AND are characterized by an inverted repeat.

are the simplest type of transposon, code for a transposase enzyme AND are characterized by an inverted repeat.

Repressible operons (such as the arg operon)

are usually in the "on" mode

Mycorrhizae: - are vital for the survival of lichens AND are vital for the survival of many plants. - are vital for the survival of many plants AND are used in the production of wine, beer, and bread. - increase the absorptive ability of roots AND are used in the production of wine, beer, and bread. - are used in the production of wine, beer, and bread AND are vital for the survival of lichens. - are vital for the survival of many plants AND increase the absorptive ability of roots.

are vital for the survival of many plants AND increase the absorptive ability of roots.

The amount of water available in foods

aw

The best defense against arboviruses is: A.Prophylactic rifampinB.Vector controlC.VaccinationD.Prompt treatment with acyclovirE.All of the choices are correct

b

Which of the following soil organisms play a major role in decomposing plant matter? protozoa AND viruses fungi AND protozoa bacteria AND fungi bacteria AND viruses viruses AND fungi

bacteria AND fungi

The bubo of bubonic plague is due to: A. septicemia resulting in disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhaging B. fluid build-up from pneumonia C.erythrogenic toxin D. toxic shock syndrome toxin E. bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node

bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? - nematodes : complete digestive tract - cestodes : all are free-living - trematodes : flukes - nematodes : many are free-living - cestodes : segmented body made of proglottids

cestodes all are free-living - these are tapeworms.

Citrus fruits generally escape bacterial contamination because A. citrus fruits are high in salt B. citrus fruits are warm-temperature fruits C. bacteria cannot form spores within fruits D. bacteria do not favor acidic conditions E. U.V. radiation in sunlight kills off bacteria on their surface

bacteria do not favor acidic conditions

Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be all of the following EXCEPT Clostridia. Bacteroides. Enterococci. Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages. bacteriophages.

bacteriophages. ***NOT TRUUUEE**

Chemical mutagens that mimic the naturally occurring bases are called nitrogen mustards. alkylating agents. base analogs. nitrous oxide.

base analogs

Introns are removed and exons are spliced together

before translation

A particular characteristic of disease-causing Streptococcus is: - lactic acid production. - beta-hemolysis. - endospore formation. - growth at refrigerator temperatures. - catalase production.

beta-hemolysis

The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term stabilization. lagooning. lagooning ANF stabilization. biochemical oxygen demand. biological nitrogen demand

biochemical oxygen demand.

Yersinia pestis is transmitted by fleas. The organism forms biofilms in the digestive tract of infected fleas, often blocking the tract. This prevents the flea from feeding properly, causing bacteria to be regurgitated into the bite wound that the flea has made. In this situation, the flea is a: - dead-end host. - mechanical vector. - mechanical host. - biological vector. - biological host.

biological vector

The breakdown of man-made compounds by decomposers is called A. Parasitism B. Mineralization C. Saprobism D. Bioremediation E. Decomposition

bioremediation Decomposition is the process by which organic substances are broken down into simpler organic matter. - it's the man-made part that means BIOREMEDIATION.

The region of the earth inhabited by living organisms is called the ecosystem. biosphere. community. niche. environment.

biosphere.

Some Archaea are commonly found in meteors. boiling hot springs. the Great Salt Lake. your refrigerator. boiling hot springs AND the Great Salt Lake.

boiling hot springs AND the Great Salt Lake.

The purple sulfur and green sulfur bacteria: - generate oxygen and lack gas vesicles. - generate oxygen. - preferentially use organic molecules as an electron source. - both use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons. - both lack gas vesicles.

both use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent: A.PlagueB.TularemiaC.BrucellosisD.MononucleosisE.Endocarditis

c

DNA Polymerase

can only add nucleotides in a certain direction

Turning inorganic carbon into organic carbon is called eutrophication. carbonation. respiration. mineralization. carbon fixation.

carbon fixation.

Ribozymes

catalytic RNA molecules that function as enzymes and can splice RNA

X-rays have no effect on DNA. cause thymine trimers. cause single and double strand breaks in DNA molecules. make the DNA radioactive.

cause single and double strand breaks in DNA molecules.

Phthirus pubis, 1. are transmitted by mosquitoes 2. cause "crabs" 3. Transmit bacterial disease 4. Infect the blood 5. Are biological vectors

causes "crabs"

The transfer of vancomycin resistance from Enterococcus faecalis to Staphylococcus aureus is thought to have involved conjugation. transformation. transduction. transposons. conjugation AND transposons.

conjugation AND transposons

Bacteria are present on the body constantly. only during disease-causing infections. never. only in certain restricted areas.

constantly

Nitrous acid most frequently causes mutations by substituting oxygen for hydrogen bonds. converting keto groups to amino groups. altering the bonding ratios of nitrogen bases. converting cytosine to uracil.

converting cytosine to uracil

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through: A.FomitesB.Casual contactC.Parenteral entryD.IngestionE.Droplets

d wrong, wonder if it's C

Organisms that inhabit soil or water and breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called A. Decomposers B. Primary consumers C. Tertiary consumers D. Secondary consumers E. Quaternary consumers

decomposers

DNA is characterized by which of the following features

deoxyribose & thymine

E. coli 0157:H7

does not ferment sorbitol AND produces a toxin.

Vibrio cholerae is most often associated with having unprotected sex. breathing air. eating food. drinking water. touching animals.

drinking water.

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except that it is: A. associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobials B. the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals C. often from an endogenous source D. due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies E. a colitis that is a superinfection

due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies

One bacterial chromosome replicates to become 2 chromosomes with

each made of one strand of DNA from the original chromosome and one newly synthesized strand

The study of interactions between microbes and their environment and how those interactions affect the earth.

ecology

Slow cooking for a long time and then storage at room temperature would tend to favor the growth of anaerobes AND endospore-formers. endospore-formers AND thermophiles. thermophiles AND anaerobes. mesophiles AND thermophiles. endospore-formers AND mesophiles.

endospore-formers AND mesophiles.

The structures present in the hay infusions used in experiments on Spontaneous Generation that made them difficult to sterilize are chlorophyll. endospores. toxins. organelles.

endospores

Binding of an activator to an activator binding site on DNA

enhances the ability of RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter site

One advantage of having genetic control mechanisms is

enzymes are only produced when they are needed

A region where the river meets the sea.

estuary

The products of yeast fermentation in breads are A. Carbon dioxide and water B. Ethanol and water C. Ethanol and carbon dioxide D. Lactic acid and carbon dioxide E. Lactic acid and water

ethanol and carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide helps bread rise, the ethanol bakes out.

RNA interference (RNAi) is a mechanisms by which

eukaryotic cells destroy RNA transcripts in a selective and specific manner to control gene expression

A scientist discovers a new species near coral reefs in Australia. On basic microscopic examination and after conducting a few simple experiments, he finds that this single-celled species is photosynthetic (using sunlight for energy), has a rigid cell wall structure with no peptidoglycan, uses a flagellum for motion, and contains a variety of internal structures that are bound by plasma membranes. Given this information, this new species is most likely a ______ cell in the _____ subcategory. bacterial; eubacterial eukaryotic; fungus archaebacterial; fungus eukaryotic; algae eukaryotic; protozoan

eukaryotic; algae

Convergent evolution

explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi AND refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments

Convergent evolution... 1. refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments 2.explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi AND refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments. 3. explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi.

explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi AND refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments.

Storage temperature, atmosphere

extrinsic factor

Prokaryotic Translation

fMet is the first amino acid of the growing polypeptide chain. Can occur simultaneously with transcription. Has Shine-Dalgarno sequence. Read in 5' to 3' direction. Processing: fMet is removed, cofactors attached, quarternary structures formed, activation.

Archaea are very similar to Bacteria and have rigid cell walls made of peptidoglycan. True False

false

Bacteria and Eucarya both contain membrane-bound organelles. True False

false

Spontaneous generation referred to the idea that organisms came from other organisms. True False

false

The size of an organism determines its domain. True False

false

Thiomargarita namibiensis could not be a eukaryote because it is only 1mm in width. True False

false

Viroids are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of DNA that infect plants. True False

false

Viruses simultaneously contain DNA, RNA and protein. True False

false

The plus (+) strand of DNA acts as a template during transcription

false - the (-) strand of DNA does

Any desirable change in microorganisms impart to food

fermentation

Azotobacter -is used as an indicator of fecal pollution. - forms endospores. - fixes carbon dioxide. -is a hyperthermophile. -fixes nitrogen.

fixes nitrogen - and forms cysts

Growth of pathogens in a food generally does not result in perceptible changes in the quality of the food but the ingestion of this food can result in toxin infection. foodborne illness. respiratory illness. spoilage. aging.

foodborne illness.

Bacteria have been used to help produce or modify food products since the late 1800s. since the 1950s. since the middle ages. for several thousand years.

for several thousand years

What is an isotope?

forms of the same element that contain equal numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons

When a repressor binds to the operator site on DNA,

it blocks RNA polymerase binding and mRNA synthesis

In conjugation, transformation, or transduction, the recipient bacteria is most likely to accept donor DNA from any source. from any species of bacteria. from the same species of bacteria. only through plasmids. from any source AND only through plasmids.

from the same species of bacteria.

Which of the following organisms may grow at pH 3.5? lactic acid bacteria AND Clostridium Clostridium AND fungi Streptococcus AND lactic acid bacteria fungi AND Streptococcus fungi AND lactic acid bacteria

fungi AND lactic acid bacteria

Sexual reproduction in algae involves meiosis that results in the production of: 1. spores with twice as much DNA as the parental cells. 2. gametes with the same amount of DNA as in the parental cells. 3. gametes with half the amount of DNA as in the parental cells. 4. swarming cells with the same amount of DNA as the parental cells. 5. spores with the same amount of DNA as the parental cells.

gametes with half the amount of DNA as in the parental cells.

A segment of DNA encoding a protein or an RNA molecule is a

gene

Bacteria that have properties of both the donor and recipient cells are the result of UV light. SOS repair. frame shift mutations. genetic recombination.

genetic recombination

Phylogenetic relationships between prokaryotes are most accurately determined using:

genotypic information.

The term phototroph refers to an organism that

gets energy from sunlight

Lactic acid bacteria are used to ferment and produce foods/beverages from all of the following EXCEPT vegetables. dairy. meat. grains. All of these can be fermented by lactic acid bacteria to make foods or beverages.

grains.

To increase the chance of detecting carcinogens in the Ames Test, the test substance is treated with penicillin. heat. ground up rat liver. reverse transcriptase. penicillin AND heat.

ground up rat liver

One virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes is the ability to: A. release lactic acid B. produce abundant, branching hyphae C. lyse RBCs D. form endospores E. grow inside host cells

grow inside host cells

Prokaryotic cell mutations can be observed very quickly because the prokaryotic chromosome is diploid. polyploid. haploid. polysomal.

haploid

Smallpox

has been eliminated as a naturally occurring infection in human beings, AND was dealt with by vaccination.

Diseases such as ulcers and cardiovascular disease

have been shown to be, or may be due to, a bacterial infection.

Staphylococcus aureus toxin is an endotoxin AND heat-sensitive. an exotoxin AND heat-sensitive. heat-stable AND an exotoxin. heat-stable AND an endotoxin. None of the answer choices is correct.

heat-stable AND an exotoxin.

early in the process of DNA replication, the enzyme _________ separates the two strands

helicase

the 2 strands of dna are joined to each other or held together by

hydrogen bonding

Chemical mutagens often act by altering the alkyl groups of the nucleobase. nucleobase sequence. number of binding sites on the nucleobase. hydrogen bonding properties of the nucleobase.

hydrogen bonding properties of the nucleobase.

The conical sea floor vents that spout sulfide-rich, super-heated water at temperatures up to 300ºC are called hot vents. yellow smokers. hydrothermal vents. hyperthermophiles. warm vents.

hydrothermal vents.

DNA repair mechanisms occur only in prokaryotes. only in eukaryotes. in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. in neither eukaryotes or prokaryotes.

in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

Viruses may only be grown in sterile, cell-free chemical growth media. in living cells. at body temperature. in darkness.

in living cells

Synthesis of mRNA is

in the 5' to 3' direction with new nucleotides being added to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule

Outside a cell, viruses are constructing a cell membrane known as an envelope. inactive. synthesizing proteins necessary for entry into the host. running a small number of biochemical reactions. running a small number of biochemical reactions AND synthesizing proteins necessary for entry into the host.

inactive

The molecules that bind to a repressor and cause it to no longer bind to the operator are called

inducers

The lac operon is _______

inducible - usually off, can be turned on.

Results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.

infection - think Salmonella and Campylobactor

Viruses are often referred to as archaebacteria. eubacteria. infectious agents. cellular agents.

infectious agents

Microorganisms can also be placed in ____________________ groups that are may be genetically unrelated.

informal ex) lactic acid bacteria, anoxygenic phototrophs, endospore formers, sulfate reducers

The clustered, regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) system in bacterial cells has been called the "immune" system of bacteria. CRISPR protect bacteria from a repeat infection from the same phage because bacterial cells:

integrate fragments from the phage DNA in their own chromosomes and target for destruction any DNA that contains the same fragments in the future

Planar molecules used as chemical mutagens are called nitrous oxide. base analogs. alkylating agents. intercalating agents.

intercalating agents

Results from ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells growing in the food.

intoxication Think Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium botulinum

The conditions normally present in food such as moisture, acidity, and nutrients are referred to as extrinsic factors. exogenous factors. intrinsic factors. endogenous factors. intrinsic factors AND endogenous factors.

intrinsic factors.

Eukaryotic mRNA contains non-coding regions called ___________

introns - Tell me about eukaryotic mRNA

Sulfuric acid is

involved in bioleaching AND produced by unicellular sulfur-oxidizers.

Irradiation of foods is not regulated by the government. changes the taste of foods. involves the use of gamma radiation. involves the use of gamma radiation, changes the taste of foods, AND is not regulated by the government. is used on all foodstuffs.

involves the use of gamma radiation.

The lac operon

is an example of negative control

Hydrogen sulfide: - has a strong citrus smell. - is produced when nitrate is used as terminal electron acceptor. - is produced by Desulfovibrio. - may react with iron to produce a deep red precipitate. - All of the answer choices are correct.

is produced by Desulfvibrio -has a strong rotten egg smell -is produced when sulfur compounds are used as terminal electron acceptors. - may react with iron to produce a black percipitate

The E-site

is responsible for the release of the tRNA - it goes E,P,A - release, initial, incoming

Bioremediation is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND has as its goal the elimination of pathogens. produces xenobiotics AND is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants. may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation AND has as its goal the elimination of pathogens. has as its goal the elimination of pathogens AND produces xenobiotics. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation.

is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation.

The activated sludge process removes large objects from the sewage. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter. is meant to increase the BOD. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter AND is meant to increase the BOD. is used during secondary treatment of sewage.

is used during secondary treatment of sewage

Organisms have never shared genes between domains. probably do not have a common ancestor. may be classified in three domains, probably do not have a common ancestor AND have never shared genes between domains. may be classified in four domains. may be classified in three domains.

may be classified in three domains.

Nematodes: - includes the trematodes. - are carried by bacteria and fungi. - may enter the gastrointestinal tract or the blood. - only infect aquatic plants. - have flat, segmented bodies.

may enter the gastrointestinal tract or the blood.

Dimorphic fungi - may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are mushrooms. are strictly hyphae AND are often associated with disease in humans. - are often associated with disease in humans AND are mushrooms. - are strictly yeasts AND are often associated with disease in humans. - may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are often associated with disease in humans.

may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are often associated with disease in humans.

Schizogony: 1. means multiple fissions AND is performed by protozoa. 2.is performed by protozoa AND is a type of reproduction. 3.is a form of reproduction AND means multiple fissions. 4.is performed by bacteria AND is performed by protozoa. 5.means multiple fissions AND is performed by bacteria.

means multiple fissions AND is performed by protozoa.

The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provide long-lasting protection. A. plasma cells B. memory cells C. phagocytotic cells D. T helper cells E. antibodies

memory cells Got this right

The anaerobic organisms used in sewage treatment may produce the useful product(s) oxygen. nitrogen. methane. nitrogen AND carbon monoxide. carbon monoxide.

methane

During anaerobic decomposition of organic matter with carbon dioxide as the terminal electron acceptor, the primary gas(es) produced is/are methane. oxygen. hydrogen sulfide. methane AND hydrogen. hydrogen.

methane.

Archaea are typically found living in extreme environments. An exception to this are the: - methanogens. - sulfur-oxidizing archaea. - methanogens AND sulfur-reducing archaea. - sulfur-reducing archaea. - sulfur-oxidizing archaea AND sulfur-reducing archaea.

methanogens

Although it is said that the twentieth century was the Age of Physics, it is predicted that the twenty-first century will be the age of mathematics. computers. chemistry. microbial biodiversity.

microbial biodiversity

Cellulose is a major component of plants and is only directly digested by

microorganisms

The most necessary habitat requirement of protozoa is: 1. Light 2. Moisture 3. UV light 4. basic pH 5. heat

moisture

The terms yeast, mold, and mushrooms refers to: - fungal - morphology. - nutrition. - reproduction. - parasites. - staining.

morphology

Many spirochetes are difficult to cultivate, so their classification is based on their: - number of flagella AND morphology. - ability to cause disease AND pattern of flagella. - number of chromosomes AND pattern of flagella. - morphology AND ability to cause disease. - pattern of pili AND flexible cell wall.

morphology AND ability to cause disease.

The resulting solids and juices of grapes used to make wine are termed its germinater. skin. mash. malt. must.

must.

The source of variation among microorganisms that were once identical is antibiotic resistance. virulence factors. sigma factors. mutation.

mutation

Fungal diseases are generally referred to as:

mycoses

Complex structures called fruiting bodies are a characteristic of: - Streptomyces. - myxobacteria. - lactic acid bacteria. - Clostridia. - bacilli.

myxobacteria.

The toxin causing botulism is classified as a(n) superantigen. toxoid. neurotoxin. enterotoxin. endotoxin.

neurotoxin.

Lactic acid bacteria consume lactic acid, allowing them to grow on foods such as yogurt. can grow on lemons, are important spoilage organisms, AND consume lactic acid, allowing them to grow on foods such as yogurt. are important spoilage organisms AND consume lactic acid, allowing them to grow on foods such as yogurt. produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt. produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt AND are important spoilage organisms.

produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt AND are important spoilage organisms.

Gonyaulax... 1. infects the nervous system of humans AND is a monoflagellate. 2. produces a non-protein enterotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate. 3. produces a protein neurotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate. 4. is a monoflagellate AND produces a non-protein neurotoxin. 5. produces a non-protein neurotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate.

produces a non-protein neurotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate.

Propionibacterium: - produces propionic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese. - is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese AND requires aerobic environments. - produces propionic acid AND requires aerobic environments. - produces lactic acid AND is a Gram-negative organism. - produces lactic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese.

produces propionic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese.

The cell types which lack a membrane bound nucleus are found in the archaea. prokaryotes AND archaea. prokaryotes. eukaryotes. protista.

prokaryotes AND archaea.

Translation of mRNA into protein begins before transcription is complete in _________.

prokaryotes only

Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the

promoter on DNA

A microbiologist obtained two pure isolated biological samples: one of a virus, and one of a viroid. The labels came off during a move from one lab to the next, however. The scientist felt she could distinguish between the two samples by analyzing for the presence of a single type of molecule. What type of molecule would she be looking for to differentiate between the two? DNA → protein lipids RNA

protein

The ability to exist as either a trophozoite or a cyst is characteristic of many: - bacteria. - archaea. - protozoa. - fungi. - viruses.

protozoa

Single-celled eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll include: - yeasts AND cyanobacteria. - algae AND yeasts. - protozoa AND yeasts. - protozoa AND cyanobacteria. - algae AND archaea.

protozoa AND yeasts.

Antibiotics cause mutations to occur. may act as alkylating mutagens. provide an environment in which pre-existing mutants survive. increase the rate of spontaneous mutation.

provide an environment in which pre-existing mutants survive.

Bacteria

provide protection to us from disease by covering our bodies, crowding out 'bad' invading bacteria.

Sugar is used in the making of fermented sausages to sweeten the taste of spicy sausage. help preserve the sausage. counteract the action of the salt in the sausage. remove water from the surface of the meat. provide raw material for the fermentation process.

provide raw material for the fermentation process.

Pollutant degradation may be enhanced by lowering the temperature. providing dry conditions. maintaining an acidic pH. providing adequate nutrients. All of the choices are correct.

providing adequate nutrients.

The 3-domain system is based on evolutionary relatedness - based on differences in:

rRNA

A clever technique that streamlines the identification of auxotrophic mutants is gas chromatography. replica plating. direct selection. reversion.

replica plating

DNA polymerase

requires a template for the synthesis of DNA

Streptomyces

resemble fungi in their pattern of growth AND produce a number of antibiotics.

Protein synthesis occurs on the ________

ribosomes

The final characteristics of beer such as color, flavor, and foam primarily depend on the alcohol. adjuncts. whey. roasted malt. wort.

roasted malt.

Bacteria are good models to use because they are large in size. share many biochemical/physiological properties with more complicated organisms. can be assembled into multicellular organisms. have complicated growth requirements.

share many biochemical/physiological properties with more complicated organisms.

If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in six weeks. 1 day. six months. three years. 1 month.

six weeks

When cellular slime molds run out of food, they form a: 1. bladder. 2. rhizoid. 3. myxamoeba. 4. plasmodium. 5. slug.

slug

Product of mold-fermentation

soy sauce

Endoflagella (axial filaments) are only found on: Movement of spirochetes occurs by means of structures called:

spirochetes -use for locomotion -axial filaments

Undesirable biochemical changes in food

spoilage

Foods that have been unacceptably changed due to uncontrolled bacterial growth are called fermented. oxidized. refrigerated. spoiled. preserved.

spoiled.

All of the following are foodborne pathogens except A. Salmonella B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Clostridium D. Campylobacter E. Streptococcus

streptococcus Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium cause foodborne intoxications. Salmonella and Campylobacter cause foodborne infections.

The science that studies organisms to arrange them into groups, or _________, is:

taxa, Taxonomy

Lyme Disease is an example of a disease

that is due to a greater degree of interaction between humans and tick-carrying animals.

Which of the following is incorrect about water? A. The membrane filter method is a widely used rapid method to test large quantities of water for quality. B. Finding coliforms in high numbers indicates fecal contamination of the water. C. When a water quality test is negative for coliforms, it is considered fit for human consumption. D. There is no acceptable level for fecal coliforms, enterococci, viruses, or pathogenic protozoans in drinking water. E. the (Most Probable Number) MPN specifically detects fecal coliforms.

the (Most Probable Number) MPN specifically detects fecal coliforms.

All of the following are methods used to detect total coliforms in a water sample EXCEPT the Gram-stain test. the ONPG/MUG test. membrane filtration. the presence/absence test. the most probable number (MPN) method.

the Gram-stain test.

All of the following are methods used to detect total coliforms in a water sample EXCEPT the ONPG/MUG test. the Gram-stain test. the most probable number (MPN) method. membrane filtration. the presence/absence test.

the Gram-stain test.

What happens when a hairpin loop forms in mRNA?

the RNA polymerase and the mRNA dissociate from the DNA

In some degradative pathways, in the absence of an inducer (such as arabinose),

the activator protein can't bind to DNA, and RNA polymerase can't bind to the promoter site

A mechanism that blocks transcription

will block the production of mRNA

nucleic acid probe

the complementary molecule, a short, single-stranded nucleic acid that can be either RNA or DNA

The designation his- refers to the genotype of a bacterium that lacks a functional gene for histidine synthesis. the genotype of a bacterium that has a functional gene for histidine synthesis. the opposite of a hers gene. bacteria that are auxotrophic for histidine. the genotype of a bacterium that lacks a functional gene for histidine synthesis AND bacteria that are auxotrophic for histidine.

the genotype of a bacterium that lacks a functional gene for histidine synthesis AND bacteria that are auxotrophic for histidine.

The diploid character of eukaryotic cells may mask the appearance of a mutation since this may be a frame shift. the mutation is often reversible. the mutation may be palindromic. the matching chromosome may carry the dominant gene.

the matching chromosome may carry the dominant gene.

Direct selection involves inoculating cells onto growth media on which the mutant but not the parental cell type will grow. the mutation will be reversed. the nutrients necessary for mutation to occur are present. the mutagen is present.

the mutant but not the parental cell type will grow.

When an amino acid such as arginine binds to a repressor,

the repressor binds to the operator site

If while investigating Spontaneous Generation, Pasteur had his laboratory located in a stable the results would, most likely, have not supported the idea of spontaneous generation. the results would, most likely, have supported the idea of spontaneous generation. this would have shown his love of horses. this would have had no effect on his results.

the results would, most likely, have supported the idea of spontaneous generation.

The F plasmid carries the information for antibiotic resistance. recipient cell DNA replication. the Y chromosome. the sex pilus. antibiotic resistance AND the Y chromosome.

the sex pills

global control

the simultaneous regulation of many bacterial genes

Two different mechanisms for copying the DNA strands are used because

the strands are oriented in opposite directions

The process of transcription is similar to

the synthesis of the leading strand during DNA replication - made in the 5' to 3' direction (past to future)

HIV/AIDS can be categorized as a new or emerging infectious disease. By putting it into this category, we are effectively saying that the disease has always been in susceptible populations and causing disease, but we lacked the technology to detect it. this disease has been in susceptible populations for centuries, but has only recently achieved infection levels that became detectable. this infection hasn't been observed in the human population prior to recent (approximately 50 years or sooner) outbreaks. the infectious agent is still evolving and changing, unlike with older, more established diseases such as plague or polio.

this infection hasn't been observed in the human population prior to recent (approximately 50 years or sooner) outbreaks.

Irradiation of cells with ultraviolet light may cause 4 nucleotides to covalently bind together. thymine dimers. adenine complementary base pairing with cytosine. the addition of uracil.

thymine dimers

Lyme disease is transmitted by

ticks

What does the word "transcribe" mean?

to make a copy

Strain differences are helpful in

tracing the source of outbreaks of disease

The mechanism by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called ellipsis. replica plating. transformation. transduction. conjugation.

transduction

Segments of DNA capable of moving from one area in the DNA to another are called base analogs. intercalating agents. transposons. palindromic sequences.

transposons

Unlike DNA, RNA is usually single-stranded

true

Viruses, viroids, and prions are obligate intracellular agents. True False

true

rRNA

type of RNA molecule present in ribosomes

tRNA

type of RNA molecule that carries amino acids to the growing peptide chain during translation

mRNA

type of RNA molecule that contains the genetic information decoded during translation

Anoxygenic phototrophs: - use water as a source of electrons. - use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants. - produce oxygen. - produce oxygen AND use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants. - use hydrogen sulfide or organic compounds as a source of electrons.

use hydrogen sulfide or organic compounds as a source of electrons.

Bioremediation refers to vaccine development. rehabilitating wayward bacteria. using bacteria to clean up pollutants. monitoring newly discovered disease organisms.

using bacteria to clean up pollutants.

The scientist usually considered the first to see microorganisms, which he called "animalcules", was

van Leeuwenhoek

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a: A.BacteriaB.ProtozoanC.VirusD.HelminthE.All of the choices are correct

virus

From Ch 1 - The work of Tyndall and Cohn:

was used to explain why others investigating spontaneous generation had obtained results that were opposite of those obtained by Pasteur

The work of Tyndall and Cohn supported the idea of spontaneous generation.

was used to explain why others investigating spontaneous generation had obtained results that were opposite of those obtained by Pasteur.

You and your exercise buddy decide to go to Yosemite National Park to hike the famous El Capitan trail. You book your trip through a well known agency but before you leave for your vacation, you learn that there have been two cases of plague reported in people who recently visited a different area of the park. Your friend is anxious and tells you he thinks that plague is really dangerous and kills people everyone who gets it. He points out that this disease killed a lot of people during the Middle Ages, and says he doesn't want to do the trip after all. You decide to do some research on the plague and its causative agent before making a decision about your trip. Which of the following is NOT a vector? - Fly - Water - Tick - Mosquito - Flea

water

The amount of moisture available in foods is designated by the term hydro factor. fluid availability. water activity. dampness quotient. aqueous usability.

water activity.

Plant pathology grew in importance as a field of study after it was shown that the Irish potato blight was caused by: - viruses. - bacteria. - water molds. - fungi. - amoeboid protozoa.

water mold

In the late nineteenth century, immigration from Ireland to the United States occurred in high numbers due to an infection of potatoes by:

water molds

A student complains that it makes no sense to worry about coliform bacteria in water, since we naturally possess harmless coliforms in our intestines anyway. Why do regulatory agencies worry about coliform bacteria in water supplies, then?

−Not all coliforms are harmless and symbiotic with human beings. Some may carry genes/proteins that can make them dangerous to humans. It's best to keep coliforms OUT of our drinking water, since it's difficult to identify which ones might be harmless and which ones might be harmful.


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