Micro Chapters 10-13 Study Guide, HW, and DSM
Acts as a chemical barrier by breaking down bacterial cell walls
lysozyme
liquid portion of blood
plasma
Effector cells that make antibodies
plasma cells
Chronic inflammation is not
useful or protective and promotes atherosclerosis, cancers, and neurodegenerative disorders.
A collection of proteins that turn off complement cascades after a threat passes
RCAs
Which of the following is not one of the hallmark signs of primary immunodeficiencies? - Caused by common infectious agents - Severe infections - Recurrent infections - Persistent infections
Caused by common infectious agents
Which type of invasin is correctly matched with a representative organism? - Coagulase - Staphylococcus aureus - Kinase - Vibrio cholerae - Collagenase - Streptococcus pyogenes - Neuraminidase - Escherichia coli
Coagulase - Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following describes the classical pathway of complement activation? - Complement proteins activate by directly interacting with the pathogen. - Complement proteins activate when triggered by macrophages or neutrophils. - Complement proteins activate by coming into contact with certain blood-clotting proteins. - Complement proteins activate when mannose-binding lectin binds to the pathogen. - Complement proteins activate when antibodies bind to a pathogen.
Complement proteins activate when antibodies bind to a pathogen
Which of the following are correct statements about hemolytic transfusion reactions? - A hemolytic transfusion reaction, which lyses red blood cells, could kill the patient. - Signs and symptoms tend to occur within hours of incompatible transfusion. - Signs and symptoms may include wheezing, cough, and shortness of breath. - Multiple therapies are available to reverse a transfusion reaction or block one once it starts. - Unfortunately, transfusion reactions are hard to avoid due to difficulty in identifying red blood cell antigens from individual donors and recipients. - The most crucial antigens during blood transfusion are those that interact with the IgE that is previously attached to mast cells in the vascular tissues.
- A hemolytic transfusion reaction, which lyses red blood cells, could kill the patient. - Signs and symptoms tend to occur within hours of incompatible transfusion.
Which of the following are considered a form of passive immunity? - Application of antitoxin to treat botulism - Passage of antibodies from a mother to the newborn through colostrum - Vaccination with a tetanus toxoid vaccine - Administration of antibiotics to treat diphtheria - Use of antiviral medications to treat influenza - Recovery following a symptomatic infection
- Application of antitoxin to treat botulism - Passage of antibodies from a mother to the newborn through colostrum
Which of the following scenarios are examples of an opportunistic pathogen causing infection? - E. coli from the appendix entering the peritoneum and causing infection - Candida albicans causing thrush after treatment with antibiotics - Bacillus anthracis causing anthrax following exposure - Shigella dysenteriae causing diarrhea and dysentery following ingestion - Streptococcus pyogenes causing strep throat or pharyngitis - Mycobacterium tuberculosis causing tuberculosis following respiratory exposure
- E. coli from the appendix entering the peritoneum and causing infection - Candida albicans causing thrush after treatment with antibiotics
Which of the following are potential outcomes following complement activation? - Opsonization of pathogens for phagocytosis - Induction of an inflammatory response - Cytolysis of pathogens through formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC) - Apoptosis of virus-infected cells - Induction of a memory response by B and T cells - Generation of antimicrobial peptides
- Opsonization of pathogens for phagocytosis - Induction of an inflammatory response - Cytolysis of pathogens through formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC)
Which of the following are primary goals of inflammation? - To recruit immune defenses to the injured tissue - To limit the spread of infectious agents - To deliver oxygen, nutrients, and chemical factors essential for tissue recovery - To allow for the complement cascade to become activated - To activate memory T and B cells - To stimulate production of regulators of complement activation (RCAs)
- To recruit immune defenses to the injured tissue - To limit the spread of infectious agents - To deliver oxygen, nutrients, and chemical factors essential for tissue recovery
The hygiene hypothesis proposes
Decreasing diversity of our normal flora from increased antibiotic usage and changes in diet and lifestyle may lead to increased allergies and autoimmune disorders.
Which of the following occurs upon a secondary exposure to an allergen such as pollen? (Assume sensitization has already occurred.) - Degranulation of mast cells. - Complement lyses mast cells. - IgE antibodies are produced by plasma cells. - Cytotoxic T cells lyse plasma cells.
Degranulation of mast cells.
Which of the following statements concerning desensitization therapy is true? - Desensitization therapy provokes a TH2 cell response. - Desensitization therapy encourages plasma cells to produce IgG antibodies against the allergen. - Desensitization therapy involves exposing patients to decreasing concentrations of an allergen over time (beginning with a concentrated dose of the allergen) in hopes of decreasing the allergic response. - Desensitization therapy is most effective for food allergies.
Desensitization therapy encourages plasma cells to produce IgG antibodies against the allergen.
How are autoimmune disorders diagnosed?
A collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms are required.
A healthy gut microbiome contains diverse species where benign microbes help keep pathogenic members in check. Which of the following could tip the balance from normal microbiota to a disease state? - A patient on an intravenous course of antibiotics - Presence of Group B streptococci in a female's vagina - Presence of Staphylococcus epidermidis on the skin - Presence of Escherichia coli in the gut
A patient on an intravenous course of antibiotics
A patient with AB− blood was given a blood transfusion after an accident. Within hours the patient started to show signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, including fever, chills, and tachycardia. Based on your understanding of blood types, what blood type did the patient most likely receive to cause this reaction?
AB+
A person with blood type A+ can safely donate to a person with blood type __________ and receive from a person with blood type __________.
AB+; O+
Act as chemical barriers by destroying a wide spectrum of viruses, parasites, and fungi
AMPs
Similar to the need for a primary activation signal to fully activate T helper cells, a primary activation signal is needed to activate B cells by T-dependent antigens. Which of the following serves as the primary activation signal? - An extracellular antigen binds to a B cell receptor. - The antigen enters the cell by endocytosis and is processed, and epitopes are displayed on the cell surface by MHC II. - The MHC II-antigen complex on the B cell surface is bound by a T helper cell that can recognize the presented epitope. - Cytokines are released upon proper T helper cell binding
An extracellular antigen binds to a B cell receptor.
Which of the following molecules are only found as part of the humoral immune response? - Antibodies - T helper cells - T cytotoxic cells - T regulatory cells
Antibodies
Your patient is suffering from a parasitic infection. What cells would most likely be elevated?
Eosinophils
Choose all of the following that are virulence factors. - Exotoxins - Adhesins - Ribosomes - Peroxisomes - Lysosomes - Plasma membrane
Exotoxins, Adhesions
__________, or amount of antibody present in the blood, is __________ during the secondary immune response.
Antibody titer; greater
Which of the following is not an example of first-line defenses? - Fever - Lysozyme in tears - Mucous membranes - Antimicrobial peptides
Fever
While all effects of fever are not entirely understood, some studies have suggested various reasons as to why especially low-grade fevers may be beneficial. Which of the following would not be a function of fever? - Fever works by limiting the production of prostaglandins in the hypothalamus. - Fever enhances the antiviral effects of interferons. - Fever increases phagocyte efficiency. - Fever promotes tissue repair.
Fever works by limiting the production of prostaglandins in the hypothalamus.
Desensitization immunotherapy administers allergen in controlled amounts and stimulates T regulatory cell populations. Which of the following is not a correct statement about this therapy? - As a result of the controlled injection of the allergen, the number of IgE molecules is increased. - Regulatory T cells stimulate T helper 1 cells. - Regulatory T cells discourage T helper 2 cell activity. - The level of IgG is increased as a result of the desensitization immunotherapy.
As a result of the controlled injection of the allergen, the number of IgE molecules is increased.
___________ are transplants from self, like a self-skin graft from one part of the body to another location.
Autografts
A patient with the antigens A and RH+ would not be able to receive blood from which of the following? - O- - O+ - B+ - A+ - A-
B+
Most hospitals and microbiology teaching laboratories maintain __________ standards.
BSL-2
Which biosafety level is incorrectly matched with its description? - BSL-1: Nonpathogens or those that rarely cause disease in healthy people - BSL-2: Known pathogens but the infection is treatable or preventable - BSL-4: Dangerous, lethal pathogens with no cures and limited treatments - BSL-3: Serious, lethal pathogens though some diseases may be treatable - BSL-2+: Known animal pathogens which do not infect humans
BSL-2+: Known animal pathogens which do not infect humans
A patient infected with a multidrug-resistant strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis would be cared for in a __________ facility.
BSL-3
What is an example of a bacterial cell utilizing a siderophore to collect iron?
Bacteria produce organic molecules that steal iron from host iron-binding proteins.
Which of the following describes how the hygiene hypothesis is related to type I hypersensitivity reactions? - Food allergies have increased 3-fold in chronically poor families as compared to wealthy families in the United States. - Wealthy individuals are 10 times more likely to experience anaphylactic shock as compared to someone raised in an orphanage during adolescences. - Children living on a farm are 25 percent more likely to experience seasonal allergies than children living in a large city. - Up to 30 percent of people in undeveloped countries suffer from allergic rhinitis. - Between 1997 and 2011, the incidence of food allergies in the United States increased by 50 percent.
Between 1997 and 2011, the incidence of food allergies in the United States increased by 50 percent.
There are three common features shared by the innate and adaptive immune responses. Which of the following is not one of the three? - Both are only found in vertebrate animals. - Both recognize diverse pathogens. - Both eliminate identified invaders. - Both discriminate between self and foreign antigens.
Both are only found in vertebrate animals.
What is a common feature between T and B cells?
Both produce memory cells after activation
Which of the following is not an autoimmune type IV hypersensitivity? - Guillain-Barré syndrome - graft-versus-host disease - multiple sclerosis - celiac disease - Hashimoto thyroiditis
graft-versus-host disease
What molecule is released by T cytotoxic cells will enter a virus-infected cell through pores and break down proteins?
granzymes
enter through the pore to break down host cell proteins and induce apoptosis
granzymes
Incomplete antigens that are unable to stimulate an immune response unless they are linked to a more complex protein or polysaccharide
hapten
hemolytic toxins that lose RBC and WBC to interfere with host immune response
hemolysins
Cytopathic effects induced by a virus include __________.
hijacking cellular machinery and disrupting normal host cell function
Specialized "self-proteins" T-cells screen cells for their ability to recognize these proteins
histocompatibility proteins (MHCs, HLAs)
Body sites in which transplants are least likely to be rejected. (Eye, brain, uterus, testicles)
immuno-privileged site
The lack of a properly functioning immune system
immunodeficiency
Term applied to any antigen that can successfully trigger an immune response
immunogenic
Antibodies produced by plasma cells
immunoglobulins
A patient with a newly transplanted organ is likely prescribed __________ in order to limit the risk of transplant rejection.
immunosuppressants
Activate adaptive and innate immune responses and stimulate the production of new blood cells and platelets (hematopoiesis)
inkterleukins
The two-signal activation process for T cells includes
interaction of the T-cell receptor with the MHC-antigen complex on the APC AND binding between co-stimulatory proteins on the T cell and APC surfaces.
__________ play a role in hematopoiesis and in activating adaptive and innate immune responses.
interleukins
CD8 T cell activation occurs through _______, involving presentation of antigen with _______.
intracellular antigen presentation; MHC I molecule
What is an example of a virulence factor that is related to nutrient acquisition?
iron-binding protein
Toxins disrupt cell membranes by forming pores or breaking down membrane lipids
type II exotoxin
Immune complex reactions belong to which class of hypersensitivity reactions?
type III
Which of the following hypersensitivity classes is properly listed with its description? - Type III, immune complex - Type I, delayed hypersensitivity - Type II, allergies - Type IV, cytotoxic
type III, immune complex
Lupus is a __________ hypersensitivity characterized by __________.
type III; a rash across cheeks and nose, fatigue, and joint pain
A patient that experiences a tuberculin skin test reaction is experiencing which class of hypersensitivity reactions?
type IV
transplanted tissue from an identical twin
isograft
A process that enables a given B cell to alter what class (subtype) of antibody it makes
isotype switching
What is the purpose of gene shuffling?
it generates an enormous repertoire of antigen receptors during lymphocyte development.
Which of the following hypersensitivities are characterized by the slowest onset? - Type I - Type II - Type III - Type IV
type IV
What hypersensitivities are T cell-mediated responses against self-antigens or otherwise harmless antigens?
type IV hypersensitivities
Ability of a pathogen to quietly exist inside a host
latency
Which method of hiding from the host immune system is incorrectly matched with its description? - latency: a pathogen exists quietly inside the host cell - antigen variation: the pathogen frequently switches its antigens - antigen mimicry: the pathogen's antigens are similar in structure to host molecules - living intracellularly: a pathogen resides on the surface of a host cell where it is hidden by host cell surface molecules - antigen masking: the pathogen covers itself in host factors to avoid detection of its own antigens
living intracellularly: a pathogen resides on the surface of a host cell where it is hidden by host cell surface molecules
An attenuated pathogen has
lost virulence factors needed to cause disease in an immune competent host.
Interstitial fluid that enters lymphatic vessels for transportation from lymph to lymph nodes, where it is used to screen for pathogens
lymph
The liquid contained within the lymphatic vessels is called _________.
lymph
A collection of tissues and organs that have roles in collecting, circulating, and filtering fluid in body tissues before such fluid is returned to the bloodstream
lymphatic system
Which of the following is not a way that pathogens can avoid destruction by the phagocytes of the host immune system? - block fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome inside the phagocyte - release toxins which kill the phagocyte - adapt to living inside the phagocyte - neutralize the hydrolytic enzymes produced by the phagocyte - make a capsule which is toxic to the phagocyte
make a capsule which is toxic to the phagocyte
eukocytes slow down as they roll along vessel walls, and they eventually adhere to the vessel wall and stop rolling
margination
An attack complex made by complement proteins that drills into cells, causing them to burst (undergo cytolysis)
membrane attack complex
Desensitization immunotherapies are least effective to treat allergies from
milk
Adhesins include
molecules that bind to host factors such as fibronectin, sialic acid, and heparin / heparin sulfate
Antibodies that are highly specific for a single epitope
monoclonal antibodies
Which cell type is the largest agranular white blood cell, mature as they leave the circulatory system, and increase cell levels due to chronic infections and inflammation, autoimmune disorders, and certain cancers?
monocytes
__________ are only weakly responsive to traditional desensitization therapies
most food allergies
Escherichia coli living in the human large intestine is known to produce vitamin K and B-complex vitamins in exchange for a nutrient-rich habitat. This host-microbe interaction is an example of __________.
mutualism
A patient fully recovers from Ebola with minor medical support. This is the result of __________.
naturally acquired active immunity
A mother is breastfeeding her infant son and transferring crucial antibodies to him. This will result in __________.
naturally acquired passive immunity
What leukocytes are the most numerous in human blood?
neutrophils
Which cell type is the most numerous white blood cell in circulation, is the first leukocyte recruited from the bloodstream to injured tissues, and releases potent antimicrobial peptides?
neutrophils
Which of the following are not part of the adaptive immune system? - Antibodies - T-cells - Lymphocytes - Neutrophils
neutrophils
The picture shows __________, a type of leukocyte whose numbers are commonly elevated during __________.
neutrophils; acute bacterial infections
Although antivenom can save lives, it can also cause what type of reaction in certain patients?
nonautoimmune type III hypersensitivity
Tagging of the invader with complement proteins so it stands out and is more readily cleared by phagocytosis cells
opsonization
What is the the process of tagging an invader with complement proteins so that it is more readily cleared by phagocytic cells?
opsonization
Which of the following is an outcome of complement activation? - cytolysis and inflammation - opsonization, cytolysis, and inflammation - opsonization and cytolysis - cytolysis - opsonization
opsonization, cytolysis, and inflammation
The cellular branch of adaptive immunity is
organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells.
Microbes transferred via the __________ portal of exit(s) would be present in pus or drainage that is easily transmitted to others.
otic and skin
A new type of fungal meningitis (infection of the nervous system) was discovered. Disease occurred among patients who had received steroid injections into their spine. What was the portal of entry?
parenteral
Type of entry in which a pathogen can bypass the skin and directly invade the underlying subcutaneous tissues, muscles, or bloodstream
parenteral entry
Which portal of entry is mismatched to its description? - gastrointestinal: often involves fecal-to-oral transmission - parenteral: pathogen is passed from mother to child through the placenta - otic: pathogen enters via the ear - ocular: via the conjunctiva - urogenital: often associated with sexually-transmitted pathogens
parenteral: pathogen is passed from mother to child through the placenta
the ability of a microbe to cause disease
pathogenicity
form pores in the target cells
perforins
Which of the following is not an example of a chemical barrier? - lysozyme in tears - stomach acid - peristalsis - antimicrobial peptides in mucusthe - low pH of urine
peristalsis
Which of the following is not a key antibody function? - Phagocytosis - Neutralization - Opsonization - Precipitation
phagocytosis
Endocytic vesicles fused to a lysosome; break down antigens
phagolysosome
Effector cells that make antibodies, which are a secreted form of the BCR that binds to the antigen that stimulated the activation event
plasma cells
In the correct order, what are the names of the fluid leaving the capillaries, going into the space between cells and then into the lymphatic capillaries?
plasma, interstitial fluid, and lymph
The general goal of first-line defenses is to
prevent pathogen entry.
An inborn error that affects one or more system factors and leads to deficient immunity
primary (congenital) immunodeficiency
The graph shows
primary antigen exposure
The thymus and bone marrow are examples of __________ lymphoid tissues and play a role in _________.
primary; maturation of leukocytes
Which of the following is not a main goal of inflammation? - produce localized heat and swelling in an effort to denature key bacterial proteins - recruit immune defenses to the injured tissue - transport chemical factors essential for tissue recovery - limit the spread of infectious agents - deliver oxygen and nutrients essential for tissue recovery
produce localized heat and swelling in an effort to denature key bacterial proteins
Which of the following is true about antimicrobial peptides? - specifically target viral capsids for degradation - produced by leukocytes - only destroy bacteria - microbes often develop resistance to AMPs. - about 50 different AMPs exist.
produced by leukocytes
Which of the following is not a function of a molecular second line defense? - triggering fever - recruiting leukocytes to the site of infection - producing antibodies specific to the bacterial infection - stimulating inflammation - slowing the growth of the pathogen
producing antibodies specific to the bacterial infection
Consider a genetic mutation which causes T helper cells to be unable to respond to stimulation by the cytokines which lead to TH2 differentiation. This mutation would cause a patient to be deficient in which activity?
production of antibodies
Chop up viral proteins into small segments and contain proteases
proteasome
fever reducing agents
pryogen
What triggers the release of cytokines, which signal the hypothalamus of the brain to raise the body's baseline temperature from 37°C to a higher temperature?
pryogens
a form of bacterial communication that occurs in biofilms
quorum sensing
Which of the following infectious agents would not directly affect immune system cells? - Measles virus - Rabies virus - Epstein-Barr virus - Human T cell lymphotropic virus
rabies virus
Your patient is suffering from Grave's disease. This type II hypersensitivity is caused by _________.
receptor overactivation
What features are shared between both innate and adaptive immunity?
recognize diverse pathogens, eliminate identified invaders, and discriminate between self and foreign antigens
Cytotoxic T cells eliminate pathogens by
releasing chemicals which cause infected or cancerous cells to undergo apoptosis.
What is the role of memory cells?
remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen
Elevated body temperature that fluctuates but does not reach normal during the course of the fluctuations is classified as a _________
remittent fever
Starts out with a normal immune system, then experiences a decline in immune system rigor
secondary (acquired) immunodeficiency
An allergen exposure that triggers the immune system to produce IgE
sensitizing exposure
The role of healthcare workers in the management of disease outbreaks
should be addressed through periodic training and re-training
Pathogens can obtain iron from the body using
siderophores
__________ are complexes that remove iron from transferrin for their own use.
siderophores
Organic molecules that pull iron from our iron-binding proteins
sidorosphores
What are cytokines?
signaling proteins that help cells communicate with each other, initiating and coordinating immune actions
Allografts are
similar to the host, but not genetically identical
What is the most important physical barrier of the first line of defense?
skin
__________ include a variety of bacterial toxins (e.g. staphylococcal enterotoxins and staphylococcal toxic shock toxin) and are especially potent T helper cell activators
superantigens
Tachycardia and a drop in blood pressure are signs of __________ affecting the __________.
systemic anaphylaxis; cardiovascular system
A researcher has identified a genetic mutation that causes T helper (TH) cells to be unable to respond to the cytokines that lead to differentiation into regulatory T (Treg) cells. This would cause a patient to be deficient in which activity?
tapering off of the immune response once the pathogen is eliminated
How would Pseudomonas aeruginosa most likely adhere to the respiratory membrane of a patient in a ventilator?
Fimbriae
Which of the following is an example of dysbiosis?
Following extended use of amoxicillin, your patient develops oral thrush as a result of the overgrowth of the yeast Candida albicans.
Which of the following is a true statement about the tuberculin skin test? - It is a classic example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction. - For the test, PPD is injected into the skin of the forearm. - It detects exposure to Mycoplasma tuberculosis. - The test can differentiate between natural exposures and vaccination against tuberculosis.
For the test, PPD is injected into the skin of the forearm.
Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction? - food allergy - allergy-based asthma - seasonal allergies - Goodpasture syndrome - eczema
Goodpasture syndrome
Which of the following examples of type II hypersensitivities are matched incorrectly with their mediated mechanism? - Goodpasture syndrome: noncytolytic - Graves' disease: noncytolytic - myasthenia gravis: noncytolytic - rheumatic heart disease: cytolytic - hemolytic disease of the newborn: cytolytic
Goodpasture syndrome: noncytolytic
Which of the following statements correctly describes endotoxins? - Gram-negative bacteria mainly release endotoxin when they die, although a small amount can be released as the bacteria divide. - Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria produce endotoxins. - Endotoxins have a relatively low LD50. - Endotoxins are released from actively dividing bacteria.
Gram-negative bacteria mainly release endotoxin when they die, although a small amount can be released as the bacteria divide
Which of the following type II hypersensitivities is noncytolytic? - Autoimmune hemolytic anemia - Grave's disease - Goodpasture syndrome - Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Grave's disease
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? - Hemolytic disease of the newborn - Celiac disease - Lupus - Graves' disease
HDN
The degree to which the antigen provokes an immune response varies and depends on the antigen's biochemical features. Which of the following molecules are the least immunogenic? - Lipids - Polysaccharides - Haptens - Proteins
Haptens
Which statement does not apply to haptens? - Haptens are generally too small to be immunogenic on their own. - Haptens are also known as incomplete antigens. - Haptens are any nonpathogenic substance, rather than a microorganism, which can stimulate an immune response. - Antibiotics such as penicillin are often haptens. - Haptens must bind to a more complex molecule to stimulate an immune response.
Haptens are any nonpathogenic substance, rather than a microorganism, which can stimulate an immune response.
Which of the following is not an example of normal microbiota interacting with the host organism in a beneficial relationship? - Various halophilic species of bacteria grow on the skin, competing with Staphylococcus aureus, an organism that causes Staph infections. - Lactobacillus bacteria lower the pH of the vagina, preventing the growth of Candida albicans, a strain of yeast. - Streptococcus mitis is a nonpathogenic strain of bacteria that grows in the throat. It competes with the growth of Streptococcus pyogenes, the causative agent of Strep throat. - Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial species that neutralizes stomach acid and absorbs vitamins and other nutrients. - E. coli is found in the small intestine of most mammals, fermenting sugars and producing acid and Vitamin K.
Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial species that neutralizes stomach acid and absorbs vitamins and other nutrients.
What be a potential disease reservoir for a pathogen which infects humans?
Humans, non-human animals, inanimate objects, or environmental niches can all serve as reservoirs for a pathogen which infects humans.
________ reactions are inappropriate responses against a threat that lead to immune-based pathologies such as allergy and autoimmunity.
Hypersensitivity
describes how many cells or virions are needed to establish an infection in 50% of exposed susceptible hosts
ID50
Health care providers determine the specific allergen that is generating symptoms by using a blood test to look at ________ levels.
IgE
The antibody class which is involved in fighting parasites is
IgE
The most abundant antibody class in the body, found in all body fluids, is
IgE
What antibody class would be expected to be elevated in a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
IgE
In type I hypersensitivities, allergen exposure triggers the immune system to produce __________. This is called the __________.
IgE; sensitizing exposure
What antibody can cross the placenta and is the most abundant of all antibodies?
IgG
_________can exist as either a monomer or a snowflake-shaped pentamer and is central to _________.
IgM; agglutination and precipitation reactions
What is graft-versus-host disease?
Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about iron-binding proteins? - Iron-binding proteins are also referred to as "siderophores." - Iron-binding proteins help sequester iron to ensure that our own cells have an adequate supply when needed. - Iron-binding proteins limit access to iron, which will reduce bacterial cell growth and survival. - Hemoglobin, ferritin, and lactoferrin are examples of iron-binding proteins found in the human body.
Iron-binding proteins are also referred to as "siderophores."
A newly generated B cell in the bone marrow is being screened for self-tolerance. It has the potential to make antibodies that will cross-react with self-antigens. What is its fate
It is signaled for destruction via apoptosis.
A newly-generated T cell can recognize MHCs and is not self-reactive. What is its fate?
It will migrate to the lymphoid tissues to await activation by its antigen.
describes the amount of toxin needed to kill 50% of affected hosts who are not treated
LD50
Your laboratory is working with Clostridium tetani, the etiological agent for tetanus. What is the minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) are relevant for this type of pathogen?
Lab coats, gloves, and safety goggles or a face shield (if there is splash risk) should be worn.
What is an example of isotype switching?
Late in an infection with Influenza virus, a given plasma cell stops production of IgM and begins producing IgG.
Which of the following is one of the categories of second-line defenses? - Leukocytes - Mechanical barriers - Chemical barriers - Physical barriers
Leukocytes
A patient visited her primary care physician due to a high fever, headache, and sore throat. The physician probed the lymph nodes under her chin, finding them to be tender and swollen. Based on your understanding of the lymphatic system, what is the most likely molecular explanation?
Leukocytes in the lymph nodes are rapidly proliferating to respond to a bacterial or viral infection
Cellular and humoral responses both progress through four main stages. What is the second stage?
Lymphocyte activation
What is the role of MHC I in the immune response?
MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.
Which statement is not true about MHC II? - When displaying an antigen, MHC II serves a key role in activation of the appropriate T cells. - MHC II primarily displays extracellular antigens which have been phagocytized. - MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells. - MHC II is present only on antigen-presenting cells. - MHC II interacts with the CD4 receptor on T helper cells.
MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells.
When "matching" a donated organ or tissue to a recipient, it is necessary that the ________ of the donor and the recipient be as similar as possible.
MHCs
A differential white blood cell count is very useful in diagnosing infections because it can provide information about the type of pathogen that may be causing the problem. Which of the following white blood cell type and its descriptor is mismatched? - Monocyte: mature into either fixed or wandering macrophages - Neutrophils: fight many invaders especially bacteria and viruses - Dendritic cells: activate the adaptive immune response - Mast Cell: moderately phagocytic they attack bacteria, allergens, and parasites; reside in circulating blood.
Mast Cell: moderately phagocytic they attack bacteria, allergens, and parasites; reside in circulating blood.
Which of the following statements concerning natural killer cells is true? - Natural killer cells provide protection against viruses, bacteria, parasites, and tumors. - Natural killer cells are part of the adaptive immune system. - Natural killer cells are created as monocytes cross from the circulatory system into tissues. - Natural killer cells are classified as granulocytes.
Natural killer cells provide protection against viruses, bacteria, parasites, and tumors.
You are working in the ER and have a patient who needs a blood transfusion. Without knowing the patient's blood type, what blood type would you be able to safely provide?
O-
Patients with conjunctivitis can often be seen rubbing their itchy, irritated reddened eye(s). Based on this symptom of infection, which of the following modes of transmission is most likely?
Ocular
Which of the following is not a proposed explanation for the development of autoimmunity? - Certain pathogens may release superantigens that inappropriately activate certain T cells against self-factors. - Overuse of antibiotics and other medications can cause activation of B cells and production of auto-antibodies. - Cytopathic effects generated by a pathogen could encourage host antigen-presenting cells to process and present self-antigens to T cells. - If a pathogen has antigens that resemble host factors, it could trigger the production of antibodies that cross-react with host tissues. - Genetics
Overuse of antibiotics and other medications can cause activation of B cells and production of auto-antibodies.
Which of the following body sites would least likely contain a biofilm? - Placenta - Teeth - Urethra with urinary catheter - Hip with artificial joint
Placenta
ID50 describes
the number of cells or virions needed to establish an infection in 50 percent of exposed hosts.
In which of the following scenarios would you expect lysozyme to be an effective chemical barrier? - Preventing the growth of Trichophyton rubrum, a fungal pathogen, on the toe nailbed - Preventing the entry of Staphylococcus aureus , a Gram-positive bacterial pathogen, into the conjunctiva - Preventing the oral entry of Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm), a helminthic pathogen - Preventing the growth of Naegleria fowleri, a brain amoeba, in cerebrospinal fluid
Preventing the entry of Staphylococcus aureus , a Gram-positive bacterial pathogen, into the conjunctiva
A patient antibody titer which shows an increasing level of IgM but very little IgG would likely indicate that
the patient is in the early stages of developing an immune response.
Which of the following is not part of the five general steps that a microbe must follow in order to successfully establish an infection? - Release endotoxins - Adhere to host tissues - Replicate while warding off immune defenses - Transmit to new host
Release Exotoxins
An activated T helper cell becomes either an effector T helper cell or a memory T helper cell. What is the function of the effector T helper cell?
Release factors that help T cytotoxic cell and B cell activation
Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue? - Thymus - Spleen - Appendix - Tonsils
thymus
What are the primary lymphoid tissues?
thymus and bone marrow
Which of the following disorders is considered a "Type II" in the Gell and Coombs classification system? - Rheumatic heart disease - Lupus - Multiple sclerosis - Poison ivy reactions
Rheumatic heart disease
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about admininstering RhoGAM to an Rh- mother? - The injected immunoglobulin preparation is administered to an Rh- mother around the 28th week of pregnancy. - The drug may be given to an Rh- mother after amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling. - RhoGAM is given to an Rh- mother following an episode of vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. - RhoGAM will be administered to every Rh- mother after birth, even if her child is Rh-.
RhoGAM will be administered to every Rh- mother after birth, even if her child is Rh-.
Lipid molecules made from dietary omega-3 fatty acids that stimulate resolution of inflammation, making them potential cures for chronic inflammation
SPMs
Which of the following statements is true regarding superantigens? - Superantigens trigger the release of high levels of inflammatory cytokines, such as tumor necrosis factor alpha and interferon gamma by T helper cells. - The life-threatening organ failure that can result from superantigens is due to the overwhelming humoral response. - Superantigens only activate T helper cells that recognize a specific epitope of the antigen. - Superantigens are first processed by antigen-presenting cells via an external antigen presentation route and then mixed with MHC II prior to presentation.
Superantigens trigger the release of high levels of inflammatory cytokines, such as tumor necrosis factor alpha and interferon gamma by T helper cells.
Type I hypersensitivity is also known as an allergic reaction to an antigen, or allergen. Which of the following are NOT directly involved in producing an allergic response? - Mast cells - T cells - Basophils - Histamine - IgE antibody
T cells
Why is celiac disease characterized as a type IV hypersensitivity and not an allergy?
T cells, not IgG, attack the lining to the small intestines within 2-3 days of gluten consumption.
Main organizer of cellular and humoral branches of adaptive immunity
T helper cells
__________ are the most abundant T cells, and their function is to __________.
T helper cells (CD4+); coordinate the adaptive immune response
An APC bearing MHC-antigen complexes on its cell surface migrates to lymphoid tissues and interacts with which of the following cells?
T helper cells and T cytotoxic cells
In desensitization immunotherapy, an antigen is used to stimulate ________, which can then stimulate ________ and cause the production of ________.
T regulatory cell; T helper 1 cell; and IgG antibodies
Which of the following is the primary activation signal to fully activate T helper cells? - The T-cell receptor (TCR) of the T helper cell interacts with the MHC II-antigen complex. - The TCR of the T helper cell interacts with the MHC I-antigen complex. - The B7 protein on the APC cell surface interacts with CD28 on the surface of T helper cells. - The TCR/MHC/antigen interaction is assisted by CD8 on the surface of T helper cells.
The T-cell receptor (TCR) of the T helper cell interacts with the MHC II-antigen complex.
Which of the following best describes what happens during a postsensitization exposure to an allergen during a Type I allergic reaction? - IgE binds to the surface of mast cells and/or basophils. - Basophils and mast cells are activated, leading to proliferation and differentiation. - B cells are activated, becoming plasma cells that release IgG into the serum. - IgE specific to the allergen is produced by activated B cells. - The allergen binds to IgE on the surface of mast cells and/or basophil surfaces, triggering degranulation.
The allergen binds to IgE on the surface of mast cells and/or basophil surfaces, triggering degranulation.
What is a reservoir?
The habitat where a pathogen is typically found
Which of the following correctly describes infectious dose-50 (ID50)? - The more infectious the pathogen is, the lower the ID50. - The more infectious the pathogen is, the higher the ID50. - ID50 describes the amount of toxin needed to kill 50 percent of affected hosts that are not treated. - The lethality of an infectious agent is usually expressed as mortality rate, rather than as ID50.
The more infectious the pathogen is, the lower the ID50.
What is an example of a mechanical barrier?
The mucociliary escalator sweeps mucus away from the lungs and toward the mouth.
A potential antimicrobial drug is tested and found to strip away the capsules made by certain pathogenic bacteria. How would this drug affect the bacteria's ability to cause disease?
The phagocytes would be better able to ingest the bacteria
Explain the need for self-tolerance screening of lymphocytes?
The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a random process that could produce receptors which will bind to the body's own tissues.
Which of the following is a feature true for the adaptive immune response only? - The response is tailored to a specific antigen. - It distinguishes self from foreign. - It is effective against diverse threats. - It kills invaders.
The response is tailored to a specific antigen.
Which of the following is not a reason the skin is a useful barrier? - The skin is enriched with specialized proteins such as keratin. - The skin is enriched with lipids to serve as a water-resistant layer. - The skin is enriched with antimicrobial peptides. - The skin produces mucus to trap microbes. - The outermost layer is made up of tightly compacted dead epithelial cells.
The skin produces mucus to trap microbes.
Which statement is true about standard precautions? - They are used only when the patient is known to be infected with a BSL-2 or higher pathogen. - They apply to all healthcare providers working with all patients. - They are used in student labs that only handle BSL-1 pathogens - They are in force only for bloodborne pathogens. - They require full face shields, gloves, and barrier gowns for all patient contact situations.
They apply to all healthcare providers working with all patients.
Which of the following statements about type III hypersensitivities is false? - Relatively large antigen-antibody aggregates form. - Massive inflammation is triggered by the antibody aggregates activating complement cascades. - They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets. - Antibodies involved in type III reactions can be made as part of an autoimmune response or formed as a normal response to foreign antigens. - Insoluble complexes are deposited in tissues.
They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets
The amount of antibody present in the blood is termed the antibody ________.
titer
You attended a BBQ and ate a variety of foods, including potato and egg salads. After you arrive home a few hours later, you display symptoms of food poisoning (vomiting, diarrhea, cold sweats, etc). Which type of exotoxin did you likely ingest?
Type I
Toxin binds at host plama membrane to generate a signal that generates effects; doesn't enter cell
Type I exotoxin
Type II and III hypersensitivies result in a variety of diseases through similar mechanisms. Which of the following describes a difference between Type Ii and Type III hypersensitivity? - Type II hypersensitivity results in widespread tissue inflammation, while Type III hypersensitivity results in cytotoxicity of targeted cells. - Type II hypersensitivity comes from antigens on the cell surface or extracellular environment, while Type III hypersensitivity comes from antigens in circulation. - Type II hypersensitivity is mediated by IgG antibodies, while Type III hypersensitivity is mediatey by IgM antibodies. - Type II hypersensitivity reacts to soluble antigens, while Type III hypersensitivity reacts to non-soluble antigens.
Type II hypersensitivity comes from antigens on the cell surface or extracellular environment, while Type III hypersensitivity comes from antigens in circulation.
Exotoxins are often classified into three main families based on their mode of action. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? - Type III - intracellular toxin - Type I - membrane-damaging toxins - Type II - membrane-acting toxins - Type III - extracellular toxin
Type III - intracellular toxin
Binding portion (B) or toxin binds plama membrane, toxin enters cell (endocytosis), active portion (A) enters host cell and exerts an effect
Type III exotoxin
Which of the following statements regarding type IV hypersensitivities is true? - Type IV hypersensitivities are antibody-mediated. - An example of a nonautoimmune type IV hypersensitivity is serum sickness. - Type IV hypersensitivities consist of only nonautoimmune hypersensitivities, as autoimmune hypersensitivities are exclusively classified as type III hypersensitivities. - Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
Type IV hypersensitivity can result in a wide variety of symptoms depending on the degree of inflammation. Which of the following differentiates Type IV hypersensitivity from Types I, II, and III hypersensitivities?
Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by T cells, whereas Types I, II, and III hypersensitivities are mediated by B cells and antibodies.
Why are type IV hypersensitivities called delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
Type IV reactions manifest slowly over 12-72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
Inflammation occurs in three general phases. Which phase is the first to occur after tissue injury? - Vascular changes phase - Leukocyte recruitment phase - Recruitment phase - Wound healing phase
Vascular changes phase
Your patient is suffering from severe diarrhea caused by a Clostridioides difficile infection. Which of the following would be a special type of contact precaution to prevent spread of the organisms? - Wear a barrier gown at all times. - Wash hands at all times. - Place patient in airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) facility. - Limit patient transport.
Wear a barrier gown at all times
What is the role of B cell receptors (BCRs) and T cell receptors (TCRs) in the immune response?
to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen
How is the immune system able to recognize a limitless number of different antigens and epitopes?
While each lymphocyte carries receptors that recognize only one type of epitope, the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes each of which carries unique receptors.
Which of the following statements is true about serum sickness? - With serum sickness, the patient's immune system recognizes the administered substance as foreign. - Serum sickness is an antibody preparation that neutralizes the effects of venom from snakes, spiders, scorpions, or other venomous creatures. - Serum sickness is treated with antitoxins. - Most patients do not recover from serum sickness and will require treatment for an extended period of time.
With serum sickness, the patient's immune system recognizes the administered substance as foreign.
The monomeric structure of an antibody can be described as ________-shaped and is composed of light and heavy chains that are held together by _________.
Y; disulfide bridges
What is an example of primary immunodeficiency?
Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production.
Presence of bioactive toxins in the blood
toxemia
Isotype switching occurs when
a B cell changes which antibody class it is producing.
Autoimmune disorders are diagnosed using
a collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms.
Secondary immunodeficiences are commonly caused by __________.
a decline in immune system rigor
Which type of bacterial toxin is matched incorrectly with its description? - type 3 exotoxin: bind to a membrane receptor then enter the cell - endotoxin: enters the bloodstream during infection with Gram-negative bacteria - type 2 exotoxin: disrupt and damage the host cell membrane leading to cell lysis - toxemia: a toxin produced during a viral infection - type 1 exotoxin: bind to the targeted host cell at a membrane receptor but do not enter the cell
toxemia: a toxin produced during a viral infection
Criteria for assigning pathogens to a biosafety level include all the following except - extent of disease and mortality rates. - level of infectivity. - mode of transmission. - ability to culture the pathogen using standard laboratory media and equipment. - availability of disease prevention and/or treatment.
ability to culture the pathogen using standard laboratory media and equipment
Antibodies do all the following except - activate the complement cascade. - increase phagocytosis by opsonization. - neutralize antigens to prevent binding to host cells. - increase phagocytosis by agglutination of antigens. - activate killing by T cytotoxic cells.
activate killing by T cytotoxic cells.
Which of the following classes of hypersensitivity reactions is/are not associated with autoimmunity? - cytotoxic AND immune complex - immune complex - delayed hypersensitivity - cytotoxic - allergies
allergies
a scenario in which the immune system fights off a perceived threat that would otherwise be harmless
allergy
similar to host, but not identical
allograft
Bacterial capsules __________
allow for avoidance of phagocytosis
Mast cells are the key players in which phase of inflammation?
vascular changes phase
What are the three phases of inflammation?
vascular changes, leukocyte recruitment, and resolution
The complement system consists of over 30 different proteins that work together in a cascade fashion to protect us against infectious agents. One way this system is activated is via the __________, when complement proteins are activated by directly interacting with a pathogen
alternative pathway
A foreign substance that triggers an immune response
antigen
A substance that may trigger an immune response, if presented in the right context is termed a(n)
antigen
Upon entering the host, the pathogen may conceal antigenic features so the immune system doesn't quickly mount an attack. This is also known as __________.
antigen masking
conceals antigenic features so the immune system doesn't quickly mount an attack
antigen masking
imitates host molecules
antigen mimicry
periodically altering the surface molecules the host immune cells could recognize and target as foreign
antigen variation
T-independent antigens
are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell.
The preference of a pathogen for a specific host is
tropism
The preference of a pathogen for a specific host is also known as ___________.
tropism
Pregnant women are usually advised to be vaccinated against influenza to protect themselves and the baby after birth. The mother will acquire ________ immunity from the vaccine while the baby will acquire ________ immunity.
artificial active; natural passive
Convalescent plasma was obtained from the serum of individuals who recovered from COVID-19. This plasma was infused into the blood of those with a serious case of the illness. What type of immunity is being acquired by those receiving the infusion?
artificially acquired passive immunity
What are the two categories of second-line defenses?
assorted molecular factors and leukocytes
denoting a form of allergy in which a hypersensitivity reaction such as dermatitis or asthma may occur in a part of the body not in contact with the allergen.
atopic
A still infectious pathogen, but weakened to the point that they do not cause disease in an immune-competent host
attenuated pathogen
Which is not a category of virulence factors?
attenuation
Antibodies that bind to self-tissues
autoantibody
transplants from self; no rejection will occur
autograft
Chronic conditions that develop when a patient's immune system attacks self-tissues
autoimmune disorder
a measure of a pathogen's transmissibility (contagiousness); represents the number of people that a single infected person is expected to infect in a population were all people are susceptible to infection and with no applied treatment strategies
basic reproduction number (R0)
Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs of inflammation? - Bleeding - Pain - Redness - Swelling
bleeding
Where is the iron-binding protein transferrin found?
blood plasma and extracellular fluids
Properties that contribute to virulence are determined by
both the microbe and the host, and may evolve over time
Which of the following bacterial cell surface structures may initiate B cells by T-independent antigens? - Pili - Flagella - Capsules - Fimbriae
capsules
A subcategory of cytokines that induce chemotaxis and act as signaling proteins that attract white blood cells to areas where they are needed
chemokines
Cell movement in response to chemical stimulus
chemotaxis
Autoimmune disorders are
chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self-tissues that should normally be left alone.
A process in which activated B and T cells undergo multiple rounds of cell division to proliferate (increase their population)
clonal expansion
Specialized glycoproteins on the surfaces of T cells; these proteins enable us to tell the cytotoxic and helper T cells apart
clusters of differentiation (CD)
What can cause primary immunodeficiencies?
congenital genetic disorders
Plasma from a person with a protective antibody tiger against the infectious agent
convalescent plasma
All the following apply to T cells except - originate in the bone marrow. - reside in the lymphoid tissue. - coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies. - have the capacity to recognize virtually any type of antigen. - mature in the thymus.
coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies
An exaggerated cytokine response that is associated with a poorer prognosis
cytokine storm
Signaling proteins that help cells communicate with each other, it indicating and coordinating immune actions
cytokines
interfere with host immune response by losing WBC and can target general host cells to damage tissues
cytolysins
Directly destroy cells that are virus infected, damaged, foreign/transplanted, or cancerous
cytotoxic T cells
An important class of mammalian AMPs that rapidly kill invaders by inserting themselves into the invaders cell membrane
defensins
Which of the following is an agranulocyte? - dendritic cell - eosinophil cell - mast cell - basophil cell - neutrophil cell
dendritic cell
Which of the following is false about the enzyme lysozyme? - acts as a chemical barrier - kills bacterial cells - breaks down bacterial cell walls - destroys viruses and fungi - can be found in mucus, saliva, tears, and breast milk
destroys viruses and fungi
a process where by WBCs dramatically change shape in order to squeeze out of a blood vessel during the recruitment phase of inflammation
diapedesis
Droplet and airborne precautions both involve
diseases of the respiratory system and/or diseases transmitted through a respiratory route.
Used in conjunction with standard precautions, __________ are used to reduce the spread of an agent that is communicated through large moist respiratory droplets that do not remain suspended in the air and therefore require closer contact for transmission.
droplet precautions
Which factors may result in a normal microbiota species causing disease?
dysbiosis due to antibiotic therapy or invasion of other tissues by the microbiota species
Which type of toxin is pictured?
endotoxin
Which cell type has a nucleus that appears to have two lobes connected by a thin band, has granules that contain diverse enzymes and antimicrobial toxins, and has mediators that are expelled in response to certain allergens and parasites?
eosinophils
Incomplete antigens that are unable to stimulate an immune response unless they are linked to a more complex protein or polysacchari
epitope
The parts of an antigen that B and T cells recognize and mount an immune response against are called _________.
epitopes
Botulism is caused by ingesting __________.
exotoxins
Advantages of isotype switching include
expanded antibody response as different isotypes predominate in different areas of the body.
Which factor is responsible for many emerging pathogens in humans?
expanded host or tissue range of the pathogen
What do secondary lymphoid tissues do?
filter lymph and sample surrounding body sites for antigens
Extracellular hair-like appendages that bind carbodydrates on host cells
fimbriae and pili
Kupffer cells are examples of ________ that reside in the _________.
fixed macrophages; liver
inanimate objects that harbor agents
fomite
Which of the terms related to inflammation is not properly matched with its description? - Vasodilation: Vessels decrease in diameter, resulting in decreased vessel permeability and higher blood pressure - Angiogenesis: New blood vessels are built during the resolution phase of inflammation - Margination: Leukocytes slow down and eventually adhere to the blood vessel wall - Diapedesis: Leukocytes change shape and squeeze out of the blood vessel into the surrounding tissue - Exudate: Fluid released as a result of increased vessel permeability
vasodilation: Vessels decrease in diameter, resulting in decreased vessel permeability and higher blood pressure
interspecies transplants
xenograft
Local-acting factors that allow pathogens to invade host tissues
invasins
Host-microbe interactions
involve a dynamic give-and-take between the microbe and the host.
The process of building new blood vessels
angiogenesis
Which of the following would not cause serum sickness? - antivenom - penicillin - antitoxin - anti-inflammatory drugs - sulfa drugs
anti-inflammatory drugs
What is used to treat serum sickeness?
anti-inflammatory drugs and antihistamines
Postexposure prophylaxis, a form of artificial passive immunity, is often given when a person is bitten by an animal that is suspected of having rabies, or if the rabies-status of the animal cannot be confirmed. What specifically, is being given to the patient in this type of treatment?
antibodies harvested from a host who has developed an immune response to the rabies virus
Amount of antibody present in the blood
antibody titer
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when __________.
the father is Rh+ and the mother is Rh-
T-cell precursors are made in the __________ and mature in the __________
bone marrow; thymus
The major histocompatibility complex type I (MHC I) __________.
is found on all body cells except RBCs
The antibody found in breastmilk and coating mucous membranes is
IgA
What is edema?
tissue swelling
any antigen that triggers IgE production and leads to allergy
allergen
Which portal of exit will a bloodborne pathogen likely use?
parenteral
describes the degree or extent of disease that a pathogen causes
virulence
mechanisms pathogens use to overcome host defenses
virulence factors
Lesion that is produced in skin tests if the patients has an allergy to the test allergen
wheal and flare lesion
In what situation is hemolytic disease of the newborn a life and death situation?
when an RH- mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH+ fetus
Toxemia is a condition
where a toxin has entered the bloodstream resulting in systemic effects.
What is the general classification used to categorize leukocytes?
whether or not leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible when stained and then viewed by light microscopy
In 1984, in one of the most famous cross-species transplantations, a baboon heart was transplanted into an infant (Baby Fae). This surgery is an example of which type of grafts?
xenograft
