Microbiology Final Review

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

Bacterium Y, which has a generation time of 30 minutes, was inoculated in a sterile nutrient broth. After 3 hours of incubation, there are 7 x 10^5 cells of Bacterium Y were inoculated in the broth?

((7x10^5)/(2^6))= 1.1 x 10^4 cells

Decimal Reduction Time

(D value) Time required for 90% of a microbial population to be killed under specific conditions

Which statements describe DNA replication in bacteria?

-Both the strands act as templates . -The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously. -Elongation of the lagging strand proceeds away from replication fork. -The leading strand is synthesized continuously.

Which are true about purple sulfur and green sulfur bacteria?

-Both use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons. -Both are photosynthetic bateria. -Both preferentially use organic molecules as an electron source.

What are the inputs of the dark reactions of photosynthesis?

-CO2 -NADPH -ATP

Which of the following are actions that can lead to development of antimicrobial resistance?

-Discontinuing antimicrobials as soon as you feel better -Taking antimicrobials left over from old prescriptions -Using antibacterial agents to treat viral infections

What can you do to help minimize the development of population of bacteria resistant to antibiotics?

-I shall not save antibiotics for next time -I shall use antibiotics as prescribed -I shall not use another person's prescription.

Which of the following statements are true about the lac operon?

-If glucose is absent and lactose is present, there is transcription. -If both glucose and lactose are absent, there is no transcription. -If glucose is present and lactose is absent, there is no transcription.

Which statements are true about pilus?

-It is shorter than flagellum. -It is longer than fimbriae. -Only one or two are present per cell.

Which of the following are economic importance of fungi?

-Some fungi are useful tools in rDNA technology. -Some fungi cause diseases in humans. -Some fungi can synthesize antibiotics like penicillin. -Some fungi are used in making beer and wine.

What are the methods used to maintain stock cultures?

-Storage in a functioning refrigerator -Freeze drying -Freezing at -70 C

Which statements are true about cyanobacteria?

-They use water as the reducing agent. -They reduce carbon dioxide to glucose. -They do not deposit sulfur just like the purple and green bacteria. -They perform oxygenic photosynthesis.

A spoon has 100,000 cells of bacteria on its surface. If you treat the spoon with a bactericidal agent that has a D value of 2.5 minutes, how many minutes will it take to reduce the number of bacteria to 10. Your answer must be numeric with its unit like 2 min

10 min

What is the time and temperature requirement of sterilization in the autoclave?

121 C for 15 min

What is the time and temperature requirement of sterilization in dry heat ovens?

160 C-170 C for 2-3 h

Purple Bacteria

A group of anoxygenic phototrophs that are red, orange, or purple in color

Kinetoplastids

A group of flagellated protozoa that have a distinct mass in their large, single mitochondrion

Diplomonads

A group of flagellated protozoa that lack both mitochondria and hydrogenosomes

Acid-Fast Staining

A procedure used to stain certain microorganisms, particularly Mycobacterium species, that do not readily take up dyes

Scientific Method

A process of formulating a testable explanation for a question, doing controlled experiments to test that explanation, and then publishing the methods, results, and conclusions

F Pilus (Sex Pilus)

A protein appendage required for DNA transfer in the process of conjugation

Carbon Catabolite Repression (CCR)

A regulatory mechanism that allows cells to prioritize their use of carbon/energy sources

Which of these bacteria have plasmid containing gene that encodes ability to synthesize plant growth hormone thus resulting in tumor?

Agrobacterium

What are the two genera of bacteria associated with plants?

Agrobacterium and Rhizobium

What are two genera of bacteria associated with plants?

Agrobacterium and Rhizobium

F' Plasmid

An F plasmid that carries chromosomal genes

Viroid

An infectious agent of plants that consists only of RNA.

What is a prion?

An infectious agent that is made up of protein only.

Emerging infectious disease (EID)

An infectious disease that is increasing in incidence or geographic range

Prion

An infectious protein that causes a neurodegenerative disease.

Temperate Phage

Bacteriophage that can either become integrated into the host cell DNA as a prophage or direct a productive infection that leads to cell lysis

Lytic (Virulent) Phages

Bacteriophages that lyse their host

Nucleotide

Basic subunit of RNA or DNA consisting of a purine or pyrimidine covalently bonded to ribose or deoxyribose, which is covalently bound to a phosphate molecule

The fungus (yellow in color) shown in figure 12 belongs to what major group of fungi?

Basidiomycete

Which of the following statement is true?

Basidiospores are in the basidium in the basidiocarp.

What is the effect of hypotonic solution on cells without cell walls?

Cells swell then burst

What is the effect of a hypotonic solution on cells with cell walls?

Cells swell, but will not burst

HFR (High Frequency of Recombination) Cells

Cells that have the F plasmid integrated into their chromosome, allowing them to begin transferring the chromosome by conjugation

Endoflagella (Axial Filaments)

Characteristic structures of motility in spirochetes

Endergonic

Chemical reaction that requires a net input of energy because the products have more free energy than the starting compounds

Oxidation-Reduction (Redox) Reactions

Chemical reactions in which one or more electrons is transferred from one molecule to another

Diplococci

Cocci that typically occur in pairs

Quorum Sensing

Communication between bacterial cells by means of small molecules, permitting the cells to sense the density of cells

Energy Source

Compound that a cell oxidizes to harvest energy; also called an electron donor

Nitrogen Fixation

Conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia

What is the device that counts cells as they interrupt an electrical current?

Coulter counter

Red tide is caused by the overgrowth of ______.

Dinoflagellates

Spontaneous Generation

Discredited belief that organisms can arise from nonliving matter

Mycosis

Disease caused by fungal infection.

Pathogen

Disease-causing organism or agent

Microfilter (Membrane Filter)

Filter that has a pore size small enough to trap microorganisms but still allow liquids to pass through

Proton Motive Force

Form of energy generated as an electron transport chain moves protons across a membrane to create a chemiosmotic gradient

Proton Motive Force

Form of energy generated as an electron transport chain moves protons across a membrane to create a chemiosmotic gradient.

Restriction Fragments

Fragments generated when DNA is cut with restriction enzymes

Nitrifiers

Group of Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic nitrogen compounds such as ammonium or nitrate

Retroviruses

Group of viruses that have a single-stranded RNA genome; their enzyme reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA copy that is then integrated into the host cell chromosome

Reading Frames

Grouping of nucleotides in sequential triplets; an mRNA molecule has three possible reading frames, but only one is typically used in translation

Infection

Growth and multiplication of a parasitic organism or virus in or on the body of the host with or without the production of disease

Leading Strand

In DNA replication, the DNA strand that is synthesized as a continuous fragment

Lagging Strand

In DNA replication, the strand that is synthesized as a series of fragments

Contrast

In microscopy, the number of different visible shades in a specimen

Flagellum

In prokaryotic cells, a long protein appendage composed of subunits of flagellin that provides a mechanism of motility. In eukaryotic cells, a long whip-like structure composed of microtubules in a 9+2 arrangement that provides a mechanism of motility

Terminator

In transcription, a DNA sequence that stops the process

Virucide

Inactivates viruses

Pediculosis

Infestation with lice

What is the mode of action of trimethoprim?

Inhibits folate synthesis

Below are ingredients of a culture medium. What type of culture medium is it based on form and composition? -Peptone -3g -Beef extract -5g -Distilled water -1000mL

Liquid and complex

Drugs with (longer/shorter) half-life are given to patients less frequency?

Longer

Whose experiment finally disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?

Louis Pasteur

Membrane filtration is used to count cells in samples with (low or high) population density.

Low

Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (MBC)

Lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication that kills 99.9% of cells in a culture of a given bacterial strain in vitro

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

Lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication that prevents the growth of a given microbial strain in vitro

First-Line Drugs

Medications preferred because they are most effective as well as least toxic

Second-Line Drugs

Medications that are second choice because they are toxic or less effective

Phagolysosome

Membrane-bound vacuole generated when a phagosome fuses with lysosomes

Phagosome

Membrane-bound vacuole that contains the material engulfed by a phagocyte

Electron Microscope

Microscope that uses electrons instead of light and can magnify images in excess of 100,000×

Compound Microscope

Microscope that uses multiple magnifying lenses, thereby visually enlarging an object by a factor equal to the product of the magnification of each lens

Light Microscope

Microscope that uses visible light and a series of lenses to magnify objects

Antigen

Molecule that reacts specifically with an antibody or lymphocyte

Chemotaxis

Movement of a cell toward or away from a certain chemical in the environment.

Osmosis

Movement of water across a membrane from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution

Chromosome in bacteria is located in the region in the cytoplasm called ______.

Nucleoid

Cytopathic Effect

Observable change in a cell in vitro caused by a viral action such as cell lysis

Psychrotrophs

Organism that has an optimum temperature between 15°C and 30°C

Photoautotrophs

Organisms that use light as the energy source and CO2 as the major carbon source

Photoheterotrophs

Organisms that use light as the energy source and organic compounds as the carbon source

Microorganisms

Organisms too small to be seen with the naked eye

Convergent Evolution

Process that results in organisms with similar characteristics, developed independently as the organisms adapted to similar environments

Signal Transduction

Process that transmits information from outside of a cell to the inside, allowing that cell to respond to changing environmental conditions

Endocytosis

Process through which cells take up particles by enclosing them in a vesicle pinched off from the cell membrane

Primer

RNA molecule that initiates the synthesis of DNA

Photosynthesis

Reactions used to harvest the energy of light to synthesize ATP, which is then used to power carbon fixation

Intrinsic (Innate) Resistance

Resistance due to inherent characteristics of the organism.

Diatomaceous Earth

Sedimentary soil composed largely of the remains of diatoms; contains large amounts of silicon

Prokaryote

Single-celled organism consisting of a prokaryotic cell; members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotes.

All of the following are true about fungi except_____.

Some are prokaryotes and some are eukaryotes.

Coccus

Spherical-shaped bacterial cell

Asexual spores of zygomycetes are located in _____.

Sporangium

Simple Staining

Staining technique that uses a basic dye to add color to cells,

Which of the following groups of microorganisms oxidize organic compounds and produce a product that smell like a rotten egg?

Sulfur and Sulfate-reducing bacteria

Mycelium

Tangled, mat-like mass of fungal hyphae

F+ refers to a cell containing ______.

The F plasmid

Hybridization

The annealing of two complementary strands of DNA from different sources to create a hybrid double-stranded molecule

In Ames test, what does it mean when a chemical can cause Salmonella typhimurium his- to revert to his+?

The chemical is a mutagen.

Microbiome

The community of microorganisms, as well as their genetic information, in a given environment

Metagenomics

The cultivation-independent study of microbial communities or their members by analyzing the total microbial genomes in a sample taken directly from an environment

Sterilization

The destruction or removal of all microbes through physical or chemical means.

LD50

The dose that kills approximately 50% of hosts

Cytoskeleton

The dynamic filamentous network that provides structure and shape to cells

3' end

The end of a nucleotide strand that has a free hydroxyl group on the number 3 carbon of the sugar

5' end

The end of a nucleotide strand that has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of the sugar

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

The energy currency of cells. Hydrolysis of the bonds between its phosphate groups can be used to power endergonic (energyconsuming) reactions.

Normal microbiota

The group of microorganisms that colonize the body surfaces but do not usually cause disease

Lumen

The interior of an organ or organelle

Human Genome Project

The now-completed undertaking to sequence the human genome

Chlorophylls

The primary light-absorbing pigments used in photosynthesis

Sporulation

The process of producing a spore

Genotype

The sequence of nucleotides in an organism's DNA.

Global Control

The simultaneous regulation of numerous unrelated genes

Mycology

The study of fungi

Ecophysiology

The study of the physiological mechanisms organisms use to thrive in a given environment

Generation Time

The time it takes for a population to double in number.

What is one DISADVANTAGE associated with the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

They kill normal mircobiota

Hypha

Thread-like structure that characterizes the growth of most fungi and some bacterial species

In eukaryotes, light reactions of photosynthesis take place in the _____.

Thylakoid in chloroplast

Gene Expression

Transcribing and then translating the information in DNA to produce the encoded protein

What happens during the energy investment stage of glycolysis?

Two ATP are used up.

Thymine Dimers

Two adjacent thymine molecules on the same strand of DNA joined together through covalent bonds

Petri Dish

Two-part dish of glass or plastic often used to contain medium solidified with agar, on which bacteria are grown

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

Type of RNA molecule present in ribosomes.

Low-Level Disinfectants

Type of chemical used to destroy fungi, enveloped viruses, and vegetative bacteria except mycobacteria

Bacteriochlorophylls

Type of chlorophyll used by purple and green bacteria; absorbs wavelengths of light that penetrate to greater depths and are not used by other photosynthetic organisms

Fimbria

Type of pilus that enables cells to attach to a specific surface

Photoreactivation (Light Repair)

Using the energy of light to break the covalent bonds joining thymine dimers, thereby restoring the DNA to its original state

Protists

Usually single-celled eukaryotes that are not fungi, plants, or animals.

Enveloped Viruses

Viruses that have a lipid bilayer surrounding their nucleocapsid

Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?

Viruses use their own enzymes to replicate.

Which is the major composition of fungal cell wall?

chitin

What is the resting heat sensitive cell for nitrogen fixation formed by Azotobacter sp.?

cyst

Fungi cause human illness in three general ways. If the fungi grow on or in the human body causing an illness, what general way it is?

infection

Which statements are true about the Calvin cycle in plants and algae?

-ATP and NADPH are required. -CO2 is reduced to glucose. -It uses the products of the light reactions.

Differentiate aerobic respiration from anaerobic respiration based on number of ATP produced per molecule of glucose and final electron acceptors

-Aerobic respiration generates more ATP than anaerobic respiration -Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as final electron acceptor while anaerobic respiration uses sulfates and carbonates

Which of the following are autotrophs?

-All algae -Some archaea -Some bacteria

Which of these microorganisms are heterotrophs?

-All fungi -Some bacteria -All protozoa

Which of the following statements describe the microorganisms under domain Archaea and Bacteria?

-All of them are unicellular. -All of them do not have membrane-enclosed organelles. -Some of them can photosynthesize. -All of them have DNA located in the nucleoid

Which of the following processes do not use oxygen to generate ATP?

-Anaerobic cellular respiration -Ethanol fermentation -Lactic acid fermentation

What are the functions of glycocalyx?

-Attachment cells to each other and to the environment. -Protects the cells from desiccation. -Protects the cells from the body's defensive cells such as WBC.

Which of the following statements is true?

-Autoclaving cannot destroy prions. -A high level disinfectant can sterilize. -Low number of endospores may remain in semi-critical items. -Critical items must be sterilized before use.

Give the similarities of yeasts and molds.

-Both are heterotrophs -Both are eukaryotic -Both are fungi

What are true about purple and green sulfur bacteria?

-Both preferentially use organic molecules as an electron source -Both are photosynthetic bacteria

Which of the following statements describe an enzyme?

-Enzyme is not consumed after the reaction -Enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction in living cells -Enzyme has an active site to where substrate binds

Which of the following statements describe an enzyme?

-Enzyme is very specific on its substrate. -Enzyme has an active site to where substrate binds. -Enzyme is not consumed after the reaction. -Enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction.

Differentiate eukaryotic chromosome from prokaryotic chromosome.

-Eukaryotic chromosome is linear while prokaryotic is typically circular. -Eukaryotic chromosome is diploid while prokaryotic chromosome is haploid. -Eukaryotic chromosome contains histone proteins while prokaryotic chromosome contains non-histone proteins.

What are the functions of bacterial cell membrane?

-For ATP production -For photosynthesis -For regulation the transport of materials -For synthesis of substances

What are the functions of prosthecate in prosthecate bacteria?

-For attachment -For absorption of nutrients

Which of the following statements describe a Gram-positive cell wall?

-It has thicker peptidoglycan than Gram-negative -It does not have endotoxin -Porin proteins are absent

Which of the following describe the virus that caused COVID-19?

-It is an enveloped virus. -It is a single-stranded virus. -It is a corona virus.

Which of the following are true about the chromosome of bacteria?

-It is composed of DNA and non-histone proteins. -Typically, it is circular in shape. -It is double stranded.

Which of the following describe the genetic code?

-It is nearly universal. -An amino acid can be coded by more than one codon. -There are 61 codons coding for amino acids.

Which statements describe glycolysis?

-It occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells -It generates a net of 2 ATP per glucose molecule -It produces 2 NADH from the breakdown of one glucose to two pyruvic acid

Which of these structures are present only in Gram-negatives and absent in Gram-positives

-Lipid A -LPS

What are the outputs of the dark reactions of photosynthesis?

-NAD+ -ADP -Glucose

What are the differences between Needham and Spallanzani's experiments?

-Needham briefly heated his broth but Spallanzani heated the broth longer -Needham covered his flasks with cork but Spallanzani covered completely by melting the glass necks

What are the differences between Needham's and Spallanzani's experiments?

-Needham briefly heated his broth but Spallanzani heated the broth longer. -Needham covered his flasks with cork but Spallanzani covered completely his flask by melting the glass necks.

Which of the following substances are present only in gram negative cell walls?

-Outer membrane -Endotoxin

Amino acids are synthesized from precursor metabolites of __________.

-Pentose phosphate pathway -Glycolysis -Kreb's cycle

Sex pilus is essential for which of the following?

-Plasmid transfer conjugation in bacteria -Hfr conjugation in bacteria

Which of the following can cause algal bloom?

-Pollution from untreated sewage. -Run off of fertilizers along waterways and coastlines. -More nutrients are brought to the surface from the bottom due to upwelling of water cause by warmer temperature.

Which of the following statements describe Gram-positive cell wall?

-Porin proteins are absent. -It does not have endotoxin. -It has thicker peptidoglycan than Gram-negative.

Which of the following Do Not produce oxygen during photosynthesis?

-Purple bacteria -Green bacteria

Which statements describe pyruvate oxidation?

-Pyruvic acids are oxidized -Pyruvic acids are decarboxylated

Describe methanogens.

-Reduce carbon dioxide to methane -Anaerobic archaea -Can be isolated from sewage, swamps and marine sediments samples -oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane

Which of the following statements describe conjugation in bacteria?

-The donor bacterium is F+ -DNA passes from the donor bacterium to recipient bacterium through the sex pilus -The recipient bacterium is F-.

Explain why is adding high amount of salt and sugar prevent food spoilage caused by microorganisms?

-The process removes water from microorganisms killing them. -Adding high amount of salt and sugar creates a hypertonic environment to microorganisms.

Which statements are true about the synthesis of the leading strand?

-The strand is synthesized using only one RNA primer. -The strand is synthesized towards the fork.

Which are true statements about a DNA molecule?

-The two strands are complementary to each other; adenine-thymine and cytosine-guanine. -The strands composing the DNA molecule are held by hydrogen bonds. -It is composed of two strands. -The strands composing the DNA molecule are antiparallel.

Which are true statements about plasmids?

-They are circular in shape. -They are composed of DNA. -They are double stranded.

Why are anaerobes killed when exposed to oxygen?

-They cannot produce catalase and superoxide dismutase. -Because when exposed to oxygen they can produce reactive oxygen species (ROS).

Which of the following are true about subunit vaccines?

-They do not pose a risk for causing disease. -They are made up of parts of bacteria or viruses. -They are safer compared to vaccines made up of inactivated microbes.

Which of the following statements describe viruses?

-They have DNA or RNA as their genetic material. -They are obligate intracellular parasite. -They are acellular

Which are true about transposons?

-They may cause knockout mutations. -They are informally known as jumping genes. -They were first recognized in corn.

Which of the following are goals of recombinant DNA technology?

-To create organisms capable of producing useful products -To combine genetic material from one organism to produce new useful organisms -To be able to remove or correct damaging traits in humans -To eliminate undesirable traits from livestock or crops

Which of the following are horizontal gene transfers in bacteria?

-Transduction -Transformation -Conjugation

Which of the following will result to nucleotide substitution?

-alkylating agents -base analogues

How can you control microorganisms?

-by killing microorganisms -by inhibiting growth of microorganisms -by removing microorganisms

Which of the following antibiotics inhibit the cross-linking of the peptidoglycan chains?

-cephalosporin -glycopeptides -penicillins

Which of the following transport processes need transport proteins?

-facilitated diffusion -group translocation -sodium-potassium pump

Which of these structures are present only in Gram-negatives and absent in Gram-positives?

-lipid A -LPS

Which drugs are effective against Mycobacterium species?

-rifampin -isoniazid -ethambutol -pyrazinamide

What are some signs of viral infections in plants?

-stunted growth -yellowing of leaves -tumor formation

What microorganisms are killed by low level disinfectants/ and antiseptics?

-trophozoites -most Gram positive and Gram-negative bacteria -enveloped viruses -large non-enveloped viruses

Typically, how many chromosome/s is/are there in bacteria? Your answer must be numeric only such as 2.

1

Match the microbial control methods on the left with their uses. 1. UV radiation 2. filtration of fluid 3. ionizing radiation 4. incineration A. destroys microorganisms in the air B. sterilizes heat-sensitive medical equipment C. sterilizes wire loops D. sterilizes heat sensitive medications

1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C

Match the antimicrobial medications to their target structures in bacteria. 1. B lactams antibiotics 2. Polymixins 3. Fluoroquinolones 4. Tetracyclines 5. Sulfonamides A. cell wall B. DNA C. ribosomes D. cell membrane E. enzymes

1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C 5-E

Match the food preservation methods to their actions against microorganisms. 1. Weak organic acids 2. Refrigeration and freezing 3. Adding salts and sugar 4. Drying A. creates hypertonic environment B. altering the function of their cell membrane C. slowing or stopping enzyme reactions D. lowering the water activity below the minimum

1-B 2-C 3-A 4-D

Match the parts to their functions. 1. Ribosomes 2. Nucleus 3. Endoplasmic reticulum (smooth and rough) 4. Golgi bodies 5. Mitochondria A. for transport within the cell B. for protein synthesis C. ATP production D. contains the cell's genetic instructions (DNA) E. receives, processes, and packages large molecules for export

1-B 2-D 3-A 4-E 5-C

Match the phases of bacterial growth to their descriptions 1. Lag phage 2. Log phase 3. Stationary phase 4. Death phase 5. Phase of prolonged decline A. number of cells that are multiplying equals the number of cells that are dying B. enzymes required for growth are synthesized C. survivors have adapted to tolerate worsened conditions D. number of cells that are dying is greater than the number of cells that are multiplying E. cells divide at a constant rate

1-B 2-E 3-A 4-D 5-C

Match the disease with their causal agents. 1. walking pneumonia 2. whooping cough 3. syphilis 4. Lyme disease 5. chancroid A. Bordetella pertussis B. Haemophilus ducreyi C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Treponema pallidum E. Borrelia burgdorferi

1-C 2-A 3-D 4-E 5-B

Match the types of microorganisms based on temperature to their characteristics. 1. Psychrotrophs 2. Mesophiles 3. Thermophiles 4. Hyperthermophiles A. grow in hot springs and compost heaps B. grow in the human body C. cause spoilage of refrigerated foods D. can grow in the wall of hydrothermal vents

1-C 2-B 3-A 4-D

Match the structures in bacteria to their functions. 1. Flagella 2. Fimbriae 3. Inclusions 4. Plasma Membrane 5. Capsule A. for attachment B. protection from defensive cells (white blood cells) C. for storage of substances D. ATP production E. for movement

1-E 2-A 3-C 4-D 5-B

Match the examples to their method (terms) of microbial control 1. Plates and silverwares are washed in boiling water in campus dining hall 2. You wash your hands with plain soap and water. 3. Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in milk. 4. An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar. 5. You apply hand sanitizer (alcohol) in your hands. A. degerming B. antisepsis C. sterilization D. pasteurization E. sanitization

1-E 2-A 3-D 4-C 5-B

Bacterium Y, which has a generation time of 30 minutes, was inoculated in a sterile nutrient broth. After 3 hours of incubation, there are 7 x 105 cells of Bacterium Y in the broth. How many cells of Bacterium Y were inoculated in the broth? Your answer must be in scientific notation with units such as 1.6 x 10^2 cells. Round your answer to the nearest 10th. For example, your answer is 1.675 x 10^2 cells, type 1.7 x 10^2 cells. Put a space before and after the x. The x is lower case.

1.1 x 10^4 cells

E.coli growth in MacConkey agar is red. 0.1 ml of a urine sample diluted to 10^-2 was plated in MacConkey agar in duplicated. After 24 h incubation, there were 10 red colonies and 20 yellow colonies in one plate and in the other plate, there were 30 yellow colonies and 20 red colonies. Determine cfu/ml E.coli in the urine sample.

1.5 x 10^4 cfu/ml

You are using a Petroff-Hausser counting chamber to determine the number of cells in a liquid culture. After diluting the original sample 10-fold, you place the dilution into the chamber. You count an average of 15 cells in five different squares. How many cells per mL were present in your original sample? Your answer must be in scientific notation such as 1.0 x 10^2. Round your answer to the nearest 10th. For example, your answer is 1.675 x 10^5 cells, type 1.7 x 10^5 cells. Put a space before and after the x. The x is lower case.

1.9 x 10^8 cells

Refer to figure 1. What is the final dilution of tube 2? Your answer must be in fraction such as 1/10.

1/1000

Refer to the figure below. What is the final dilution of tube 2?

1/1000

An object has 1 x10^6 bacteria. If a process kills 90% of bacterial cells every 4 minutes, how many living cells of bacteria are there after 20 minutes Your answer must be numeric with its description such as like 10 cells

10 cells

In the figure below, how many cells survive after 2 minutes? Your answers must be numeric with its description such as 1000 cells.

100 cells

In the figure below, how many cells survive after 5 minutes?

10^4 cells

In the figure below, how many cells survive after 2 minutes? Your answers must be numeric with its description such as 10^5 cells

10^7 cells

Guacamole can be pasteurized by exposure to ________.

130,000 psi pressure

A blood sample of a patient with gentamicin was analyzed for the concentration of gentamicin using diffusion bioassay. Using figure 7, what is the zone of clearing if the concentration of gentamicin is observed to be 20 ug/mL.

17 mm

A bacterial culture in exponential growth contained 10^4 cells/mL at time zero and 10^10 cells/mL after 6 hours. What is the generation time? Your answer must be numeric with a unit (minutes) such as 10.1 minutes. Round your answer to the nearest 10th.

18.0 minutes

A bacterial culture's exponential growth contained 10^4 cells/mL after 6 hours. What is the generation time? Your answer must be numeric with unit (minutes) such as 10.1 minutes

18.1 minutes

A technician wanted to determine lactose-fermenting bacteria in a drinking water sample. Sp, he filtered 200 mL of the sample in a membrane filtration until that does not allow the passage of bacteria. The filter paper was put on the surface of MacConkey agar. After incubation, he observed 2 red colonies and 4 colorless colonies. How many lactose-fermenting bacteria are there per 100mL of drinking water?

2

In the figure below, how many D values are needed to reduce the number of survivors to 100?

2

Put the following events in order to describe plasmid conjugation in bacteria. 1. Fusion of cell membrane of donor cell and recipient cell 2. Attachment of sex pilus 3. Transfer of F factor 4. Sex pilus contracts pulling donor cell and recipient cell together

2-4-1-3

A pure culture in the exponential growth phase has a bacterial concentration of 6.4 x 10^8 cells/ml. If the bacterium has a generation time of 1 h, how long ago was the cell concentration 8.0 x 10^7 cells/ml? Your answer must be numeric with a unit such as 2 hours.

3 hours

In the figure below, how many D values are needed to reduce the survivors to 1? Your answer must be numeric only such as 3

4

A clinical microbiologist added 1 g of feces to tube 1 containing 99 ml saline. After mixing thoroughly the suspension, he removed 1 ml and added it to tube 9 ml saline. He then plated 0.1 ml from tubes 1 and 2 in duplicated in nutrient agar . After 24h incubation, he counted 400 and 450 colonies in the plates added with aliquot from tube 1 and 39 and 45 colonies in the plates added with aliquot from tube 2. Determine cfu/g of feces.

4.2 x 10^5cfu/g

One g of fecal matter was suspended in 9 mL saline solution (tube 1). After mixing gently but thoroughly throughout, one mL from tube 1 was removed and added to tube 99 mL saline solution (tube 2). One mL suspension from tube 2 was plated in nutrient agar and after 24 h incubation, 45 bacterial colonies were counted. Determine cfu/g bacteria in the fecal sample.

4.5 x 10^4 cfu/g

One g of fecal matter was suspended in 9 ml saline solution (tube1). After mixing gently but thoroughly, one ml from tube 1 was removed and added to a tube with 99 ml saline solution (tube 2). One ml suspension from tube 2 was plated in nutrient agar and after 24 h incubation, 45 bacterial colonies were counted. Determine cfu/g bacteria in the fecal sample. Your answer must be in scientific notation such as 1.0 x 10^2. Round your answer to the nearest 10th. For example, your answer is 1.675 x 10^5 cfu/g, type 1.7 x 10^5 cfu/g. Put a space before and after the x. The x is lower case.

4.5 x 10^4 cfu/g

In figure 5, three sets of five tubes are prepared. The 1st set is inoculated with 10mL of sample, the 2nd set with 1mL of sample, and 3rd set with 0.1 mL of sample. After incubation at 37oC 24 h, positive results (red to yellow) for each set are observed, determine MPN.

49

Refer to the figure below. Figure A shows a normal bacteria expressing the gene. The sequence of polypeptide is Met-Lys-Phe-Gly. In figure 8, a point mutation occurred, a T was incorporated instead of C. What is the sequence of nucleotides of the mutant mRNA? The upper strand is used for transcription.

5' AUG AAG UUU AGC UAA 3'

What is the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA if the lower strand of the hypothetical DNA below is used to make mRNA? 5'ATG-CAT-TTT-GTA3'

5' AUG-CAU-UUU-GUA 3'

Refer to figure 2 and determine cfu/mL bacteria in the sample. Your answer must be in scientific notation with a unit such as 1.0 x 10^2 cfu/mL. Round your answer to the nearest 10th. For example, your answer is 1.675 x 10^5 cfu/mL, type 1.7 x 10^5 cfu/mL. Put a space before and after the x. The x is lower case.

5.0 x 10^5 cfu/mL

Refer to the figure below and determine cfu/ml bacteria in the sample.

5.0 x 10^5 cfu/ml

Denaturation requires water and denaturation of proteins is the antimicrobial action of alcohol. Which of the following solutions of alcohol is more effective against COVID-19?

70%

How many ATP are generated from complete aerobic cellular respiration of two molecules of glucose in bacteria? Your answer must be numeral with description such as 2 ATP

76 ATP

A pure culture in exponential growth phase has a bacterial condition of 6.4 x 10^8 cells/ml. If the bacterium has a generation time of 1 hour, how long ago was the cell concentration 8.0 x 10^7 cells/ml?

8.0 x 10^7 = 6.4 x 10^8 x 2^n -> n=-3 -> 3= t(hours)

Agar Plate

A Petri dish that contains a solidified culture medium

What is transducing phage?

A bacterial virus carrying bacterial DNA.

Lysogen

A bacterium that carries phage DNA (a prophage) integrated into its genome.

Organelle

A cell structure that performs a specific function

Recombinant

A cell that carries a DNA molecule derived from two different DNA molecules

Mutation

A change in the nucleotide sequence of a cell's DNA that is passed on to daughter cells.

Lysogenic Conversion

A change in the properties of a bacterium, conferred by a prophage

Carcinogen

A chemical or radiation that increases the risk of cancer

Antiviral Medication

A chemical that acts by interfering with the infection cycle of a virus and is used to treat a viral infection; also called an antiviral drug.

Disinfectant

A chemical that destroys many, but not all microbes.

Sterilant

A chemical used to destroy all microorganisms and viruses in a product, rendering it sterile; also called a sporocide

Chemotherapeutic Agent

A chemical used to treat disease.

Virion

A complete virus in its inert non-replicating form; also referred to as a viral particle.

Antibiotic

A compound naturally produced by molds or bacteria that inhibits the growth of or kills other microorganisms.

Chemically Defined Medium

A culture medium composed of exact quantities of pure chemicals; generally used only for specific experiments when nutrients must be precisely controlled.

Complex Medium

A culture medium that contains protein digests, extracts, or other ingredients that vary in their chemical composition

Differential Medium

A culture medium with an ingredient that certain microorganisms change in a recognizable way; used to differentiate microbes based on their metabolic traits.

Batch Culture

A culture system such as a tube, flask, or agar plate in which nutrients are not replenished and wastes are not removed

Chain Terminator

A dideoxynucleotide; when this molecule is incorporated into a growing strand of DNA, no additional nucleotides can be added, so elongation of the strand stops

Antiseptic

A disinfectant nontoxic enough to be used on skin.

Colony

A distinct mass of cells arising from a single cell

Capsule

A distinct, thick gelatinous material that surrounds some microorganisms

Protist

A eukaryotic organism other than a plant, animal, or fungus; may be unicellular or multicellular

Pre-mRNA

A eukaryotic transcript that has not yet had the introns removed

Mold

A filamentous fungus

Rhizobia

A group of Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria that form symbiotic relationships with leguminous plants such as clover and soybeans

Green Bacteria

A group of anoxygenic phototrophs that are green or brownish in color

Parabasalids

A group of flagellated protozoa that lack mitochondria but have hydrogenosomes

Loboseans

A group of protozoa that have amoeboid body forms and no flagella

Heteroloboseans

A group of protozoa that have amoeboid body forms but also form flagellated cells

Apicomplexans

A group of protozoa that penetrate host cells by means of a structure called an apical complex

Roundworm

A helminth that has a cylindrical, tapered body; a nematode

Flatworm

A helminth with a flat body form; further divided into the tapeworms (cestodes) and the flukes (trematodes)

Dead-End Host

A host from which a parasite typically is not passed to another host, and therefore the parasite cannot complete its life cycle

Peptidoglycan

A macromolecule that provides strength to the cell wall; it is found only in bacteria.

Therapeutic Index

A measure of the relative toxicity of a medication, defined as the ratio of minimum toxic dose to minimum effective dose

Cryo-Electron Microscopy (cryo-EM)

A method of electron microscopy in which specimens are rapidly frozen, lessening damage to the sample

Ultra-High-Temperature (UHT)

A method that uses heat to render a product free of all microorganisms that can grow under normal storage conditions

Prototroph

A microorganism that does not require any organic growth factors.

Auxotroph

A microorganism that requires an organic growth factor.

Ligand

A molecule that specifically binds to a given receptor

Enzyme

A molecule, usually a protein, that functions as a catalyst, speeding up a biological reaction.

Plasmodium

A multinucleated form of a slime mold.

Nonsense Mutation

A mutation That generates a stop codon, resulting in a shortened protein

Base Substitution

A mutation in which the wrong nucleotide has been incorporated

Missense Mutation

A mutation that changes the amino acid encoded by DNA

Silent Mutation

A mutation that does not change the amino acid encoded

Cytoplasmic Membrane

A phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins that surrounds the cytoplasm and defines the boundary of the cell.

Alga

A photosynthetic protist

R Plasmid

A plasmid that encodes resistance to one or more antimicrobial medications.

Pure Culture

A population descended from a single cell.

DNA Microarray

A probe-based technique used to study gene expression patterns.

DNA Gel Electrophoresis

A procedure used to separate DNA fragments according to their size.

Codon

A series of three nucleotides that code for a specific amino acid.

Alternative Sigma Factor

A sigma factor that recognizes promoters controlling genes needed only in non-routine situations

Colony-Forming Units (CFUs)

A single cell or multiple cells attached to one another that give rise to a single colony

Anaerobe Container

A specialized container that can maintain anaerobic conditions; a chemical reaction in a packet generates those conditions

Capsule Stain

A staining method used to observe capsules

Endospore Stain

A staining method used to observe endospores

Flagella Stain

A staining method used to observe flagella

Organ

A structure composed of different tissues coordinated to perform a specific function

Which of the following is an example of degerming?

A surgeon washes her hands before surgery.

Dideoxy Chain Termination Method

A technique used to determine the nucleotide sequence of a strand of DNA; in the procedure, a small amount of chain terminator (a dideoxynucleotide) is added to an in vitro synthesis reaction

Ames Test

A test that screens for potential carcinogens by measuring the ability of a substance to increase the mutation frequency in a bacterial strain

Efflux Pumps

A transporter that moves molecules out of the cell

Composite Transposons

A transposon composed of one or more genes flanked by insertion sequences

Inducer Exclusion

A type of carbon catabolite repression that prevents a carbon/energy source from being transported into the cell

Multiphoton Microscopy

A type of scanning laser microscopy that is less damaging to cells than confocal

Bacteriophages (Phages)

A virus that infects bacteria

Bacteriophage

A virus that infects bacteria; often shortened to phage

Helminth

A worm; parasitic helminths often have complex life cycles

Helminth

A worm; parasitic helminths often have complex life cycles.

Refer to the figure below. Determine which is the competitive inhibitor (A or B) and support your answer.

A, because it binds in the active site.

On which of the following DNA strands would UV radiation most effect?

AATTAGTTC

What substance is formed when H+ go back inside the membrane through ATP synthase?

ATP

In the light reactions of photosynthesis, the energy from sunlight is transformed into energy in _____________.

ATP and NADH

In the light reactions of photosynthesis, the energy from sunlight is transformed into energy in ___________.

ATP and NADPH

FAD/FADH2

Abbreviation for flavin adenine dinucleotide, an electron carrier

NADP+/NADPH

Abbreviations for the oxidized/ reduced forms of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate, an electron carrier

NAD+/NADH

Abbreviations for the oxidized/ reduced forms of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide, an electron carrier

Dimorphic Fungi

Able to assume two forms, as the yeast and mold forms of pathogenic fungi,

Which change in a gene's DNA sequence would have the least effect on the eventual amino acid sequence produced from it?

Addition/deletion of three consecutive nucleotides

Combination Therapy

Administration of two or more antimicrobial medications simultaneously to prevent growth of mutants that might be resistant to one of the antimicrobials

What is the action of azoles?

Affect cell membrane of fungi

Germicide

Agent that kills microorganisms and inactivates viruses

Intercalating Agents

Agents that insert between base pairs in a DNA double helix

What amino acid is carried by the tRNA illustrated below?

Ala

Lichen is association of ______

Alga and fungus

Which of the following statements describe fungi?

All fungi have cell walls made up of chitin. All fungi are heterotrophs.

Signal Sequence

Amino acid sequence that directs cellular machinery to secrete the polypeptide

What type of metabolite are amino acids and antibiotics?

Amino acids are primary metabolites and antibiotics are secondary metabolites.

Storage Granule

An accumulation of a high-molecular-weight polymer synthesized from a nutrient that a cell has in relative excess

Virus

An acellular infectious agent consisting of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat.

Viroid

An acellular infectious agent consisting only of RNA.

Prion

An acellular infectious agent consisting only of protein.

Red Tide

An algal bloom that discolors water due to the abundant growth of dinoflagellates

Antimicrobial Medication

An antibiotic or other chemical that acts by inhibiting or killing microorganisms and is used to treat an infectious disease; also called an antimicrobial drug.

Narrow-Spectrum Antimicrobial

An antimicrobial medication that is effective against a limited range of microorganisms.

Broad-Spectrum Antimicrobial

An antimicrobial medication that is effective against a wide range of microorganisms, often including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Anaerobic Chamber

An enclosed compartment maintained in an anaerobic environment; a special port is used to add or remove items

Constitutive Enzyme

An enzyme that is constantly synthesized by a cell

Plasmid

An extrachromosomal DNA molecule that replicates independently of the chromosome.

Endospore

An extraordinarily resistant dormant cell produced by some types of bacteria.

Dysbiosis

An imbalance in the normal microbiota; may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications

Coulter Counter

An instrument that counts cells in a suspension as they pass through a narrow channel

Polycistronic

An mRNA molecule that carries the information for more than one gene

Acid-Fast

An organism that retains the primary stain in the acid-fast staining procedure

Arthropod

Animal with an external skeleton and jointed appendages such as an insect or arachnid; may act as a vector in transmitting disease.

In Salmonella, antibiotic A has an MIC of 2 ug/mL and antibiotic B has a MIC of 50 ug/mL. Which antibiotic has the higher degree of activity against Salmonella?

Antibiotic A

Penicillin

Antibiotic that interferes with the synthesis of the peptidoglycan portion of bacterial cell walls

O Antigen

Antigenic polysaccharide portion of lipopolysaccharide, the molecule that makes up the outer layer of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

Co-Trimoxazole

Antimicrobial medication composed of the synergistic combination of sulfonamide and trimethoprim

Mutagen

Any agent that increases the frequency at which DNA is altered (mutated)

Methanogen

Any of a group of archaea that obtain energy by oxidizing hydrogen gas, using CO2 as a terminal electron acceptor, thereby generating methane

A scientist discovers a new species near coral reefs in Australia. On basic microscopic examination and after conducting a few simple experiments, he finds this single-celled species is photosynthetic, has a cell wall and its internal structures are not bound by membranes. It is likely a/an _______________

Archaea

Below are microorganisms cell wall composition. Which is mismatch?

Archaea - Peptidoglycan

Methanogens

Archaea that obtain energy by oxidizing hydrogen gas, using CO2 as a terminal electron acceptor, thereby generating methane

Which of the following are the sexual spores of Baker's yeast?

Ascospores

Binary Fission

Asexual process of reproduction in which one cell divides to form two daughter cells

Budding

Asexual reproductive technique that involves a pushing out of a part of the parent cell that eventually gives rise to a new daughter cell. A process by which some viruses are released from host cells

Polyribosome

Assembly of multiple ribosomes attached to a single mRNA molecule; also called a polysome

Salmonella his- is a/an (auxtotroph or prototroph) and (has or lacks) a functional gene for histidine synthesis.

Auxtotroph; lacks

Refer to figure below. Which tRNA (A, B, C or D) would occupy the A site of the ribosome?

B

Refer to figure 5. In which phase, E. coli utilizes lactose?

B → C

Figure 6 shows the results in the isolation of mutants (histidine auxotrophs) using replica plating method. Plate 1 is the master plate and the colonies (round blue objects with letters) growing in the plate are from cells that have been exposed to mutagens. Which of the colonies are histidine auxotrophs? Type the letters and separate them by comma such as A, B, C, D. Type a space after each comma.

B, D, G

Arrange the following steps to describe transformation in bacteria. A. Fragment of donor DNA enters competent bacteria. B. Bacteria die, their DNA are degraded and released in the environment. C. Fragment of donor DNA integrates with the recipient bacteria D. Transformants are formed.

B-A-C-D

Which does not refer to the shape of a virus?

Bacillus

Mesophiles

Bacteria that grow most rapidly at temperatures between 20°C and 45°C

Gram-Positive Bacteria

Bacteria that have a cell wall characterized by a thick layer of peptidoglycan; when Gram stained, these cells are purple.

Gram-Negative Bacteria

Bacteria that have a cell wall characterized by a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane; when Gram stained, these cells are pink.

Which of the following are the most resistant living organisms?

Bacterial endospores

Restriction-Modification System

Bacterial system that uses restriction enzymes to defend against invading foreign DNA; modification enzymes methylate the host DNA to protect it

Generalized Transducing Particle

Bacteriophage progeny that contains part of a bacterial genome instead of phage DNA due to an error during packaging

Why are Gram-negative (G-) bacteria more resistant to antimicrobial agents than Gram-positive (G+) bacteria?

Because G- have an outer membrane

Sulfa drugs inhibit synthesis of folic acid from PABA in bacteria. Why do cells in person taking sulfa drugs can still synthesize folic acid?

Because humans do not need PABA to make folic acid.

Why do capnophiles grow in candle jars?

Because in candle jars the concentration of carbon dioxide is high.

Explain why mycobacteria are the most resistant of all other vegetative bacteria.

Because of the presence of mycolic acids.

Why would abnormal prions accumulate and normal (PrPC) does not?

Because prion protein is much more resistant to proteases than the normal cellular protein in the cells so the prion protein will accumulate.

Putting foods in a functioning refrigerator (10 C) inhibits the growth of mesophiles. Why?

Because temperature in the refrigerator is below their minimum requirement.

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?

Biochemical characteristics

Bioluminescence

Biological production of light

Which is/are benefited in the relationship between cyanobacterium and fungi?

Both algae and cyanobacterium

Which of the following uses inorganic phosphate ADP to ATP?

Both oxidative level phosphorylation and photophosphorylation.

Which statement is false about photosynthesis in purple bacteria or/and in green bacteria

Both use water as reducing agent

Which statement is false about photosynthesis in purple bacteria or/and in green bacteria?

Both use water as reducing agent.

Which of the following can produce the most ATP?

Breakdown of one glucose to 6CO2 and 6H2O

Pasteurization

Brief heat treatment that reduces the number of spoilage organisms and destroys disease-causing microbes.

A crime lab has collected a very tiny amount of DNA from the fingernails of a rape victim and the lab wanted to increase the amount of DNA to be able to do some tests to help solve the crime. How would the lab do this?

By PCR or polymerase chain reaction

How does the CRISPR system protect host bacteria from bacteriophages?

By blocking the infections of same types of phages

How do spirochetes move?

By corkscrew movement of flagella

Figure 6 shows the results in the isolation of mutants (histidine auxotroph) using replica plating method. Plate 1 is the master plate and the colonies (round subjects with letters) growing in the plate are from the cultures that have been exposed to mutagens. Which of the colonies are histidine auxotrophs?

C & E

Redox is also described as transfer of hydrogen. In the reaction below, What is the reducing agent and oxidizing agent? C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O

C6H12O6 is the reducing agent and 6O2 is the oxidizing agent

The genetic material of viruses is enclosed by a protein coat called _________

Capsid

A virion is composed of ______.

Capsid with either RNA or DNA

Which glycocalyx is firmly attached to the cell surface?

Capsule only

__________ reaction releases ATP and __________ of molecules.

Catabolic, breakdown

Selective Toxicity

Causing greater harm to a pathogen than to the hos

Pili

Cell surface structures that allow cells to adhere to certain surfaces; some types are involved in a mechanism of DNA transfer.

Eukaryotic Cell

Cell type characterized by a membrane-bound nucleus.

Prokaryotic Cell

Cell type characterized by the lack of a membrane-bound nucleus.

RNA Interference (RNAi)

Cellular mechanism that targets specific mRNA molecules for destruction by using small RNA fragments to identify it

Biosynthesis

Cellular processes that synthesize and assemble the subunits of macromolecules, using the energy of ATP

Enterics

Characteristic structures of motility in spirochetes,

Terminal Electron Acceptor

Chemical that is ultimately reduced as a consequence of fermentation or respiration.

High-Level Disinfectant

Chemical used to destroy all viruses and vegetative cells, but not endospores

Of the four groups of fungi, which form flagellated asexual and sexual spores?

Chytridiomycetes

Plaque

Clear area in a monolayer of cells.

What are the two genera of bacteria that form endospores?

Clostridium and Bacillus

Turbidity

Cloudiness in a liquid

Hemagglutination

Clumping of red blood cells

Genetic Code

Code that correlates a codon (set of three nucleotides) to one amino acid

Start Codon

Codon at which translation is initiated; in prokaryotes, typically the first AUG after a ribosome-binding site

Stop Codon

Codon that does not code for an amino acid and is not recognized by a tRNA; signals the end of the polypeptide chain

DNA Library

Collection of cloned molecules that together encompass the entire genome of an organism of interest; each clone can be viewed as one "book" of the total genetic information of the organism of interest

Genome

Complete set of genetic information in a cell or a virus.

Which is the correct order in the direction of the flow of electrons donated by NADH?

Complex I - Ubiquinone - Complex III - Complex IV - O2

SOS Repair

Complex, inducible repair process used to repair highly damaged DNA

Sigma (σ) Factor

Component of RNA polymerase that recognizes and binds to promoters

Intermediate Filament

Component of the eukaryotic cell cytoskeleton

Base Analogs

Compound that structurally resembles a nucleobase closely enough to be incorporated into a nucleotide in place of the natural nucleobase

Disinfection By-Products (DBPs)

Compounds formed when chlorine or other disinfectants react with naturally occurring chemicals in water

Primary Metabolites

Compounds synthesized by a cell during the log phase

Growth Factors

Compounds that a particular bacterium requires in a growth medium because it cannot synthesize them

Reducing Agents

Compounds that readily donate electrons to another compound, thereby reducing the other compound

Some protozoa divide sexually by _____.

Conjugation

The horizontal gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is ______.

Conjugation

Why does conjugation between an Hfr strain and an F- strain not result in two Hfr strains?

Conjugation is typically disrupted before the full copy of fertility factor can be transferred.

The first step in bacterial conjugation is ______.

Contact between the two cells

Cytoplasm

Contents of a cell, excluding the nucleus

Tissue

Cooperative associations of cells in a multicellular organism

Cell Culture (Tissue Culture)

Cultivation of animal or plant cells in the laboratory

Selective Medium

Culture medium that inhibits the growth of certain microorganisms and therefore favors the growth of desired microorganisms

Enrichment Culture

Culture method that provides conditions to enhance the growth of one particular species in a mixed population

Spirillum

Curved rod long enough to form spirals

Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA Cycle).

Cyclic metabolic pathway that incorporates acetyl-CoA, ultimately generating ATP (or GTP), CO2, and reducing power, also called the Krebs cycle and the citric acid cycle

Bacillus

Cylindrical-shaped bacterium; also referred to as a rod

Actin Filaments

Cytoskeletal structures of eukaryotic cells that allow movement within the cell

Microtubules

Cytoskeleton structures of a eukaryotic cell that form mitotic spindles, cilia, and flagella; long hollow cylinders composed of tubulin

The liquid portion of the cytoplasm is called ____

Cytosol

WOF tRNA (A to H) have occupied the E-site of the ribosome?

D

The procedure used to identify individuals by their genetic sequences is known as _______.

DNA fingerprinting

The procedure used to identify individuals by their unique genetic sequences is known as ________

DNA fingerprinting

A tool of rDNA technology that involves fixing single-strand DNA molecules on a glass slide or nylon membrane is ______.

DNA microarrays

Recombinant DNA Molecule

DNA molecule created by joining DNA fragments from two different sources.

Vector

DNA molecule, often a plasmid, that functions as a carrier of cloned DNA.

cDNA

DNA obtained by using reverse transcriptase to synthesize DNA from an RNA template in vitro; lacks introns that characterize eukaryotic DNA

Non-Homologous Recombination

DNA recombination that does not require extensive nucleotide sequence similarity in the stretches that recombine.

Core Genome

DNA sequences found in all strains of a particular species

Mobile Gene Pool

DNA sequences found in only some strains of a given species; includes plasmids, transposons, phages, and genomic islands

Horizontal Gene Transfer

DNA transfer from one bacterium to another by conjugation, DNAmediated transformation, or transduction.

If Gram-negative bacteria produced proteins that cause changes in porin proteins of their outer membrane, what type of mechanism of resistance to antimicrobial medication is it?

Decreased uptake of the medication

Plasmolysis

Dehydration and shrinkage of cytoplasm from the cell wall as a result of water diffusing out of a cell

Which of the following describes rDNA technology?

Deliberate modification of the genome of an organism for practical purpose

Genetic Engineering

Deliberately altering an organism's genetic information using in vitro techniques.

Boiling kills microorganisms by ____.

Denaturation of proteins

What mechanism to acquire and retain nutrients is present in bioluminescent bacteria?

Derive nutrients from others

Exergonic

Describes a chemical reaction that releases energy because the starting compounds have more free energy than the products

Antiparallel

Describes opposing orientations of the two strands of DNA in the double helix

Synergistic

Describes the acting together of agents to produce an effect greater than the sum of the effects of the individual agents

Bioinformatics

Developing and using computer technology to store, retrieve, and analyze nucleotide sequence data,

Chemostat

Device used to grow bacteria in the laboratory that allows nutrients to be added and waste products to be removed continuously

Parasitic worms, even meters-long tapeworms, are studied in microbiology because______.

Diagnosis usually involves microscopic examination of patient samples.

Differentiate diffusion from facilitated diffusion.

Diffusion does not need transport protein while facilitated diffusion needs transport protein.

A student is going to isolate penicillin resistant bacteria from a soil sample. So, the student prepares a soil suspension and spread the suspension in nutrient agar plates added with penicillin. The method used by the student to isolate mutants is (direct / indirect) selection of mutants.

Direct

Origin of Replication

Distinct region of a DNA molecule at which replication is initiated

Peritrichous Flagella

Distribution of flagella all around a cell

F+ cell

Donor bacterial cell in conjugation, transfers the F plasmid

Cyst

Dormant resting protozoan cell characterized by a thickened cell wall

Cyst

Dormant resting protozoan cell characterized by a thickened cell wall\

DNA Replication

Duplication of a DNA molecule.

What is (are) harmed in the relationship between Bdellovibrio sp. And E.coli?

E. coli only

Reaction-Center Pigments

Electron donors in the photosynthetic process; an example is chlorophyll a

Which of the following processes produce the most ATP from one molecule of glucose?

Electron transport system

Which of the following is used to insert DNA into cells.

Electroporation

What is the other name of lipid A?

Endotoxin

Active Transport

Energy-consuming process by which cells move molecules across a membrane and against a concentration gradient

Which of the following are the most susceptible to disinfectants or antiseptics?

Enveloped viruses

Describe the release of enveloped viruses and non-enveloped viruses from their host cells.

Enveloped viruses are released by budding and non-enveloped viruses are released after the host cell dies.

Inducible Enzyme

Enzyme synthesized only under certain environmental conditions

Catalase

Enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to produce water (H2O) and oxygen gas (O2)

β-Lactamase

Enzyme that breaks the b-lactam ring of a b-lactam antibiotic, thereby inactivating the medication

Superoxide Dismutase

Enzyme that degrades superoxide to produce hydrogen peroxide

Lysozyme

Enzyme that degrades the peptidoglycan layer of the bacterial cell wall

DNA Ligase

Enzyme that forms covalent bonds between adjacent fragments of DNA

DNA Gyrase

Enzyme that helps relieve the tension in DNA caused by the unwinding of the two strands of the DNA helix during DNA replication

DNA Polymerase

Enzyme that synthesizes DNA, using an existing strand as a template to make a new complementary strand.

RNA Polymerase

Enzyme that synthesizes RNA using one strand of DNA as a template

Primase

Enzyme that synthesizes small fragments of RNA to serve as primers for DNA synthesis during DNA replication

Helicase

Enzyme that unwinds the DNA near the replication fork

Repressible Enzyme

Enzyme whose synthesis can be turned off by certain conditions

DNA Polymerases

Enzymes that synthesize DNA; they use one strand as a template to make the complementary strand

Which of the following chemical agents is used to sterilize medical devices?

Ethylene oxide gas

Fastidious

Exacting; refers to organisms that require growth factors

Hypersensitivity

Exaggerated immune response that damages tissue

Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when _______.

Exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells.

Plasmid

Extrachromosomal DNA molecule that replicates independently of the chromosome.

Which of the following transport processes move molecules down their electrochemical gradient through carrier or channel proteins?

Facilitated transport

Immersion Oil placed in between the glass slide and objective lens prevents refraction of light decreasing numerical aperture, thereby increasing resolution.

False

Immersion oil placed in between the glass slide and objective lens prevents refraction of light decreasing numerical aperture, thereby increasing resolution.

False

Surgical instruments contaminated with prions are sterilized by autoclaving.

False

Which statement best explains why more ATP is made per molecule of NADH than per molecule of FADH2?

Fewer protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane when FADH2 is the electron donor than when NADH is the electron donor

Depth Filter

Filter with complex passages that allow fluid to pass through while retaining microbes

What is the function of the oxygen in aerobic cell respiration?

Final electron acceptor

In feedback inhibition, the inhibitor of the biochemical pathway is the __________.

Final or end product

Phase of Prolonged Decline

Final stage of the growth curve; most cells die during this phase, but a few are able to grow

Primary Stain

First dye applied in a multistep differential staining procedures; generally stains all cells

Penicillin was discovered by ______.

Fleming

Zooplankton

Floating and swimming small animals and protozoa found in marine environments, usually in association with the phytoplankton

Electromagnetic Radiation

Form of energy that travels in waves and has no mass; examples include visible and UV light rays and X rays

Wild Type

Form of the cell or gene as it typically occurs in nature.

Transcript

Fragment of RNA, synthesized using one of the two strands of DNA as a template

Commercially Sterile

Free of all microorganisms capable of growing under normal storage conditions; the endospores of some thermophiles may remain

Sterile

Free of all viable microbes, including endospores and viruses.

Determine the color of the cells in Gram-positive (G+) and Gram-negative (G-) bacteria after the application of the Gram stains?

G+ are purple and G- are red.

Determine the color of the cells in Gram-positive (G+) bacteria and Gram-negative (G-) bacteria after a successful Gram staining?

G+ are purple and G- are red.

What bacteria (G+ or G-) are favored to grow in MacConkey agar (MAC)? What type of culture medium is MAC based on function?

G- ; both selective and differential culture medium

Below are Gram-positive bacteria (G+) or Gram-negative bacteria (G-) and their color after the application of Gram stains. Which is mismatched?

G- after adding the decolorizer -> purple

If a scientist wanted to find DNA fragments of a particular size in a sample, the best technique would be ______.

Gel electrophoresis

The insertion of foreign DNA directly into a cell's nucleus using an instrument to propel a tungsten or gold bead coated with DNA is called _______.

Gene gun

The application of rDNA technology involves locating genes on nucleic acid molecule , frequently by using DNA probes to identify restriction fragments (restriction fragmentation) or clones containing the gene of interest.

Gene mapping

Selectable Marker

Gene that encodes a selectable phenotype such as antibiotic resistance

It is an application of rDNA technology that involves replacing a patient's defective gene with a fragment containing a functional gene.

Gene therapy

Oncogene

Gene whose activity is involved in turning a normal cell into a cancer cell

Microbe

General term encompassing microorganisms and acellular infectious agents such as viruses

Replicase

General term for any virally encoded-encoded enzyme that replicates the genome of an RNA virus

Central Metabolic Pathways

Glycolysis, the TCA cycle, and the pentose phosphate pathway; the transition step is often considered a part of the TCA cycle

Myxobacteria

Gram-negative bacteria that group together to form complex multicellular structures called fruiting bodies.

Prosthecate Bacteria

Gram-negative bacteria that have extensions projecting from the cells, thereby increasing their surface area.

Sulfur-Oxidizing Bacteria

Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy by oxidizing elemental sulfur and reduced sulfur compounds, generating sulfuric acid.

Nitrifiers

Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic nitrogen compounds such as ammonium or nitrite.

Cyanobacteria

Gram-negative oxygenic phototrophs; genetically related to chloroplasts.

Lactic-Acid Bacteria

Gram-positive bacteria that generate lactic acid as a major end product of their fermentative metabolism.

Teichoic Acids

Gram-positive cell wall component, composed of chains of a common subunit, either ribitolphosphate or glycerol-phosphate, to which various sugars and D-alanine are usually attached

Coryneforms (Diphtheroids)

Gram-positive cells that are club-shaped and arranged to form V shapes and palisades; resembles the typical microscopic morphology of Corynebacterium species

Sulfa Drugs

Group of antimicrobial medications that inhibit folic acid synthesis

β-Lactam Antibiotics

Group of antimicrobial medications that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis and have a shared chemical structure called a b-lactam ring

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs)

Group of fatal neurodegenerative diseases in which brain tissue develops sponge-like holes

Operon

Group of linked genes whose expression is controlled as a single unit

Electron Transport Chain (ETC)

Group of membrane-embedded electron carriers that pass electrons from one to another, and, in the process, create a proton motive force.

Electron Transport Chain

Group of membrane-embedded electron carriers that pass electrons from one to another, and, in the process, move protons across the membrane to create a proton motive force

Species

Group of related isolates or strains; the lowest basic unit of taxonomy

Growth Curve

Growth pattern observed when cells are grown in a closed system; consists of five stages—lag phase, log phase (or exponential phase), stationary phase, death phase, and the phase of prolonged decline

Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS)

Harmful derivatives of O2 such as superoxide (O2 - ) and hydrogen peroxideterm-430 (H2O2) that are highly toxic to cells

They are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi to derive nutrients from other living organisms.

Haustoria or Haustorium

Some scientists were skeptical of Pasteur's results disproving spontaneous generation theory because they could not reproduce the results . How did John Tyndall help explain the conflicting idea?

He demonstrated that some broths require greater boiling times because they contained heat-resistant bacteria forms

Some scientists were skeptical of Pasteur's results disproving spontaneous generation theory because they could not reproduce the results. How did John Tyndall help explain the conflicting idea?

He demonstrated that some broths require greater boiling times because they contained heat-resistant bacterial forms.

Application of ________ in acid-fast staining facilities the uptake of the primary stain by AF+ bacteria.

Heat

What facilitates the entry of malachite green and carbolfuchsin into the cells when doing endospore staining and acid-fast staining?

Heat

Taq Polymerase

Heat-stable DNA polymerase of the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus

Fungus

Heterotrophic eukaryotic organism containing chitin in the cell wall

Fungus

Heterotrophic eukaryotic organism with a chitinous cell wall.

Protozoa

Heterotrophic protists

Protozoa

Heterotrophic protists.

________ cell refers to a cell in which the F plasmid has been integrated into the cell chromosome. It is a three-letter word answer.

Hfr

______ cell refers to a cell in which the F plasmid has been integrated into the cell chromosome.

Hfr or high frequency recombination

Bacterial plasma membrane does not have cholesterol, instead some have __________ to help maintain the stability of the membrane.

Hopanoids

Cell A and Cell B are totally unrelated, but Cell A receives DNA from Cell B and incorporates DNA into its chromosome. This type of gene transfer is ______.

Horizontal gene transfer

Fungi cause human illness in three ways. If the fungus causes an allergic reaction to the person, what general way is it?

Hypersensitivity reaction

Acute Infection

Illness characterized by signs and symptoms that develop quickly but last a relatively short time

Which of the following is an example of xenotransplant?

Implanting pig heart valves into a human heart

Complementary

In DNA structure, the nucleobases that characteristically hydrogen bond to one another; A (adenine) is complementary to T (thymine), and G (guanine) is complementary to C (cytosine)

Replication Fork

In DNA synthesis, the site at which the double helix is being unwound to expose the single strands that can function as templates

Lag Phase

In a bacterial growth curve, stage characterized by extensive macromolecule and ATP synthesis but no increase in cell number

Death Phase

In a bacterial growth curve, stage in which the number of viable cells decreases at an exponential rate

Stationary Phase

In a bacterial growth curve, stage in which the number of viable cells remains constant

Decolorizing Agent

In a differential staining procedure, the chemical used to remove the primary stain

Counterstain

In a differential staining procedure, the stain applied to give a contrasting color to bacteria that do not retain the primary stain

Explain how bacteria maintain their near-neutral internal pH when exposed to an acidic or basic environment?

In acidic environments, bacteria pump out H+ and in basic environment, bacteria bring in H+.

Antagonistic

In antimicrobial therapy, a combination of antimicrobial medications in which the action of one interferes with the action of the other

Capped

In eukaryotic gene expression, adding a methylated guanine derivative to the 59 end of the mRNA

Polyadenylation

In eukaryotic gene expression, adding a series of adenine derivatives to the 3' end of an mRNA transcript

Activator

In gene regulation, a protein that enhances the ability of RNA polymerase to initiate transcription

Competent

In horizontal gene transfer, physiological condition in which a bacterial cell is capable of taking up DNA

Indirect Selection

In microbial genetics, a technique for isolating mutants and identifying organisms unable to grow on a medium on which the parents do grow; often involves replica plating

Vector

In molecular biology, a piece of DNA that acts as a carrier of a cloned fragment of DNA. In epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe; most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks.

Fruiting Body

In myxobacteria, a complex aggregate of cells, visible to the naked eye, produced when nutrients or water are depleted. In fungi, a specialized spore-producing structure.

Outer Membrane

In prokaryotic cells, the unique lipid bilayer of Gram-negative cells that surrounds the peptidoglycan layer. In eukaryotic cells, the membrane on the cytoplasmic side of organelles that have double membranes

Theory

In science, an explanation supported by an extensive amount of experimental evidence

Quantal Assay

In virology, a method that uses several dilutions of a virus culture administered to appropriate hosts to determine virus titer

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

In vitro technique used to repeatedly duplicate (amplify) a specific region of a DNA molecule, increasing the number of copies exponentially.

Which of the following is used to sterilize inoculating wire loops?

Incineration

Refer to the figure below. Why there is an increasing rate of reaction when temperature is increased from 0oC to 40oC?

Increasing the temperature causes more effective collision between enzyme and substrate.

In lambda phage replication, what is a lysogen?

Infected host cell

Lysogenic Infection

Infection by a temperate phage that results in a prophage residing in the host

Persistent Infection

Infection in which the causative agent remains in the body for long periods of time, often without causing symptoms of disease

Healthcare-Associated Infections (HAIs)

Infections acquired while receiving treatment in a hospital or other healthcare facility

Chronic Infections

Infections that develop slowly and persist for months or years

Preservation

Inhibition of microbial growth to delay spoilage.

Bacteriostatic

Inhibits the growth of bacteria.

Activation Energy

Initial energy required to break a chemical bond

Chemolithotrophs use ___________ as their sources of energy. For example, hydrogen bacteria can use __________ as their source of energy

Inorganic compounds, H2

When cells are placed in hypotonic solution, water moves (outside or inside) the cell because the concentration of solutes is (higher or lower) than the concentration of solution inside the cell.

Inside; Lower

Flow Cytometer

Instrument that counts cells in a suspension by measuring the scattering of light by individual cells as they pass by a laser

All of the following microbial control methods are microbiostatic EXCEPT _______.

Ionizing radiation

Which of the following drugs synthesis of mycolic acids?

Isoniazid

How does M13 phage genome enter the host cell like E.coli?

It attaches to protein on F pilus.

How does the M13 phage genome enter the host cell like E. coli?

It attaches to protein on F pilus.

What is the mode of action of lysozyme in bacterial cell wall?

It breaks the bonds linking the amino sugars in the glycan chain.

All are true about Kreb's cycle except _________.

It consists of 10 stages and occurs in the mitochondria in eukaryotes

Describe the structure and composition of plasma membrane according to the fluid mosaic model.

It is composed of two layers phospholipids and mosaic of proteins.

Which of the following describes photosynthesis by photoheterotrophs?

It uses hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons.

Who showed that flasks containing broth made from plant or animal gave rise to microorganisms even though the broth was heated and the flask was sealed with cork?

John T. Needham

Bactericidal

Kills bacteria

Fungicide

Kills fungi; used to describe the effects of some antimicrobial chemicals

What type of protozoa have at least one flagellum and a distinctive complex mass of DNA in their large single mitochondrion made of interlocking rings?

Kinetoplastids

Tissue Culture

Laboratory culture of plant or animal cells

Anoxic

Lacking O2

In the lac operon, the presence of ________ cause the release of the repressor protein from the DNA, facilitating transcription.

Lactose

The (lagging or leading) strand of the replicating DNA synthesizes Okazaki fragments.

Lagging

Genomic Island

Large segment of DNA acquired from another species through horizontal gene transfer; an example is a pathogenicity island

Prophage

Latent form of a temperate phage whose DNA has been inserted into the host's DNA

Provirus

Latent form of a virus in which the viral DNA is incorporated into the chromosome of the host

In this animal virus infection, the viral genome (provirus) remains silent in the host cell but can reactivate.

Latent infections

A set of clones representing the entire genome of an organism is known as a gene _____.

Library

What enzyme joins the gene of interest and plasmid together?

Ligase

Endotoxin

Lipopolysaccharide, a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative cells that can cause symptoms such as fever and shock; lipid A is responsible for the effects of endotoxin

Which type of protozoa have ameboid (flexible) body form?

Loboseans and heteroloboseans

Suzy wants to determine the antimicrobial ability of her body wash to Staphylococcus epidermis. Suzy then, asks you what phase in the growth curve of S. epidermis she will use. What will you advise and why?

Log phase because the cells are active and are sensitive to the antibacterial agent in the body wash.

Spirochetes

Long helical bacteria that have flexible cell walls and endoflagella.

When mature T4 phages are released from the host cell, what enzyme digest the cell wall?

Lysozyme

A phage that replicates inside the host cell and then lyses its host during its release is what type of phage?

Lytic phage

A certain antibiotic was tested for its efficiency. Different concentrations of the antibiotic were prepared in broth tubes and then the tubes were inoculated with the test bacterium. Growth of the test bacterium was observed after 24 hours. Then 0.1 mL from the 24 hour broth tubes was placed in nutrient agar and the agar plates were incubated for another 24 hour. Determine the MIC and MBC from figure 9.

MIC is 4 ug/mL and MBC is 10 ug/mL

Mushroom

Macroscopic reproductive structures formed by some types of fungi

Antigenic Shift

Major change in a viral surface antigen that renders antibodies made against the previous version ineffective

Selectively Permeable

Material that allows only certain molecules to pass through freely

CRISPR System

Mechanism by which bacterial cells maintain a historical record of phage infections, and thereby become immune to subsequent infections by the same phages; the system also protects against other types of foreign DNA

Excision Repair

Mechanism of DNA repair in which a fragment of single-stranded DNA that contains mismatched bases is removed and replaced

Two-Component Regulatory System

Mechanism of gene regulation that uses a sensor and a response regulator

Transduction

Mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in which bacterial DNA is transferred inside a phage coat.

DNA-Mediated Transformation

Mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in which the bacterial DNA is transferred as "naked" DNA.

Conjugation

Mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in which the donor cell physically contacts the recipient cell.

Transport Systems

Mechanisms used to transport nutrients and other small molecules across the cytoplasmic membrane.

The application of rDNA technology has largely replaced traditional identification techniques. This involves examining a patient specimens for sequences unique to certain pathogens.

Medical diagnosis

Non-Critical Instruments

Medical instruments and surfaces such as stethoscopes and countertops that only come into contact with unbroken skin

Semicritical Instruments

Medical instruments such as endoscopes that come into contact with mucous membranes, but do not penetrate body tissues

Critical Instruments

Medical instruments such as needles and scalpels that come into direct contact with body tissue

Carbapenem-Resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE)

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae that are resistant to carbapenems, as well as nearly all other antimicrobial medications

Nucleus

Membrane-bound organelle in a eukaryotic cell that contains chromosomes and the nucleolus

Lysosomes

Membrane-bound structure in eukaryotic cells that contains powerful degradative enzymes

Endolysosome

Membrane-bound vacuole formed when an endosome fuses with a lysosome

Precursor Metabolites

Metabolic intermediates that can be either used to make the subunits of macromolecules or oxidized to generate ATP.

Glycolysis

Metabolic pathway that oxidizes glucose to pyruvate, generating ATP and reducing power

Pentose Phosphate Pathway

Metabolic pathway that starts the degradation of glucose, generating reducing power in the form of NADPH, and two precursor metabolites

Calvin Cycle

Metabolic pathway used by many autotrophs to incorporate CO2 into an organic form; also called the Calvin-Benson cycle

Anaerobic Respiration

Metabolic process in which electrons are transferred from the electron transport chain to a terminal electron acceptor other than O2

Aerobic Respiration

Metabolic process in which electrons are transferred from the electron transport chain to molecular oxygen (O2)

Fermentation

Metabolic process that stops short of oxidizing glucose or other organic compounds completely, using an organic intermediate as a terminal electron acceptor.

Respiration

Metabolic process that transfers electrons stripped from a chemical energy source to an electron transport chain, generating a proton motive force that is then used to synthesize ATP.

Secondary Metabolites

Metabolic products synthesized during late-log and stationary phase

Penicillin Enrichment

Method for increasing the relative proportion of auxotrophic mutants in a population by using penicillin to kill growing prototrophic cells

Pour-Plate Method

Method of inoculating an agar medium with bacterial cells; the inoculum and melted agar are added to a Petri dish, where the agar hardens; the colonies grow both on the surface and within the medium

Wet Mount

Method of observing a living organisms in a drop of liquid using a microscope

Plate Count

Method to measure the concentration of viable cells by counting the number of colonies that develop from a sample added to an agar plate.

Plaque Assay

Method used to measure the number of viral particles present in a sample.

Recombinant DNA Techniques

Methods used to join DNA from two different sources in vitro

Which microbes are responsible for spoilage of acidic foods?

Microbes that can grow at high concentration of H+

When nutrient is low, Myxobacter sp forms a resting body called ______

Microcyst

Psychrophile

Microorganism that grows best between -5°C and 15°C

Penicillins are effective against what group of microorganisms?

Microorganisms with cell wall made up of peptidoglycan.

Phytoplankton

Microscopic free-floating photosynthetic organisms.

Inclusion Body

Microscopically visible structure within a virally infected cell, representing the site at which the virus replicates

A mutation that results in changing a codon such that a different amino acid is specified is called ______ mutation.

Missense mutation

Fluid Mosaic Model

Model that describes the dynamic nature of the cytoplasmic membrane

Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP)

Molecule that accepts an inorganic phosphate (Pi) generating ATP

Corepressor

Molecule that binds to an inactive repressor, thereby allowing it to function as a repressor

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

Molecule that makes up the outer layer of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.

Electron Carriers

Molecules cells use to shuttle electrons; they readily accept and then donate electrons

High-Temperature-Short-Time (HTST) Method

Most common pasteurization protocol; using this method, milk is pasteurized by holding it at 72°C for 15 seconds

Simple Diffusion

Movement of solutes from a region of high concentration to one of low concentration; does not involve transport proteins

Point Mutation

Mutation in which only a single base pair is involved

Frameshift Mutation

Mutation resulting from the addition or deletion of a number of nucleotides not divisible by three

Spontaneous Mutation

Mutation that occurs naturally during the course of normal cell processes

Induced Mutations

Mutation that results from the organism being treated with an agent that alters its DNA

What is the symbiotic relationship between bioluminescent bacteria and squid or fish?

Mutualism

What is the symbiotic relationship between the organisms with mycorrhiza?

Mutualism

What is the waxy substance present only in acid fast positive bacteria and absent in acid fast negative bacteria?

Mycolic acid

All of the following are obligate intracellular parasites except ________.

Mycoplasma

Which of the following is the brain-eating amoeba?

Naegleria fowleri

Which type of staining is suitable to color bacterial capsules?

Negative Staining

The conversion of ammonium up to nitrate is accomplished by ______.

Nitrosomonas alone

Will heating destroy the structure of viroids?

No, because viroids are single-stranded RNA.

Water Molds

Non-photosynthetic type of organism that forms masses of white threads on decaying material; similar to the fungi but not related genetically

Cofactor

Non-protein component required for the activity of some enzymes

Coenzyme

Non-protein organic compound that assists some enzymes, acting as a loosely bound carrier of small molecules or electrons

Below are acid fast positive bacteria (AF+) or acid fast negative bacteria (AF-) and their color after the application of acid fast stains. Which is mismatched?

None is mismatched

All are beneficial effects of microorganisms except ________

None, all are beneficial effects of microorganisms

Cookies have a water activity of 0.3. Can normal bacteria grow on this food? Support your answer.

Normal bacteria cannot grow on this food because the water activity is too low to support their metabolism.

Mitosis

Nuclear division process in eukaryotic cells that ensures the daughter cells receive the same number of chromosomes as the original parent

Okazaki Fragments

Nucleic acid fragment synthesized as a result of the discontinuous replication of the lagging strand of DNA

Semiconservative Replication

Nucleic acid replication that results in each of the two double-stranded molecules containing one of the original strands (the template strand) and one newly synthesized strand

Activator-Binding Site

Nucleotide sequence that precedes an ineffective promoter

Promoter

Nucleotide sequence to which RNA polymerase binds to start transcription.

Dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP)

Nucleotide that lacks the 39OH group, the portion required for the addition of subsequent nucleotides during DNA synthesis

In animal host cells, the genome of DNA viruses are mostly replicated in the _____ and genome of RNA viruses are replicated in the _______.

Nucleus ; cytoplasm

Burst Size

Number of newly formed virus particles released when the infected host cell lyses

Limiting Nutrient

Nutrient that limits growth because it is present at the lowest concentration relative to need

Redox is also described as transfer of hydrogen. In the reaction below. What substance is reduced? C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

O2

What is/are the final electron acceptor/s of nitrifiers?

O2 only

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

One strand runs in 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs 3' to 5' direction.

lac Operon

Operon that encodes the proteins required for the degradation of lactose; it serves as one of the most important models for studying gene regulation

Mitochondrion

Organelle in eukaryotic cells in which the majority of ATP synthesis occurs

Endoplasmic Reticulum

Organelle of eukaryotes where macromolecules destined for the external environment of other organelles are synthesized

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

Organelle of eukaryotic cells that is the site of lipid synthesis and degradation and calcium ion storage

Peroxisome

Organelle that uses hydrogen peroxide and superoxide to degrade substances

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Organelle where proteins destined for locations other than the cytoplasm are synthesized

Chloroplasts

Organelles in photosynthetic eukaryotic cells that harvest the energy of sunlight and use it to synthesize ATP, which is then used to fuel the synthesis of organic compounds

Eukaryote

Organism composed of one or more eukaryotic cells; members of the domain Eukarya are eukaryotes.

Intermediate Host

Organism in which asexual reproduction or an immature form of a parasite occurs.

Definitive Host

Organism in which sexual reproduction or the adult form of a parasite occurs.

Halotolerant

Organism that can grow in relatively high salt concentrations, up to 10% NaCl

Aerotolerant Anaerobes

Organism that can grow in the presence of O2 but never uses it as a terminal electron acceptor; an obligate fermenter

Obligate Anaerobe

Organism that cannot multiply, and is often killed, in the presence of O 2 .

Facultative Anaerobe

Organism that grows best if O 2 is available, but can also grow without it.

Heterotroph

Organism that obtains carbon from an organic compound such as glucose

Halophile

Organism that prefers or requires a high salt (NaCl) medium to grow

Obligate Aerobe

Organism that requires O 2 .

Saprophyte

Organism that takes in nutrients from dead and decaying matter

Autotroph

Organism that uses CO2 as its main carbon source

Thermophile

Organism with an optimum growth temperature between 45°C and 70°C

Neutrophiles

Organisms that can live and multiply within the range of pH 5 (acidic) to pH 8 (basic) and have a pH optimum near neutral (pH 7)

Primary Producer

Organisms that convert CO2 into organic compounds; by doing so, they sustain other life forms, including humans

Obligate Intracellular Parasites

Organisms that grow only inside living cells

Alkaliphiles

Organisms that grow optimally at a pH above 8.5

Acidophiles

Organisms that grow optimally at a pH below 5.5

Chemolithotrophs

Organisms that harvest energy by oxidizing inorganic chemicals.

Chemoorganotrophs

Organisms that harvest energy by oxidizing organic chemicals.

Hyperthermophiles

Organisms that have an optimum growth temperature between 70°C and 110°C

Extremophiles

Organisms that live under extremes of temperature, pH, or other environmental conditions

Chemotrophs

Organisms that obtain energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

Chemoorganotrophs

Organisms that obtain energy by oxidizing organic compounds such as glucose; in general, chemoorganotrophs are chemoorganoheterotrophs

Microaerophiles

Organisms that require small amounts of O2 (2% to 10%) for growth, and are inhibited by higher concentrations

Phototrophs

Organisms that use light as a source of energy

Which requires a higher temperature and longer time to sterilize? Support your answer.

Oven sterilization because penetration of heat is slower due to absence of water.

Analyze the figure and determine which enzyme is not affected by pH?

Papain

Intron

Part of the eukaryotic chromosome that does not code for a protein; removed from the RNA transcript before the mRNA is translated

Which process produces precursor metabolites and NADPH needed to make nucleotides?

Pentose phosphate pathway

If the upper strand of the DNA molecule below acts as template to make mRNA, what is the sequence of amino acids that will be translated from the mRNA? 3' AAG-CAA-GAC-GAA 5' 5' TTC-GTT -CTG-CTT 3'

Phe-Val-Leu-Leu

Which groups of microorganisms use CO2 as carbon source and light as source of energy?

Photoautotrophs

The organisms that use light as a source of energy and glucose as source of carbon are called _____.

Photoheterotrophs

Anoxygenic Phototrophs

Photosynthetic organisms that do not produce O2

Oxygenic Phototrophs

Photosynthetic organisms that produce O2

Accessory Pigments

Photosynthetic pigments such as carotenoids that capture light energy not absorbed by chlorophylls

Algae

Photosynthetic protists.

Replicon

Piece of DNA that is capable of replicating; contains an origin of replication

Antennae Pigments

Pigments of photosynthetic organisms that make up a complex that acts as a funnel, capturing light energy and transferring it to a reaction-center chlorophyll

Which of the following viruses enter their host cells via wounds in cell walls?

Plant viruses

Transgenic

Plants and animals into which new DNA has been introduced by genetic engineering

A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a _____.

Plaque

Chlorophyll in photosynthetic bacteria is located in the _________.

Plasma membrane

Plasma membrane of thermophiles is stable at higher temperatures and plasma membrane of psychrophiles are stable at lower temperatures. Explain Why?

Plasma membrane of thermophiles has higher content of saturated fatty acids while plasma membrane of psychrophiles has higher content of unsaturated fatty acids.

Plasma membrane of thermophiles is stable at higher temperatures and plasma membrane of psychrophiles is stable at lower temperatures. Explain why?

Plasma membrane of thermophiles has higher content of saturated fatty acids while plasma membrane of psychrophiles has higher content of unsaturated fatty acids.

F Plasmid

Plasmid found in donor cells of Escherichia coli that codes for the F or sex pilus and makes the cell F+

Resistance (R) Plasmid

Plasmid that carries genetic information for resistance to one or more antimicrobial medications and heavy metals

Conjugative Plasmid

Plasmid that carries the genes for a sex pilus and can transfer copies of itself to other bacteria during conjugation

They are extrachromosomal DNA containing genes for antibiotic resistance, heavy metal resistance, sex pilus and others. It is a one-word answer (plural) and spelling matters.

Plasmids

Ergot

Poisonous substance produced by the fungus that causes rye smut

Biofilm

Polymer-encased community of microorganisms.

Which of the following processes is used to "amplify" DNA making large numbers of copies from a small sample?

Polymerase chain reaction

Agar

Polysaccharide extracted from marine algae that is used to solidify microbiological media

Glycocalyx

Polysaccharide layer that surrounds some cells and generally functions as a mechanism of either protection or attachment

Channel

Pore-forming membrane protein that allows specific ions to diffuse into and out of a cell

Aquaporins

Pore-forming membrane proteins that specifically allow water to pass through

Lipid A

Portion of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that anchors the molecule in the lipid bilayer of the outer membrane of Gram-negative cells; it plays an important role in the body's ability to recognize the presence of invading bacteria, but is also responsible for the toxic effects of LPS

Exons

Portions of eukaryotic genes that will be transcribed and then translated into proteins; interrupted by introns

Basic stain has a ______ charge chromogen and forms an ionic bond with _____ charge part of the cell.

Positively; negatively

Aflatoxin

Potent toxin made by Aspergillus species

Bacteriostatic

Prevents the growth of bacteria, but does not kill them.

An infectious protein is an ______.

Prion

_________ cause several neurodegenerative diseases in humans and animals such as spongiform encephalitis (sponge-like appearance of the brain tissues).

Prions

DNA Cloning

Procedure in which a fragment of DNA is inserted into a vector and then transferred into another cell, where it then replicates.

Kirby-Bauer Disc Diffusion Test

Procedure used to determine if a bacterium is susceptible to concentrations of an antimicrobial medication usually present in the bloodstream of an individual receiving the medication

Aseptic Technique

Procedures that help prevent the accidental introduction of unwanted microbes.

Aseptic Technique

Procedures that help prevent the introduction of unwanted microbes

Homologous Recombination

Process by which a cell replaces a stretch of DNA with a segment that has a similar nucleotide sequence.

Reversion

Process by which a second mutation corrects a defect caused by an earlier mutation

Exocytosis

Process by which eukaryotic cells expel material; membrane-bound vesicles inside the cell fuse with the plasma membrane, releasing their contents to the external medium

Pinocytosis

Process by which eukaryotic cells take in liquid and small particles from the surrounding environment by internalizing and pinching off small pieces of their own membrane, bringing along a small volume of liquid and any material attached to the membrane

Phage Induction

Process by which phage DNA is excised from bacterial chromosomal DNA

Antigenic Variation

Process by which routine changes occur in a microbial surface antigen

Meiosis

Process in eukaryotic cells by which the chromosome number is reduced from diploid (2n) to haploid (1n)

Carbon Fixation

Process of converting inorganic carbon (CO2) to an organic form

DNA Sequencing

Process of determining the nucleotide sequence of a DNA molecule.

Schizogony

Process of multiple fission in which the nucleus divides a number of times before individual daughter cells are produced

Disinfection

Process of reducing or eliminating pathogenic microorganisms or viruses in or on a material so that they are no longer a hazard

Splicing

Process that removes introns from eukaryotic precursor RNA to generate mRNA

Catabolism

Processes that harvest energy released during the breakdown of compounds such as glucose, using it to synthesize ATP.

Anabolism

Processes that synthesize and assemble the subunits of macromolecules, using energy of ATP; biosynthesis.

Mutagens are useful in biotechnology research for _______.

Producing organisms with altered phenotypes.

Apoptosis

Programmed cell death

The extension of cytoplasm and cell wall of Caulobacter sp is called ____.

Prosthecate

Capsid

Protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid of a virus

Photosystems

Protein complexes within which chlorophyll and other light-gathering pigments are organized; located in special photosynthetic membranes

Cyclic AMP-Activating Protein (CAP)

Protein that binds to cAMP to promote gene transcription

Repressor

Protein that binds to the operator site and prevents transcription

Chaperone

Protein that helps other proteins fold properly

Which of the following microorganisms don't have cell wall?

Protozoa

You isolated a microorganism from the soil and your analysis shows that the microorganism is unicellular, no cell wall and has a nucleus. What could this microorganism be?

Protozoa

WOF microorganisms generates NADP by reverse electron transport?

Purple bacteria

In transcription, what enzyme binds to a specific region of DNA and breaks the hydrogen bonds to begin the process. It is a two-word answer (singular) and spelling matters.

RNA polymerase

Below are enzymes involved in DNA replication and their actions. Which is mismatched?

RNA primase - removes RNA primers

Monocistronic

RNA transcript that carries one gene

When fatty foods are broken down by microorganisms producing fatty acids and glycerol, the type of degradation is __________

Rancidity

F- cell

Recipient bacterial cell in conjugation

Allosteric

Refers to an enzyme or other protein that contains a site to which a small molecule can bind and change the protein's activity

Oxidized

Refers to loss of electrons

Reduced

Refers to the gain of electrons

Zone of Inhibition

Region around a disc where bacteria are unable to grow due to adverse effects of the compound in the disc

Operator

Region located immediately downstream of a promoter to which a repressor can bind; binding of the repressor to the operator prevents RNA polymerase from progressing past that region, thereby blocking transcription

Nucleoid

Region of a prokaryotic cell containing the DNA

Secretion

Releasing a substance from a cell or tissue

Mismatch Repair

Repair mechanism in which an enzyme cuts the DNA near a mismatched nucleobase, resulting in the removal and replacement of a short stretch of nucleotides

Bdellovibrio ______.

Reproduces inside bacterial cells

Acquired Resistance

Resistance that develops due to genetic changes, including mutation and horizontal gene transfer.

When bacteria are protected from infection by bacteriophages by quickly degrading the incoming bacteriophage DNA is what type of bacterial defenses against phages?

Restriction modification system

Figure 11 is an illustration of the structures of common bread mold. Identify the structures that is encircled and pointed by the blue arrow (be specific).

Rhizoids

Coccobacillus

Rod that is so short it can be mistaken for a coccus

Tumbles occur when the flagella_______.

Rotate clockwise

In the Ames test, a chemical is a presumptive mutagen if ______.

S. typhimurium his- will grow in minimal glucose medium because it reverts to S. typhimurium his+

Transposon

Segment of DNA that can move from one site to another in a cell's genome.

Natural Selection

Selection by the environment of those cells best able to grow in that environment

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists in the laboratory is called ______.

Semi-synthetic

An E-strip containing different concentrations of tetracycline was put on the surface of an agar plate swabbed with E.coli. After 24 hours of incubation, the result is shown in figure 10. Using the table next to the results, determine if E.coli is sensitive, intermediate, or resistant to the antibiotic.

Sensitive

Ribosome-Binding Site

Sequence of nucleotides in bacterial mRNA to which a ribosome binds; the first time the codon for methionine (AUG) appears after that site, translation generally starts

Anticodon

Sequence of three nucleotides in a tRNA molecule that is complementary to a codon in mRNA

Golgi Apparatus

Series of membrane-bound flattened sacs within eukaryotic cells that serve as the site where macromolecules synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum are modified before they are transported to other destinations

Metabolic Pathway

Series of sequential chemical reactions

Regulon

Set of related genes transcribed as separate units but controlled by the same regulatory protein

Sphaerotilus and Leptothrix are examples of ____.

Sheathed bacteria

Insertion Sequence (IS)

Short piece of DNA that has the ability to move from one site on a DNA molecule to another; simplest type of transposable element

Vibrio

Short, curved rods-haped bacterial cell

Fluke

Short, non-segmented, bilaterally symmetrical flatworm

A mutation that changes a codon into a different codon,but both codons specify the same amino acid, thus causing no change in the resulting polypeptide is called ______ mutation.

Silent mutation

Which of the following is an example of sanitization?

Silver wares in a public restaurant are washed in boiling water.

Streak-Plate Method

Simplest and most commonly used technique for isolating bacteria; a series of successive streak patterns is used to sequentially dilute an inoculum on the surface of an agar plate

DNA Probe

Single-stranded piece of DNA, tagged with an identifiable marker, that is used to detect a complementary sequence.

Active Site

Site on an enzyme to which the substrate binds; also known as the catalytic site

Classification of viruses is based on all of the following except ___

Size of virus

Scabies

Skin disease caused by a parasitic mite

Antigenic Drift

Slight changes in a viral surface antigen that render antibodies made against the previous version only partially protective

Cellular Slime Molds

Slime mold with a vegetative form composed of single, amoeba-like cells. When they run out of food, the single cells aggregate into a mass of cells called a slug

Gas Vesicles

Small rigid compartments produced by some aquatic bacteria that provide buoyancy to the cell

High-Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) Filters

Special filters that remove from air nearly all particles, including microorganisms, that have a diameter 0.3 μm or larger

Fluorescence Microscope

Special type of microscope used to observe cells that have been stained or tagged with fluorescent dyes

Heterocyst

Specialized non-photosynthetic cells of cyanobacteria within which nitrogen fixation occurs

The protein projections on the surface of an animal virus that are involved in attachment to the host cell are called ______.

Spikes

Exponential (Log) Phase

Stage in the growth curve during which cells divide at a constant rate; generation time is measured during this period of active multiplication.

Gram Stain

Staining technique that divides bacteria into one of two groups, Grampositive or Gram-negative, on the basis of color after staining

Negative Staining

Staining technique that uses an acidic dye to stain the background against which colorless cells can be seen

Most Probable Number (MPN) Method

Statistical estimate of cell numbers; a sample is successively diluted to determine the point at which subsequent dilutions receive no cells

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

Strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are resistant to methicillin

Template

Strand of nucleic acid that a polymerase uses to synthesize a complementary strand

Arthur was isolating bacteria from a soil suspension. He used an inoculating loop to sequentially spread a loopful of the soil suspension on the surface of a TSA agar plate. What method to obtain well-isolated colonies was Arthur using?

Streak plating

Open Reading Frames (ORFs)

Stretch of DNA, generally longer than 300 base pairs, that has a reading frame beginning with a start codon and ending with a stop codon; the region likely encodes a protein

Pathogenicity Islands

Stretches of DNA in bacteria that code for virulence factors and appear to have been acquired from other bacteria

Ribosome

Structure involved in protein synthesis.

Chromosome

Structure that carries an organism's hereditary information

Ribosome

Structure that facilitates the joining of amino acids during translation; composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and protein.

Spikes

Structures on the outside of the virion that bind to host cell receptors

Genomics

Study and analysis of the nucleotide sequence of DNA

Substrate

Substance on which an enzyme acts to form products. Surface on which an organism will grow.

Inducer

Substance that activates transcription of certain genes

Bactericide

Substance that kills bacteria

Which statement is true about the induce-fit model of enzyme action?

Substrate binds to enzyme and enzyme changes in shape to conform to the shape of the substrate

WOF uses phosphate from organic molecules to phosphorylate ADP to ATP?

Substrate level phosphorylation

Metabolism

Sum total of all the enzymatic chemical reactions in a cell

Lichen

Symbiotic association of a fungus and either a green alga or a cyanobacterium

Mycorrhiza

Symbiotic relationship between certain fungi and the roots of plants

Drugs are more effective when taken together are called ______.

Synergistic

Oxidative Phosphorylation

Synthesis of ATP using the energy of a proton motive force created by harvesting chemical energy.

Photophosphorylation

Synthesis of ATP using the energy of a proton motive force created by harvesting radiant energy.

Substrate-Level Phosphorylation

Synthesis of ATP using the energy released in an exergonic (energy-releasing) chemical reaction during the breakdown of the energy source.

This tool is used by scientists to make probes, which are nucleic acid molecules with a specific nucleotide sequences that have been labeled with radioactive or fluorescent chemicals so that their locations can be detected.

Synthetic nucleic acid

Salmonella typhi has a generation time of 20 minutes. If you start with 10 cells per mL. Approx how many cells are there per mL after 12 hours?

T=12 hours = 270 minutes and g = 20 minutes , so n=t/g = 270/20 = 36 Then , Nt=No x 2^n = 10 x 2^36 = 6.9 x 10^11 cells

Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs)

Target of β-lactam antimicrobial medications; their role in bacteria is peptidoglycan synthesis

Genus

Taxonomic category of related organisms, usually containing several species. The first name of an organism in the Binomial System of Nomenclature

Replica Plating

Technique for the simultaneous transfer of organisms in separated colonies from one medium to another

Direct Selection

Technique of selecting mutants by plating organisms on a medium on which the desired mutants but not the parent will grow

Membrane Filtration

Technique used to count microorganisms in liquids that contain relatively few cells; the cells are caught on a paper-thin filter

Spread-Plate Method

Technique used to cultivate bacteria by uniformly spreading a suspension of cells onto the surface of an agar plate

Fluorescence in situ Hybridization (FISH)

Technique used to detect a given nucleotide sequence within intact cells on a microscope slide.

Colony Blotting

Technique used to determine which colonies on an agar plate contain a given nucleotide sequence.

Slime Mold

Terrestrial organism composed of amoeboid cells that live on soil, leaf litter, or the surfaces of decaying vegetation; similar to fungi but not related genetically

Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis by blocking attachment of tRNA to the ribosome?

Tetracyclines

Plus (+) Strand

The DNA strand complementary to the strand used as a template for RNA synthesis. An mRNA molecule that can be translated to make a protein; also called the positive strand or sense strand, DNA strand.

Minus (-) Strand

The DNA strand used as a template for RNA synthesis. The complement to the plus (or sense) strand of RNA. Also called the negative strand or antisense strand, DNA strand.

Resolving Power

The ability to distinguish two objects that are very close together

Clostridium paradoxum grows optimally at 55 C, pH 9.3 and it will not grow in the presence of oxygen. Characterize this bacterium based on its temperature, pH, and oxygen requirement.

The bacterium is a thermophile, alkaliphile and strict anaerobe.

Clostridium paradoxum grows optimally at 55oC, pH 9.3, and it will not grow in the presence of oxygen.

The bacterium is a thermophile, alkaliphile, and strict anaerobe.

Energy

The capacity to do work

Proofreading

The detection and removal by DNA polymerase of an incorrect nucleotide incorporated as DNA is synthesized

Gene

The functional unit of the genome; it encodes a product, most often a protein.

Periplasm

The gel-like material that fills the region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.

Domain

The highest level in biological classification. There are three domains : Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.

Base-Pairing

The hydrogen bonding of adenine (A) to thymine (T) and cytosine (C) to guanine (G)

Cell Envelope

The layers surrounding the contents of the cell; includes the cytoplasmic membrane, cell wall, and capsule (if present)

Objective Lens

The lens or series of lenses of a compound microscope that is closest to the specimen

ID50

The number of organisms that, when administered, will cause infection in approximately 50% of hosts

Phenotype

The observed characteristics of a cell.

Which of the following statements is not true about redox reactions?

The oxidizing agent is oxidized

A mutation was caused by a deletion of three base pairs. What is the impact of this mutation?

The polypeptide has one less amino acid.

A mutation was created by a deletion of three base pairs. What is the impact of this mutation?

The polypeptide has one less amino acid.

Germinate

The process by which an endospore or other resting cell becomes a vegetative cell

Phagocytosis

The process by which certain cells ingest particulate matter by surrounding and enveloping those materials, bringing them into the cell in a phagosome

Translation

The process by which the information carried by mRNA is used to synthesize the encoded protein.

Transcription

The process by which the information encoded in DNA is copied into RNA.

Biogenesis

The production of living things from other living things, as opposed to spontaneous generation

Nucleobase

The purine or pyrimidine ring structure found in nucleotides; also called a base

After the conjugation of an Hfr cell with an F- cell, _____.

The recipient remains F-

Phase Variation

The reversible and random alteration of expression of certain bacterial structures such as fimbriae by switching on and off the genes that encode those structures

PCR Product

The target fragment amplified exponentially in a PCR reaction

Chemiosmotic Theory

The theory that a proton gradient is formed by the electron transport chain and then used to power ATP synthesis

Biotechnology

The use of microbiological and biochemical techniques to solve practical problems and produce valuable products

Microorganisms such as bacteria are suitable research tools because ________.

Their metabolic and genetic properties are more or less the same with higher forms of life. Bacteria are much easier to study.

Endosymbiotic Theory

Theory that the ancestors of mitochondria and chloroplasts were bacteria that had been residing within other cells in a mutually beneficial partnership

What happens to the carbon molecules in the acetyl CoA that goes through the citric acid cycle?

They become carbon dioxide.

What is the function of restriction enzymes?

They cut DNA at specific sequences.

Which is the function of restriction enzymes?

They cut DNA at specific sequences.

What are mycoplasmas resistant to penicillin and other B lactam drugs?

They do not have cell walls.

Why are mycoplasmas resistant to penicillin and other β lactam drugs?

They do not have cell walls.

Sex Pilus

Thin protein appendage required for attachment of two bacterial cells prior to DNA transfer by conjugation. The F pilus is an example

Which statement best describes the enzyme represented in the graphs?

This enzyme works best at a temperature of 35oC and pH 8

What is the purpose of making successive streaks in streak-plate method?

To dilute the cells.

Anneal

To form a double-stranded duplex from two complementary strands of nucleic acid

What is the purpose of staining?

To increase contrast.

The horizontal gene transfer that occurs via bacteriophage is ______.

Transduction

Vertical Gene Transfer

Transfer of genes from parent to offspring.

Pseudopods

Transient arm-like extensions formed by phagocytes and protozoa; they surround and enclose extracellular material, including bacteria, during the process of phagocytosis

Facilitated Diffusion

Transport process that moves compounds across a membrane down a concentration gradient; does not require energy

Segments of DNA capable of moving from one area in the DNA to the another are called ______.

Transposons

Sanitization

Treatment to reduce the microbial population to a level that meets accepted health standards

Decontamination

Treatment to reduce the number of pathogens to a level considered safe

Which of the following microorganisms cause syphilis?

Treponema pallidum

The vegetative or feeding form of protozoa is called _____.

Trophozoite

"Genetically engineered" protein such as human insulin produced by the bacterium E. coli is safer and less expensive than insulin isolated from animals.

True

A disinfectant that destroys the envelope of a virus make the virus non-infectious (can longer infect its host cell).

True

Even though viroids and viruses are not made up of cells, they are included in the microbial world because they cause diseases in humans, animals, and plants.

True

In bacterial tansformation, only competent cells are transformed.

True

Refer to figure 3. Which of the tubes will give a higher absorbance? If 1.0mL of the broth in each tube is plated in two separate TSA agar plates. Which tube will give a higher cfu?

Tube B will give a higher absorbance and higher cfu.

Extensively Drug-Resistant Tuberculosis (XDR-TB)

Tuberculosis caused by strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to isoniazid and rifampin, plus three or more second-line antimicrobials

Multidrug-resistant Tuberculosis (MDR-TB)

Tuberculosis caused by strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that are resistant to isoniazid and rifampin

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

Type of RNA molecule involved in interpreting the genetic code; each tRNA molecule carries a specific amino acid.

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

Type of RNA molecule translated during protein synthesis.

Intermediate-Level Disinfectants

Type of chemical used to destroy all vegetative bacteria including mycobacteria, fungi, and most, but not all, viruses

Competitive Inhibition

Type of enzyme inhibition that occurs when the inhibitor competes with the normal substrate for binding to the active site

Non-Competitive Inhibition

Type of enzyme inhibition that results from a molecule binding to the enzyme at a site other than the active site

Restriction Enzyme

Type of enzyme that recognizes a specific nucleotide sequence and then cuts the DNA within or near that site.

Beta-Hemolysis

Type of hemolysis characterized by a clear zone around a colony grown on blood agar

Alpha Hemolysis

Type of hemolysis characterized by a zone of greenish clearing around colonies grown on blood agar

Generalized Transduction

Type of horizontal gene transfer that can occur when a phage carries a random piece of bacterial DNA; the phage acquires that DNA when a packaging error occurs during the assembly of phage particles

Specialized Transduction

Type of horizontal gene transfer that can occur when a temperate phage carries specific bacterial genes; the phage acquires those genes when an error occurs as the prophage excises from a lysogenic cell's chromosome

Bright-Field Microscope

Type of light microscope that illuminates the field of view evenly

Phase-Contrast Microscope

Type of light microscope that uses special optical devices to amplify the difference in the refractive index of a cell and the surrounding medium, increasing the contrast of the image

Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)

Type of microscope that directs a beam of electrons at a specimen; used to observe details of cell structure

Dark-Field Microscope

Type of microscope that directs light toward the specimen at an angle, so that only light scattered by the specimen enters the objective lens

Differential Interference Contrast (DIC) Microscope

Type of microscope that has a device for separating light into two beams that pass through the specimen and then recombine, resulting in the three-dimensional appearance of material in the specimen

Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)

Type of microscope that scans a beam of electrons back and forth over the surface of a specimen

Scanning Laser Microscopes (SLMs)

Type of microscope that scans laser beans across a specimen, thereby allowing a three-dimensional image of a thick structure to be constructed

Cyclic Photophosphorylation

Type of photophosphorylation in which electrons are returned directly to the chlorophyll; phototrophs use this to synthesize ATP without generating reducing power

Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation

Type of photophosphorylation in which high-energy electrons are drawn off to generate reducing power; electrons must still be returned to chlorophyll, but they come from a source such as water

Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis

Type of pinocytosis that allows cells to internalize extracellular ligands that bind to the cell's receptors

Carriers

Type of protein found in cell membranes that transports certain compounds across the membrane; may also be called a permease or transporter protein

Receptor

Type of protein that binds to specific molecules in the environment, providing a mechanism for the cell to sense and adjust to its surroundings

Confocal Microscope

Type of scanning laser microscope

Atomic Force Microscope (AFM)

Type of scanning probe microscope that has a tip mounted so it can bend in response to the slightest force between the tip and the sample

Differential Staining

Type of staining procedure used to distinguish one group of bacteria from another by taking advantage of the fact that certain bacteria have distinctly different components

Group Translocation

Type of transport process that chemically alters a molecule during its passage through the cytoplasmic membrane

Naked Virus

Type of virus that does not have a lipid envelope

Non-Enveloped Viruses

Type of virus that does not have a lipid envelope

Vegetative Cell

Typical, actively multiplying cell

WOF radiations can damage the DNA by formation of dimers?

UV Light

Which of the following radiations can damage the DNA by formation of dimers?

UV light

Human Microbiome Project (HMP)

Undertaking that uses genomics to study the normal microbiota of the human body

Yeasts

Unicellular fungi that are not chytrids.

Bacterium A is an aerotolerant anaerobe. If this bacterium is grown in thioglycolate tubes, to what area in the tubes the growth of the bacterium can be observed?

Uniformly throughout the tube

Pleomorphic

Varying in shape

Trophozoite

Vegetative feeding form of some protozoa

Endosome

Vesicle formed when a cell takes up material from the surrounding environment using the process of endocytosis

The __________ method provides an estimate of the CFUs (colony-forming units) in a sample.

Viable Plate Count

Productive Infection

Viral infection in which more viral particles are produced.

Latent Infection

Viral infection in which the viral genome is present but not active, so viral particles are not being produced.

Lytic Infection

Viral infection of a host cell with a subsequent production of more viral particles and lysis of the cell

Nucleocapsid

Viral nucleic acid and its protein coat

Below are infectious agents and their composition. Which is mismatched?

Viroids - DNA only

Differentiate viroids from viruses?

Viroids are composed of RNA only and viruses have DNA or RNA.

Which of the following you do at home to control microbes?

Washing and scrubbing materials with soaps and detergents.

Anaerobic

Without molecular oxygen (O2)

In the application, human genes are inserted into animals to produce cells, tissues, and organs that are then introduced into the human body , reducing the likelihood of rejection.

Xenotransplant

A light microscope has a resolution of 0.3 um. Will this microscope be able to resolve (determine two objects as separate) two objects 0.4 um apart? Will it be able to resolve two objects that are 0.004 um apart?

Yes ; no

Which of the following are the sexual spores of common bread mold?

Zygospores

Lactic Acid Bacteria

a Group of Gram-positive bacteria that generate lactic acid as the major end product of their fermentative metabolism

Which of the following microscopes will give a greater resolution?

a microscope with resolving power of 0.20 um

Give the importance of your normal microbiota. a. They prevent attachment of pathogens. b. They make the environment unfavorable for pathogens to grow. c. They utilize nutrients required by pathogens to grow. d. They produce antimicrobial substances.

a, b, c & d

Give the importance of your normal microbiota. a. They prevent attachment of pathogens b. They facilitate the growth of pathogens c. They utilize nutrients required by pathogens d. They produce antimicrobial substances

a, c, and d

What is the final electron acceptor in ethanol fermentation? It is a one-word answer and spelling matters.

acetaldehyde

Which process generates or produces the most ATP from catabolism of glucose?

aerobic cellular respiration

Which of the following groups of microorganisms can grow in the presence of oxygen but do not use oxygen to harvest energy or make ATP?

aerotolerant anaerobes

What composed the glycan chain only of peptidoglycan?

alternating NAM-NAG only

During translation, each codon specifies a/an _________ to be placed at the corresponding position along a polypeptide.

amino acid

What prokaryotes thrive in extreme conditions such as high heat, acidity, alkalinity and salinity? It is a one-word answer and spelling matters.

archaea

The correct order for the stages of T4 phage replication is ________.

attachment, penetration, transcription, replication of nucleic acid and protein, assembly, release

Salmonella his- is a/an (auxotroph or prototroph) and (has or lacks) a functional gene for histidine synthesis.

auxotroph ; lacks

Pasteur repeated Spallanzani's experiment with modification/s. What is/are the modifications? a. He boiled the broth. b. He bent the neck of the flask. c. He allowed air to enter the flask. d. He completely sealed the opening of the flask.

b and c only

Put the following events in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule in the correct order: a. Plasmid is introduced into bacteria b. Gene of interest and plasmid DNA are cut by restriction enzyme c. Gene of interest is joined to plasmid DNA d. Bacteria are grown of on suitable culture medium.

b-c-a-d

A microbial control agent that kills bacteria is ________.

bactericidal

The causual agent of whooping cough is a _____.

bacterium

You isolated a microorganism from the soil and your analysis shows that the microorganism is unicellular and has a cell wall made of peptidoglycan, what could be this microorganism? It is a one-word answer (in singular) and spelling matters.

bacterium

A cell that has a net negative charge on its surface will readily take basic stain or acidic stain?

basic stain

The conversion of ammonium to nitrate could be accomplished by the presence of ________.

both Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

Which of the following uses inorganic phosphate to phosphorylate ADP to ATP?

both oxidative level phosphorylation and photophosphorylation

Antibacterial medications that affect cell membrane have low therapeutic index because ________.

both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have similarities in structure and composition of cell membrane

The liquid inside a red blood cell has 0.9% salt. If this cell is placed in a beaker with pure distilled water, the cell will ______.

burst because the collusion in the beaker is hypotonic to solution inside the cell

The liquid inside a red blood cell has 0.9% salt. If this cell is placed in a beaker with pure distilled water, the cell will ________.

burst because the solution in beaker is hypotonic to solution inside cell

How does enzyme speed up the rate of a chemical reaction?

by decreasing the activation energy

How is an autoclave able to achieve temperatures higher than that of boiling water?

by increasing the pressure

Put the following events in the correct order to show the basic steps of rDNA technology. a. Recombinant plasmid is inserted into bacteria. b. Bacteria with recombinant plasmid are grown on suitable culture medium. c. Gene of interest and plasmid are isolated and cut by the same restriction enzyme. d. Gene of interest is joined to plasmid.

c-d-a-b

The genetic material of viruses is enclosed by a protein coat called ________. It is a one-word answer and spelling matters.

capsid

The shape of the virus is determined by its ______.

capsid

What is the action of X-rays on DNA?

cause single and double strand breaks

All are effects of the presence or organic matter on the action of antimicrobial agents except ________.

causes the cells to form endospores

It is the diffusion of protons through the ATP synthase in the electron transport system. It is a one-word answer and spelling matters

chemiosmosis

The microorganisms that use carbohydrates as sources of carbon and energy are called ________. It is a one-word answer and spelling matters.

chemoheterotrophs (or chemoorganoheterotrophs)

Which of following are the dormant resting stages of Streptomyces sp.?

conidia

The horizontal gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is ________. It is a one-word answer (singular) and spelling matters.

conjugation

The first step in bacterial conjugation is ________.

contact between the two cells

In the presence of glucose, the lac operon is not transcribed because glucose inhibits the synthesis of _______.

cyclic AMP

What facilitates the binding of catabolite activator protein (CAP) in the CAP site in the operon?

cyclic AMP

Which of following resting stages in prokaryotes are used for nitrogen fixation?

cysts

What is the correct order of binary fission from first to last? a. DNA is moved into each future daughter cells. b. Cross wall formation. c. Cell divides into two cells. d. DNA replicates e. Cells separate

d-a-b-c-e

Arrange the following steps in order from first to last to prepare a heat fixed bacterial smear. a. Air dry the thin film. b. Spread a thin film of bacteria over glass slide. c. Pass the slide with the film over flame of Bunsen burner. d. Get a clean glass slide.

d-b-a-c

Arrange the following steps in order from first to last to prepare a heated fixed smear. a. Air dry the thin film b. Spread a thin film of bacteria over glass slide c. Pass the slide with the film over the flame of bunsen burner d. Get a clean glass slide

d-b-a-c

Boiling kills microorganisms by ________.

denaturation of proteins

Parasitic worms, even meters-long tapeworms, are studied in microbiology because ________.

diagnosis usually involves microscopic examination of patient samples

Blood agar can support growth of almost all bacteria and it can determine three types of hemolysis. What type of culture medium based on function is blood agar?

differential culture medium only

Selective toxicity means the ________.

drug is more harmful to the pathogens than to human cells

Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the following is the process she should use?

enrichment culture

Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when ________.

exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells

What groups of microorganisms grow throughout thioglycollate agar tubes but there is more growth on the surface or near the surface. It is a two-word answer and spelling matters.

facultative anaerobes

What microorganisms based on oxygen requirement grow throughout thioglycollate agar but there is no more growth on the surface or near the surface.

facultative anaerobes

This facultative anaerobic bacterium can ONLY use cellular organic compounds as final electron acceptors. To generate ATP, this bacterium would use __________.

fermentation

Which of the following inhibits the action of topoisomerases?

fluoroquinolones

If an antimicrobial agent kills disease-causing yeast, the agent is _____.

fungicidal

Replacing a patient's defective gene with a fragment containing a functional gene is

gene therapy

__________ can be used to advise prospective parents about their risk of transmitting genetic disorders, such as Huntington's Disease, to their offspring.

genetic screening

In photosynthesis, CO2 is reduced to __________

glucose

Extreme ________ are microorganisms that thrive in salt lakes, soda lakes and brines. It is a one-word answer (plural) and spelling matters.

halophiles

They are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi to derive nutrients from other living organisms. It is a one-word answer and spelling matters.

haustoria

What is the relationship of optical density (OD) to the concentration of cells in a broth culture?

high OD > high concentration of cells

As the electrons are passed from one acceptor to another in the ETS in bacteria, the H+ concentration outside the plasma membrane (increases/decreases)

increases

A viroid is a(n) ________.

infectious piece of RNA without a capsid

Protoplast fusion is a technique used for __________.

inserting DNA into cells

The disinfectant that can kill mycobacteria but not endospores are the ________.

intermediate level disinfectant

The disinfectant that can kill mycobacteria but not endospores are the __________

intermediate level disinfectant

The relationship of wavelength to resolving power is directly proportional or inversely proportional.

inversely proportional

Bdellovibrio ________.

is a parasite of bacteria

In the lac operon, the presence of __________ cause the release of the repressor protein from the DNA, facilitating transcription.

lactose

In this animal virus infection, the viral genome (provirus) remains silent in host cell but, can reactivate.

latent infections

A drug with high therapeutic index is ________.

less toxic to the patient

A set of clones representing the entire genome of an organism is known as a gene ________.

library

What is the enzyme that is used to join the DNA together? It is a one-word answer (singular) and spelling matters.

ligase

At what phase of the growth curve generation time is measured? At what stage microbes are sensitive to antimicrobial agents like penicillin?

log phase ; log phase

Liquid media containing heat-sensitive components would best be sterilized by __________.

membrane filtration

Given the hypothetical DNA template below, what is the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide that will be synthesized? Polypeptide begins with start codon and ends with stop codon. "GGG-TTT-TAC-AGA-CAC-CCC-ACT-AAA"

met-ser-val-gly

Single-strand DNA molecules are fixed to a glass slide or nylon membrane for the production of ________.

microarrays

The insertion of foreign DNA directly into a cell's nucleus using a glass micropipette is called ________.

microinjection

Refer to figure 8. Figure A shows a normal bacteria expressing the gene. The sequence of polypeptide is Met-Lys-Phe-Gly. In Figure B, a point mutation occurred, a T was incorporated instead of C. What type of point mutation is it?

missense mutation

The terms yeast, mold, and mushrooms refers to fungal ________.

morphology

The fruiting structure of basidiomycetes is called ________. It is a one-word answer (singular) and spelling matters.

mushroom

________ are chemical and physical agents used to create changes in the genome of the microorganisms to effect desired changes in the phenotype of the microorganisms. It is a one-word answer (plural) and spelling matters

mutagens

What is the symbiotic relationship between cyanobacterium and fungi?

mutualism

A tangle of fungal hyphae is generally known as a ______.

mycelium

What is the waxy substance present only in acid-fast positive bacteria and absent in acid-fast negative bacteria?

mycolic acid

The association of plants and fungi is called ________. It is a one-word answer and spelling matters.

mycorrhiza

In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules which have a net (negative or positive) charge move towards the (negative or positive) side of the gel.

negative; positive

Stethoscope is what type of medical instrument based on risk for transmitting infectious agents?

non-critical instrument

A mutation that changes a codon that specifies an amino acid to a stop codon, resulting in premature termination of polypeptide synthesis is called ________ mutation. It is a one-word answer and spelling matters.

nonsense

What is the symbiotic relationship between Bdellovibrio sp. and E. coli?

parasitism

Which of the following processes is used to "amplify" DNA, making large numbers of copies from a small sample?

polymerase chain reaction

Which of the following microorganisms do not have cell wall?

protozoa

The process of microbial spoilage below is ________. Proteins + proteolytic microbes à amino acids + amines + NH3 + H2S

putrefaction

Which of the following methods to quantitate animal viruses can determine ID50 or LD50?

quantal assay

Washing your hands with plain soap can control the spread of COVID-19 because the process ________.

removes microorganisms mechanically

Washing your hands with plain soap can control the spread of COVID-19 because the process _________.

removes microorganisms mechanically

What enzyme is used to copy nucleotide sequences to make cDNA? It is a two-word answer (singular) and spelling matters.

reverse transcriptase

They are specialized hyphae used by saprophytic fungi for absorption of nutrients It is a one-word answer (plural) and spelling matters.

rhizoids

Tumbles occur when the flagella________.

rotate clockwise

Spirochetes

s Long helical bacteria that have a flexible cell wall and endoflagella

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists in the laboratory is called ________.

semi-synthetic

Sphaerotilus and Leptothrix are examples of ________.

sheathed bacteria

Drugs with (longer / shorter) half-life are given to patients more frequently?

shorter

What subunit of bacterial RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter sequence? It is a two-word answer (singular) and spelling matters.

sigma factor

Classification of viruses is based on all of the following except ________.

size of virus

What type of culture medium is nutrient agar based on form and composition? Components of the medium are given below. -Nutrient agar g/L -Peptone - 3 -Beef extract - 5 -Agar - 15

solid and complex

In chytridiomycetes, ___________.

sporophyte is the diploid multicellular stage and gametophyte is the haploid multicellular stage

Which is the function of reverse transcriptase?

synthesizes DNA from an RNA template.

What occurs in the initiation stage or translation?

tRNA-fmet) attaches to start codon and then larger body of ribosome combines with smaller body

F+ refers to a cell containing ________.

the F plasmid

Which of the following pathways is specifically inhibited by trimethoprim?

the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid

Microwaves do not kill organisms directly but kill by ________.

the heat they generate in a product

After the conjugation of an Hfr cell with an F- cell, ________.

the recipient remains F-

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the ________.

therapeutic index

The horizontal gene transfer that occurs via bacteriophages is ________.

transduction

When the recombinant plasmid is introduced to E. coli, what type of gene transfer is it?

transformation

Vancomycin-intermediate S. aureus (VISA)

vancomycin-intermediate Staphylococcus aureus (VISA)

Vancomycin-Resistant S. aureus (VRSA)

vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA)

Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci (VRE)

vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)

You are using a Petroff-Hausser counting chamber to determine the number of cells in a liquid culture. After diluting the original sample 10-fold, you place the dilution into the chamber. You count an average of 15 cells in five different squares. How many cells per ml were present in your original sample?

x= 15 x (1.25x10^6) x 10 = 1.9 x 10^8 cells/ml

They are unicellular microorganisms with nucleus and cell wall made up of chitin. It is a one-word answer (in plural) and spelling matters.

yeasts


Related study sets

Chapter 14: Nursing Management During Labor and Birth

View Set

integrated science a - unit 3: periodic table and bonding

View Set