Microbiology gamlar spurningar

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

3 weeks after a weekend at a rural farm, a pregnant woman complained of fever, myalgia and backache. Blood culture displayed Listeria monocytogenes. What food would be the source of infection? a) well done roast beef b) fresh raw cow's milk c) home-baked bread d) homemade apple juice

32 year old woman became ill 4 days after onset on menstrual period, she used tampons. Her state was emergent. She complained about fatigue, vomiting, diarrhoea, had fever, hypotension, leucocytosis, rash a) staphylococcal food poisioning b) scalded skin syndrome c) chickenpox d) toxic shock syndrome

A 1 month-old breast-fed infant is exposed to HAV. The mother has been seropositive for this virus for several years. Which type of antibody is most likely to provide protection for the infant a) IgA b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG e) IgM

A 16 year old boy has a severe sore throat, swollen cervical lymph nodes, fever, malaise and hepatosplenomegaly. When ampiccilin is adminstered for his sore throat, he develops a generalized maculopapular rash. Laboratory tests show atypical lymphocytes and heterophil antibodies in the blood. Whcih property is associated wtih the agent causing this disease a) binding of C3d receptors con B lymphocytes b) infection of CD8 T cells c) killing of CD4 T cells d) susceptibility to acyclovir treatment

A 19-year-old homosexual man is admitted for evaluation fo 2-weeks history of a nonproductive cough, fever, and shortness of breath. A chest radiograph is performed and demonstrates bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The man is HIV psoitive and has a CD4+ count that is less than 200 cells/mm3. Histopathology reports indiciate organism that first was described as parasite, now it is defined as fungus and changed the name recently a) Toxoplasma gondii b) cryptococcus neoformans c) Acanthamtoeba histolytica d) pneumocystis jirovecii

A 20-year-old male reports to an STD clinic with symptoms of painful urination and urethral exudate reveals gram negative diplococci inside leukocytes. What is the cause of patient's symptoms? a) escherichia coli b) treponema pallidum c) neisseria gonorrhea d) candida albicans e) chlamydia trachomatis

A 22 year-old male present to his physician, complaining of a two-week history of a sore on his penis. Physical examination shows a firm, raised, red non tender chancre midway between the base and glans. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the physican? d) performa a dark-field examination on a swab of the active lesion

A 22-year-old man complains of a urethral discharge and urethral itching. The discharge is noted to be whitish in color, but the result of the Gram stain is negative; however, leukocytes are present. The patient is told that he has nongonococcal urethritis and is given a prescription for docycycline. All of the following statement are correct ECEPT: a) the organism that is most likely causing his symptoms is Chlamydia trachomatis b) his sexual partner should also be examined and treated; his partner may be asymptomatic carrier, causing the patient to become reinfected c) the selected antibiotic is appropriate for this case d) the organism that is most likely causing this disease is an extracellular pathogen e) the organism that is most likely causing this disease can cause serious complications, including death, in women.

A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of eye pain and blurr red vision. He does not remember an eye injury but has been waring contact lenses for. The patient also admits to cleaning his contacts with nonsterile water. Examination of the eye reveals ulceration of the cornea. Cultures for bacteria are negative. a) Acanthamoeba b) Dientamoeba c) Entamoeba d) Adenovirus

A 23 year-old man has a fever, rash, and swollen glands. He had unprotected sex with a male partner 2 weeks before the onset of these symptoms and has just learned that the partner is positive for HIV infection. At this time, which test would be appropriate for confirming the HIV diagnosis. a) ELISA for antibodies to gp 120 b) ELISA for p 24 antigen c) Latex agglutination test for antibodies to gp 41 d) Western blotting test

A 23-year-old woman is concerned because 1 week ago she had sexual contact with a man infected with HIGH. She thinks she might have contracted the infection, but the standard serologic methods for evaluation yield negative results. The woman should be consoled that the test result is inconclusive for which reason a) the antibody to HIV has not risen to detectable levels b) ELISA is not sensitive enough to detect the virus (T2) c) isolation of the virus in tissue culture is inconclusive d) virus replication has not yet started

A 24-year-old man with AIDS develops a painful, thick, white exudate on the surface of his tongue and posteiror pharynx. Gram stain reveals a gram-positive organism 2 to 3 times as large as Staphylococcus aereus. Wich organism is most likely responsible for this man's infection a) Blastomyces dermatidis b) Candida albicans c) Cryptococcus neoformans d) Histoplasma capsulatum

A 25-year old female medical student reports that she had luch at a Chinese reastaurant present to yo uin the afternoon with abdominal cramps and nausea and vomiting. Culture an dgram stain revaeled gram+ aerobic rods. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this infection? a) Staphylococcus Poisoning b) Chlostridium boulinum food poisioning c) bacillus cereus food poisonin d) clostridium perfringens food poisoning

A 25-year-old woman is exposed to a virus during the first trimester pregnancy. The woman gives birth to an infant who is deaf and has cataracts, a heart murmurs and microcephaly. If present, which immune function would have protected the infant from the viral disease a) inhibition of viral replication of IFN b) inhibition of viremic spread by antibodies c) killing of virus-infected cells by cytotoxic T cells d) killing of virus-infected cells by natural killer cells

A 26-year old male with AIDS present with painful bloody diarrhea. Stool culture on deoxycholate citrate agar and subequent analyses reveals predominantly a gram-negative facultative anerobic rod, which is odixase negative, lactose negative, H2S negative and non-motile. Which of the following is most likely cause of this infection? a) shigella flexneri b) salmonella enteritdis c) enterotoxigenic E. Coli d) enterobacter aerogenes e) Virbio cholerae

A 3 year old African women has lost approximately 20lb during the past 3 months and complains of fever, chills and a bad cough. She is found to be suffering from multiple infections, including tuberculosis and several oral yeast infection. Which viral protein is important for causing the patient's diease but is not essential for replication a) gag b) gp120 c) integrase d) nef

A 36 year old patient was admitted to the hospital because of bleeding duodenal ulcer. Culture of 42°C grew urease positive curved bacteria. The most likely causative agent is helicobacter pylori a) true b) false

A 37-year-old man with chronic hepatitis B is given combination therapy. Which indicator suggests sucessful therapy a) absence of HBeAg b) decrease in jaundice c) decrease in the anti-HBs titer d) increase in the anti-HBc titer

A 38 year old man complains of jaundice, dark urine, anorexia, abdominal pain and malaise. Serologic tests indicate that he is positive for anti-HBs; and negative for anti-HBc. Which interpretation of these findings is most likely a) the patient has acute HBV infection b) the patient has chronic HBV infection c) the patient has the prodrome of HBV infection d) the patient is not infected with HBV

A 4 year old boy with sickle cell disease is taken to his pediatrician's office because he is pale and is suffering from fatigue and flu-like symptoms. The pediatrician suspects that the patient is suffering from aplastic crisis. Which description is relevant to the findings of anemia in this patient a) sickle cell trait decreases the patient's resistance to the virus infection b) virus infections activates malaria and causes the aplastic crisis c) virus infection promotes IFN production. d) Parvovirus B 19 targets erythrocyte precursor cells

A 50 year old man under going a routine physical..... complains of fatigue, an inability to concentrate and epigastric pain that has gotten worse during the past year. His medical records show that he received a blood transfusion during surgery in the late 1980s. His blood contains elevated transaminase levels. A PCR- based blood test for flavivirus sequences yields positive results. Which hepatitis virus is the most likely diagnosis? a) HAV b) HBV c) HCV d) HDV

A 52-year old man, generally in good health, is diangosed with carcinoma and is scheduled for surgery. While waiting for his HMO to arrange for a bed, he develops persistent low-grade fever and constitutional symptoms. Physical examination is unremarkable other than a heart murumur not previously present. Outoatient blood culutres yield gram-positive, alfa-hemolytic cocci. The most likely cause fo rthe clinical picture is? c) subacute endocarditis caused by streptococcus bovis.

A 55 year old man receives a renal transplant. Approximately 1 month later, he returns to his physician with a severe headache that developed over the previous 24 hrs. Analysis of the CSF shows the presence of cells (predominantly mononuclear cells). After 2 days of incubation, yeast grow in the bacterial and fungal cultures. Subsequent tests identify the organism as Cryptococcus neoformans. Which test is most sensitive for early detection of infections with this organism. a) India ink stain of CSF b) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Cryptotococcus antigen in CSF c) ELISA test for Cryptococcosu antigen in urine d) ELISA test for Cryptococcus antibody in blood.

A 56 year old man complains of severe pain caused by a belt of vesicular lesions across the left side of his abdomen. What is the source of his infection a) aerosolized droplets of the causative agent b) contamined food or water c) endogenous reactivation of an earlier infection d) puncture with a contamined object.

A 56 year old woman has been in her usual state of good health notices stiffness in her right knee after kneneling in the garden. This condition worsens during next 6 months to her physicial aspires the knee and order a Gram stain and culture of the fluid. When the laboratory reports these tests are negative. Another 3 months have passed. Additional fluid is collected for stains and culture. Although the stains are negative, a darkly pigmented mold with delicate hyphae grows after 5 days of incubation at room temperature. Yeasts are aslo seen in the culture incubated at 37°C a) blastomyces dermatidis b) anaerobic bacteria c) histplasma capsulatum d) sporthrix schenckii

A 65 year old Japanese man has acute T cell lymphocytic leukemia. His leukemic cells are found to the producing a virus. The patient most likely acquired the viral infection via which route? a) blood transfusion b) fecal-oral rout c) respiratory route d) vertical genetic transmission.

A 67-year old man works in a textile mill that processes imported goat hair into the ... morning, he notices a painless, slighlty swollen pimple on his chin. Two days later he develops ulcer at the pimple site. Gram-positive, endospore-forming rods are cultured from the ulcer. Whas it the etiology? a) ehlichia sp b) borrelia burgdorferi c) staphylococcus aureus d) bacillus anthracis

A 7 year old girl with leukemia is exposed to VZV. Her physician prescribes varcella-zoster immune globulin as therapy. Although HSV and VZV are both herpesviruses, the immune globulin is effective only against VZV. Which property distinguishes the two viruses and accounts for this difference in the action of the immune globulin a) HSV can produce syncytia b) HSV is a neurotropic virus c) VZV establishes viremia d) VZV is transmitted by the respiratory route

A Pap semar of 50 year old woman shows cervical dysplasia. Which method would be most useful in detecting the presence of HPV 18 a) ELISA b) immunofluorescence testing c) in situ DNA hybridization d) tissue culture

A Pap- stained cervical smear from a sexually active woman with cervical dysplasia shows cells with enlarged cytoplasmic vacuoles (oilocytotic cells), indicating a ... Which technique would be useful to confirm the diagnosis most likely to be present in these cells a) ELISA for antiviral antibody in serum b) hemadsorption to the cells in the cervical smear c) immunofluorescent analysis of cells fromt he cervical.. d) in situ DNa hybridization analysis of cells from the e) virus isolation in HeLa cell cultures.

A RNA virus with reverse transcriptase will first synthesize a a) complementary DNA b) mRNA c) tRNA d) dsDNA

A common site where MRSA can be found in the body in a healthy person is the a) eyes b) nose c) feet d) bladder

A diagnosis of diphteria is confirmed by? a) microscopic appearance of organisms stained with methylene blue b) isolation of typical colonies on blood agar c) detection of bacteriophage in the sample from throat d) demonstration of toxin production by bacterial isolate

A distinguishing feature of human mycoplasma species is that they: b) contain no bacterial peptidoglycan

A drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is: a) antiviral b) antibacterial c) antiprotozoal d) antifungal

A family has a diarhea after eating raw shellfish due to an oxidase positive, gram-negative curved baccilus that requires a special media a) bacillus cereus b) virbio parahaemolyticus c) stpahylocccous aerues d) e. Coli

A fungus that can attack hair is a) trichophyton b) rhizopus c) microsporum d) sporothrix e) epidermophyton

A gram-negative diplococcous was isolated from a chocolate agar culture of a CSF sample. Which one of the following tests or observations would be most informative in identifying the organism as N. Meningitids? a) Positive oxidase test and ability of culture isolate to feremet glucose and maltose.

A highly fatal disease found among wool sorters at the turn of the century, caused by the inhalation of dangerous spores, lead to capillary thrombosis and cardiovascular shock is called: a) cutaneous anthrax b) Pulmonary anthrax c) botulism d) whooping cough

A local day care has several simultaneous cases of diarrhea. A methylene blue fecal smear was taken during the outbreak from one of the children and revealed a numerous PMN's and occult blood. Culture of the stool revealed a typical gram negative rod which fermented glucose but not lactose, was nonmotile and did not produce H2S. The agent which MAY have caused this outbreak was E. Coli a) true b) false

A mass of hyphae? a) mycelium b) cotton c) mycoplasma d) mycetismus

A medical student who suffers from common cold symptoms including a runny nose, sore throat, sneezing and headache asks her professor to explain why a vaccine has not been developed to prevent the disease. Which explanation is the best one: a) the agent does not cause significant disease b) the agent has the potential to establish chronic or transforming infections c) the disease does not affect a significant portion of the population d) there are too many agents that cause this disease.

a The host is unaffected

A microorganism that is commensal: a) Receives benefit from its host

A mother infected with gonorrhea has transmitted the disease to her infant as he passed through the birth canal. This condition is called: a) gonorrheal meningitis b) opthalmia neonatorum c) gonorrheal endocarditis d) pharyngeal gonorrhea

A patient hospitalized in ARO develops pneumonia. Sputum reveals a gram-negative rod that produces a green pigment. It has a special smell, but does not ferment carbohydrates. The strain was cytochromoxidase positive, and very resistant but sensitive to meropenem. The bacterium is? a) Pseudomonas aeruginos

A patient is complaining of diarrhea not long after starting a new antibiotic. What is likely infecting this patient? a) enteroinvasive E. Coli b) shigella c) vibrio cholerae d) chlostridium difficile

A physician visiting a rural Latin American village finds that many mature males but few immature males or females of any age are afflicted by a particular fungal disease. What is likely to be the diagnosis? c) paracoccidiodomycosis

A plasmid is self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA: a) true b) false

A predisposing factor in pseudomembranous colitis is a) broad spectrum antibiotic treatment (clindamycin treatment) b) neonatal age c) diet d) old age

A probe used to identify a gene can be: a) DNA b) protein c) RNA d) a and c are correct

A reportable STD that is often found in combination with other STDs is caused by a) neisseria gonorrhoeae b) Moraxella c) Neisseria meningitis d) Neisseria syphilitus

A single filament of mold is called: a) mycelium b) hypha c) cotton d) mycetismus

A specimen suspected of containing members of enterobacteria was subjected to a few laboratory diagnostic tests and generated following results Gram negative rod, colorless colonies on deoxycholate citrate agar. All of the following microorganism may be included in the diagnosis except: a) salmonella sp b) shigella sp c) escherichia coli d) both salmonella and shigella

A three-dimensional image of a bacterium is achived by using: a) transmission electron microscopy b) darkfield microscopy c) Scanning electron microscopy d) brightfield microscopy

A virion is a a) Naked infectious piece of RNA b) Complete infectious virus particle c) Capsid without nucleic acid d) Nucleic acid without a capsid

A wrestler has a vesicular lesion on his shoulder. One of his teammates has a similar lesion on his wrist, and another has a crusted lesion at the vermillion border of his lips. Which enzyme is encoded by the virus responsible for these lesions a) Integrase b) Neuramidase c) RNA - dependent RNA polymerase d) Thymidine kinase

APC syndrome (viral adenopathy, pharyngitis and conjuctivitis) is caused by? a) Adenovirus

ATB that is 100% effective against Streptococcus pyogenes in vitro and is the first choice in treatment of bacterial streptococcal pharyngitis is a) penicillin b) oxacilin c) ampicillin d) tetracylin

Ability to produce disease is called a) Pathogenicity b) Virulence c) Resistance d) Infectiousity

Acid-fast mycobacteria are distinguished from non-acid fast bacteria by the presence of: a) endospores b) peptidoglycan c) Mycolic acid d) capsules e) flagella

Activated macrophages are required in elimination of infections caused by a) intracellular bacteria b) extracelular microbes c) both above mentioned (T1) d) nothing of above mentioned

After returning from a trip to Arizona, a 30-year old man experiences a respiratory illness with symptoms including a cough and fever. Approx. 1 week later, he develops red, tender nodules on his shin. His physician collects sputum specimens for stains and cultures. After 1 week of incubation, the fungal culture incubated at room temperature grows a white filamentous mold. Microscopic examination of the mold is conducted. Which organism is responsible for this man's infection a) Aspergillus fumigatus b) Coccidoides immitis c) Sporothrix schenckii

Against facultative pathogens we are protected mainly by a) Tools of nonspecific immunity b) Tools of specific humoral immunity c) Tools of specific cell immunity d) T helper lymfocytes

Against obligate pathogens we are protected mainly by a) Tools of specific immunity b) Tools of nonspecific humoral immunity c) Tools of nonspecific cell immunity d) Skin barriers

Agar is a) Solidifying agent

a & c

Alfa haemolytical streptococcy can be differentiated from Streptococcus pneumoniae by 2 of mentioned tests: a) optochin test b) bacitracin test c) test of lysis in bile d) CAMP test

All of the following are true statements about Chlamydia trachomatis EXCEPT which one? a) it infects several types of epithelial cells b) it has a reservoir in doemstic fowl c) it has a number of serotypes (about 15) that correlate with the syndrome produced on infection d) it presently causes the most common sexually transmitted disease in the U.S e) it can be detected by direct immunofluorscence on clinical material

All of the following are used for diagnosis of syphilis except: a) rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test b) VDRL test c) darkfield microscopy d) fluroscent treponemal antibody absorption (FFa-ABS) test e) Gram-staining

All of the following pertain to urinary tract infection except: a) typically begin in kidneys and descend to the bladder and urethra. b) an enlarged prostate gland increases the incidence of infection c) urethral infections easily spread to the bladder d) the shorter the urethra in females increases risk of cystitis e) incomplete or infrequent emptying of bladder increases risk of infection

All slow viral infections involve: a) CNS b) Retrovirsuses c) a viroid d) Ab reaction

All viruses except bacteriophages are obligate intracellular particles? a) False b) True

All viruses require a host cell for replication a) True b) False

Alpha hemolytical streptococci are: a) streptococcus pyogenes and streptococcus agalactiae b) streptococcus pyogenes and streptococcus agalactiae and streptococcus pneumoniae c) streptococcus aereus d) streptococcus pneumoniae, streptococcus salivarius.

Among 100 emplyees at a hospital, five were infected with a particular pathogen. When the employees were tested for the presence of the pathogen, ten individuals gave a positive response. Subsequent evaluation by independent test revealed that five of ten were, in fact, infected and five were not. Which one of the folllowing best describes the original test? a) High sensitivity, low specificity

An 18 year old female is concerned about recent bloody diarrhea. She recently got a job at a local restaurant breading and frying chicken. Cultures show gram-, oxidase+, curved rods. What organism is causing her problems? a) Clostridium difficile b) Campylobacter jejuni c) shigella d) salmonella

An 8 year old boy is taken to his pediatrician because his mother notice a raised, scaly area on the back of his head. The physical notes that the area is approximately 5cm in diameter with an inflamed, raised border. No organisms are seen on microscopic examination, but a mold grows on Sabouraud dextrose agar a) actinomyces b) malassezia c) mycobacterium tuberculosis d) trichophyton

An 8-year-old girl is bitten on the face by a rabid dog. The disease progresses in an uncharacteristically rapid manner, and the patient dies. What is the most likely explanation for the rapid progression of the rabies in this case? a) the amount of rabies virus transmitted via bite was large b) the disease progresses faster in children than in adults c) the infection site was close to the brain d) the patient did not receive her childhood rabies vaccination

An envelope of the virus is acquired during which of the following steps a) Penetration b) Lysis c) Synthesis d) Release

An example of a latent virus is? a) cancer b) hep B c) SSPE d) herpes

An infection in which bacteria inhibit the pilosebaceous glands in the skin of an adolscent youth is a) proprionibacterium acnes causing acne vulgaris b) genital warts c) listeriosis d) pink eye

An old man, hospitalized, develops pneumonia. Sputum culture reveals gram negative rod, extremly mucous, lactose positive, nonmotile, encapsulated bacterium, without pigment a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Proteus species c) Klebsiella pneumonia d) Streptococcus pneumonia

An organism grew from the serosanguineous wound drainage, but not from teh blood cultures. From the list below, the most likely organism to cause this constellation fo clinical and laboratory finding is: d) staphylococcus aereus

An organism that is primarily the source of acid production in the mouth causing tooth decay is: a) staphylococcus b) Streptococcus c) bacillus d) Vibrio

Anaerobic environment in laboratory conditions can be produced a) only by biological method that use oxygen consumpting microbes b) by physical, chemical, biological methods c) only by chemical method with the use of pyrogalol d) strictly anaerobic conditions cannot be produced in the laboratory

Anatoxin or toxoid is a) Antibody against toxin b) Attenuated and immunogenicity deprived toxin c) Toxicity deprived toxin d) The same as exotoxin

Another name for fungal disease? a) Mycosis

Anthrax: a) Painless ulcer with black center

Antibodies are required for the presentation of clinical signs in the hypersensitivity of the type (types): a) I and IV b) all four types c) I, II and III d) only type type I

Antibodies of which of mentioned classes cross placental barrier a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgD

Antifungal activity on the level of ergosterol synthesis is present in a) Azoles b) KI c) Streptomycine d) a) and b) are correct

Antigen detection, EM of viral genome detection belong to: a) Direct

Antigenic drift is? a) caused by gene mutation b) small gene changes c) new strain producing new epidemy every year d) all answers are correct

Antigens of extracellular bacteria is presented to T-cells via a) Molecules of MHC I b) Molecules of MHC II c) Molecules of IgG d) Molecules of TcR

Antitoxin a) Is antibody against toxin b) Is toxin deprived of the toxicity c) Is immunogenicity deprived toxin d) Means the same as toxoid

Arboviruses are? a) represented by Ebola and Marburg virus b) thick borne viruses c) are not common in Europe d) typically transmitted by inhalation

d The disease is called Ascariasis

Ascaris lumbricoides causes the disease called a) larva migrans b) echinoccal cyst c) enterobiosis d) no answer is correct

Aseptic meningitis means a) pyogenic inflamation of brain b) non pyogenic usually viral infection of brain soft envelopes c) non pyogenic inflamation of brain d) any type of brain soft envelopes disease

Asexual reproduction is typically present during? a) Life cycle of Plasmodia

Aspergilosa causes the infection of a) Airways - spread to: Brain, Kidney

Aspergilosis : a) Is infection of intestinal tract producing bloody diarrhoea b) Is infection of skin and skin adnexes c) Is infection of endocard and CNS d) Is infection of lower respiratory tract usually

Aspergilosis cause the infection of? a) Lung

Asubstance used to disinfect human tissue is called: a) antibiotic b) disinfectant c) antiseptic d) germicide

Atypical pneumonia is caused by? a) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Autoimmunity a) is characterized by production of antibodies against structures of own body b) is provocated by vaccination c) is characterised by the reaction of cells against autonomous nerve system d) is characterised by presence of antibodies against antibiotics

B. anthracis: a) Non-haemolytic, granular, Wirtz conklin staining

B. cereus on blood agar: a) Grey, large colonies, beta hemolysis.

Bacillus + chlostridium: a) Spore forming

Bacillus cereus: a) Food poisoning

Bacteria are... a) Procaryotic cells

Bacteria divide a) By binary fissure

Bacteria multiply in... a) Exponential phase

Bacteria multiply in? a) exponential phase

Bacteria observed multiplying in the Antarctica are most likely: a)Psychotrophiles b) anaerobic c) halophiles d) chromophiles

Bacteria which produces coagulase i: a) S. Epidermidis b) S. Pneumoniae c) S. Aureus d) all of these

Bacteria with the exception of archaebacteria are prokaryotic cells a) True b) False c) True with the exception of mycoplasma d) True with the exception of prions

Bacterial broth cultures eventually stop growing and enter stationary phase because they a) Deplete an essential nutrient b) Accumulate toxic products c) Become too crowded d) a and b are correct

Bacterial capsule can be visualized by staining according: a) Burri

Bacterial capsule of Klebsiella pneumoniae can be visualised in fixed smear according to: a) Burri b) Gram c) Ziehl-Neelsena d) Alberta

Bacterial capsules: a) Are detected by method acc Burriho

Bacterial culture began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the population go through a) 6 b) 128 c) 32 d) 64

4x10^3 After 10 min lag, the bacteria will double in number at 20 min and double again by 30 min.

Bacterial cuture with a starting density of 103cells/ml is incubated in liquid nutrient broth. If the bacteria have both a lag time and a generation time of 10 min what will the cell density be in 30 min?

Bacterial flagella produce motility of the cell by a) undulating movement b) rotary movement of the HOOK c) glinding d) a) and b) is correct

Bacterial suspension in Indian Ink is used in detection of: a) Capsules

Bacterium that contains only few molecules of peptidoglycans bound to molecules of arabinose and galactose and mycolic acid, containing free lipids, vaxes and mycosides. This characteristic describes a) Mycoplasma penumoniae b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis c) Actinomyces Israeli d) Fungi

Bad decolorisation by strong acids is typical for: Acid-fast cell

b & d

Beta haemolytical streptococci (GAS from GBS) can be differentiated by 2 of mentioned tests: a) optochin test b) bacitracin test c) test of lysis in bile d) CAMP test

Beta hemolytical streptococci are: a) streptococcus pyogenes and streptococcus agalactiae b) streptococcus pyogenes and streptococcus agalactiae and streptococcus pneumoniae c) streptococcus aeureus d) only streptococcus pyogenes

Beta lactams are antibiotics that are efficient at the level of a) synthesis of cell wall b) synthesis of nucleic acid c) proteosynthesis d) metabolism of folic acid.

Bind correctly the type of microbe and arrangement on the picture: a) G+ cocci in clusters: staphylococci epidermis b) G- cocci in pairs: Neisseria c) G+ cocci in chain: streptococcus

a 1. Basic: - Solid: blood agar, Muller Hinton - Liquid: bouillon, Muller Hinton boullion 2. Diagnostic: different color of colonies of different bacteria 3. Selective: substance inhibits growth of one bacteria and enable growth of another. 4 Special 5. Combination

Blood agar is: a) Solid medium

Blood for haemocultivation is taken a) to special sterile vial with anticoagulation material b) to special steril vial without anticoagulation material c) like serum d) all possibilities are correct

Blood-bourne hepatitis are? a) Hepatitis B + C + D

Bordetella pertussis: a) is gram negative non motile fastidious rod causing whopping cough b) produces toxin after the gene was implented to the genome by bacteriophage c) can be easily cultivated on blood agar after being sampled from throat by a cutton swab d) is the most common etihological agens of hosptial infections.

Botulism a) Heat would inactivate the toxin in the potato dip

Brochiolitis is caused by? a) Influenza virus b) EBV c) RSV d) Orthomyxovirus

Bubonic, pneumonic, sylvian, urban are characteristics of the infections caused by? a) Gram negative rod

By Wintz Conklin staining is known as: a) Exospores

CAMP test is positive in: a) staphyloccous aureus b) staphylococcus epidermidis c) streptococcus agalactiae d) streptococcus pneumoniae

CRP is a) A part of cell wall of Streptococcus pneumoniae - called the C substance b) A part of globulin fraction of human serum that makes precipitation with C substance of Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Its concentration increases only during the acute infection caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Its concentration increases in serum during any kind of inflammation

Campylobacter jejuni can be described as bacterium that a) produces gastroenteritis with fever and blood in stool b) need microaerofilic environment and temperature 42 °C for cultivation c) can contaminate meat d) all statements are true

Candidosis in significantly immunocompromised patient: a) vaginosis of fertile woman after ATB therapy b) mouth - oral candidosis of a baby of less than 1 year dependent on the oral pacifier c) esophagitis in diabetic man d) skin mold infection presented by desquamation on the palms

Capsule in encapsulated strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis is the tool of a) pathogenicity b) virulence (T1, T2) c) immunity d) infection

Catalase production is negative in which of the following: a) Streptococcus b) corynebacterium c) staphylococcus epidermidis d) staphylococcus aureus

Catalase: a) Staphylococcus +

Cell cultures, eggs, animals are important for: a) Cultivation in vivo

Cell membranes are composed primarily of? a) protein and polysaccharides b) peptidoglycans in prokaryotes c) protein and phospholipids d) phospholipid and polysaccharides

Cell wall of Gram positive bacteria contains a) peptidoglycan b) chitin c) celulose d) cholesterol

Cell wall present in: a) bacteria, richettiae, fungi, protozoa b) prions c) viruses, bacteria, protozoa, fungi

Cells not containing homogenous nucleus with the membrane and not containing organelles are: a) procaryotic b) eucaryotic c) archaecaryotic d) annimal

Cells that do not have a membrane separating the nuclear material from their cytoplasm are called a) Heterozygotes b) Prokaryotic c) Eukaryotic d) Viruses

Cerebrospinal fluid is taken a) strictly aseptically by lumbal punction or suboccipital punction b) strictly aseptically with the help of swab c) form the cubital vein d) from the frontal vein

Changes in appearance of virus-infected tissue culture cells are a) capsomeres b) cytopathic effect c) lysogenic effect d) tissue effect

Characteristics: acquired, congenital, transmitted by cysts, from excrements or meat, man is incidencal host, acute infection is caused by tachyzoites, chronical stage is caused by bradyzoites? a) Toxoplasmosis

Chicken pox is caused by : a) Varicella-zoster virus b) Adenovirus A c) Human herpesvirus 6 d) Human papilomavirus

Chinolons - act at the level of a) Nucleic acid synthesis b) Cell wall synthesis c) Protein synthesis d) Folic acid metabolism

Chinolons are antibotics that are efficient at the level of: a) synthesis of nucleic acids b) synthesis of cell wall c) synthesis of proteins d) metabolism of folic acid

Chlamydia is the most common etiologic agents of sexually transmitted diseases in? a) in the world b) in Europe c) causing intrauterine infection. d) all answers are correct

Chlamydia trachomatis and Chlamydia pneumoniae share all of the following properties and characteristics ECEPT a) infective stage is the elementray body b) growth in cell culture c) susceptibility to doxycycline d) reproduction by binary fission within the host cell lysosome e) implication in inclusion conjunctivitis and interstitial pneumonia of the newborn.

Chlostridium tetani infections are commonly associated with? a) contamination of wounds b) antibiotic treatment c) immunosuppression d) pre-existing lung disease

Haemophilus influenza, neisseria meningitis

Chocolate agar is a selective medium for? a) ... streptococci b) d) all of the above

Chronical infection of hepatitis B virus is characterised by : a) Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months and disappearance of IgM anti HBc b) Presence of high levels of IgM anti HBc c) Absence of HbeAg d) Absence of IgG anti-Hbc

Clinical symptomatology of lepra is due to? a) virulence of bacterium b) immunity of host c) isolation fo the patient in leprosaria d) not availability of efficient treatment

Clostridium botulinum? a) Anaerobic, gram-negative, sporulating rod, producing toxin b) Anaerobic, gram-positive, sporulating rod, producing toxin

Clostridium perfrigens infections are commonly associated with? a) contamination of wounds b) antibiotic treatment c) immunosuppression d) pre-existing lung disease

Clostridium tetani causes the disease tetanus : a) By toxin produced by vegetative cells that germinate from spores contaminating the wound b) After the biting of annimal that has tetanus c) By spores d) By producing the necrosis

Clostridium: a) Anaerobic

a Anaerobic: can not tolerate oxygen - sediment Facultative anaerobic: survive both with and without O2 - turbid Aerobic: oxygen is needed - bacteria on surface.

Cloud - turbidity is typical for bacterial growth in: a) Liquid medium - facultative anaerobic bacteria.

Coagulase, elastase, hyaluronidase, lipase are: a) AB toxins b) exotoxins c) endotoxins d) exotoxins with enzymatic activity

a Bacteria: green Granules: dark blue

Color of bodies in albert stain? a) Green

Complement fixation reaction (CFR) a) is the reaction during which the complement cascade is activated b) is reaction to measure the concentration of the complement in the serum of the patient c) is serological reaction to detect antibodies d) is reaction in vitro to determine the level of activated complement

Complete and infective virus particle is: a) virion b) provirus c) lysogenic virus d) latent virus.

Conjugation differs from transformation and transduction in that it requires contact between the donor and the recipient cells a) true b) false

Conjugation is the process of transmission of genetic information via a) fimbria b) pillus c) flagella d) contact of plasmatic membrane

Corynebacterium diphteriea a) Is etiological agent of whopping cough b) Gains its ability to produce toxin by lysogenic conversion (via bacteriophage) c) Is sporulating gram positive rod d) Causes gastrointestinal symptomatology of diarrhoea and presence of blood in the stool

Corynobacterium diphteriae: a) is gram negative non motile fastidious rod causing whopping cough b) produces toxin after the gene was implemented to the genome by bacteriophage c) can be cultivated on Bordet-Gengou agar d) is the most comon ethiological agens of hospital infections.

Criteria for diagnosing primary infection are not: Absence of slight increase in IgM

DNA viruses are a) parvovirus, polyomaviruses, vacuolisating virus, adenoviruses, herpesviruses, poxviruses b) paramyxoviruses, orthomyxoviruses, coronaviruses, rhabdoviruses, reoviruses, picornaviruses c) retroviruses, togaviruses, flaviviruses, filoviruses, arenaviruses d) arboviruses, HIV

Definitive host in Plasmodium sp. Is a) fly Tse tse (Glossina palpalis) b) mosquito anopheles c) flea d) louse

Dermatophytes are? a) microsporum, epidermophytom, and trichophytom b) candida, rhizopus, mucor c) histoplasma, paracoccidioides, blastomyces d) actinomyces, Streptomyces, nocardia

Detection of encapsulated strains can be performed by microscopic smear preparation by a) Burri b) Albert c) Gram d) Wirtz Conklin

Detection of specific antibodies in serum is typical for: a) Indirect virological diagnosis

Detection of the colony of Neisseria sp. In the culture of many different bacteria on blood agar is possible by a) catalase test b) coagulase test c) cytochromoxidase test d) CAMP test

Detection of the motility of bacteria is not possible by a) native smear b) on blood agar c) in Gram stained smear d) in U tube with aga

Detection of the motility of bacteria is possible by: a) Native smear, wet-mount

Diagnostic proof of Legionella pneumophila is possible a) only by fluorescence with labelled antibodies b) is most quickly performed on the media with cystein c) is most specifically performed from sputum by latex agglutination d) can be diagnosed also serologically

Diarrhea associated with prolonged antibiotic treatment, including pseudomembranous colitis, ist MOST FREQUENTLY caused by Salmonella enteritidis a) true b) false

Diarrhea could be a symptom for all of the following organisms except: a) salmonella b escherichia c) Toxoplasma gondili d) shigella

Differentation of Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alfa haemolytical streptococci can be performed by a) optochin test b) coagulase test c) cytochromoxidase test d) CAMP test

Differentiation between St aeureus and St epidermidis is based on a) catalase test b) coagulase test c) cytochromoxidase test d) CAMP test

Differentiation of Streptococcus agalactiae from sreptococcus pyogenes can be performed by a) catalase test b) coagulase test c) cytochromoxidase test d) CAMP test

Dimorphic fungi grow in the form of: a) yest b) mycelium c) yest and mycelium d) mold

Dimorphic fungi: a) Grow only in the form of yeast b) Grow only in the form of mycelium c) Grow in the form of mycelium or yeast d) Grow always as molds

Direct parasitology is one by? a) Microscopy

Direct proof of infectious disease cannot be done by a) visualisation of etiological agents by microscopy b) detection of antibody production c) detection of microbial antigen by latex agglutination d) cultivation

Dracunculiosis is caused by? a) Round worms

During cultivation on blood agar cannot detect: a) smell and shape of colony b) viridiation (hemolysis) c) Production of toxin

Dysentery may be caused by a) proteus b) shigella c) pseudomonas d) staphylococcus

EBNA, VCA, EA are a) Letters only incidentally added one to another b) Antigens of EBV virus c) Antigens of CMV d) Antigens of HSV

Ebola virus is a) Filovirus transmitted by sexual way b) Flavivirus transmitted by thick c) Filovirus transmitted by inhalation d) Flavivirus transmitted by inhalation

Elementary body, reticulate body, energetic parasitism, intracellular pathogens are characteristics of a) Chlamydia sp. b) Franciscella sp. c) Mycoplasma sp. d) Viruses

Encapsulated bacteria can be a) streptococcus pneumoniae, neisseria meningitids, haemophilus influenzae b) streptococcus salivarius, neisseria gonorrhoeae, heamophilus paranfluenzae c) streptococcus pneumoniae, neisseria gonorrhoae, haemophilus parainfluenzae d) haemophilus influenzae, nesisseria meningitis, streptoccus salivarius

Encapsulated bacteria: a) are sometimes more virulent than their non encapsulated counterparts b) are more susceptible to phagocytic destruction c) are easier to swallow that tablet bacteria. d) are more resistent to antibiotics than viruses.

Encapsulated virus are a) not resistent against outside conditions (no GIT) b) transmitted in humid environ c) released from cells by budding d) all are correct

Endotoxin a) Is very immunogenic b) Stimulates the production of precipiting antibodies c) Is a part of Gram negative cell wall d) Is the cause of sepses

Endotoxin: a) All have the same effect b) are found in both gram positive and gram negative bacterias c) are proteins d) are heat labile

Endotoxins are: a) found in gram positive cells b) lipopolysaccharides c) found in gram negative cells. d) both b) and c) are correct

Endotoxins belong to a class of biological molecules called: a) Lipopolysaccharides

Endotoxins belong to the class of biological molecules called a) Mucopolysaccarides b) Lipopolysaccarides c) Nucleic acids d) protein

Endotoxins: a) Are structural components

Endotoxins: a) Part of bacteria's outer layer - not secreted but released when the microorganism dies and the cell wall ruptures

Enthomology is about a) Insect b) Worms c) Protosoa d) No answer is correct

Enveloped viruses a) are very sensitive to external conditions ( they cannot survive in GIT) b) requires humidity during the spread (they survive in big droplets) c) they are released form the cell by budding and lysis of the host cell and stimulate cell immunity d) all statements are true

Enveloped viruses a) Are sensitive to outside conditions b) Produces diseases transmissible via direct contact c) Are viruses that have polysaccharide capsule d) Are less sensitive to outside conditions

Enzymes that are not subjected to regulation by induction or repression are called? a) repressor enzymes b) constitutive enzymes c) promotor enzymes d) inducible enzymes

Epidermolytic toxin: a) scalded skin syndrome.

Epstein Barr virus can produce? a) latent infection b) persistent infection c) acute infection d) all answers are correct

Epstein Barr virus contain antigens: a) VCA, EBNA, EA b) VCA and EA c) EBNA and EA d) VCA

Ethiological agens of influenza (flu) is: a) RNA virus with neuraminidase b) DNA virus with neuraminidase c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Any virus infecting upper respiratory tract

Ethiological agents of influenza is? a) virus with antigens H and N on the surface b) DNA virus c) Haemophilus influenza type b d) all answers are correct

Etiological agens of the diseases Bang disease, maltesian fever, undulating fever is the bacterium from the genus a) Brucella, Bordetalia, Francisella, pasteruella resp. b) Brucella sp. c) Francisella tularensis d) Pasteurella multocida

Etiological agents of salmonellose - the disease of intestinal tract transmissible from animal source is a) Salmonella typhi b) One of 1500 bacteria of the genus salmonella with similar biochemical characteristics that differs only in antigenic structure c) Salmonella paratyphi d) Salmonella dysenteriae

Eumicrobia is: a) Presence of bacteria on the mucous membrane in optimal concentration and composition

Eumycetic mycetom is the mycetom produced by? a) anaerobic gram positive bacterium b) aerobic gram positive bacterium c) fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis d) all are correct

Example of chronic viral infection is a) cancer b) hepatitis type B c) small pox d) herpes labialis

Examples of chronic viral infection is: a) cancer b) chicken pox c) Hepatitis B d) no answer is correct

Exotoxin a) is very immunogenic b) is the same as toxoid c) is neutralized by anatoxin d) is part of vaccine (for example against tetanus)

Exotoxin of Clostridium Tetani is the tool of: a) virulence b) pathogenicity c) infection d) immunity

Exotoxin of Clostridium botulinum is the tool of: a) pathogenity b) virulence c) immunity d) infection

Exotoxins belong to a class of biologic molecules called a) Mucopolysaccharides b) Lipopolysaccharides c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins

Facultatitve anaerobic organisms a) Can withstand both aerobic and anaerobic conditions

Fc fragment of IgG binds a) protein A of Staphylococcus aureus b) Proteín M of Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Polysaccharide capsule of Haemophilus influenzae d) Protein capsule of Bacillus antracis

Feedback inhibition involves the inhibition of only the first enzyme of the biosynthetic pathway while end product repression prevents the synthesis of all the enzymes of the pathway: a) true b) false

Fever, chills, deilirum, hypotension, hyperventilation: a) Release of bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

Filariosis is typically transmitted to humans by a) vector b) directly via skin c) by contaminated not filtered water d) no possibility is correct

Fimbriae are pathways for the secretion of exoenzymes a) true b) false

Fimbriea are tool of a) Motility b) Adhesion c) Excretion d) Immunity

Fixation of smear in Gram staining a) Heat

a & b

Fluorescence in microscope is used to increase a) specificity b) resolution

For Candida albicans is characterstic that a) it grows on Sabouraud agar b) it produces pseudohyphae and sausage-like structures c) it colonises some human mucous membrane d) all answers are correct

For Candida albicans it is characteristic that? a) it grows on Sabouraud agar b) it produces pseudohyphae and sausage-like structures c) colonizes some human mucous membrane d) all answers are correct

For Corrynebacterium diphtheriae is true one of the following statements: a) It is etiological agents of whooping cought b) It gains the possibility to produce the toxin by lszogenic conversion via bacteriophage and causes the sever disease c) It is a sporulating rod d) In clinical pictures the most striking symptoms are from gastrointestinal tract

For Enterobacteriacea is true that: a) they are gram negative rods b) they all contains capsules c) they all are sensitive to penicilin d) they all produce localised infections

For Neisseria meningitis which of the statement is not true: a) that it is gram negative encapsulated diplococcus b) that it can be transmitted via infected droplets c) that it causes pyogenic meningitis d) that there is no vaccine against any serotype of this genus

For Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis is true that: a) They can be differentiate only by microscopuy and Gram staining b) They can be differentiated by the test of free or bound plasmacoagulase c) nor aureus nor epidermidis has catalase activity d) They cannot be differentiated by biochemical activity

For Vibrio cholera is not true that a) It produces AB toxin b) It spreads via contaminated water c) A big inoculums is needed d) A small inoculums is enough for patient with high concentration of HCl in the stomach

For bacterium Bordetella pertussis which of the statements are true: a) it is cultivation fastidious gram negative non motile bacterium that causes whopping cough b) it is easily cultivated on common artificial media c) is the most common etiological agens of hospital infection.

For laboratory detection and description of mycelia by microscopy we can use a) native smear b) Gram staining c) Wirtz Conklin staining d) block of rice agar to grow and watch mycelia

For salmonella is true that a) it grows on cultivation media after 6 weeks incubation b) It is non-motile acidoresistant rod c) It is gram positive and forms cluster in microscopic picture d) is gram-negative and its species can produce typhoid fever, gastroenteritis, enterocolitis and extra-intestinal disease

For treatment of toxoplasmosis are used? a) Sulfonamides and antibiotics

For tuberculin reaction is used? a) purified derivate of the cell wall protein b) purified derivate of mycolic acid c) purified derivate of peptidoglycan bound to arabinose d) purified mycolic acid with derivate of wax

For which of the following organisms is there no animal reservoir? a) Boretella pertussis

Francisella tularensis a) is a non pathogenic bacterium b) causes the symptoms of disease according to the site of entry c) no precautions are needed in cultivation d) is well preventable by vaccine

From 1918 until 1956, the only subtype of influenza observed in humans was H1N1. In 1957, H1N1 was replaced by H2N2. This is an example of: c) antigenic shift

From among the following, the gram-negative rod that is most commonly associated with cat bites is: a) pasteurella multocida

Fungal infection of skin is? a) dermatomycosis b) superficial mycosis c) subcutaneous mycosis d) a) and b) are correct

Gardnerella vaginalis a) Is commonly present on mucous membrane of vagina of adult women together with lactobacilli and other bacteria of vaginal microflora b) Is present during the vaginoses on the mucous membrane of vagina of adult women after the disappearance of physiological flora c) is Gram negative rod with the structure of cell wall similar to that of gram positive cells, without capsule and non motile d) all statements are true

Gardnerella vaginalis is: a) present in mucous membrane of vagina of adult women together with lactobacillus and other bacteria of vaginal microflora. b) present in vagina during vaginosis in case of dysimcrobia of vaginal physiological flora c) gram negative rod with the structure of gram positive bacterium, capsule and non motiled d) all answers are correct

Generalized skin lesion are characteristic for a) primary stage of syphilis b) secondary stage of syphilis c) cardiovascular syphilis d) primary stage of gonorrhoea

Generalized skin lesion are typical for? a) primary stage of syphilis b) secondary stage of syphilis c) end stage of syphilis d) primary stage of gonorrhoea

Genus and species names are written like this a) Candida albicans (in italics)

Gram positive, facultative anaerobic nonsporulating rod able to grow in broad pH interval, in low temperature whith the visible zone of beta hemolysis, motile in liquid media, causing neonatal meningitis and immunocompromised patients disease, transmitted with raw milk and vegetables that in intraturein infection causes granulomatous infant spetica a) neisseria meningitis b) streptococcus pneumonia c) listeria monocytogenes d) any answer is correct

Gram positive, facultative anaerobic, non-sporulating rod, pH low temp? a) Listeria monocytogenes

Gram staining reflects in bacteria a) differences in the cell wall structure b) differences in bacterial metabolism c) differences in the bacterial plasmatic membrane d) presence or abscence of nucleus

Gram-negative bacterium is/are: a) Escherichia b) chlostridia c) staphylococci d) all of these

Gram-positive bacteria DO NOT contain: a) Lipopolysaccharide

Gram-positive cells have a: a) second outer membrane that helps to reatin the cyrstol violet stain b) Multiple layer of peptidoglycan that helps to retain the crystal violet stain. c) thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain d) periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet

a Bacteria: green Granules: dark blue

Granules stained acc to Albert (with malachite green) are stained: a) Blue

Growth curve phases reflect the dynamics of growth a) Of bacterial population in vitro

H2O2: a) Catalase test

Habitual abortion can be caused in toxoplasmosis by? a) Presence of cysts in genital tract

Haemophilis influenzae can cause all of the following respiratory infections except: a) otitis media b) laryngitis c) epiglottis d) influenza e) sinusitis

Haemophillus influenzae - type b can be prooved by : a) direct agglutination b) complement-fixation reaction c) indirect agglutination with specific antisera - serotypisation d) precipitation

Haemophilus influenzae needs for laboratory growing on cultivation medium: a) nutrition factor X (hemin) b) nutrition factor V (NAD) c) both factors X + V d) latex

Haemophilus influenzae requires for its growth on artificial medium: a) Only X factor (hemin) b) Only V factor (NAD) c) factor X (hemin) and factor V (NAD) d) presence of latex

Health-care associated MRSA infection is: a) MRSA infection that results in hospitalization b) MRSA infection that results after a patient has been admitted to the hospital for some other condition or had undergone some health care procedure c) non of the above.

Helicobacter pylori? a) Is gram negative spiral coccus b) is inactivated by acid stomach juice c) uses production of urease, musicase and modility to reach the target tissue. d) can be identified only from bioptic sample.

Helminthology is about a) insect b) worms c) protosoa d) no answer is correct

Hemaglutinin and neuramidase are antigenic structures important as? a) surface antigens of influenza viruses b) important in spread and diagnosis of influenza virus c) typically changed in influenza virus type B d) more than one answer is correct

Hepatitis B is? a) transmitted by fecal-anal transmission b) blood born infection c) transmitted by contaminated water d) transmitted by direct contact of infectious mucous membrane with ...... infectious mucous membrane.

Hepatitis transmitted by fecal-oral way is? a) Hepatitis A + E

Hepatits C virus causes a) Not sever acute infection with good prognosis b) Chronical infection that can continue to cancerogenesis c) Latent disease with activation in the period of immunodificiency d) Infection that can start only if there is the co-infection with other hepatitis virus

Herpes simplex infection is characterised by: a) Round cells arranged in clusters b) Baloon degeneration of epitel cells and multinuclear cells c) Production of vacuolised cells with atypical hyperchromatic nuclei d) coilocytosis

Histoplasmosis is the infection/disease of a) Surface layers of skin b) Lung c) Gastrointestinal tract d) Urogenital tract

How can you perform the anaerobic sampling a) taking the sample on the dry swab, that will be posed to the plastic bag b) taking the bioptic sample, that will be posed to the vial c) aspirating the sample to the syringe and hermetically close it d) strictly anaerobic sampling cannot be realised

Human viruses usually penetrate host organism by: a) Inhalation

Humoral immunity has the crucial role in protection against a) diphtheria b) tuberculosis c) AIDS d) Skin mycoses

Hypersensitivity of delayed type is the reaction of type a) I and IV b) II, III and IV c) None of the hypersensitivity reactions d) Only type IV

Identical protein subunits composing the capsid of virus are a) capsomeres b) plaques c) episomers d) no answer is correct.

Identify the bacteria which is oxidase-negative and catalase positive? a) Staphylococcus b) streptococcus c) neisseria d) pseudomonas

a Yest: 37°C Mycelial: 25°C

If cultivated at 25 °C, dimorphic fungi will grow as? a) Mold

If mixed infection of bacterial and fungal etiology is suspected in mycoses the sample should be sent for : a) mycological testing b) only for bacteriological testing c) for annimal model test d) for mycological and bacteriological testing

If you are looking for Neisseria meningitidis in the body of patient with meningitis or in healthy carriers you can find it in the sample of a) cerebrospinal fluid b) blood c) nasopharyngeal swab d) all answers are correct

If you have partial clarity, which type of hemolysis do you have? a) Alpha

Immune mechanisms that are effective immediately after first contact with antigen, that are equally powerfull during the first as well as any other contact with the same antigen and are present and effective from birth are part of the a) Nonspecific immunity b) Specific immunity c) Antibody dependent immunity d) B-cell dependent immunity

Immunity against encapsulated strains of Streptococcus pneumonia is based on a) Opsonising antibodies b) Antitoxic antibodies c) Neutralizing antibodies d) Immunocomplexes

Immunization against the measles virus will prevent measles and which disease a) CJD b) Kuru c) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalonpathy d) SSPE

Immunoglobulins with monomeric structure (1 polypeptid chain) are: a) IgG, IgE, IgD b) IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE c) IgM, IgA, d) IgG, IgE

In case of allergy to penicillin antibiotics of the best choice in children is to use a) Macrolides (erythromycin) b) Sulphonamides c) Chinolones d) Tetracyclines

In virology the viruses cannot be multiplied on: a) blood agar b) in chicken fetus c) in laboratory animal models d) cell cultures

Indicative for suspected inborn infection of toxoplasmosis is laboratory finding in mother serum characterised by a) IgG positivity, IgM negativity, IgA negativity, CSF for PCR negative (F) b) IgG positivity, IgM positivity, IgA negativity c) IgG negativity, IgM negativity, IgA not performed d) IgG negativity, IgM positivity, IgA positivity

Infection by flagelata, by ingestion, localisation of parasites in duodenum, producing malnutrition, the correct sampling material is duodenal aspiration or stool - these are characteristics of infection by: a) entamoeba histolytic b) glardia lamblia c) taenia saginata d) trhicomonas vaginalis

Infection caused by invasive bacterium is a) Bacterial meningitis b) Skin abscess c) Dysenteria d) Diphtheria

Infectious disease have essentially been eliminated by antibiotics and vaccination and are no longer a public health problem. This statement is: a) true b) false c) is true for Europe d) is true for your country

Infectious material sampled from a patient suspect to have bacterial meningitis should be transfered to the laboratory: a) on dry ice b) in transport medium at the temperature + 4°C c) on humid swab on ice d) in transport medium at room temperature or at + 37°C

Infectious material taken in case of suspect N. gonorrhoeae should be transported to the laboratory a) on dray swab and frozen b) in transport medium at + 4 °C c) on humid swab on dry ice d) in transport medium at room temperature (+22 - 25 °C)

Infectious mononucleosis is a) The disease caused by EBV with clinical signs of tonsilitis with hepatitis and specific mononuclears in blood smear b) The disease caused by CMV with clinical signs presented on fetus c) tonsilitis d) tonsilitis with exantema

Infestation describes infection by? a) Worms

Interferon gamma release assay IGRA is a test used to identify? a) specific immunity after BCG vaccination b) specifically Mycobacterium tuberculosis exposition c) specific humoral immunity against tuberculosis d) all statements are correct

Invasive disease is a) Bacterial meningitis caused by encapsulated strain b) Skin abscess dysenteria c) Diphteria

Invasive diseases caused by encapsulated strains of Haemophilus influenzae preventable by vaccination are? a) meningitis, arthritis, cellulitis, bacteremia, epiglottitis b) pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis c) pneumonia, pharyngitis d) otitis media, sinusitis

Invasive hemophilus infections are caused by? a) Encapsulated strains of Haemophilus influenzae

a Yest: 37°C Mycelial: 25°C

It cultivated in 37 °C the dimorphic fungi will grow as a) Yeast b) Mold c) Both forms d) All answers are correct

Jaundice is the medical term for a) The disease caused by hepatitis A virus and hepatitis B virus b) Translation of the term icterus - the sign appearing by yellow colour of skin, mucous membrane and sclera c) Inflammation of hepar that can be caused by different microbes (bacteria, viruses, parasites, fungi) d) Disease of skin

KI is active in treating mycosis by? a) Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis b) Activation of lysosomal enzymes

Laboratory diagnosis of the disease caused by Bordella pertussis is? a) usually done by cultivation b) usually done serologically c) usually done by fluorescence microscopy d) possible only by PCR

Laboratory signs fo AIDS are a) antibodies against HIV b) low levels of T helper cells and HIV virus in blood c) low levels of B cells and absence of antibodies against HIV d) presence of HIV in blood and normal levels of all lymphocytes

Lactosa negative gram negative rod isolated from patient bloody diarrhea is most likely a) shigella sp b) pseudomonas aeruginosa c) escherichia coli d) proteus vulgaris

Lactose fermenters are: a) salmonella typhi b) salmonella paratyphi c) shigella dyzenteriae d) E. Coli

Lactose is present in: a) Diagnostic medium

Leewenhock's discoveries were significant because: a) he was the first scientist in the world b) because he used microscope and carefully recorded and reported his resulsts c) he used lenses to visulise bacteria d) he was the first microbiologist

Lepra is diagnosed usually on the basis of? a) gram staining b) cultivation c) serological tests d) clinical and epidemiological findings

Life threatening symptom - meningogoggaemia - caused by Neisseria meningitis is? a) caused by endotoxin b) started by inappropriate treatment c) is present only in case of severe meningitis d) is always present in case of meningitis.

Lipid bilayer overlying the nucleocapsid is present in a) rabies virus b) picorna virus c) HIV d) Delta antigen

Lipopolysaccaride can activate complement cascade a) By alternative pathway b) By classical pathway c) Via complex of antigens with antibodies d) Only if oponisation antibodies are also present

Listeria monocytogenes a) Can grow at refrigerator temperature b) In an extracellular pathogen c) Is gram negative coccus d) Is strictly human pathogen

Listeria monocytogenes: Tumbling when tested at 25°C

Listeria: a) Small gram+ bacteria

Lysogenic bacterium a) Carries a prophage b) Causes lysis of other bacteria on contact c) Cannot support the replication of virulent phage d) Is a human pathogen

MRSA a) Is usually susceptible to vancomycin

MRSA can be diagnosed with: a) bacterial culture b) genetic test c) both of the above. d) none of the above

MRSA can be present in normal individuals without causing infection a) true b) false

MRSA commonly causes skin infections: a) true b) false

MRSA infection can spread through direct contact with an infected person a) true b) false

MRSA stands for: a) Methicilin-resistant-staphylococus-aereus

MRSA: Mainly causes skin infections (boils, carbuncles, abscesses)

Malaria is: a) endemic b) worldwide c) eliminated d) controlled by vaccination

Malassezia furfur, Expholia wernecki is the cause of a) Superficial mycosis b) Dermatomycosis c) Systemic mycosis d) Opportunistic mycosis

a Definitive: cat Transient: rat Incidental: human

Man is ... host in toxoplasmosis. a) Incidencal

Manitol agar is to differentiate between a) Staphylococcus

Match picture with bacteria and staining: a) Gram- and Gram staining

Match picture with structure and staining: a) Spores - Wirtz Conklin

Match the correct pairs to the picture: a) Spores - Wirtz Conklin b) Acid fast bacteria - Ziel Neelson c) Granules - Albert d) Capsules - Burri e) G+ cocci - Gram fa f) G- rods - Native smear/wet mount

Medusa head appearance of the colonies may be due to: a) Bacillus anthracis. b) proteus mirabilis c) clostridium tetani d) pseudomonas aeruginosa

Methicilin resistant Staphylococcus aereus (MRSA) is a) susceptible to oxacilin b) susceptible to penicillin c) usually susceptible to vancomycin d) resistant to methicillin but susceptible to other betalactames

Methicilin resistent strain of Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) a) is the strain susceptible to oxacilin b) is the strain susceptible to penicillin c) can be killed by vancomycin d) is the strain resistant to meticilin but susceptible to other beta lactams

Microorganism that can grow in the presence as well as in absence of molecular oxygen is a) Obligatory anaerobic b) Obligatory aerobic c) Facultative anaerobic d) Facultative aerobic

b Alpha: incomplete (greenish) Beta: complete (transparent) Gamma: no hemolysis

Microorganisms can produce on blood agar different kind of hemolysis a) only alpha b) alpha and beta c) beta d) alpha, beta and something

Microscopy to detect dermatophytes must be preceeded by? a) Inactivation of contaminating bacteria by ATB b) processing of sample by keratolytical KOH c) decontamination by heat d) no answer is correct.

Minimal bacterial concentration is indicating: a) Qualitative resistance of bacteria b) Concentration that inhibits growth of bacteria c) Concentration that kills the tested bacterial strain

Minimal inhibition concentration is indication: a) Quantitative resistance of bacterial strain

Molecule of TcR resembles a) Fab fragment of IgG b) Fc fragment of IgG c) Molecule of MHC I d) Molecule of MHC II

Morbillivirus is: a) Reovirus b) Retrovirus c) Coronavirus d) Paramyxovirus

Most common ethiological agent of acute urinary tract infection is a) E.coli b) Chlamydiae trachomatis c) Neisseria gonorrhoae d) Streptococcus saphropyticus

Most common ethiological agent of newborn meningitis is NOT? a) Haemophilus influenza (T1) b) Listeria monocytogenes c) E. coli d) Streptococcus agalactiae

Most common helminoses in Europe, typical for children, with possibility of autoinoculation and need of repeated treatments (interval of 4-6 weeks) is: a) toxoplasmosis b) enterobiosis c) trichinosis d) taeniosis

Most common source of Neisseria menigitidis CNS infection is a) Activation of endogenous strain b) Close contact with a carrier c) Contaminated vomites d) Close contact with an infected pet

Most medically important bacteria grows best at pH: a) 7

Most people are colonized with a) St. Epidermidis

Most strains of staphylococcus aereus indicate: a) white colonies on blood agar b) a brown - black pigment c) beta-haemolysis on blood agar d) all of the above

Mycetom can be produced by? a) Streptomyces sp. b) actinomycies Israeli c) actinoemadura d) all the answers are correct

Mycobacteria contain a) mycolic acids b) no peptidoglycan c) no cell wall structures d) all answers are correct

Mycobacterium leprae can be cultivated a) In the same type of media as Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) In special selective media c) On the same media as Mycobacterium tuberculosis after the incubation time of 3 months because of very long generation time d) No answer is correct

Mycobaterium tuberculosis can be cultivated? a) On complex of egg media

Native smear used for observing: a) Movement

Neisseria gonorrhoea is a) Gram negative diplococcus b) Gram positive diplococcus c) Gram negative rod d) Gram negative rod

Non septated hyphae are called a) coenocytic b) pseudohyphac c) sausage like d) vegetative mycelium

a Motile: trofozoit Non-motile: cyst

Non-motile form of protozoan is? a) Cyst

Normal concentration of ASLO in healthy person is : a) 196 j b) 220 j c) 540 j d) 320 j

Not correct about MRSA? a) it is mehicilin resistant staphylococcus aereus b) it is resistant to antistaphylococcal penicillin (oxacilin or methicillin) c) it is isolated in more than 90% of strains of staphylococcus aereus in Slovakia d) it is the cause of hospital infection.

Number of H antigens is the highest in a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Proteus mirabilis c) Klebsiella pneumoniae d) Haemophilus influenzae

On microscope; objective 100, lens 10 - what will the magnification be? a) M = objective x lens = 100 x 10 = 1000

On the surface of cytotoxic T-cells we can find molecules of a) IgG b) CD4 c) CD8 d) p24

One of the factors of pathogenecity of Bacillus anthracis is a) Lipoprotein capsule b) Exotoxins c) Resistant spores d) Endotoxin

One of the most important characteristic of Proteus vulgaris in pathogenesis of urinary tract infection is: a) production of urease b) motility c) toxicity of urease to mucous membrane d) all statements are correct

One of the most important characteristics in pathogenesis of Proteus vulgaris is: a) production of urease b) movement c) toxicity of ammonia (NH3) to epitel d) all answers are correct

One of the tools of pathogenicity of Bacillus anthracis a) is protein capsule b) are toxins c) are termoresistent spores d) is endotoxin

One-cell microbes capable of independent life are: a) parasitic worms b) bacteria, rickettsiae, fungi c) prions and viruses d) round worms

Opportunistic candidosis is most probably a) vaginosis of fertile woman after ATB therapy b) mouth - oral candidosis of a baby of less than 1 year dependent on the oral pacifier c) esophagitis in diabetic man d) skin mold infection presented by desquamation on the palms.

Opportunistic fungi are? a) trichophyton, epidermophyton, microsporum b) candida, rhiozopus, mucor c) actinomycosis, Streptomyces, nocardia d) blastomyces, histoplasma, paracoccidiodies

Opportunistic pathogens are: a) Streptococcus salivariues, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Neisseria flava b) Neisseria meningitids, haemophilus influenzae type b c) streptococus salivariu, staphylococcus aeureus, neisseria flava, haemophilus influenzae d) streptococcus agalactia (GBS), streptococcus pyogenes, nesisseria flava

Oral live attenuated vaccine against poliomyelitis will stimulate production of? a) local intestinal immunity based on IgA only b) general IgG antibodies c) passive immunity based on local IgA d) specific IgG and IgA antibodies

Orientation smear staining is a) Monochromatic with fixation

Orientation smear staining is: a) monochromatic with fixation b) polychromatic with fixation c) monochromatic without fixation. d) polychromatic without fixation.

P. aeuriginosa: a) Grape-like or smelly odor

PCR is usually practical to eliminate the _________ toxoplasmosis a) Congenital b) Acquired adult c) Eye d) No answers are correct

Pandemic strain is a) Produced usually by recombination (antigenic shift) b) Produced usually by conjugation c) The cause of every years seasonal winter outbreak d) Typically produced from A, B and C influenza viruses

Pandemic strain of influenza virus appears a) after recombination of strains (antigenic shift) b) after conjugation of 2 strains c) is the cause of every year flu epidemy d) only in type B flu viruses

Parasitic dysenteria - infection with bloody diarrhoea and possible liver abscess is caused by? a) Entamoeba histolytica b) Enterobius vermicularis c) Taemia solium d) Shigella dysenteriae

Parasitic, mostly helminthic infection is characterized by? a) IgE b) IgD c) basofilia d) IgE and eosinophilia

Parasitology includes a) Helmintology, protosoology, enthomology

Pathogenic gram positive spores forming bacterium is: a) streptococcus pyogenes b) staphylococcus aureus c) bacillus anthracis d) corynebacterium diptheriae

Patient complains about weakness, fatigue, intermittent fever for several months. He has had a cardiac valve prosthesis implanted. Blood culture revealed catalase positive coagulase negative cocci, that failed to ferment manitol but grew on salt agar. The infectious agent was? a) staphylococcus aereus b) staphylococcus erpidermidis c) streptococcus agalatciae d) viridant streptococci.

Patient with lobar pneumonia and CSF that has a heavy concnetration of gram-positive cocii in pairs (diplococci), the most likely microbial etiology of his infections is: c) streptococcus pneumnoiae

Patient with positive filter of ASLO (more than 250)? a) was infected with Streptococcus pyogenes and produces antibodies against streptolycin

Paul Bunell reaction, Erickson OCH test a IM test are used to detect a) heterofil antibodies during infectious mononucleosis b) homofil antibodies during infectious mononucleosis c) termofil antibodies during infectious mononucleosis d) psychrofil antibodies during infectious mononuclesis

Penicilin antibiotics are not toxic to human because: a) They are efficient on the level of cell wall structures

Penicilin antibiotics are the less toxic because a) They are products of fungi b) They have a very simple chemical structure c) Cannot cross the intestinal mucouse membrane d) Are active on structure that are situated at the level of bacterial cell wall

Penicillin antibioticum with enlarged efficiency to gram negative bacterium is? a) Oxacillin b) Meticillin c) Ampicilin d) Oxilin acid

People with decreased immunity are more sensitive to MRSA infection a) true b) false

Pets are sometimes important sources of infection to their owners. The organism that is most closely associated with parrots is: a) Chlamydia psittaci

Pharyngitis, hepatopathia, monocystis in peripheral blood smear and presence of heterophil antibodies is typical for infection caused by a) herpes simplex virus b) cytomegalovirus c) adenovirus d) Epstein Barr virus

Physiological flora of skin is: a) Staphylococcus epidermis, propionibacterium acnes

Physiological flora of the skin is a) Candida albicans and streptococcus pneumonia b) Viridans streptococci and corynebacterium diphteriae c) Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus aureus, diphteroid roo.. d) all is correct

Pillus is not the tool of: a) Movement

Pillus is the tool of a) Genetic material transmission

Plasmacoagulase is the enzyme that plays role in the pathogenesis of disease caused by? a) Staphylococcus aereus b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Streptococcus agalactiae d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Plasmatic membrane of fungi contains a) ergosterol b) chitin c) safranin d) cholesterol

Plasmodia are transmitted by? a) ingestion of cysts b) inhalation of trophosoits c) mosquito bites d) a) and c) are correct

Plasmodium malaria is an example of ___________ protozoan a) Intestinal b) Brain d) Blood

Pneumcystis jiroveci is a : a) virus b) blood protozoa c) fungi d) worm

Pneumonocystis jirovecci is a: a) virus b) blood protozoa c) fungus d) worm

Polioviruses, ECHO viruses, coxackie viruses, hepatitis A virus are a) enteroviruses b) DNA viruses c) Enveloped viruses d) dsRNA viruses

Polioviruses, ECHO viruses, coxakieviruses, hepatitis A virus are a) transmitted by fecal oral way b) DNA viruses c) enteroviruses d) a) and c) are correct

Polyoma viruses are? a) the cause of poliomyelitis b) causing latent infections that is activated in immunosuppressed c) RNA viruses d) responsible for polyomatosis

Polysaccharide capsule of some strains of Haemophilus influenzae is the tool of a) pathogenicity b) virulence c) infection d) immunity.

Postpartum fever caused by Mycoplasma hominis can be treated by clindamycin; all others interfere with cell wall? a) penicilins b) tetracyclinee c) cephalosporins d) vancomycins

Potential nosocomial strain is: a) mycobacterium tuberculosis b) bacillus anthracis c) pseudomonas aeruginosa d) shigella dysenteriae

Premalignant cells are seen in PAP semar from a 40 year old woman. Which agent is most likely to be present in these cells? a) adenovirus type 2 b) chlamydia trachomatis c) HSV type 2 d) HPV type 16

Preparation of spore staining: a) Concentrated karbofuschin and heating

Presense of specific antibodies against rubella virus in serum that was taken from newborn on the day of birth is sign of a) Infection of fetus (in utero) b) Transplacental transmission of antibodies from the mother during pregnancy c) Perinatal infection d) Postnatal infection

Prions - unconventional viruses - are? a) filtratable, not containing nucleic acid, non-antigenic b) inactivated by temperatures of 80 °C ... c) stimulise production of interferon, inflam... d) all answers are correct

Production of H2S can be detected on: a) Diagnostic TSI medium

Production of sufficient acid by fermentation of lactose leads to decrease in pH such that pH of the medium falls below 4.5 Which of following test can detect it: a) Cultivation of Escherichia coli on Endo agar b) urease test for helicobacter pylori c) coagulase tube test d) oxidase test

Proportional dilution is the method used for identify antibiotic susceptibility of? a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Mycoplasma pneumonia c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Neisseria meningitis

Protective against intrauterine infections are antibodies type a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgA

Protective usually protein coat surrounding a virus nucleic acid core is? a) Capsid b) Capsule c) Capsomere d) All answers are correct

Protozoology is about: a) Amobiae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be diagnosed from the pigment , known as: a) Pyocyanin b) hemolysin c) safranin d) malachit green

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a) Gram negative obligate aerobic non-fermentating rod b) Gram positive rod c) Gram negative non-fermentating coccus d) Gram positive coccus

Pure microbial culture means a) isolated colonies of several bacterial species b) colonies of only one bacterial species or type c) bacteria that grow from one CFU - colony forming unit d) sterile media after cultivation of the sample

Pyogenic infection: a) Associated with staphylococcus

Q fever is pneumonia, transmitted via inhalation and caused by intracellular pathogen? a) Coxiella

RNA virus, infecting upper respiratory tract mucous with optimal temperature for replication +33 °C, releasing histamine and existing in more than 100 serotypes and stimulating only local immunity are a) orthomyxoviruses b) rhinoviruses c) paramyxoviruses d) reoviruses

RNA virus, infecting upper respriatory tract, with optimal termperature for replication 33 °C, releasing histamine, existing in more than 100 serotypes, not producing systemic immunity and very dangerous for newborn is typical for: a) orthomyxoviruses b) reoviruses c) rhinoviruses d) .. viruses do not exist

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase is present in : a) Herpesvirus b) Hepatitis B virus c) Retrovirus d) Poxvirus

Rabbit disease-zoonosis transmitted to human and existing in the ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, septic, ulceral, gastrointestinal, pneumonic forms is caused by: a) Francisella tularensis b) brucella melitensis c) Pasteurella multocida d) Bordetella bronchiseptica

Rabies virus is a) An enveloped virus b) Well treatable by antivirotics c) Spread via blood and lymph d) Prevention by vaccination that is needed only after sever injury on the face caused by an ill animal

Rabitt disease is caused by a) Francisella tularensis b) Brucella melitensis c) Pasteurella multocida d) Bordetella bronchiseptica

Rapid discovery of Neisseria gonorrhoea in culture of bacteria on blood agar can be done by? a) Positive cytochromoxidase test

Resistance to many antibiotics is transferred by genetic information present in: a) R factor plasmids b) sex pilli c) enzymes d) a plasmids

Result of the serological reaction 1:160 a) Indicates the titer of antibodies b) Indicates the highest dilution of serum in which the reaction antigen with antibodies can be detected c) Indicates the lowest dilution of serum in which the reaction antigen with antibodies can be detected d) Means the negative results

Rheumatic fever a) Is possible after pharyngeal disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes b) Is possible after skin disease caused by streptococcus pyogenes c) Is characterized by normal concentration of ASLO. d) Is characterized by infectious exanthemas (erruptions) of the skin

Rheumatic fever a) Respiratory

Rheumatic fever a) Sequelae after infection with Streptococcus pyogenes

Rhinoviruses are a) picornaviruses b) DNA viruses c) encapsulated DNA viruses

Rotaviruses? a) Produces gastroenteritis in children

S. Aereus can cause food posioning: a) true b) false

S. Aereus is a common contaminant in blood cultures: a) true b) false

S. agalactiae is most likely responsible for bacterial meningitis in infants during the first month of life a) true b) false

S. pneumoniae can be differentiated from other alpha-haemolytic s. On the basis of resistance to optochin a) true b) false

SARS is a) RNA virus - coronavirus b) DNA virus - coronavirus c) DNA virus - pneumovirus d) RNA virus - rhinovirus

Salmonella: a) Bacteria defects ovaries of chickens and later be present in eggs.

Salt manit is diagnostic medium to differentiation of a) staphylococcus aereus and staphylococcus epidermidis b) streptococcus agalactiase and streptococcus pyogenes c) escherichia coli

Saprophyticus: a) Most common cause of cystitis - can be part of normal flora in vagina and..

Satphylococcus aureus isolated from infectoius material (e.g. abscess) can be differentiated from nonpathogenic staphylococci by the test of a) production of plasmacoagulase b) feremntation of manitol and growing on salt medium c) production of hemolysis on blood agar d) all answers are correct

Scolex, adherence to GIT, hermafroditismus, segmented body, not existence of GIT, absorbance of nutrition via cuticule, usually long - are characteristic of: a) cestodes - tape worms b) nematodes - round worms c) trematodes fluke worms d) a) and b) is correct

Sediment is typical in growth in: a) Liquid medium

Selective media for the isolation of Shigella is: a) blood agar b) deocycholate - citrate agar c) Bordet - gengou agar d) all of these

Selective medium of fungi cultivation is a) Blood agar b) Bordet Gengou medium c) Saboraud agar d) No answer is correct

Sepsis is a mild form of MRSA infection a) true b) false

Serological methods are used in detection of? a) aspergilosis b) dermatomyocomes c) invasive candidoses d) a) and c) is correct.

Serological reactions are reactions of: a) Antigen with antibody to detect specific immunity

Serological testing of HIV are not shown after 1 week since exposure. Why is this? a) antibody to HIV has not yet risen to a detectable level b) ELISA is not sensitive enough to detect the virus c) isolation of the virus in tissue culture is inoclusive d) virus replication has not yet started

Serotypisation is a) agglutination reaction b) precipitation reaction c) is not agglutination reaction d) is complement fixation reaction

Serratio marcescens: a) Bad odor -> putrit pus

Several viruses of haemorhagic fevers are member of the group of a) arenaviruses b) polioviruses c) herpetic viruses d) members of all above mentioned groups

Something with resistance to colorization..? a) Acid-base staining

Specific antitoxin is an important part of treatment in a) SSS syndrome b) tetanus c) necrotizing enteritis d) pseudomembranous colitis

Spherical bacteria arranged in a chain are known as? a) spirochetes b) staphylococci c) streptococci d) streptobacilli

Spore is a) Dormant and not very dangerous until they germinate

Sporulation: a) 1 vegetative cell produces 1 cell

Spotted fever, Rocky mountain fever - are caused by intracellular pathogens and are atropod borne. The ethiological agent is: a) Rickettsia b) Ehrlichia c) Coxiella d) Chlamydia

Stainig for visualisation of Mycobycterium tuberculosis in microscopic smear is named after a) Albert b) Burri c) Ziehl Neelsen d) Gram

Staining method according Ziehl Neelsen is not useful for visualisation of a) ethiological agent of peste b) Mycobacterium bovis c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis d) Mycoplasma hominis

Staphylococcal food poisioning usually manifests itself following ingestion of contaminated food after a) 2-6 hours b) 36-72 hours c) 12-18 hours d) 18-36 hours

Staphylococcus aureus is on the skin the cause of a) pyogenic and usually localised infection (abscess) b) spreading inflamation of subcutaneous space (flegmona) c) infectious exanthema d) no answer is correct

Staphylococcus aureus isolated from infectious material (e.g abscess) can be distinguished from other staphylococci a) by the production of plasmacoagulase b) by production of phosphatase and fermentation of manitol c) by production of hemolysin on the blood agar d) all answers are correct

Staphylococcus aureus, Psedomonas aeruginosa, Proteus vulgaris, Klebsiella pneumonia? a) Causes infection after ingestion of contaminated food b) Are etiological ageneses of hospital infections c) Are all species of the family enterobacteriaceae d) Are all facultative anaerobic bacteria

Staphyococci are routinely differentiated from streptococci by test with hydrogen peroxide a) true b) false

Strains of N.gonorrhoae without fimbriae are not able to produce disease, they are a) Avirulent b) Nonpathogenic c) Nonimmunogenic d) Noninfectious

Streptococci are: a) gram negative b) catalase negative c) plasma coagulase positive d) gram positive rod-shaped bacteri

Streptococci cultivated in liquid media can be seen in the microscopic smear a) as cocci arranged in tetrades b) as cocci arranged in chains c) as cocci arranged in custers d) big round moving formes arranged in regular pictures

Streptococci vs staphylococci: a) Chains vs clusters

Streptococcus agalactiae is also known by its Lancefield group which is: b) group B

Streptococcus group A is a) streptococcus pyogenes b) streptococcus agalactiae c) streptococcus pneumoniae d) streptococcus salivarius

Streptococcus group B is a) streptococcus pyogenes b) streptococcus agalactiae c) streptococcus penumoniae d) Streptococcus salivaries.

Streptococcus pyogenes can be differentiated from other hemolytic streptococci on the basis of: a) Bacitracin sensitivity b) erythromycins sensitivity c) aminoglycosides sensitivity d) penicilin sensitivity e) optochin sensitivity f) CAMP positivity

Streptolysin O is: a) non-antigenic b) oxygen-labile c) oxygen-stabile d) all of these

Structure of Gram negative a) Peptidoglycan, outer membrane, lipopolysaccharide

Subcutaneous mycosis is caused by a) Trichophyton, epidermophyton, mierosporum b) Candida, rhizopus, aspergillus c) Histoplasma, coccidiodes, Cryptococcus d) Sporothrix, Madurella

Surface membrane is produced during the growth in: a) Liquid medium - aerobic bacteria

Syphilis and Lyme disease are similar in which of the following aspects a) mode of transmission b) both disease display three distinct phases c) both agents share many antigenic markers d) both can be cultivated

Systemic, endemic, obligately pathogenic, dimorphic are characteristics of? a) epidermophyton sp. b) candida albicans c) histoplasma capsulatum d) sporothrix schencki

TSS: a) Toxic shock syndrome

Taenia saginata is : a) Cestodes b) Trematodes c) Nematodes d) Sporozoa

Target cells for HIV virus are a) B lymphocytes b) T lymphocytes c) NK cells d) Memory cells

Target structure of penicilin antibiotics is not present in animal cells because it is the part of: a) cell wall b) plasmatic membrane c) mitochondria d) nucleic acid.

Test to identify production of enzymes and their metabolic characteristics during cultivation of bacteria are used: a) identification b) ATB susceptibility testing c) multiplication

Tetracyclin is an antibioticum of choice for infections (ATH) a) in children b) zoonosed caused by intracellular bacteria c) because it has bacteriocidic activity d) caused by parasits.

Tetracyclin is an antibioticum of choice for infections: a) in children b) zoonised caused by intracellular bacteria c) With bacteriocidic activity d) caused by parasites

The "classic" solid medium that is used to cultivate Mycobacterium species is: b) Lowenstein-Jensen medium

The DTaP immunization is for: a) Dermatomycoses, TB, pertussis b) diphteria, tetanus, pertussis c) diphteria, tetanus, parainfluenza d) dermatomycoses, tetanus, pontiac fever e) diphteria, TB, pneumococcal pneumonia

The Technique of cultivating animal cells in the laboratory is: a) cytophatic effect b) tissue culture c) cultivation d) replication

The acid-fast stain is important, beccuase it is a simple stain that differentiates Mycobacterium species from other bacteria? a) True b) false

The agent(s) which can cause plague is/are a) Yersina pestis b) Proteus mirabilis c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) all of these

c Lophotrichous: having 2 or more flagella at one end Peritrichous: around the entire surface Amphitrichous: single flagella at each end Monotrichous: single flagella at one end

The arrangement, in which flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell is: a) lophotrichous b) amphitrichous c) Peritrichous d) monotrichous

The arrangement, in which flagella is single/cluster at both ends: a) Amphitrichous

The bacteria invovled in the production of dental caries is/are a) strepotocccus mutans b) s. Aeureus c) both a) and b) d) streptococcus pygenes

The bacterial infection where the use of PCR is practically reasonable, is? a) infection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) infection cased by E.coli c) Infection of lung caused by mycoplasma pneumonia d) Infection of genital tract caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea.

The bacterial sore throat is caused by a) St. Aureus b) haemophilus spp c) S. Pyogenes d) S. Agalactie

The best prognosis of dermatophytes, is if it is caused by? a) Not indicated by type of ethiology

The biological sample if gonococcal infection is suspected must be stored: a) on dry swab b) in transport medium at +4°C c) in transport medium on ice d) in transport medium at room temperature (25 °C) or at 37 °C

The blood for hemocultivation should be taken: a) before breakfast b) when the patient has no more fever c) in time of rise of the temperature d) when the ATB therapy was interrupted

The c are called a) synthesizer b) operators c) inducers d) promotors

The capsid of a virus with helical symmetry is composed of: a) multiple identical copies of a single polypeptide molecule b) several polypeptides produced by sequential processing of a single large protein molecule c) several different polyypeptides encoded by different open reading frames in the viral genome d) several different polypeptides generated by differential splicing of the same RNA transcript. e) each of the above occurs and is characteristic of the specific virus family

The capsule is the tool of virulence of: a) Cryptococcus neoformans b) histoplasma capsulation c) Candida albicans d) sporothrix schenicki

The centers for disease control end prevention (CDC) is called to evaluate an outbreak of disease in passengers who are vacationing on a 7-day cruise. The symptoms last 2 days and include diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, nausea, and headahe. A small, single-stranded, positive sense RNA virus with an icosahedral capsid is isolated from the stool of several passengers. Which virus is most likely the cause of the disease? a) adenovirus b) coronavirus c) coxsackievirus d) norwalk virus

The characteristic rash of erythema infectiosum is a) virion/antibody immune complex formation b) bone marrow suppression caused by kiiling of erythrocyte precurosrs by B19 infection c) damage to the liver d) B19 infection of epithelial cells e) the inflammatory response of B19 infection of capillary endothelium.

The characteristic rash of erythema infectiosum is due to? a) a virus-antibody immune complex formation b) damage of the skin by ...

The clinical clues that would make the consultant consider measles prominently in the differential diagnosis included all of the following except: a) the pattern of spread of the rash b) the presence of the white spots on the buccal mucosa c) the appearance of the illness in June d) the interstitial pneumonia e) the relatively low total white blood count

The clinical symptomatology is due to a) Virulence of the bacterium b) Immunity of the patient c) Isolation of the patient in leprosaria d) Not availability of efficient treatment

The clinical symptomatology of tuberculosis is caused by a) toxic activity of mycolic acid b) mycotoxins c) immunopathological mechanism d) exotoxins

The cocci which mostly occur in pairs are: a) Streptococci b) Tetracocci c) Diplococci d) None of these

The component of cell membrane that is target of selective toxicity of antifungal drugs is a) cholesterol b) chitin c) ergosterol d) keratin

The correct name of opportunistic fungi is a) Pneumocystis carinii b) Pneumocystis jiroveci c) Both are correct and indicate one identical fungi d) No answer is correct

The definition of the generation time of bacterial population is a) Time it takes to double b) Time the lag phase c) Length of exponential phase d) Maximum rate of doubling

The definitive host of a parasite is the host a) In which asexual reproduction occurs b) In which sexual reproduction occurs c) With clinical symptomatology d) With laboratory symptomatology

The diagnosis of Rockky Mountain spotted fever is ordinarily confiremd by which of the following tests: c) antibodies against Rickettsia rickettsii.

The diagnosis of syphilis can be preformed by a) Dark-field microscopy - during first stage b) Cultivation on blood agar c) Serological methods - from the end of first stage of the disease d) a and c are correct

The diagnosis of systemic mycoses is performed usually by a) Cultivation of bioptic material b) Blood culture c) Serological tests for antibodies d) Microscopy of bioptic material

The diagnosis of systemic mycosis unlike other mycosis can be preformed usually a) Cultivation of bioptic material b) Blood culture c) Serological test for antibodies d) Microscopy of bioptic material

The differentiation between staphylococcus sp. And streptococcus sp is based on a) catalase test b) coagulase test c) cytochromoxidase test d) CAMP test

The dimorfismus of most systemic fungi depends on: a) temperature b) oxygen c) pH d) all answers are correct

The direct parasitological dignosis can be performed by a) microscopy b) antigen detection in the sample c) nucleic acid detection d) all answers are correct

The discovery of the microbial world by Leeuwenhoek created a controversy that was later disputed by Pasteur and Koch. It was about a) the causes of disease b) the spontaneous generation of microbes c) the church and the scientis d) the origin of life

The disease of syphilis can be confirmed by a) Swab of the ulcer and culture on selective media b) Swab of the ulcer and gram stain c) Examination of a swab of active lesion d) Serological reaction and c

The disease of syphilis cannot be confirmed by a) swab of the ulcus and culture on selective medium b) swab of the ulcus and Gram stain d) Darkfield examination of a swab of active lesion e) a) and b)

The first anti-staphylococcal antibioticum, that is still efficient to most strains of Staphylococcus aureus but if loosing the efficiency, such a resistant strain can become important epidemiological problem mostly in hospital is a) oxacilin (methicilin) b) tetracyclin c) erytromycin d) chloramphenicol

The genome of an bacterial organism includes genes from: a) chromosome b) ? c) plasmids d) both a) and c) are correct.

The genus mycoplasma is resistant to the effect of penicillin a) true b) false

The genus/genera that belongs to the family of Micrococcaceae is a) neisseria b) staphylococcus c) excherichia d) all of these

The gram-negative organisms are: a) staphylococci b) bacillus c) corynebacteria d) none of these

The group of bacteria that does not have cell wall are a) Archeobacteria b) Mycoplasma c) Eubacteria d) Mycobacteria

The hemolysis on blood agar near colonies of streptococcus pneumonia is a) Alfa b) Beta c) Gamma d) Precipitation

The herpesviruses are able to evade the host's immune response by which mechanism? a) block IFN production b) block IL-1 and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-mediated inflammation c) establish latent infections d) prevent CD8 T cell killing.

The illness in the differential diagnosis that prompted the question about tick exposure is: e) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

The initial infection with cytomegalovirus most commonly occurs: a) as a result of blood transfusion or organ transplat b) by sexual intercourses c) before end of adolescence d) in utero

The initial infection with human cytomegalovirus most commonly occurs a) during early childhood, by exchange of body fluids b) in utero, by transplacental transmission from a latently infected pregnant woman c) by transfer of saliva between young adults d) by sexual intercourse e) as a result of blood transfusion or organ transplantation.

The mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin is to: a) Block protein synthesis

The metabolites that activate gene transcription are called a) Synthesizers b) Operators c) Inducers d) Promoters

a Trichrom

The microscope procedure for intestinal parasitosis uses? a) Histological stianing

The microscopy procedure for intestinal parasitoses uses a) Gram staining b) Acid-fast staining c) Histological stainings d) Concentration centrifugation and native smear

The most common cause of cystitis (after echerichia coli) in healthy sexually active women is: a) staphylococcus saprophyticus b) baccillus anthracis c) pseudomonas aeruginosa d) klebsiella oxytoca

The most common cause of urinary tract infection in the community is a) Klebsiella pneumoniae b) Proteus vulgaris c) Escherichia coli

The most common ethiological agent of bacterial meningitis a) tick bourne..... b) Clostridium perfirigans c) Escherichia coli, pseudomonas aeroginosa d) H.influenzae, Streptococcus pneumonia, Neisseria meningitis

The most common type of clinical presentation of the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum nowadays is a) infant botulism b) wound botulism c) food poisoning d) anaerobic cellulitis

The most common type of resistance to penicillin antibiotics is? a) production of inactivating enzymes b) changes in permeability of the cell wall c) changes in receptors for ATB d) efflux of antibioticum from the cell

The number of disease-producing microorganisms is _______ of total number of organism a) a very large portion b) half c) the majority d) a very small proportion

The number of polypeptid chains is the highest in the molecule of a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgD

The organ that is sterile in physiological condition is a) Lung

The organisms that can be acid-fast stained is: a) n... b) tubercle bacilli c) lepra acilli d) all of these

The part of the history that is most specifically connected with the diagnosis of infection with Schistosoma Haematobium is which of the following? c) swimming in the Nile

The patient presens with severe colitis associated with an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria in the colon. The most likely cuase of this condition is: a) botulium food poisoning b) stomach ulcer c) antibiotic therapy d) emchanical blockage of the large intestine

The place of proteosyntesis in the bacterial cell is a) ribosome b) plasmatic membrane c) nucleoid d) mitochondriae

The predominant bacterial species that cultivate human skin is a) lactobacillus b) candida albicans c) staphylococcus epidermidis d) bacterosides fragilis

The primary effect of lactobacilli in adult vagina is to: a) Maintain an acidic environment

The primary stain of Gram's method is: a) safranin b) phenolphalene c) cyrstal violet d) methyl red

The probable cause for relapsing nature of the relapsing fever caused by Borrelia recurrentis is? a) appearance of new antibiotic resistant variants b) periodic activation of spores c) successive appearance of antigenic variants d) all answers are correct

The process of Gram staining is based on the ability of bacterial cell wall: a) to reatin the safranin dye b) to retain the crystal violet dye during solvent treatment c) to retain part of both dyes d) none of above

The process of cellular differentiation that produce an endospore from a vegetative cell is? a) Germination b) Vegetation c) Sporulation d) Common among all rods

The purpose of the counterstain in the Gram stain is to: a) gram-positive cells visible b) decolorize gram-negative cells c) decolorize gram-positive cells d) make gram-negative cells visibile.

The reaction(s) that is/are usually positive in Escherichia coli, is/are a) H2S production b) plasmacoagulase production c) lactose fermentation d) all of these

The reason of infection with encapsulated strains of bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophislus influenzae) in age group of 6 months - 3 years is a) Polysaccharide capsule b) Immature immunity c) Poor immunogenity of polysaccharid antigen d) Cooperation of a, b, c

The reason why postexposition vaccination against rabies is successfull is a) The low virulence of the virus b) Similarity of the vaccination virus with the wild one c) Long incubation time and the spread of the virus via the nerves d) It is too late to vaccinate after exposition to the virus

The replication of virus cannot be preformed a) on blood agar b) on chicken embryonated egg c) lab animals d) cell culture

The role of MHC II is a) Recognize antigens b) Present antigens c) Neutralize antigens d) Stimulate cytotoxic immunity

The role of humoral immunity is crucial in immunity against infections caused by a) Brucella species b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Rhinoviruses

The segments of DNA transferred between (bewixt) cells are? a) Large b) Small c) Circular d) Not functional

The site of protein synthesis in prokaryotic cells: a) are in the mitochondria b) in the LPS c) in the cell membrane d) are the ribosomes.

The solidifying agent used to prepare cultivation media is a) Agar - (algae)

The stage of parasitosis, when parasite is present in body, but cannot be identified from biological samples where it is usually present? a) Prepatent

The statement "more infectious - less symptoms" characterize lepramatous disease a) True b) False

The structure that is present in Gram - and Gram + bacterial cell wall is: a) Peptidoglycan

The structure that is present in Gram- and not Gram+ bacterial cell wall is: a) Lipopolysaccharide of outer membrane

The substances(s) which can be produced by strains of Pseudomonas aerugionsa is/are a) Exotoxin A b) Elastane c) phospholipase C d) all of these

The surface antigenic structure of avian flu virus is? a) H5N1

The therapy of zoonoses caused by Gram negative intracellular bacteria can be efficient if treated by a) Tetracyclin b) Penicillin c) Oxacilin d) Erytromycin

The tool of pathogenicity of dermaphytes are? a) Keratinase

The toxin of Staphylococcus aereus that may result into scaled skin syndrome is: a) enterotoxin b) leucocidin c) Exfoliative toxin d) haemolysin

The treatment of cytomegalovirus infection can be efficient by? a) acyclovir b) herpesin c) gancyclovir d) amantadin

The typical clinical syndrome associated with rotavirus infection is d) nausea, vomiting and diarrhea in infants and young children

The typical clinical syndrome associated with rotavirus infection is? a) Diarrhoea of infants

The vaccination against rubeolla (child exantematouse disease caused by rubeolla virus, togavirus) is organised because a) virus causes the lethal disease in more than 30% of ill b) virus produces the persistent infection c) virus has terratogenic potential d) there is not vaccination available against this virus

The viruses that have a lipid membrane acquired during release from host cell are: a) encapsulated b) enveloped c) more virulent d) more resistant.

Therapy with antituberculotics starts a) only after the strain is laboratory tested for susceptibility b) only in seriouse cases c) only when MIC was tested d) usually with the combination of 2 or 3 antibiotics according to empiric susceptibility results

a 7 types (A-G)

There are several types of? a) Botulotoxins

Tick-borne infections of leucocytes, lymphocytes or erythrocytes usually characterized by specific inclusions called morulae is caused by? a) rickettsiae b) coxiella c) ehrlichia d) chlamydia

Time period between exposition and clinical signs is in hypersensitivity of the type I a) shorter than in hypersensitivity of the type IV b) longer than in the hypersensitivity of the type IV c) equal as in hypersensitivity of the type IV d) cannot be compare with the time period in hypersensitivity of the type IV

Tissue damage during RSV infection (production of syncitia and necrosis) is a) immunologically based b) allergy based c) cell mediated hypersensitivity of type IV based d) circulating immunocomplexes based

To detect ATB susceptibility of bacterium qualitatively we use: a) DDT - disc diffusion test

To detect dynamics of total ab we need: a) At least 2 samples

To detect parasitosis in the colon, the right sample is? a) stool b) vomited material c) stool and blood d) swab from rectum

To still see clearly in magnification 100, what should you put on your "slide"? a) Drop of immersion oil

Toxins which are synthesized and excreted by bacteria into the outside environment: a) Exotoxins

Toxoplasma gondii is able to avoid the host immune response by which mechanism a) acquisition of host antigens b) formation of thick extracellular cuticle c) inhibition of phagosome/lysosome fusion d) intracellular replications

Toxoplasmosis can be detected by a) native smear b) serological methods c) PCR d) b and c are correct

Transformation as a process of transmission of free genetic information was described by: a) Griffith, during study of encapsulated and nonencapsulated strains of Streptococcus Pneumoniae

Translation is ALSO known as: a) DNA synthesis b) protein hydrolysis c) reverse trasncription d) protein synthesis

Transmission of genetic information between bacterial cells with the help of bacteriophage is called a) transduction b) transformation c) conjugation d) translation

Traveller's diarrhea is caused by: a) Entero pathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC) b) Entero invasive Excerichia coli (EIEC) c) entero toxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) d) entero haemorrhagic escherichia coli (EHEC)

Trichomonas vaginalis a) Is blood flagellatum b) Is not motile and does not produce cysts c) Is etiological agents of urogenital inflammation d) Produces infection of women after climax /post menopausal period/

Tuberculin reaction is based on: a) delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) - type IV of hypersensitive reactions b) Skin reaction of mycobacterium tuberculosis and specific antibody c) Skin reaction of cross reacting Ab against BCG-vaccine d) All answears are correct

Tyndall and Coch, discovered a heat resistant forms of bacteria. The bacterial stage (visulised by Wirts Conklin staining) is: a) exospores b) vegetative cells c) endospores d) ...spores

Typical AB toxins are: a) SSS toxin of staphylococcus aerus b) DNA-ase of streptococcus pyogenes c) Diphteria toxins d) E. Coli endotoxin

Typical picture of the microscopic smear of broth culture of Streptococcus pyogenes stained with Gram staining is: a) presence of negative rods b) presence of gram positive diplococci c) presence of gram positive cocci in long chains d) presence of gram positive rods

Typical picture of the microscopic smear of discharge in case of gonococcal infection stained with gram staining is a) presence of monocytes b) presence of polymorphonuclear leucocytes (PMNL) c) presence of gram negative diplococcic, only d) presence of gram negative diplococcic and PMNL

Typically in pairs are in microscopy seen bacteria of a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Neiseria gonorrhea c) Bacillus anthracis d) Eschericha coli

Use this typical bacterial growth curve to answer the following question. Which section shows a growth phase were the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing? C

VDRL reaction is: a) nonspecific test for screening of suspect cases ofbroaf syphilis byblood analysis (non..) b) specific test for screening suspect cases of syphilis by blood analysis (treponemal) c) specific test for confirmation of infection caused by bacterium treponema pallidum d) nonspecific test for confirmation of infection caused by bacterium treponema pallidum

Vaccination can prevent hepatitis of the type (types): a) A and B b) B, D and C c) C, A and B d) A, B and D

Vaccinology against the rage (=rabies) was discovered and used for the first time by a) Louis Pasteur b) Robert Koch c) Anthony van Loowenhoek d) None of them

Vidal's reaction is employed for the diagnosis of a) anthrax b) tetanus c) typhoid d) all of these

Viral particles can be visualised by a) electron microscopy only b) in light microcopy c) in microscope with interference d) in light microscopy if appropriate staining is used

Virion is a) infectious piece of RNA b) complete infectious part of virus c) envelope without nucleic acid d) nucleic acid without capsid

Virulence of bacterium with Lethal Dose (LD) 50 = 1000 a) is lower than virulence fo the microbe with LD = 100.000 b) is higher than virulence of the microbe with LD = 100.000 c) cannot be guessed from this d) means that dose will kill 50 bacteria of 1000 exposed

Virulence of microbes during the cultivation on artificial media a) increases b) decreases c) does not change d) changes in the exponencial way

Virulence of mycobacterium is most strongly correlated to a) Mycotoxin production b) Slow growth c) Resistance to ATB d) Cell wall characteristics

Virulence of the microbes with the LD50 - 1x108 a) Is lower than of microbes with the LD50 - 1x106 b) Is higher than of microbes with the LD50 - 1x106 c) Is not determined by these formulas d) Means that indicated microbes kills 50 of 1000 exposed

Virus looses its infectiosity during replicaltion in the phase of a) eclipsia - from uncoating of the genome to appearance of new virions b) in the phase of latency c) between uncoating and releasing of virions d) virus is infetious during the period of replication

Viruses can be visualized: a) by electron microscopy b) by light microscopy c) by phase contrast microscopy d) by dark field microscopy

Viruses can multiply a) extracelularly only b) in living cells c) only on media with blood d) on the surface of mucouse membrane in the living organism

Viruses that can infect bacteria are: a) bacteriophages b) temperate phages c) prophages d) phagocytes

Viruses transmitted by stool, contaminated hands, small droplets, present in dust, active for a long time, resistant to detergents are? a) encapsulated b) nonencapsulated c) rhabdoviruses d) b) and c) is correct

Wet mount is used when a) We observe living bacteria

What antibiotics have the same action? a) Penicillin and chepalosporin

What can be interpreted from positive anti-HBs and negative for anti-HBc. Patient has most likely? a) acute HBV infection b) chronic HBV infection c) prodrome of HBV infection d) is not affected with HBV

What can you find in bacterial plasma membrane? a) Peptidoglycan

What can you see in the smear of picture 2? a) Capsules

What change of blood agar in beta hemolysis? a) Complete clarification

What do you detect with Albert's staining? a) Granules

What do you detect with Burri's method? a) Capsule

What is generation time of bacterial growth? a) Time it takes for a bacterial population to double

What is present in a Gram negative cell wall? a) LPS b) peptidoglycan c) techoic acid d) All of the above

a (old name for plasmids)

What is responsible for bacterial resistance: a) R factor

What is the cause of most chronic otitis media? a) biofilm b) streptococcus c) staphylococcus d) corynebacterium

What is the color of gram-positive bacteria on a gram staining? a) purple b) pink c) colorless d) green

What is the colour of gram-negative bacteria on a gram staining? a) purple b) pink c) green d) colorless

What is the order of reagents used in the Gram stain? a) crystal violet, iodine, carbolfuchsin, decolorizer b) cyrstal violet, idoine, decolorizer, carbolfuchsin c) safranin, crystal violet, decolorizer, idoine d) crystal violet, carbolfuchsin, iodine, decolorizer

What is the staining and what can you see on the picture 3? a) Ziehl - Neelsen staining acid fast bacteria

What is the staining procedure on the picture 1? a) Gram staining

What makes magnification in light microscope? a) Objective + ocular lens

a Obligatory aerobic: require oxygen. Obligatory anaerobic: no oxygen. Facultative anaerobic: both with or without oxygen Microaerophil: low pressure of oxygen Anaerobic aerotolerant: surviving in the presence of oxygen

What microbes require the lower pressure of oxygen a) Microaerofilic

What microscopy was used in the picture on the board? a) Fluorscent microscopy b) Light microscopy c) Electron microscopy

What occurs when a temperate bacteriophage enters a state called lysogeny a) most viral genes are expressed b) the bacterial cells is lysed c) the virus may become integrated into the host genome d) many new viruses are produced.

What therapy is used when a infected mother of hepatitis B gives a birth to a child? a) Administer hepatitis B immunoglobulin and hepatitis B vaccine

What type of antibodies are protective and important to eliminate a bacterium in encapsulated stain? a) Opsonising antibodies b) Antitoxic antibodies c) Neutralizing antibodies d) Immunocomplexes

What type of bacteria use O2, and cannot survive without a) Obligatory aerobic

What type of changes around the colonies of Streptococcus pyogenes can be detected on blood agar: a) α hemolysis b) β hemolysis c) γ hemolysis d) milky colorisation

What type of hemolysis on blood agar is typical for streptococcus pyogenes? a) Alfa b) Beta c) Gamma d) Precipitation

When a bacteria develop resistance to an antibiotic, the antibiotic does not cause the mutation but only selects for a preexisting mutation: a) True b) False

When a human virus becomes integrated to the hosts chromosome, it is then called a) Prophage - bacteria b) Provirus - human c) Temperate virus d) Vegetative virus

When bacterial pneumonia is suspected we take a sample of a) Swab from throat and blood b) Lung expectorated secretion (sputum), and /or aspirated material from lung c) Saliva and blood d) Throat and nose swab

Where in the human organism the anaerobic environment can be present a) during ventilation problems in lung, in GIT (mostly colon), during problems with circulation in soft tissues b) in CNS and bones c) anaerobic environment cannot be produced in organism in vivo d) a) and b) are correct

Where is prokaryotic genomic system found? a) Nucleoid

Which Virus has a segmented genome?: a) CMV b) HBV c) Influenza virus d) JC-Virus e) Parovirus B-19

Which agent acting on the level of nonspecific immunity is used to treat lymphocutanous infection with Sporothrix schenckii a) Amphotericin B b) Miconazole c) Potassium iodide d) selenium sulfide

Which agent is used to treat infections with tricophyton mentagrophyte? a) amphotericin B b) miconazole c) tetracycline d) selenium sulfie

Which antimicrobial drug would be used to treat infections with Trichinella a) Amphotericin B b) Albendazole c) Chroloquine d) Tetracycline

Which antimicrobial drug would be used to treat infections with Trichomonas vaginalis a) amphotericin B b) albendazone c) chloroquine d) metronidazole e) pentamidine

Which antimicrobial would be used to treat infections with naegleria? a) amphotrericin B b) albendazole c) chloroquine d) metronidazole.

Which bacteria is gram+, grows in pairs/short chains and alpha hemolytic? a) Streptococcus pneumonia? (salivarius)

Which biological materials are sampled to detect intestinal parasitosis? a) sputum b) stool c) duodenal aspirate d) b and c are correct

Which disinfectant has activity against fungi and viruses a) Alcohol b) Chlorine c) Iodophor d) Phenolic

a Vaginitis: vaginal infection with candida sp. Vaginoses: bacterial infection Candida = yest

Which genera caused vaginoses? a) Candida

Which microorganism is responsible for approximately 75% of all UTI's and half of the nosocomial infection fo the urinary tract? a) Escherichia coli b) Staphyloccous epidermidis c) Trichomonas vaginalis d) streptococcus faecalis e) candida albicans

Which of bacteria is gram positive spores forming a) Escherichia coli b) Chlostridium tetani c) Corynebacterium diphteriae d) Candida albicans

Which of following spirochetal diseases is transmitted by arthropod? a) Leprospirosis b) Pinta c) Relapsing fever d) Syphilis

Which of following statement is true for Haemophilus influenza? a) the bacterium can be present on mucous membrane without symptom of disease b) invasive infections are most commonly associated with encapsulated strains c) most invasive infections occurs in children younger than 2 years and older than 6 months d) all answers are correct

Which of following statements describe fungi a) they are eukaryotic b) Most of them are anaerobic c) They reproduce only sexually d) a and b is correct

Which of mentioned bacteria can grow at 4 °C a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Listeria monocytogenes d) Escherichia coli

Which of mentioned bacteria is gram positive and spores forming: a) Escherichia coli b) Bacillus antracis c) Coynebacterium diphtheria d) Candida albicans

Which of mentioned bacterium is gram positive and spores forming a) Excherichia coli b) bacillus anthracis c) corynebacterium diptheriae d) candida albicans

Which of mentioned can be used to treat influenza A a) Cephalosporins b) Amantadine c) Macrolides d) Tetracyclins

Which of mentioned can cause aplastic anemia? a) Chloramphenicol b) Penicillin c) Clavulanic acid d) Chinolones

Which of mentioned can cause pseudomembraneous colitis a) penicillin b) amphotericin B c) amantadine d) broad spectrum ATB

Which of mentioned can cause pseudomembranous colitis? a) penicilins b) amphotericin B c) amantadine d) lincomycin - or broad spectrum antibiotics

Which of mentioned genera cause vaginitis? a) Giandia b) Plasmodium c) Toxoplasma d) Trichomonas

Which of mentioned inactivates beta lactamases: a) Penicilins b) Clavulanic acid c) Ampicilin d) Cephalosporin

Which of mentioned is active against bacterial cell wall? a) Penicillin c) Cephalosporines c) clavulanic acid d) a) and b) are correct

Which of mentioned is efficient to treat diseases (zoonoses) caused by i.c. bacteria: a) tetracyclines b) erythromycines c) bacitracin d) isoniazid

Which of mentioned is reactive directly against bacterial cell wall a) Penicillin b) Cephalosporins c) Clavulanic acid d) a and b are correct

Which of mentioned is used as an alternative to penicillin a) erythromycin b) oxacilin c) ampicilin d) metronidazole

Which of mentioned structure is not a part of Gram-positive bacteria cell wall? a) lipopolysaccharide b) peptidolycans c) teicholoic acid d) N acetyl muramic acid

Which of statements is correct for Candida albicans a) It grows on Sabouraud agar, on blood agar b) it produces typical germ tubes c) it turns form yeast to mold form during invasion to tissues d) all answers are correct

Which of statements is incorrect for Wirtz-Conklin staining: a) Granules are stained only after heating

Which of the following are known to protect bacteria from phagocytosis via white blood cells? a) flagella b) endospores c) capsules d) ribosomes

Which of the following bacteria can be transmitted by the way of the intestinal tract: a) neisseria gonorrhoeae b) virbio cholerae c) salmonella enterica typhi d) All of the above

Which of the following bacteria is/are known as coliform bacilli? a) Echerichia b) Klebsiella c) Corynebacterium d) all of these e) both A and B

Which of the following bacterial genera (that produces endospore) have medical importance? a) chlostridium b) bacillus c) both a) and b) d) none of these

Which of the following biochemical reaction is characteristic of pseudomonas aeuriginosa: a) Production of procyanin b) production of alfa hemolysis on Endo agar c) positive reactions to Gram's staining d) all of these

Which of the following blood cells are the first to appear in the response to an infection? a) Neutrophils

Which of the following can be used to detect clumping factor: a) tube coagulase test b) slide coagulase test c) precipitation test d) none of these

Which of the following components are found in cell walls of gram-positive bacteria, but not gram-negative bacteria? a) Teichoic acid

Which of the following components are not found in Gram positive cell wall a) lipopolysaccharides b) peptidoglycan c) teichoic acid d) amino acids

Which of the following condition is non-suppurative sequelae of S. Pyogenes? a) acute rheumatic fever b) acute glomerulonephritis c) TSSt d) A and B

Which of the following condition is non-suppurative sequelae of streptococcus pyogenes infections: a) acute rheumatic fever b) chronic pyelonephritis c) condylomata accuminata d) all of these

Which of the following contains peptidoglycan a) Ribosomes b) Gram positive cell walls only c) Flagella and all bacterial cell walls d) Gram negative cell wall and b)

Which of the following contains peptidoglycans? a) Gram-negative and gram-positive cells

Which of the following describes best the components of vaccines for children against encapsulated bacteria (like Streptococcus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza) a) alive, attenuated bacterium b) killed bacterium (ör) c) polysaccharide derived from bacterium d) polysaccharide derived from bacterial capsule conjugated to a protein antigen

Which of the following genus belongs to family Spirochaetacae a) treponema b) spirochaeta c) borrelia d) all of these

Which of the following infection(s) can be caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa? a) urinary tract infection b) wound and burn infection c) respiratory tract infection d) all of these

b (on tonsils)

Which of the following is NOT a problem because of an untreated Streptococcus pyogenes infection? a) strep throat b) Pseudomembrane c) scarlet fever d) rheumatic fever

Which of the following is a primary stain for acid fast staining mycobacteria - (this will give the color of mycobacteria in microscopic picture)? a) crystal violet b) carbol fuchsin c) giemsa d) Methyelen blue

Which of the following is a product of transcription: a) protein b) mRNA c) DNA d) ribosomes

Which of the following is commonly used as Gram's decolorize? a) ethyl alcohol b) methyl alcohol c) Acetone d) a mixture of safranin and HCl

Which of the following is essential for growth of all types of bacteria? a) oxygen b) water c) glucose d) vitamins

Which of the following is essential for living cells a) pilli b) flagella c) cytoplasmatic membrane d) capsule.

Which of the following is most characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumonia infection a) infection results in a fever of sudden onset of productive cough b) atypical pneumonia c) infection is definitively diagnosed by microscopy d) infection causes extensive calcification

Which of the following is most characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumonia infection a) infection rsults in a fever of sudden onset accompanied by a productive cough b) infection most commonly occurs in the upper respiratory tract c) infection is definitively diagnosed by direct microscopic examination of sputum d) reinfection is rare and less severe than primary infection e) infection causes extensive scarring and calcification of affected lung tissue

Which of the following is not a bacterial disease of the reproductve system? a) chancroid b) pelvic inflammatory disease due to chlamydia c) genital warts viral disease d) syphilis e) gonorrhea

Which of the following is not a disease of the reproductive system? a) Cystitis b) Syphilis c) Gonorrhea d) Genital herpes e) candidiasis

Which of the following is the most common helminthic infection in the U.S? e) enterobiasis

Which of the following is true for Bordetella pertussis? a) infection causes lymphocytosis b) clinical manifestation - 3 stages: catarrhal, paroxymal, convalescent c) the causative agent of whopping cough d) all satements are correct

Which of the following is true for infection caused by Bordetella pertussis a) infections causes lymphocytosis b) isolation of the organism from clinical specimens is greatest during the early stages of illness c) clinical diagnosis of whooping chough cannot usually be done within a few days of onset of initial symptoms d) all statements are correct

Which of the following is true of Haemophilus influenzae a) invasive infections are most commonly associated with encapsulated strains b) most invasive infectiosn occur in infants during the neonatal period c) most human infections are acquired from domestic pets d) the organism can be readily culture on sheeep blood agar in an environment of elevated CO2 e) older adults are rarely at risk for infection with this organism because they typically have a high level of immunity

Which of the following media is selective for salmonella a) deoxycholate - citrate agar b) chocolate ager c) blood agar d) all of the above

Which of the following methods is most effective in killing bacteria? a) boiling at 100 °C b) autoclave at 121 °C c) freezing at -20 °C D) freezing and thawing several times

Which of the following most correctly describes vaccines containing live, attenuated pathogens a) pathogen does not multiply in human host b) provides sometimes life-long immunity c) provides little cell-mediated immunity d) can be administered only by injection

Which of the following nonspecific substances is a normal component of serum: a) complement b) lysozyme c) interferon d) collagenase

Which of the following organism can be demonstrated with silver impregnation? a) vibrios b) salmonella c) spirochetes d) shigella

Which of the following organisms are diplococci? a) Neisseria gonorrhoaea b) vibrio cholera c) salmonella enterica typhi d) enterobacteriacae e) all of the above

Which of the following produces H2S? a) Salmonella b) Shigella c) both a) and b) d) none of these

Which of the following property(ies) is/are seen in Enterobacteriaceae? a) they are plasmacoagulase-positive b) they are oxidase-negative c) they are growing on Bordet-Gengou agar d) they produce black pigments

Which of the following requirements correspond to the correct sampling: a) the typical part of infection should be sampled b) the sampling should be performed before the therapy started c) all answers are correct d) material should be correctly labeled and taken aseptically

Which of the following shows a positive urease test? a) proteus b) helicobacter c) Both a) and b) d) none of these

Which of the following spirochetal disease is sexually transmitted? a) leproprosis b) pinta c) relapsing fever d) syphilis

Which of the following structures is unique to prokaryotic organisms a) mitochondria b) cell membrane c) peptidoglycan cell wall d) ribosomes

Which of the following studies will give the most rapid presumptive support to the diagnosis of active pulmonary tuberculosis? d) sputum acid-fast stain

Which of the following techniques allows an investigator to start with a single piece of DNA and produce billions of coppies in a matter of hours: a) transduction b) gene cloning c) polymerase chain reaction d) restriction analysis

Which of the following test(s) may establish retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection: a) positive clumping factor test b) ASO test c) streptomycin test d) all of these

Which of the following would be the fastest way to kill endospores a) Autoclave at 121 dg C b) chlorox solution c) tincture of soap d) none of above methods will kill endospores

Which of the following(s) bacteria belong to the family of Enterobacteriaceae? a) Yersinia b) Shigella c) salmonella d) All of these

Which of the following(s) is/are oxidase-positive bacteria? a) E. Coli b) Neisseria c) pseudomonas d) all of these e) both b) and c)

Which of the following(s) show(s) positive result for oxidase test? a) pseudomonase aeruginosa b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) escherichia coli d) both a) and b)

Which of the mentioned can cause pseudomembranous colitis?: a) Penicilin b) Amphotericin B c) Amantadine d) Lincomycin

Which of the mentioned is not a part of bacteria a) Golgi Apparatus

Which of the mentioned is used to treat bladder infections caused by G-negative rods (E.coli) a) Penicillin b) Sulfonamides c) Izoniazid d) oxacillin

Which of the mentioned possibilities indicates the titre of antibodies a) 1:160 b) 160 c) 116o d) 1x160

Which of the systemic mycoses is typically most common in males? a) mycetoma b) paracoccidioidomycosis c) candidosis d) histoplasmosis

c Mordant = color fixative

Which of these is used as a mordant in the gram stain? a) safranin b) alcohol c) iodine d) acetone

Which one is a primary reservoir for Entamoeba histolytica? a) cockroach b) dog c) fly d) human e) mosquito

Which one of the following best describes the Sabin polio vaccine? a) Carries a small risk of causing disease

Which one of the following best describes the components of vaccines against Haemophilus influenza? a) Polysaccharide derived from H. influenza conjugated to a protein antigen.

Which one of the following is characteristic of N. Meningidis but not N. Gonorrhoeae? b) contains a polysaccharide capsule

Which one of the following is characteristic of mycobacteria? a) Mycolic acid

Which one of the following statement concerning plasmids are true? a) all plasmids can be transmitted between bactera by conjugation b) much of the information coded in the plasmid is .... Of the bacteria cell c) plasmids cannot replicate d)Much of the information coded in the plasmid are favorable for surviving

Which one of the following statements concerning plasmids is true? a) R plasmids carry genes for antibiotic resistance

Which organism is responsible for STD (sexually transmitted disease)? a) chlostridium perfringens b) borella burgdorferi c) treponema pallidum d) Bacillus anthracis

Which organisms can colonise the skin of humans a) bacteroides b) Escherichia c) lactobacillus d) malazzeria

Which pair of viruses has a similar antimicrobial target and could therefore be sensitive to the same FDA-approved antiviral drug? a) CMV and HPV b) HAV and VZV c) HBV and HIV d) HSV and poliovirus

Which parasit microscopic staining method should be used to detect Babesia a) Burri b) Giemsa c) Gram d) Kinyoun

Which route is most common for ascaris lumbricoides a) direct inoculation b) direct skin penetration c) fecal-oral route d) inhalation

Which route of infection is common for Strongyloides stercoralis a) direct inoculation b) direct skin penetration c) fecal-oral d) mosquito bite

Which route of infection is most common for Acanthamoeba: a) direct inoculation b) direct skin penetration c) fecal-oral d) inhalation

Which route of infection is most common for Enterobius vermicularis a) direct inoculation b) direct skin penetration c) fecal-oral d) inhalation e) mosquito bite.

Which statement is true for rabies virus a) it is enveloped virus b) the therapy of the disease caused by it is safe and usually successful c) it spreads via blood d) vaccination is required only in cases with sever injuries caused by rage annimal in the region of the face

Which statement is true for viral genome: a) its structure is specific for any kind of virus b) the piece of chain of nucleotides that is characteristic for the virus can be identified in vitro c) the sensitivity of identification of viral genome can be increased by DNA hybridisation (PCR ) d) all answers are correct

Which step in viral infection is inhibited by nucleoside analogues? a) penetration b) uncoating c) replication d) viral assembly

Which step in viral replication is inhibited by amantadine a) attachment b) uncoating c) transcription d) viral assembly

Which step in viral replication is inhibited by protease inhibitors? a) penetration b) uncoating c) replication d) viral assembly

Which vaccine can be given safely to a child who is being trated for leukemia? a) influenza vaccine b) measles vaccine c) oral polio vaccine d) varicella vaccine

Which way of writing the name of bacteria is scientifically and formaly correct (e.g. in your book of microbiology) a) Staphylococcus aureus (italic) b) Staphylococcus Aureus c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Staphylococcus Aureus

Which word describes best protozoan infection? a) they are eukaryotic b) they reproduce only asexually C) they are motile in any stage of their life cycle d) a) and b) are correct

Why is the Hib shot so important, what does it prevent? a) It prevents epiglottis, which can hut off the airways around epiglottis b) Hib covers up the back of the throat with pseudomembrane. c) Hib causes a really deadly form of influenza that only affects small children d) it causes acute gloerulonephritis which can cause young children to lose kidney function

With blood agar you can evaluate: a) Size and shape of colonies as well as type of hemolysis b) Size and pigmentation of colonies as well as production of toxins c) Surface and biochemical properties of colonies

Yeast can multiply by? a) budding b) binary fission c) endospores

Yersinia pestis, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis a Yersinia enterocolitica are all a) etiological agenses of pest b) Gram negative rods c) cause of diarhoea d) cause chronical infection of terminal ileum

Your lab partner tells you the bacteria are moving in the Gram stain. You can conclude that a) he didn't fix the smear b) the bacteria are gram-negative c) he did a flagella stain, not a gram-stain d) teh bacteria have capsules.

See all study sets

Microbiology gamlar spurningar

Related study sets

MEDS581 Midterm

Women & Gender Studies - Introduction

BIOL 1030 Chapter 6 Homework Questions

Unit 7 Kidneys Prep U

Week 5: Johnson "Patriarchy"

Nutrition

Chapter 1

Figurative Language

Sound-Durocher

Chapter 4 - Theory Foundations of Nursing

CS 610 Data Structures & Algorithms Chapter 1 Algorithm Analysis

Economics final quizlet

Vocabulary From Latin and Greek Roots — Level XI, Unit 4, Vocabulary From Latin and Greek Roots — Level XI, Unit 3

The Great Gatsby Vocabulary Chapter 3

English Lit. Terms and Vocab

Adventures in Japanese 1: Chapter 15 Interview Review

ACC110 Final Exam

Marketing Exam

BIBL 105 Quiz 8

hardware and software