Microbiology Lab
What is the recommended schedule for the first chicken pox vaccine in infants?
12 months of age
In what year did Stanley Prusiner discover prions?
1982
How many acetyl CoA molecules are produced during the intermediate step from 1 molecule of glucose?
2
How many pyruvic acid molecules are produced from the glycolysis of 1 glucose molecule?
2
According to the CDC graph, __________ had one of the highest rates of initial doctor office visits for HPV.
2006
Put the following steps of bacterial replication in the correct order, starting from a parent cell. Cell elongation Septum formation Chromosome replication Separation of daughter cells
3, 1, 2, 4
During elongation, how is the RNA synthesized?
5' to 3'
What would happen if the mRNA codon that coded for Cys was mutated in the third position from a U to an A?
A stop codon would be introduced prematurely.
What is the anticodon sequence of a tRNA molecule for the mRNA codon UCA?
AGU
Which first-line defense molecules are produced by the immune system to kill pathogens, but pathogens rarely become resistant to them?
AMPs
What is the intermediate product formed by pyruvic acid during alcoholic fermentation?
Acetaldehyde
When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?
After proliferation into a clonal population
Which of the following scenarios is most concerning for development of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
An Rh- mother pregnant with an Rh+ fetus
During his research on West Nile virus, Bill learned that this virus is placed within a functional grouping known as arboviruses. What is meant by the term arbovirus?
An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus.An arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission.
What are prophylactic antibiotics?
Antibiotics that are given to prevent infection rather than treat it.
How can capsules enable bacteria to evade the immune system?
Capsules block the complement biding sites on the surface of the pathogen.
Which of the following can release histamines?
Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway
Which organism(s) ferment(s) lactose?
B and C
TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate
B cells
Which domain of the A-B toxin binds to cell surface receptors on the host cell?
B domain
A patient with the antigens A and RH+ would not be able to receive blood from which of the following?
B+
What would have been the possible source for this patient's infection?
Contaminated water in Honduras was used for drinking or cooking
Which microorganism requires the low pH inside a phagolysosome in order to reproduce?
Coxiella burnetii
What are rales?
Crackles heard in the lungs.
Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?
Cytotoxic T-cells
HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?
Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.
How is bacterial translation different from eukaryotic translation?
Bacteria can begin translation before transcription has terminated.
What is the function of the CD8 receptor?
Bind to MHC molecules
This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on MacConkey media. Escherichia coli is a very strong lactose fermenter. Which letter likely indicates E. coli growth?
C
In the absence of a mutagen, how do mutations occur?
DNA polymerase makes a mistake during replication.
What step of binary fission is occurring in step 1?
DNA replication
Which step in carbohydrate metabolism yields the most ATP?
ETS
What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?
Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.
How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?
Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.
Which of the following causes Mononucleosis?
Epstein-Barr virus
Which of the following features of Salmonella prevent it from being phagocytosed?
Flagella
How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway?
Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them
What is the purpose of an anticodon?
It's a region on a tRNA that binds to a complementary codon on mRNA to ensure the proper amino acid is added to a growing protein.
What precautions should researcher take to protect themselves as they work with samples such as dried Bacillus anthracis endospores?
Gloves, lab coat, safety glasses, and respirator mask should be worn. Work should be done in a safe room or environment.
The _______ resembles a series of flat sacs called cisternae. This organelle modifies, builds, sorts, and distributes products to the cell membrane to be secreted.
Golgi apparatus
Which of the following is part of the endomembrane system?
Golgi apparatus
A rare but troubling complication associated with Campylobacter infections is the development of an autoimmune response against the nervous system. What autoimmune disease is associated with Campylobacter infections?
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Hepatitis A, B, and C are the primary cause for infectious hepatitis. Which type(s) of hepatitis is(are) spread by the fecal-oral route?
HAV
Hepatitis A, B, and C are the primary cause for infectious hepatitis. Which type(s) of hepatitis is(are) spread by the sexual contact or inoculation with contaminated blood?
HBV and HCV
The most common viral STI in the world that causes genital warts and cervical cancer is caused by ______________.
HPV
Which of the following microbes that cause reproductive diseases can typically be prevented by a vaccination that is administered to individuals who are 26 and under, and who don't have the disease?
HPV
Fever blisters are vesicular/pustular rashes that usually occur around the mouth area. What is the etiological agent of fever blisters?
HSV-1
The etiological agent of genital herpes is _______________.
HSV-2
Which of the following is the strongest supporting evidence that Tim has an infection?
He has nodular inflammation in his lungs.
How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?
Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.
Which of the following enzymes breaks down the "glue" that holds cells together?
Hyaluronidase
The majority of the high-energy coenzymes (such as NADH and FADH2) are generated during
Krebs cycle
The virulence of a toxin is measured by ____________.
LD50
Which of the following is an acid produced by fermentation?
Lactic acid and propionic acid
What was the best treatment for this patient once he had gone to the ER?
IV fluids, sedation, and respiratory support
What is the recommended course of treatment when a rabid animal bites a person?
Immediately wash the wound with soap and water, inject the bite area with rabies immunoglobulin, and begin a series of four rabies vaccine injections.
What is graft-versus-host disease?
Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.
______ cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and ______ cells are involved in humoral immunity.
T;B
Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?
TCR
Natural killer cells are activated by
TH1 cells produce
Endotoxins are also known as
Lipid A
Which part of LPS acts as an endotoxin?
Lipid A
Which of the following is not a disease caused by prions?
Lou Gehrig's disease
Where is the site of Shigella attachment in the host?
M cells
The majority of secondary lymphoid tissue is called ________, and includes Peyer's patches, tonsils, and the appendix.
MALT
Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell?
MHC proteins
Which cells are involved in a secondary response?
Memory B cells and plasma cells
What does the term mesophile mean?
Mesophiles grow well at body temperature.
Why do symptoms persist after antibiotics have been used to treat and remove the bacterial infection?
The blebs containing lipid A are still present in the blood and in the tissues.
Analysis of the spinal tap shows the presence of Gram-negative bacteria cocci; for this age group which bacteria would be the probable cause of these symptoms?
Neisseria meningitidis
Meningitis and gonorrhea are caused by
Neisseria species
How does a capsule help certain bacteria evade detection by the immune system?
The capsule is composed of polysaccharides that are similar to those found in the host; thus, the immune system does not recognize it as foreign.
How long does it take for the daughter cells to initiate or start the next round of replication?
No time is required -- they are ready to divide immediately after DNA replication and separation of the daughter cells is complete if conditions are right.
Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?
On the surface of the cell
Keyon noted that the incidence of gastrointestinal disease in the alpha quadrant had been decreasing. What is meant by the epidemiological term incidence?
Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease during a specified time
Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?
It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage.
How did the intravenous immunoglobulin therapy help Ted?
It blocked the binding sites of autoantibodies.
How does the protozoan Trypanosoma evade detection by the immune system?
It can change the surface antigens frequently, preventing the immune system from tracking it.
How does bleach work to kill microorganisms?
It destroys cell membranes and denatures proteins.
Fully cooking the turkey could have prevented Ted from getting sick. How does heat kill a pathogen?
It destroys membranes and denatures proteins.
Katrina did not appear to have an active case of chicken pox, so how did the virus get into her eye?
It is a latent virus that was already in her cells from a prior chicken pox infection.
Why did the presence of a fever worry Elissa so much?
It is an indication of infection.
What do the results of organism A depicted in the image indicate?
Organism A is gram-negative, but doesn't ferment lactose
During the initiation step of translation, the fMet charged tRNA assembles in which site of the ribosome?
P site
Genital warts are caused by __________.
Papillomaviridae
Which primary skin lesion is incorrectly matched with its description?
Papule: Sore of irregular size and shape that results as epidermal and dermal skin layers are destroyed
One of the tests performed on David's lesion sample was an acid-fast stain. Which of the following color pairs represent potential staining outcomes from this procedure?
Pink cells and/or blue cells may be present.
What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?
Plasma cells and memory B cells
What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?
Plasma cells produce antibodies.
What term describes the buildup of fluid in the lungs due to infection?
Pneumonia
Which of the following abbreviations represent prion proteins?
PrPSC
How does the number of infectious prions increase?
Prions transform normal proteins into the misfolded beta-pleated sheet configuration; therefore, prions multiply by conversion.
The etiological agent of acne is ______________.
Propionibacterium
From which phrase is the term "prions" derived?
Proteinaceous infectious particles
What type of genome does norovirus have?
RNA
According to the animation, which of the following makes mRNA from the information stored in a DNA template?
RNA polymerase
What enzyme is necessary for transcription?
RNA polymerase
Which of the following is not an enzyme involved in DNA replication?
RNA polymerase
A number of different RNA viruses can cause infection of the digestive system. What genome-based diagnostic tool is routinely used to detect RNA viruses in the blood of a patient?
RT-PCR
What is a vitreous humor tap?
Removal of a sample of the fluid in the eye.
What is the etiologic agent of typhoid?
Salmonella
Which of the following are fecal coliforms? [Remember the test used to indicate the presence of fecal coliforms and then review the results located in the Dichotomous Key]
Serratia Klebsiella Enterobacter
Herb's wife often used the hot tub as well. Why didn't she also develop a Legionella infection?
She was not immunocompromised. She did not have COPD. She was not a smoker.
Which of the following virulence factors would be found in Staphylococcus aureus?
Staphylokinase
Infections with these symptoms are generally caused by which of the following pathogens?
Streptococcus pyogenes
What test result indicates that the unknown can utilize citrate as its sole carbon source?
The medium turns blue.
Why are the beta-pleated multimers of PrP potentially pathogenic?
The multimers are more stable and resistant to protease.
What would happen if the septum did not form during binary fission?
The parent cell would now have two copies of the chromosome.
Where does the name "scrapie" come from?
The prion disorder causes infected sheep to scrape against objects until their skin is raw.
What is sporulation?
The process by which a bacterium forms an endospore.
What is apoptosis?
The process of programmed cell death.
Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?
The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody
Since the health department laboratory found Gram-positive endospore forming bacilli in the canned food, which of the following statements would be false?
The prokaryote in the cans is releasing poisonous endotoxin. Good job, you found the false statement. Endotoxin is produced by Gram-negative organisms.
How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?
The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.
If mosquitoes are the mode of transmission for West Nile virus, why did the students in Bill's virology class focus on finding the virus in the dead birds rather than collecting mosquitoes to examine?
The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals.
Why should the actor worry about the spread of the injected Botox from the forehead to other parts of the body or face?
The toxin spreading to other areas of the body would inhibit muscle contractions required for normal daily activities.
How does the yeast form of a fungus differ from the hyphal form?
The yeast form is unicellular.
How is Streptococcus pneumoniae able to avoid destruction by a phagocyte?
Their capsules make them "slippery" to phagocytes.
What is the hallmark of dichotomous keys?
They consist of a series of paired statements, in which only one statement of each pair applies to a given organism.
Which of the following statements about type III hypersensitivities is false?
They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets.
What is the best description of a nephrotoxic drug?
They negatively affect the kidneys.
How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?
They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.
How are viruses different from eukaryotic cells?
They require a host in order to reproduce.
Why did the healthcare provider swab the wound?
To get samples of any pathogens in the wound.
What is the function of the structural elements of a virus?
To package and protect the viral genome
Why did the director implement so many new protocols all at once?
To stop the spread of infection as quickly as possible
The normal function of the PrP protein in mammals is believed to be:
assisting in normal synaptic development and function.
What type of vaccine would be used to vaccinate the twins?
attenuated virus vaccine
Cutaneous anthrax is caused by what type of microbe?
bacteria
What type of microbe causes lymphogranuloma venereum?
bacteria
The image shows the results of a type of structural staining method called a negative stain that uses the dye, crystal violet. What are the purple colored structures depicted by the arrows?
bacterial cells
Which granulocyte contains granules packed with histamine, that stain dark purple?
basophils
The host DNA is usually degraded during which stage?
biosynthesis
Which of Katrina's signs or symptoms is not indicative of inflammation?
blurred vision
Where do the stem cells for a stem cell transplant typically come from
bone marrow
The paralytic toxin from C. botulinum differs from the toxin from C. tetani in that __________.
botulism results in flaccid paralysis and tetanus results in a spastic paralysis
Prions are located in the ___________ of an infected human with a spongiform disease.
brain
Which test confirmed the presence of this prion disease?
brain scan
A patient has traveler's diarrhea due to an intestinal pathogen. A narrow-spectrum drug that will target the specific pathogen is not available, but you have access to a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is very effective against it. What antibiotic type and dose would eliminate the pathogen while preserving at least some of the normal microbiota?
broad spectrum/low dose
Fred has developed a large blister on his foot. What is the name of the primary lesion that he is exhibiting?
bulla
Most prokaryotic cells reproduce
by binary fission
How do prion proteins create more prion proteins?
by catalyzing a conformation change in the wild type protein by direct contact with the prion
How is this disease transmitted?
by direct contact with an open sore during sexual activity
Name the etiological agent that is the main cause of foodborne illness in the USA and is associated with a rare, but dangerous autoimmune disease called Guillian-Barre'.
campylobacter jejuni
What type of cancer is more likely to develop in people who have had papillomavirus infections?
cancer of the tonsils
Which fungal genus and species is the most common cause fungal UTIs?
candida albicans
Viruses are surrounded by a protein capsid composed of individual subunits called ____________.
capsomeres
A thick, detectable, discrete polysaccharide layer located outside of the cell wall that protects bacteria from the host's immune system and allow pathogens to invade the body is called a/an __________.
capsule
The biochemical test shown in the image is used to detect the presence or absence of a certain enzyme that differentiates staphylococci (positive) from streptococci (negative). Using your knowledge of the test and the results observed in this image, name the enzyme.
catalase
Which does not apply to ringworm infections?
caused by a worm
Listeria spread from cell to cell by:
causing actin polymerization that pushes it into a neighboring cell.
Based on the recommendations in this textbook, which antibiotic would be the treatment of choice for this disease?
ceftriaxone and azithromycin
In order to kill the fungus in Tim's body without causing unnecessary damage to Tim's cells, a drug must be used that targets a structure common to fungi but not found in human cells. Which of the following would make an ideal drug target in this case?
cell wall
The nervous system is divided into the _______ nervous system and the ______ nervous system.
central; peripheral
The cause of autoimmune diseases is unclear, but genetic predisposition, and exposure to ________________ may lead to these disorders.
certain infectious agents
Painful genital ulcers caused by Haemophilus ducreyi are called __________.
chanchroids
What disease has this patient contracted?
chancroids
What microbe is the etiological agent of the eye disease, trachoma?
chlamydia trachomatis
Which bacterial genus and species is divided into two main biovars that cause trachoma and lymphogranuloma venereum?
chlamydia trachomatis
Autoimmune disorders are
chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self-tissues that should normally be left alone.
Which of the following prion diseases is found in deer and elk?
chronic wasting disease
Botulism and tetanus are caused by toxins produced by which genus of bacteria?
clostridium
Which topical medication would likely be recommended for use in this case?
clotrimazole cream
A certain species of bacteria grows the best on 5% peptone, 5% beef heart extract, and 8% sodium chloride. From this description, identify this general type of growth media.
complex
The common infection known as "pink eye" is an infection of the
conjunctiva.
Mad cow disease is transmitted to humans by _______________________.
consuming contaminated beef
How can this disease best be categorized?
contagious and chronic
The biochemical test shown in the image is used to identify bacteria that produce a certain enzyme of the bacterial electron transport chain that is present in aerobic bacteria. Name the enzyme and state which of the results observed in the image is a positive result.
cytochrome C oxidase/A
What is the name of the specific type of oxidase that is assessed for when performing the Oxidase test?
cytochrome c oxidase
Signaling proteins that support cell-to-cell communication and initiate and coordinate immune responses are called ___________. Examples of these signaling proteins are interleukins and interferons.
cytokines
Where does glycolysis occur in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
cytoplasm
An exotoxin that has the ability to kill or damage host cells is referred to as a(n)
cytotoxin
Pus is comprised of
dead phagocytes.
What is the typical incubation period for prion diseases?
decades
What do corticosteroids do?
decrease inflammation
Identify the agranulocyte labeled "F". [Be prepared to identify all labeled cell types in this image on upcoming exams]
dendritic cell
Pathogens can hide in host cells, so host immune defenses don't detect it. They can remain undetected by remaining in a state of inactivity called _____________.
dormancy (latency)
Antigenic _________ occurs when advantageous mutations in viral genomes result in minor changes.
drift
Which nucleic acid is part of the varicella-zoster virion?
dsDNA
Which of the following is not directly involved in protein synthesis?
dsRNA
Normal microbiota colonize our skin, and areas of the digestive, genital, urinary, and respiratory systems. If disruption in the balance of normal microbiota occurs, opportunistic pathogens can cause illness. ___________ is defined as a disruption of normal microbiota balance.
dybiosis
NADH and FADH2 play an important role in energy production by donating electrons for redox reactions that occur in the ___________.
electron transport chain
What is it called when there is only inflammation of the brain?
encephalitis
Metabolically inactive (dormant) forms of bacteria that can survive harsh environmental conditions such as heat and UV radiation are called ____________.
endospores
Toxigenic gram-negative bacteria can produce _____________.
endotoxins and exotoxins
What occurs when a high-energy bond in ATP is broken resulting in ADP?
energy is released that will drive chemical reactions
Which granulocyte when stained exhibits red-orange granules, is moderately phagocytic, and attacks allergens and parasites?
eosinophils
What term best describes the outbreak?
epidemic
Based on the observations given, what is the probable diagnosis made by the health care provider?
erysipelas
What is one of the virulence factors associated with the causative agent for this infection?
erythrogenic toxin
What would be the best treatment options?
erythromycin
If there is not enough time between determination of an STD in the pregnant mother and time of delivery, after birth the doctor may choose to prophylactically treat the infant for infections. What would the treatment be?
erythromycin cream initially placed in the newborn's eyes
Next, Richard observes the HE plate. The results are as follows: Only a few yellow/orange colored colonies are observed The HE results indicate the presences of Salmonella.
false
The Tdap vaccine stimulates passive immunity.
false
True or False: Guillain-Barré is a common condition.
false
The next day Richard examines the EMB plate filters. The results are as follows: The EMB agar average two blue colonies / plate.
fecal coliform - blue/green non-fecal coliform - red
Which of the following is NOT a hallmark sign of inflammation?
fever
A distinctive red rash on the cheeks with an otherwise mild illness is most likely
fifth disease
Which maculopapular rash-producing disease is caused by human parvovirus B19
fifth disease
Short, bristle-like structures that extrude from the surface of a prokaryotic cell are called
fimbriae
Botulism is generally associated with ingestion of the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. The activity of the toxin will result in __________.
flaccid paralysis
Virulence factors associated with this organism include all of the following, EXCEPT __________.
flagella
Escherichia coli yields whitish colonies when grown on sheep's blood agar. What type of hemolytic pattern does this indicate?
gamma
Clostridium perfringens is the etiological agent of __________.
gas gangrene
The photograph shows
genital warts
What is the etiological agent that causes traveler's diarrhea referred to as "Montezuma's revenge".
giardia lamblia
Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are:
helper t-cells
Sheep's blood agar differentiates between bacteria that produce a toxin called __________, which is indicated by the partial or complete destruction of red blood cells contained in the media.
hemolysin
What would likely occur if an individual with type A blood receives type B blood during a transfusion?
hemolysis of RBCs
The result of Shiga toxin exposure can lead to a serious complication called _______________ syndrome.
hemolytic uremic
What caused Miley's Post-Transplantation Lymphoproliferative Disorder?
her earlier infection by EBV
In what type of conditions would you expect to find a halophilic acidophile?
high salt and low pH conditions
The immediate result of electron movement through the electron transport chain is the pumping of protons across the bacterial cell membrane, creating a _____ outside the cell than inside the cell.
higher concentration of protons
When an allergen is recognized by the immune system, it mounts a humoral response producing IgE antibodies which bind to mast cells or basophils. Upon subsequent exposure, the allergen binds to the IgE located on the mast cell or basophil which causes degranulation of chemical mediators. Name the chemical mediator blocked by Benadryl.
histamine
Which of the following acts as a proinflammatory factor?
histamine
Name the Entamoeba species that causes amebic dysentery, but can cause rare complications such as liver, lung and brain abscesses.
histolytica
Which picture shows an icosahedral enveloped virus with spikes?
https://session.masteringmicrobiology.com/problemAsset/2793423/2/figure_6.2b.jpg
The most common cause of tapeworm worldwide is the dwarf tapeworm, ________________.
hymenolepis nana
The body's response to an antigen which is beyond what is considered normal is called a/an _________ response.
hypersensitivity
Transmission of the causative bacterial agent is via this route.
inhalation of respiratory droplets
Which portion of the mitochondria is folded to create a large surface area?
inner membrane
Where do Salmonella pathogens grow and replicate in the infected host?
inside phagocytes
Which process of glucose catabolism doesn't generate ATP?
intermediate step
Eukaryotic mRNA have non-coding sequences called _______ that are spliced out before the RNA leaves the nucleus.
introns
Antigen processing and presentation
is a way for a cell to give information about its activities.
Boys should receive the HPV vaccine because __________.
it can prevent oropharyngeal cancer caused by having oral sex with a woman infected with HPV
What is the function of eosin and methylene blue in EMB media?
it functions in both the selection of gram-negative organisms and the differentiation between lactose fermentors and non-lactose fermentors
An inflammatory response would result from which of the following?
jellyfish sting
A prion disease cause by ritualistic cannibalism is called _____________.
kuru
Which of the following phases of bacterial growth doesn't match its description?
lag phase - intense activity preparing for growth and moderate increase in population
Mitochondria share all the following features with bacteria except
linear DNA and 80S ribosomes.
What is the host range for rabies?
mammals
Rubeola is also known as ___________ and the etiological agent is ____________.
measles/measles virus
Which three viruses are individuals protected from who are administered the MMR vaccine?
measlesw, mumps, and rubella
Once T or B cells are activated, they proliferate and differentiate into active immune cells and ___________ cells that protect the body from reinfection from the same pathogen.
memory
Based on the symptoms stated, what is the most probable disease that this student has developed?
meningitis
__________ are moderate temperature-loving organisms that optimally grow at 25-40oC.
mesophiles
Which agranulocyte has a large horseshoe-shaped nucleus, and matures into either fixed or wandering macrophages?
monocytes
What is the name for the dark-staining bodies observed in the brain cells from this patient?
negri bodies
What is the etiological agent of ophthalmia neonatorum?
neisseria gonorrhoeae
Which bacterial genus and species is the etiological agent of PID and ophthalmia neonatorum?
neisseria gonorrhoeae
A college student presents with a fever, headache, and a stiff neck. The doctor suspects meningococcal meningitis. What is the etiological agent of this form of meningitis?
neisseria mengingitidis
What cells are damaged in Guillain-Barré syndrome?
nerves
A patient who has been hospitalized with uncontrolled muscle spasms has probably been infected with bacteria that secrete a(n)
neurotoxin
Which cells are defective in patients with chronic granulomatous disease?
neutrophils
silent mutation
no change in the amino acid sequence
Is this disease contagious?
no, the disease is not contagious
Which of the following acids are polymers that combine to form KPC's genome?
nucleic acids
Where is the genetic information of the cell stored?
nucleus
According to the US Environmental Protection Agency, Cryptosporidium has been detected in 65 to 97% of US surface waters (lakes, streams, etc.). What infective stage of the protozoan must be ingested to cause Cryptosporidiosis?
oocysts
What should the course of treatments for this infection entail?
oral antibiotics
What is the recommended course of therapy?
oral fluids
Herpes is caused by the viruses, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 usually causes ________ herpes, while HSV-2 usually causes _________ herpes.
oral; genital
This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on EMB. All three organisms have grown on the media. What does the appearance of the growth of organism "C" indicate?
organism "C" exhibited an abundance of lactose fermentation resulting in a metallic sheen
Which of the following amino acids is coded by only one codon?
Trp
What mRNA sequence is synthesized using the DNA template strand AAT CCG AGG T?
UUA GGC UCC A
Which of the following conditions in humans is linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy?
Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
The first human virus was discovered in 1901. What scientist discovered the first human virus?
Walter Reed
What features of West Nile virus make it an emerging disease of special concern?
West Nile virus is an arthropod-borne virus transmitted by mosquitoes.West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America.West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods.
Which of the following best describes a prophage?
When a phage genome is integrated into the host cell's chromosome
How is translation terminated?
When a protein called a release factor enters and binds to the A site
What observations could you make in the case of a positive catalase test?
You may see bubbles develop upon adding hydrogen peroxide to the sample.
___________ is caused by a Gram-positive resident, Propionibacterium, which uses sebum as a nutrition source.
acne
Which of the following is NOT a way that pathogens cause host immunosuppression?
activation of memory cells
Was this disease acute or chronic?
acute
Which stage of infection are the patients in when they experience severe diarrhea?
acute phase
Conjunctivitis can be caused by bacterial and viral pathogens. What microbe is the main cause of viral conjunctivitis?
adenovirus
The word ________ is derived from the shortened form of "arthropod borne" virus.
arbovirus
Biochemical tests _________________.
are the main methods used to identify unknown bacteria
Thymine dimer mutations cause by ultraviolet light can be repaired using ___________.
photolyases and excision-repair enzymes
The clinical microbiologists took samples and tried to grow microorganisms from those samples. If the same organism was found in all infected patients, but no healthy ones, which of Koch's postulates would have been fulfilled?
postulate 1
Which viruses most often cause acute retinal necrosis (ARN)?
pox viruses
nonsense
premature stop codon introduced
The thymus and bone marrow are considered _________ lymphoid tissue.
primary
What category of immune deficiencies results from genetic causes?
primary immunodeficiency
What is the most likely etiology (cause) of this disease?
prion
What is the initial target of RNA polymerase?
promoter
Prions are misfolded ___________.
proteins
What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway?
proteins
What type of microbe causes trichomoniasis?
protist parasite
Staphylococcus aureus, the cause of Brandon's skin infection, is a Gram-positive coccus. How would it appear after a Gram stain?
purple circles
What carbon molecules remain at the end of glycolysis?
pyruvic acid
Ribosomes contain which of the following?
rRNA
What type of RNA makes up a portion of the ribosome?
rRNA
Prions are misfolded proteins that cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. Which of the following diseases isn't caused by prions?
rabies
Which stage of viral replication is shown?
release by budding
This image represents the oxidase test results performed on three different bacterial species. Which of the following statements regarding these results is correct?
serratia marcescens is oxidase negative
Name the condition caused by generation of an immune response against administered medications such as antitoxins and penicillin?
serum sickness
Antigenic _________ occurs when there is a reassortment of genetic material from coinfecting viruses that produce a new viral strain.
shift
Shigella dysenteriae and Escherichia coli O157:H7 produce ___________ toxin that can damage the kidneys in some patients resulting in hematuria, purpura, and edema.
shiga
Ángel's urine was cloudy and bloody. Are these signs or symptoms?
signs
How many codons code for the amino acid arginine?
six
Which portal of exit uses pus to transmit pathogens?
skin
Where are lipids made in the cell?
smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
Strep throat is caused by Streptococcus. What shape are these microbes?
spheres
Which food is the most likely source of the infection?
sprouts
Which bacteria is the most common cause of gram-positive uncomplicated UTIs?
staphyloccocus saprophyticus
This image represents the results of a coagulase test performed on Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the bacterial species is (are) positive for coagulase?
staphylococcus aureus only
The enzyme, catalase, is produced by bacteria that respire using oxygen, and protects them from the toxic by-products of oxygen metabolism. Using your knowledge of the test and which organisms this test differentiates between, which of the following organisms would be likely be catalase positive
staphylococcus epidermidis only
RNA that has hydrogen bonded to itself forms a
stem loop
Two carbons in the form of acetyl-CoA enter the Krebs cycle by joining with oxaloacetic acid, a 4-carbon molecule. During which step does carbon leave the Krebs cycle in the form of CO2?
step 3 and step 4
Which step shows an energy investment in the form of ATP?
steps 1 and 3
A person who attended a picnic early in the day develops a very high fever and is unresponsive by the evening. This person most likely has been exposed to a(n)
superantigen
Measles viruses are capable of inactivating host defenses by
suppressing the immune system
What category of autoimmune diseases results in damage to diverse tissues throughout the body?
systemic
An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as
t-independent antigens
Which of the following is involved in bringing amino acids to the ribosomes?
tRNA
The helminth, ________________, is the etiological agent of cysticercosis.
taenia solium
Two types of flatworms are ___________ and blood __________.
tapeworms/flukes
RNA polymerase is guided by the
template strand of DNA.
If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?
the ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch
Where are the complement proteins found in the body?
the blood serum
How is Campylobacter jejuni transmitted?
the fecal oral route
Describe the function of the indicator, neutral red, when the bacteria growing on MacConkey media ferment lactose.
the indicator will change from colorless to pinkish
What is CSF?
the liquid found surrounding the spinal column and brain
Emigration is
the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage.
In a typical brightfield microscope (seen in the animation), at which point does magnification begin?
the objective lens
An organism is streaked onto MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37º C. The plate has bacterial growth, but the media remained a pinkish color. What do the results indicate about the organism?
the organism can grow in high salt conditions, but cannot ferment mannitol
Evidence in support of the endosymbiotic theory includes
the presence of 70S ribosomes in mitochondria and chloroplasts.
The results in this image represent 2 different bacterial species inoculated on an MSA plate. Which organism(s) ferment lactose?
there isn't enough information provided to answer the question
Which of the following characteristics describe viruses?
they are filterable (can pass through a filter)
These cells have been stained using a method that utilizes the reagents crystal violet, iodine, acetone-alcohol decolorizer, and safranin. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the circled (pink) cells?
they are gram negative organisms
The image shows the Gram stain results of a patient sample. What characteristics can you ascertain about the circled group of bacteria?
they are gram positive straphylocci
The image shows the result of a certain differential staining method that detects the presence of mycolic acid in a bacterial cell wall. What information can be concluded concerning the circled (blue) cells? [Be prepared to know information concerning the pinkish cells]
they are non acid-fast organisms that don't have mycolic acid in the cell wall
Which of the following characteristics doesn't describe viruses?
they exhibit metabolism while outside of the host cell
How are prions different from other infectious agents?
they lack nucleic acid
Translate the mRNA sequence ACA CAG AUG GUG CCC
threonine-glutamine-methionine-valine-proline
How is infectious mononucleosis spread?
through saliva
What type of infection is shown?
tinea
What is the purpose of urinary tract catheterization?
to collect urine from patients
What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?
to repair the damaged tissue
What is the rational of having a high salt content in the diagnostic media, MSA?
to select for halophiles and/or facultative halophiles
When toxins enter the host's bloodstream, the resulting condition is called ____________.
toxemia
What eye disease is the leading cause of preventable microbial blindness?
trachoma
While on a medical volunteer trip to an impoverished country, you encounter a patient whose eyelids are turned inward as shown. What is the cause and the best treatment?
trachoma; single dose of oral azithromycin
Conditions such as asthma and seasonal allergies are caused by what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
type I
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies bound to mast cells or basophils?
type I
The most common source of hospital acquired infections that is responsible 70-80% of complicated UTI's is caused by which medical device?
urinary catheters
Which of the following factors would NOT contribute to the development of severe dermatomycoses?
wearing sandals
endospore stain
what are the pink structures: vegetative cells what are the green structures: endospores name the primary stain: malachite green name the counterstain: safranin
acid-fast stain
what color are positive bacteria stained: pinkish purple what color are negative bacteria stained: blue name the primary stain: carbolfuchsin name the counterstain: methylene blue
Gram stain
what color are positive bacteria stained?: purple what color are negative bacteria stained?: pinkish red name the primary stain: crystal violet name the counterstain: safranin
When would endotoxins be released from a bacterial cell?
when the cells die
What type of microbe causes cutaneous candidiasis?
yeast
What is the common name of vulvovaginitis candidiasis?
yeast infection
You have a mixture of gram positive and gram negative cells in culture. You prepare a slide from the culture and gram stain it, but when observing the sample using oil immersion, all cells appear purple. What is the likely technical reason why only purple-colored cells are observed?
you forgot the decolorization step
You are viewing a specimen using the 100x objective, but the image is fuzzy. Assuming that the microscope is clean and functioning properly, what is the likely reason why the image isn't clear?
you forgot to use immersion oil
What is the word used to refer to diseases transmissible from animals to humans?
zoonoses
What is a vitreous opacity?
a solid mass floating in the fluid of the eye
Which species of amoeba would be considered the causes this patient's disease?
Entamoeba histolytica
What is the best way to prevent the spread of this infection?
All food handlers are required to wash their hands thoroughly after using the restroom.
GAU codes for
Aspartic Acid
What is the leading cause of bacterial gastrointestinal disease in the US?
Campylobacter
What is the most likely cause of this couple's disease?
Campylobacter jejuni
Both the classical and alternative pathways of complement activation proceed in the same sequence for the cleavage of ___________.
C3
C3 convertase cleaves C3 into __________ and ___________.
C3a and C3b
Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell?
C3b
Which complement protein is used as an opsonin?
C3b
T cells can be classified by certain glycoproteins on their surface called clusters of differentiation (CD). T helper cells are classified as __________, and T cytotoxic are classified as __________.
CD4/CD8
Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?
CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells
What is COPD?
Enlargement and damage of the air sacs in the lungs.
What does the term facultative anaerobe mean?
Facultative anaerobes can grow with or without oxygen. More growth is evident when oxygen is present.
What are leukocidins?
Molecules that are capable of destroying phagocytes
Had the international community had more information about the infected patients, which of the following would have most strongly suggested that the outbreak was not a natural occurrence?
The patients' lungs and lymphatic system were infected
How do superantigens enable pathogens to hide from the immune system if they actually stimulate the immune system?
They cause the immune system to produce an exaggerated response, distracting it from the actual pathogen.
Allergies are classified as:
Type I hypersensitivities
Which of the following scenarios is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?
Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production.
What type of infectious agent is Vibrio cholerae?
a bacterium
What type of organism is MRSA?
a bacterium
Genital warts are transmitted by __________.
all answers are correct
Which of the following is a function of antibodies?
all answers are functions of antibodies
Which of the following is NOT a way that pathogens can hide from host immune defenses?
all answers describe ways that pathogens hide from the host immune defenses
Which of the following is a way that and individual could contract an STD?
all answers stated are ways that someone could contract an STD
Avoidance of killing is a mechanism that microbes employ to survive in a host cell. Which of the following ways can microbes avoid being killed inside of a host cell?
all of the answers are correct
Which complement pathway has complement proteins that are directly activated by interacting with a pathogen?
alternative pathway
Which of the complement pathways employs properdin?
alternative pathway
Which protozoan disease would be responsible for the symptoms seen in this patient?
amebiasis
What is the shape and arrangement of the circled bacterial cells.
diplococci
A powerful toxin called tetanospasmin causes the symptoms of what nervous system infection?
lock jaw
What is the vector that spreads West Nile Virus and La Cross Virus to humans?
mosquitos
Which subcategory of first-line defenses does skin belong to?
physical barriers
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic extrachromosomal DNA is called ______ DNA.
plasmid
Put the following steps of protein synthesis in the order that they occur in a eukaryotic cell: Translation ends at a stop codon RNA polymerase transcribes mRNA from DNA Protein sequence is elongated Translation initiates mRNA is processed and travels to a ribosome
2, 5, 4, 3, 1
What is the total magnification of a specimen if you are using a compound light microscope with the 40x objective lens?
400x
According to the animation, ribosomes move along the mRNA in which direction?
5' to 3'
The leading strand of DNA is synthesized in which direction?
5' to 3' in the same direction as helix unwinding
Place the following events in the correct order as they occur in the lytic cycle: Assembly Penetration Release Replication Attachment
5, 2, 4, 1, 3
How many codon sequences code for the amino acid serine?
6
The results in this image represent 4 different bacterial species inoculated onto an MSA plate. Which organism(s) is(are) halophilic acidophiles?
A and C
What is a boil?
A boil is a red lump in the skin that may be warm and painful to the touch. It is a localized accumulation of pus and tissue debris.
Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to lead to graft-versus-host disease?
A bone marrow is transplanted from an older, unaffected sibling to a younger sibling affected with severe combined immunodeficiency.
Which energy-rich molecule directly powers cell work?
ATP
Why is ATP required for glycolysis?
ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules.
Which of the following is the correct mRNA sequence encoded by the DNA sequence: TAC GGT CAC TTC ACT?
AUG CCA GUG AAG UGA
Which of the following is useful for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis?
Acid-fast stain
In what areas of the world is this infection most prevalent?
Africa and Asia
What cell type is persistently infected by Epstein-Barr virus?
B cells
Why is visualization not sufficient to properly identify bacteria?
Bacteria have a limited set of shapes and many unrelated bacteria share the same shape
What is the function of single-strand binding proteins?
Bind to the DNA strands near the replication fork to keep them separated
This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on EMB media. Escherichia coli is a very strong lactose fermenter. Which letter likely indicates E. coli growth?
C
What complement result involves the use of phagocytes?
Chemotaxis and opsonization
What microbial agent would be associated with the symptoms seen in this mother-to-be?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Place the following events in the correct order as they occur on the lagging strand: Helix unwinding DNA polymerase III builds DNA DNA polymerase I acts Ligase glues Okazaki fragments together RNA primase builds RNA primers
1, 5, 2, 3, 4
Why did the man's sexual partners believe they were not infected with a STD?
Clinical signs and symptoms in females are often not detectable, especially early in the infection.
The fish tapeworm, ___________________ is the largest tapeworm found in humans.
Dipyllobothrium latum
What term describes shortness of breath?
Dyspnea
The brain tissue of the birds indicated the possibility of encephalitis. What is encephalitis, and why should this type of infection cause concern among health care professionals?
Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures.
Using your knowledge of organism's gram staining properties, which of the following organisms would grow on EMB?
Escherichia coli
How did filtration prevent contamination of the air outside Compound 19?
Filters physically blocked particles of a certain size from passing through.
Which of the following best explains the difference between DNA, genes, and proteins?
Genes are made up of DNA and code for proteins
Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true?
Glycolysis is also called the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.
Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
Goodpasture syndrome
Which of the following best describes the Enterobacteriaceae group (enteric bacteria)?
Gram-negative bacillus found in many locations including animal intestines
Which molecule triggers apoptosis?
Granzyme
What is the causative agent for this sexually transmitted disease?
Haemophilus ducreyi
How did this man most likely become exposed to this disease agent?
He is likely to have been exposed while hunting elk in Colorado during his childhood.
Which antibody isotype can be monomeric or dimeric, and is the primary antibody found in breast milk?
IgA
Health care providers determine the specific allergen that is generating symptoms by using a blood test to look at ________ levels.
IgE
Choose the false statement.
IgG binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils.
Which antibody isotype can be monomeric or pentameric, and is produced early in infection?
IgM
Which class of antibody is the first produced during the primary response?
IgM
Why is a release of endotoxin into the bloodstream potentially deadly?
It can lower blood pressure and cause the patient to go into shock.
What is the mechanism of action for vancomycin?
It inhibits cell wall synthesis.
Which of the following statements about fermentation is true?
It is an alternative way to return electron carriers to their oxidized state.
What is the fate of the prophage during the lysogenic stage?
It is copied every time the host DNA replicates.
Which statement about the epidemiology of Campylobacterosis is FALSE?
It is most prevalent during the spring and fall than other times of the year
What does halophilic mean?
It means the organism is "salt loving".
Some people were able to use a special filter to purify their water. How does a filter accomplish this?
It physically removes objects larger than a certain size from the water.
What is the fate of the NAD+ newly regenerated by fermentation?
It returns to glycolysis to pick up more electrons.
What is the role of pyruvic acid in fermentation?
It takes the electrons from NADH, oxidizing it back into NAD+.
What is the role of lenses in microscopy?
Lenses focus either light or electrons to create a magnified image of a specimen.
Which of the following is the best mode of controlling the spread of West Nile infections?
Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.
Why does infection with Mycobacterium leprae usually effect body extremities such as the fingers and toes?
M. leprae preferentially grows at temperatures between 30-35C
This image shows the results of three different bacterial species that were streaked onto MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37ºC. What do the observed results of Micrococcus luteus indicate?
M. luteus is not a halophile or facultative halophile
A physician swabs an inflammed raised area on patient's arm for testing to determine if Staphylococcus aureus is the cause of the infection. The test should confirm the presence of S. aureus, but also rule out other species found in the patient's normal skin microbiota. What selective and differential media would be the best choice to use to determine an S. aureus infection?
MSA
The typical composition of MSA is as follows: 5.0 g/L enzymatic digest of casein 5.0 g/L enzymatic digest of animal tissue 1.0 g/L beef extract 10.0 g/L D-mannitol 75.0 g/L sodium chloride 0.025 g/L phenol red 15.0 g/L agar pH 7.4 ± 0.2 at 25°C Which of the following statements about the media composition is FALSE?
MSA is a chemically defined media
Which of the following media is used to isolate Gram-negative organisms?
MacConkey agar plate
Urinary tract infections are commonly caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Escherichia coli, less commonly caused by Proteus mirabilis. You have a mixed culture of these pathogens, which you inoculate onto both MacConkey agar and nutrient agar, and then you incubate the plates at optimal growth conditions. On the MacConkey agar, E. coli appears pink, P. mirabilis appears colorless, and S. saprophyticus does not grow. All three microorganisms appear cream on the nutrient agar plate. What is the best explanation for this data?
MacConkey is both a differential and a selective medium.
As shown in the animation, the start codon also codes for which amino acid?
Methionine
The causative agent for leprosy is the bacterium __________.
Mycobacterium leprae
How do electrons get from glycolysis, the intermediate step, and the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain?
NADH and FADH2 transport electrons to the electron transport chain
Is it critical to determine the fungal agent or agents contributing to this case? Why or why not?
No. The treatment would be the same.
Should Jane have been placed in isolation while in the hospital?
No; Listeria cannot be spread person-to-person.
Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?
Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus.
How do normal prion proteins (PrP) differ from the infectious prion proteins?
Normal PrP have alpha-helices; infectious PrP have beta-pleated sheets.
How can Organism "A" grow if it cannot ferment the carbohydrate contained in EMB media?
Organism "A" is metabolizing other nutrients contained in EMB, which do not cause acidic by-products
MRSA and VRSA are antibiotic resistant forms of which bacteria?
Staphylococcus aureus
What is the etiological agent of scalded skin syndrome and impetigo?
Staphylococcus aureus
Which organism is most likely to be responsible for the boils?
Staphylococcus aureus
What is the etiological agent of necrotizing fasciitis?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following microorganisms use M protein to avoid destruction of a phagocyte?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Why was Mollie's diet restricted during her treatment?
Sugar and carbohydrate levels had to be kept at a minimum until the overgrowth was resolved.
How are superantigens different from other types of exotoxins?
Superantigens cause an overstimulation of the host immune system.
The T helper cell subclass that stimulates B cells to proliferate and differentiate is called ________.
TH2
Which vaccine booster might have protected Maren's sister from the disease?
Tdap
Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies?
The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.
How does the ribosome know if the entering charged tRNA is correct?
The anticodon on the tRNA base pairs to the codon on the mRNA
The doctor asks you to summarize the results. Which of the following statements best describes the data?
The concentration of yeast is abnormally high in all areas sampled.
This disease is spread from person to person only. How contagious a disease is it considered to be?
The disease is rarely transmitted from person to person.
How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell?
The host cell dies during the lytic stage.
Glucose was somehow being fermented into ethanol in Mollie's body. Which of the following characteristics of the stomach and intestines would favor this type of process over aerobic respiration?
The low oxygen
What would be the fate of a lytic bacteriophage if the host cell died prior to the assembly stage?
The virus would not be able to infect new hosts
What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?
They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky.
How are immune cells able to detect foreign pathogens?
They are able to detect structures on the surfaces of foreign cells that are not found in the host.
What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins?
They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.
How do fibrinolysins enhance a pathogen's virulence?
They break down fibrin proteins that are involved in clot formation, allowing the cells to penetrate deep into damaged skin.
How do Shigella cells move between host cells?
They can polymerize actin molecules from the epithelial cells into tail-like structures that propel them from one cell to another.
How is this disease transmitted? (gonorrhea)
This disease is most commonly transmitted by unprotected sex.
Why was Mollie given a high dose of glucose while in isolation?
To provide a precursor to fermentation and to determine whether alcohol is being produced
What is the role of the ocular lens?
To recreate the image in the viewer's eye
Starting with three cells, how many cells would result from three rounds of replication?
Twenty-four
Superantigens belong to which family of exotoxins?
Type I
AB toxins belong to which family of exotoxins?
Type III
Which of the following statements regarding type IV hypersensitivities is true?
Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
Which of the following is NOT a stop codon?
UGG
Which enteric bacteria causes 70-95% of uncomplicated UTIs?
UPEC
Which of the following best describes why West Nile Virus is considered to be an emerging infectious disease?
West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affected areas since 1937.
Why did the Candida begin undergoing fermentation rather than anaerobic respiration?
Why did the Candida begin undergoing fermentation rather than anaerobic respiration?
Is it possible for Rudy's warts to spread to other areas of his body?
Yes. Papillomaviruses are spread by direct contact.
Is Grandfather Davis contagious?
Yes. The twins would probably develop chicken pox two weeks after their visit with Grandfather Davis
What causes whooping cough?
a bacterium called Bordetella pertussis
missense mutation
a change in the wild type amino acid to a different amino acid
Autoimmune disorders are diagnosed using
a collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms.
Catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) are best described as:
a common healthcare-acquired infection
Sometimes during DNA replication a change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, which is called a mutation, can occur. There are various reasons why mutations occur. In certain instances, a chemical called _______ can increase the mutation rate.
a mutagen
What kind of bond is formed when two amino acids join together?
a peptide bond
What is an immuno-suppressive drug?
a pharmaceutical agent that decreases the function of the immune system
Lysogenic viral DNA which has integrated into the host genome is referred to as
a prophage
The red arrows are pointing to _________________.
a single bacterial colony
The primary immune response involves
a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline.
What is meant by the term "paroxysmal"?
a sudden recurrence or intensification of a sign or symptom
Ted was likely in the _____________BLANKstage of disease when he experienced the _____________BLANK of diarrhea and fever.
acute/signs
Which of the following is another term for a virus attaching to the host cell?
adsorption
Candida albicans is part of normal vaginal microbiota, but it can cause infections if the normal microbiota is changed. Which of the following is a reason for changes in the vaginal microbiota that can result in vulvovaginal candidiasis?
all of the answers are correct
What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells?
all of the answers are correct
Which of the following are functions of lectins?
all of the answers are correct
When Brandon was diagnosed with pneumonia, he had a fever, cough, and abnormal breathing sounds. Which of these were signs, and which were symptoms?
all of these are signs
Name the etiological agent of schistosomiasis.
all of these helminths can cause schistosomiasis
New and reemerging diseases are being identified by physicians. Which of the following is not a factor that can lead to new and reemerging diseases?
all the answers can lead to new and reemerging diseases
The tertiary stage of syphilis can affect what part of the body?
all the stated body parts can be affected by tertiary syphilis
Streptococcus pneumoniae exhibits a greenish appearance when grown on sheep's blood agar. What type of hemolytic pattern does this indicate?
alpha
Systemic anaphylaxis is also known as _______________.
anaphylactic shock
An anamnestic response is
another name for secondary response.
Clostridium difficile causes severe diarrhea. Many times proliferation of this microbe in the gut is associated with the overuse of _____________.
antibiotics
What would happen the FIRST time an Rh- woman is pregnant with an Rh+ fetus?
antibodies to Rh factor would develop in the mother
Along with intravenous rehydration, many of the medication groups listed below may be used for secondary infections. But which group must be used if the infection is to be controlled?
antiprotozoan medications
Most extremophilic organisms belong to the domain __________.
archaea
In which stage does formation of mature viruses occur?
assembly
Staphylococcus aureus is streaked on MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37ºC. What results would you expect to observe on MSA?
bacterial growth with yellow colored media
Streptococcus pyogenes, the etiological agent of strep throat, scarlet fever and rheumatic fever, exhibits complete clearing of RBCs when grown on sheep's blood agar. What type of hemolytic pattern does this indicate?
beta
A patient has traveler's diarrhea due to an intestinal pathogen. What antibiotic type and antibiotic dose would ensure that the patient recovers from the original infection, but the loss of the normal microbiota would give the patient the chance of an opportunistic infection?
broad spectrum/high dose
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to classify viruses?
cell wall composition
In most cases, bacterial meningitis is diagnosed by the presence of bacteria in what body fluid?
cerebrospinal fluid
Which of the following is another name for stroke?
cerebrovascular event
A certain species of bacteria grows the best on 25% glucose, 5% NaCl, and 0.2% magnesium sulfate agar plates. From this description, identify this general type of growth media.
chemically defined
The biochemical test shown in the image is used to detect the presence or absence of a certain enzyme that distinguishes between Staphylococcus aureus (positive) from other species of staphylococci (negative). Using your knowledge of the test and the results observed in this image, name the enzyme.
coagulase
A patient presents with nausea and diarrhea, and informs you that he was recently in Africa and drank water from a stream. Tests for various parasitic infections were negative, so the illness is likely caused by a bacterial infection. After further testing the patient is diagnosed with chlorea caused by the bacterium, Vibrio cholerae. Using the information ascertained from the bacteria's name, what shape do you think this organism is?
comma shaped
Symbiotic relationships can occur between humans and microbes. What type of symbiosis is described when Staphylococcus epidermidis obtains nutrients from the skin without causing harm to the host?
commensalism
What spore-forming, yeast-like fungus causes cryptococcosis?
cryptococcus neoformans
Transcription occurs in the _________ of prokaryotes and the __________ of eukaryotes.
cytoplasm/nucleus
The structural framework in a cell is the
cytoskeleton
T helper cells produce cytokines that signal to activate B cells to produce plasma cells, and T ________ cells, that function to destroy infected cells, cancer cells, and transplanted tissues.
cytotoxic
Which of the following is NOT an accepted treatment for warts?
daily application of tincture of iodine to the wart surface
What is the function of activated macrophages in cell-mediated immunity?
enhanced phagocytic activity
"Naked" viruses lack what structural component?
envelope
Toxigenic gram-positive bacteria can produce ____________.
exotoxins only
Which of the following events might trigger induction of a temperate bacteriophage?
exposure to UV light
All bacteria with antibiotic resistance can transfer that resistance via conjugation, but through no other mechanisms.
false
Based on the data graphic, the source of infections in the other patients seems to come only from Elizabeth's skin.
false
True or False: Most patients fully recover from this type of cancer after their immuno-suppressive drugs are reduced.
false
True or False: Norovirus can be prevented by vaccination.
false
True or False: Since Jane is displaying some confusion, the infection must be in her central nervous system.
false
Unless Brandon gets the stem cell transplant, he has only about a 50% chance of long-term survival.
false
Which of the following metabolic processes is/are most likely to result in ethanol production?
fermentation
Which of the following is a sign Jane is experiencing?
fever
Which of the following would be the first sign of an infection that resulted in the release of endotoxin?
fever
Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that converts (soluble) _____________ in plasma to (insoluble) __________.
fibrinogen/fibrin
If a nucleotide is inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence, the resulting mutation is known as a _________________ mutation.
frameshift
Tinea infections are cause by what type of microbe?
fungus
What type of microbe causes thrush?
fungus
Rubella is also known as _____________ and the etiological agent is ____________.q
german measles/rubella virus
Which of the following molecules is broken down in cellular respiration, providing fuel for the cell?
glucose
Pyruvic acid is utilized during various fermentation processes. What process produces pyruvic acid that fuels fermentation?
glycolysis
What disease does this patient have? What is the common name for this disease?
gonorrhea; "the clap"
If it is suspected that the cans are contaminated with bacteria, which of the following stains might be able to detect them?
gram stain endospore stain simple stain
What category of bacteria have cell walls that possess a thin peptidoglycan layer and lipopolysaccharide?
gram-negative
You observe gram-negative cells that aren't spherical in shape, but instead are rod-shaped. Use the information and the dichotomous key to identify the microoorganism.
gram-negative bacilli
What category of bacteria have cell walls that possess a thick peptidoglycan layer?
gram-positive
Infection with which bacterial genus and species is one of the most important cofactors in the transmission of HIV?
haemophilus ducreyi
Coxsackievirus 16 and enterovirus 71 are the main viruses that cause ______________ disease.
hand, foot, and mouth
____________ are small molecules that are in-and-of themselves incapable of eliciting an immune response.
haptens
What is the leading reason that Herb is immunocompromised?
he has diabetes
Name the etiological agent that is mainly associated with gastritis and gastric ulcer formation.
helicobacter pylori
Listeria tends to cause meningitis only in people who are immunocompromised. What about Jane made her immunocompromised?
her advanced age and steroid therapy
What etiological agent causes roseola?
human herpes virus 6 and 7
It is unclear why hypersensitivities develop, but genetics and environmental factors may play a role. Another proposed factor suggests that individuals living in developed countries may have weaker immune systems due to accessibility of clean food, and water, antibiotics, and minimized exposure to diseases. This is known as the __________ hypothesis.
hygiene
Low blood volume due to loss of blood or severe dehydration that can lead to organ failure is called ____________ shock
hypovolemic
A polyhedral virus that has 20 triangular-shaped sides are called ____________ viruses.
icosahedral
Where would one find an uncharged tRNA molecule in a ribosome?
in the p and e sites
How would one increase the concentration of a particular polypeptide in a cell?
increase the level of transcription
The selective & differential media called MAC contains a chemical called neutral red that will detect a change in pH if the sugar in the media is metabolized by the growing organism. What is the general term for the chemical added to media that detect changes in pH?
indicator
In the complement pathway, C3a and C5a are both involved with ______________.
inflammation
The suffix "-itis" means ___________.
inflammation of
In the United States, most common exposure to Clostridium botulinum and its toxins occurs through __________.
ingestion of the spores or toxins in improperly canned foods
How did this couple likely become infected with C. jejuni?
ingestion of undercooked poultry
What would be the best course of action to treat someone who has been exposed to Clostridium boltulinum toxin or has had a Botox injection that is spreading?
intravenous immunoglobulins
Pathogens can use collagenases, neuraminidases, and coagulases to invade host tissue. These molecules are collectively known as _____________.
invasins
How does your normal intestinal microbiota help maintain your health?
it competes with pathogens for space to grow in
In addition to the severe illness it can cause, what feature of Bacillus anthracis made it a good choice for a weapon?
it forms endospores
When a sheep's blood agar plate is streaked with bacteria, such as Streptococcus pyogenes, beta hemolysis occurs. What does beta-hemolysis indicate about the pathogenicity of S. pyogenes?
it is likely to be pathogenic
An infection with Chlamydia is easily spread, because ________.
it is usually asymptomatic
Which of the following prion diseases was also known as laughing disease?
kuru
There are a variety of ways that microbes evade host immune defense mechanisms. A mechanism called ____________ occurs when an invading virus stops replicating until the immune response stops.
latency
The common name for Hansen's disease is _________.
leprosy
If not handled promptly with the correct treatment regime, which of the following infections may develop and be considered as life threatening?
liver and lung abscesses
Swollen ________ indicate that a foreign antigen is present, and leukocytes are rapidly multiplying to mount an immune response.
lymph nodes
Tears, saliva, mucus, and breast milk contain the enzyme _____________ that destroys certain bacteria.
lysozyme
Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down a host bacterium's cell wall so that the virus can leave the cell?
lysozyme
What type of RNA codes for proteins?
mRNA
Which of the following can be translated into protein?
mRNA
Transcription produces which of the following?
mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are all produced by transcription.
Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?
macrophages
The main function of the Krebs cycle during cellular respiration is to ______.
make NADH and FADH2 through redox reactions
A 19-year-old college student experiences a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. The student suspects a case of flu and goes to the health center for a diagnosis. By the time he arrives he is feeling worse, with neck stiffness and disorientation. The doctor immediately prepares to perform a spinal tap. Based on the symptoms stated, what is the most probable disease that this student has developed?
meningitis
Mismatch-repair enzymes cannot repair a DNA mutation once it becomes ______________.
methylated
Symbiotic relationships can occur between humans and microbes. What type of symbiosis is described when Lactobacilli obtain nutrients from the host and by lowering the vaginal pH, they help to prevent vaginitis?
mutualism
The glycolipid substance that forms an insulating sheath around certain CNS and PNS nerve axons is called ________.
myelin
What is the etiological agent of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)? It is also known as the brain-eating amoeba.
naegleria fowleri
A patient has traveler's diarrhea due to an intestinal pathogen. What antibiotic type and antibiotic dose would ensure that the patient recovers with minimal damage to the normal microbiota?
narrow spectrum/low dose
Bernadette was not breast-fed. Therefore, she did not have _____________BLANK to Bordetella
natural passive immunity
A patient is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Upon analysis, the doctor observes encapsulated gram-negative diplococci in her cerebrospinal fluid. What is the likely etiological agent of the patient's meningitis?
neisseria meningitidis
In what cell type does latent varicella zoster virus reside?
nerve
This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on MacConkey. All three organisms have grown on the media. Which organism(s) is/are gram-positive?
none of the organisms are gram-positive
Prokaryotic DNA is found in the __________ region and eukaryotic DNA is located in the ___________.
nucleoid; nucleus
Some scientists theorize that an ancient virus infected a bacterium helping it produce the first cell ___________.
nucleus
Which type of phosphorylation mechanism is used to generate ATP in the ETS?
oxidative phosphorylation
During a redox reaction, the molecule that loses an electron is ______________ and the molecule that gains the electron is _______________.
oxidized/reduced
What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration?
oxygen
What causes warts?
papillomavirus
Symbiotic relationships can occur between humans and microbes. What type of symbiosis is described when Streptococcus pneumoniae obtains nutrients and induces inflammation that results in pneumonia in the host?
parasitism
Which route of entry occurs when microbes enter the body through bites, cuts, injections, or surgical incision?
parental route
IV drug users can transmit HIV and Hepatitis C by sharing needles. What is the portal of exit route?
parenteral
What is the main salivary gland that is inflamed when a patient has the mumps?
parotid
In which stage is the viral DNA introduced into the cell?
penetration
What type of bond joins amino acids to a growing protein chain?
peptide bond
Penicillin interferes with _____________ synthesis, so it is effective in killing gram-positive bacteria.
peptidoglycan
What cells or tissues will harbor the bacteria in a patient with Hansen disease?
peripheral nerve endings, mucous membranes, and skin cells in the fingers, toes, lips, and earlobes
Jamie gave birth to her first child after 15 hours of labor. The next day, she looked in the mirror and noticed small, red pinpoint-sized spots on her face. Jamie asked the nurse about the spots and he told her that capillaries had burst under her skin during the strenuous delivery. What is the name of the secondary lesions on Jamie's face?
petechiae
What is sputum?
phlegm
Enterobius vermicularis causes ___________ infections while Necator americanus causes __________ infections.
pinworm/hookworm
When mixed with their host bacterium and plated on solid agar, lytic phage will form clear areas in the bacterial growth. What are these clear areas called?
plaques
What structure acts as a selective barrier, regulating the traffic of materials into and out of the cell?
plasma membrane
The reactions of the electron transport system occur in the ________of prokaryotic cells and in the ________ of eukaryotic cells.
plasma membrane/mitochondria
The ability of certain bacterial cells to take on different cell shapes is known as
pleomorphism
Antigenic drift occurs in microbes mainly due to _________ mutations that result in antigenic differences. These differences require the host immune system to generate a new immune response to the microbe.
point
Which of the following diseases cause flu-like symptoms in most people infected, but can cause muscle weakness or paralysis?
polio
What results from the process of translation?
polypeptide
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are cause by ___________.
prions
At first, Bernadette had a slight cough, a slight fever, and a runny nose. In which stage of infection do you expect her to be?
prodromal
?What type of organism is Giardia lamblia?
protozoan
Otitis externa is caused when the ear is infected with ______________.
pseudomonas
Organisms in the domain archaea have cell walls that possess _______________.
pseudopeptidoglycan
Many food spoilage bacteria are characterized by temperature as ___________.
psychrotrophs
What color will a Gram-positive organism stain?
purple
Which of the following primary skin lesions is a raised lesion that contains pus and is found below the skin surface?
pustule
Fever-inducing agents released by certain microbes are called ___________.
pyrogens
What disease is transmitted from bats to humans and produces the signs/symptoms displayed by this patient?
rabies
What infection's diagnostic indicator is the presence of Negri bodies within a neuron?
rabies
A patient has been diagnosed with a wart, a type of primary lesion known as a papule. Describe the appearance of a papule.
raised solid lesion that isn't fluid filled
The presence of specific ___________ on viruses determine whether it can infect a particular cell or not.
receptors
What are the four signs of inflammation?
redness, heat, swelling, pain
The fact that more than one codon can code for a single amino acid is referred to __________ in the genetic code
redundancy
What type of pre-transcriptional regulation is the most likely to turn off the production of a substance that is already plentiful?
repressible operons
_________ is the ability to distinguish two distinct points as separate.
resolution
Sneezing, coughing, and mucus drainage are pathogen transmission source from which portal of exit?
respiratory mucosa
One of the ways smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) differs from rough endoplasmic reticulum is that rough ER is covered by
ribosomes
Tinea corporis is the etiological agent of _____________.
ringworm
The health department microbiologists are looking for Clostridium contamination in the canned vegetables. Since this organism is a bacillus, they should see what shaped bacteria?
rod
Which structure pictured is the site of synthesis of proteins destined for secretion?
rough endoplasmic reticulum
A patient has been diagnosed with psoriasis. Psoriasis body lesions are caused by the shedding of the outer layers of the skin, so that the skin surface appears flaky. What is the name of the secondary lesion that the patient is exhibiting?
scale
Which disease did Stanley Prusiner first identify as being caused by prions?
scrapie
Which type of media has ingredients that foster the growth of certain bacteria while suppressing the growth of others?
selective
EMB media is a selective and differential diagnostic media. What does EMB select for? What does it differentiate?
selects for gram-negative organisms and differentiates between organisms that can or cannot ferment lactose
MacConkey media is a selective and differential diagnostic media. What does MacConkey select for? What does it differentiate?
selects for gram-negative organisms and differentiates between organisms that can or cannot ferment lactose
The mutations that were discovered in the patients' bacteria did not affect the proteins that the bacteria produces. What type of mutations were these?
silent mutations
Fifth disease is sometimes called _______________ syndrome, because of the appearance of the rash.
slapped cheek
Which step is a redox reaction?
step 6
Which of the following arrangements is sometimes referred to as having a beads-on-a-string appearance?
streptococci
Name the etiological agent that is mainly responsible for the formation of dental carries.
streptococcus mutans
A child presents with a fever, headache, and a stiff neck. The pediatrician suspects pneumococcal meningitis. What is the etiological agent of this form of meningitis?
streptococcus pneumoniae
Glycolysis makes ATP using ______.
substrate-level phosphorylation
What type of phosphorylation is used to produce ATP in the Krebs cycle?
substrate-level phosphorylation
Glycolysis literally means
sugar splitting
What are the nutrient requirements for an organism classified as a photoautotroph?
sun and CO2
________________ cause(s) a massive immune response that can destroy immune cells by overstimulation.
superantigens
What would be the most effective oral agent to use for treating the condition depicted in this case?
terbinafine tablets
What part of the nervous system is most affected by fatal familial insomnia?
thalamus
A chief concern of the health care provider with an infection such as this one would be which of the following?
the bacteria spreading to the blood (bacteremia) and damaging the heart or the kidneys
Antibodies from cellular immune responses are used in
the classical pathway
Which of the complement pathways was discovered first?
the classical pathway
Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens?
the endoplasmic reticulum
Why are RNA viruses that use RNA-dependent RNA polymerase for transcription more likely to have genome mutations?
the enzyme doesn't have proofreading capabilities
What determines which form of Hansen disease a person will develop after infection with the causative bacterium?
the state of a person's immune response during early development of the disease
Certain traits that allow pathogens to create infection and cause disease are termed
virulence factors
What type of pathogen causes Polio?
virus
What type of pathogen causes rubella and rubeola?
virus
Which domain of life do viruses belong to?
viruses don't belong to a domain
Localized anaphylaxis tends to feature isolated symptoms such as
watery eyes, a runny nose, or a confined rash.
When can hemolytic disease of the newborn occur?
when a previously sensitized Rh- woman is pregnant with her second Rh+ fetus
Why did the doctor ask the lab to perform antibiotic sensitivity tests?
to determine if the bacteria were resistant to the drug being used
Superantigens made by certain Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species can cause ___________ syndrome.
toxic shock
What risk is there, if any, to the unborn child during passage through the birth canal?
trachoma
Which bacterial genus and species is the etiological agent of syphilis?
treponema pallidum
What zoonotic helminth infection is caused by eating undercooked game meat?
trichinellosis
The EMB results seen above would accurately be reported as two fecal coliforms / 100 ml water sample.
true
True or False: The CSF contains no normal microbiota.
true
What is the etiological agent of African sleeping sickness?
trypanosoma brucei
The symptoms point toward a form of Hansen disease. Which form of the disease best fits the symptoms that are being seen by the nurse?
tuberculoid leprosy
Which of the following microorganisms actually grows inside the macrophage?
tuberculosis bacterium
How many net ATPs can be made from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis?
two
ABO blood incompatibility reactions are an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
type II
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is caused by the complexing of soluble antigens with antibodies that are deposited into tissues?
type III
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for autoimmune conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus?
type III
Type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder where certain insulin-producing cells in the pancreas are recognized as non-self and are destroyed. Which type of cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for Type I diabetes?
type IV
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with allergic contact dermatitis?
type IV
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with transplant rejection?
type IV
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the only one that isn't antibody-mediated?
type IV
Certain Salmonella enterica serovars cause diarrhea, dysentery, and typhoid fever. Which serovar causes typhoid fever?
typhi
What is the portal of entry of the pathogen that causes gonorrhea?
urogenital
To reduce the chances of bacterial meningitis, the CDC recommends what actions be taken for military recruits and college freshman?
vaccinations for meningococcus
There are a variety of ways that microbes evade host immune defense mechanisms. Antigenic ___________ occurs when the pathogen changes surface antigens to remain undetected by the host immune system.
variation
Which virus results in shingles when it is reactivated with peripheral nerves?
varicella-zoster
Reactivation of latent (dormant) viruses cause shingles and reoccurring cold sores. Name these two viruses.
varicella-zoster and HSV-1
Which is the etiological agent of chickenpox?
varicella-zoster virus
Which virus is responsible for Grandfather Davis's shingles?
varicella-zoster virus
Which is the etiological agent of smallpox?
variola virus
A ________ is an infectious viral particle that has yet infected its host's cells.
virion
The doctor wants to test David's lesion for Bacillus anthracis. If this organism is grown in stressful conditions, what differential stain would most add to the presumptive diagnosis of cutaneous anthrax?
Endospore stain
Which of the following is NOT true of COPD?
It causes a short-term coughing spells that arise after exercise.
What is the main reason that antibiotics were not used to treat Julia?
It could have increased toxin release from the bacteria.
How does the Gram staining procedure differentiate between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria?
It differentiates between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on cell wall composition.
Why is the unknown in this example not Pseudomonas?
It ferments lactose.
In the hospital lab, the technician performing the Gram stain procedure on David's sample knew that correct interpretation of the slide required use of immersion oil and a 100x objective lens. Why is immersion oil necessary?
It improves resolution.
What is meant by light rays being divergent?
It is spreading out
How would the results be different if this organism was Salmonella?
It would produce hydrogen sulfide.
When preparing a slide for bacterial staining, the _________________ step attaches the bacteria to the slide and kills the microorganisms.
heat fixing
____________________ oil prevents the scattering of light when viewing a sample using the 100x objective lens.
immersion
Which of the following organelles breaks down worn-out organelles?
lysosomes
What carries instructions for making proteins from the nucleus into the cytoplasm?
mRNA
Immersion oil is required to _________.
minimize scattered light when the high-powered lens is used
Where in a cell is ATP made?
mitochondria
The two organelles that are theorized to have evolved from prokaryotic cells are ______________ and _________________.
mitochondria; chloroplasts
What happens to the light rays when they hit the specimen?
They are reflected, refracted, or absorbed by the specimen.
Why did the cultures at Student Health and at the Hospital not grow originally?
This organism is suited for growth at lower temperatures.
The image shows the result of a differential staining method called the Gram stain. What information can be concluded concerning the circled (blue) cells? [Be prepared to know information concerning the pinkish cells]
the cells are gram positive and have a thick layer of peptidoglycan
How many questions are needed in this dichotomous key to determine if the unknown is Bacteroides?
three
Fungi have mitochondria.
true
How many answers are there to a question in a dichotomous key flowchart?
two
Which of the following cell shapes look like a comma?
vibrio
Which of the following statements describes eukaryotic cells?
Which of the following statements describes eukaryotic cells?
Many extremophiles such as halophiles, thermophiles, and acidophiles belong to domain _______________.
archaea
Organisms in domain _____________ are more closely genetically related to organisms in domain ___________ than domain _____________.
archaea; eukarya; bacteria
At what site on the chromosome does DNA replication begin?
at the origin of replication
Prokaryotes reproduce asexually mainly by a process called ____________.
binary fission
Why is a specimen smaller than 200 nm not visible with a light microscope?
Anything smaller than 200 nm cannot interact with visible light.
The first question in this dichotomous key addresses
Gram stain differences
Which of the following is (are) mismatched? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all mismatched statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
Gram stain: turns Gram-negative cells purple Acid-fast stain: turns acid-fast cells blue
What enables the copied chromosomes to separate during binary fission?
The chromosomes are attached to different parts of cell membrane, which elongates and thus separates the chromosomes.
How is fermentation of lactose detected?
The drop in pH turns the indicator dye yellow.
Choose the false statement(s) about the simple staining technique. To be marked correct, you'll need to select all false statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
The simple staining method uses a single acidic dye that stains the slide background.
Why are flowcharts useful for dichotomous keys?
They allow the researcher to visualize relationships between different bacteria.
Lethal _____________-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus anthracis, can be used for bioterrorism.
endospore
What category of bacteria is resistant to physical disruption and drying, but are highly susceptible to penicillin and anionic detergents?
gram-positive
If the canned vegetables had been contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus, what bacterial arrangement would you expect to see on a Gram stain?
grape-like clusters
