N350 resp exam review questions pt 2

A patient who wears contact lenses is to be placed on rifampin for tuberculosis therapy. What should the nurse tell the patient?

"You should switch to wearing your glasses while taking this medication." Explanation: The nurse informs the patient that rifampin may discolor contact lenses and that the patient may want to wear eyeglasses during treatment.

A nurse is assessing the injection site of a client who has received a purified protein derivative test. Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation?

15-mm induration Explanation: A 10-mm induration strongly suggests a positive response in this tuberculosis screening test; a 15-mm induration clearly requires further evaluation. A reddened area, 5-mm induration, and a blister aren't positive reactions to the test and require no further evaluation.

The nurse is educating a patient who will be started on an antituberculosis medication regimen. The patient asks the nurse, "How long will I have to be on these medications?" What should the nurse tell the patient?

6 to 12 months Explanation: Pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is treated primarily with anti-TB agents for 6 to 12 months. A prolonged treatment duration is necessary to ensure eradication of the organisms and to prevent relapse.

A patient is to receive an oxygen concentration of 70%. What is the best way for the nurse to deliver this concentration?

A partial rebreathing mask Explanation: Partial rebreathing masks have a reservoir bag that must remain inflated during both inspiration and expiration. The nurse adjusts the oxygen flow to ensure that the bag does not collapse during inhalation. A high concentration of oxygen (50% to 75%) can be delivered because both the mask and the bag serve as reservoirs for oxygen. The other devices listed cannot deliver oxygen at such a high concentration.

Which action should the nurse take first when providing care for a client during an acute asthma attack?

Administer prescribed short-acting bronchodilator. Explanation: Administering a short-acting bronchodilator will dilate the airway and enable oxygen to reach the lungs. Although ABGs and a chest x-ray are valid diagnostic tests for lung disorders, immediate action to restore gas exchange is a priority in an acute asthma attack. The administration of oxygen is indicated, but without open bronchioles, the action will not be effective in an acute attack.

A client has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?

Apply a dressing over the wound and tape it on three sides. Explanation: The nurse should immediately apply a dressing over the stab wound and tape it on three sides to allow air to escape and to prevent tension pneumothorax (which is more life-threatening than an open chest wound). Only after covering and taping the wound should the nurse draw blood for laboratory tests, assist with chest tube insertion, and start an I.V. line.

Which is a potential complication of a low pressure in the endotracheal tube cuff?

Aspiration pneumonia Explanation: Low pressure in the cuff can increase the risk for aspiration pneumonia. High pressure in the cuff can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis.

A new ICU nurse is observed by her preceptor entering a patient's room to suction the tracheostomy after performing the task 15 minutes before. What should the preceptor educate the new nurse to do to ensure that the patient needs to be suctioned?

Auscultate the lung for adventitious sounds. Explanation: When a tracheostomy or endotracheal tube is in place, it is usually necessary to suction the patient's secretions because of the decreased effectiveness of the cough mechanism. Tracheal suctioning is performed when adventitious breath sounds are detected or whenever secretions are obviously present. Unnecessary suctioning can initiate bronchospasm and cause mechanical trauma to the tracheal mucosa.

Which is an adverse reaction that would require the process of weaning from a ventilator to be terminated?

Blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg Explanation: Criteria for terminating the weaning process include heart rate increase of 20 beats/min and systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg. A normal vital capacity is 10 to 15 mL/kg.

A thoracentesis is performed to obtain a sample of pleural fluid or a biopsy specimen from the pleural wall for diagnostic purposes. What does serous fluid indicate?

Cancer Explanation: A thoracentesis may be performed to obtain a sample of pleural fluid or to biopsy a specimen from the pleural wall for diagnostic purposes. Serous fluid may be associated with cancer, inflammatory conditions, or heart failure. Blood fluid typically suggests trauma. Purulent fluid is diagnostic for infection. Complications that may follow a thoracentesis include pneumothorax and subcutaneous emphysema.

The nurse assesses a patient with a heart rate of 42 and a blood pressure of 70/46. What type of hypoxia does the nurse determine this patient is displaying?

Circulatory hypoxia Explanation: Given the vital signs, this client appears to be in shock. Circulatory hypoxia results from inadequate capillary circulation and may be caused by decreased cardiac output, local vascular obstruction, low-flow states such as shock, or cardiac arrest. Although tissue partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is reduced, arterial oxygen (PaO2) remains normal. Circulatory hypoxia is corrected by identifying and treating the underlying cause. The low blood pressure is consistent with circulatory hypoxia but not consistent with the other options. Anemic hypoxia is a result of decreased effective hemoglobin concentration. Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when a toxic substance interferes with the ability of tissues to use available oxygen. Hypoxemic hypoxia results from a low level of oxygen in the blood.

A client is being admitted to the preoperative holding area for a thoracotomy. Preoperative teaching includes what?

Correct use of incentive spirometry

A nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. What is a cardinal sign of lung cancer?

Cough or change in chronic cough Explanation: A cough or change in chronic cough is the most frequent symptom of lung cancer. Symptoms of fractured ribs consist primarily of severe pain on inspiration and expiration, obvious trauma, and shortness of breath. These symptoms may also be caused by other disorders, but they are not considered to be indicative of lung cancer.

The nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place for the treatment of a pneumothorax. The nurse observes that the water level in the water seal rises and falls in rhythm with the client's respirations. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding?

Document that the chest drainage system is operating as it is intended. Explanation: Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal shows effective connection between the pleural cavity and the drainage chamber and indicates that the drainage system remains patent. No further action is needed.

A nurse is assessing a client who comes to the clinic for care. Which findings in this client suggest bacterial pneumonia?

Dyspnea and wheezing Explanation: In a client with bacterial pneumonia, retained secretions cause dyspnea, and respiratory tract inflammation causes wheezing. Bacterial pneumonia also produces a productive cough and fever, rather than a nonproductive cough and normal temperature. Sore throat occurs in pharyngitis, not bacterial pneumonia. Abdominal pain is characteristic of a GI disorder, unlike chest pain, which can reflect a respiratory infection such as pneumonia. Hemoptysis and dysuria aren't associated with pneumonia.

Which intervention does a nurse implement for clients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises Explanation: Empyema is an accumulation of thick fluid within the pleural space. To help the client with the condition, the nurse instructs the client in lung-expanding breathing exercises to restore normal respiratory function. Placing clients together, instituting precautions, and forbidding visitors would all be interventions that would depend upon what condition was causing the empyema.

The occupational nurse is completing routine assessments on the employees at a company. What might be revealed by a chest radiograph for a client with occupational lung diseases?

Fibrotic changes in lungs Explanation: For a client with occupational lung diseases, a chest radiograph may reveal fibrotic changes in the lungs. Hemorrhage, lung contusion, and damage to surrounding tissues are possibly caused by trauma due to chest injuries.

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to have a thoracotomy. When planning preoperative teaching, what information should the nurse communicate to the client?

How to splint the incision when coughing Explanation: Prior to thoracotomy, the nurse educates the client about how to splint the incision with the hands, a pillow, or a folded towel. The client is not taught how to milk the chest tubing because this is performed by the nurse. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally used and fluid restriction is not indicated following thoracotomy.

A client who underwent surgery 12 hours ago has difficulty breathing. He has petechiae over his chest and complains of acute chest pain. What action should the nurse take first?

Initiate oxygen therapy.

A client who underwent surgery 12 hours ago has difficulty breathing. He has petechiae over his chest and complains of acute chest pain. What action should the nurse take first?

Initiate oxygen therapy. Explanation: The client's signs and symptoms suggest pulmonary embolism. Therefore, maintaining respiratory function takes priority. The nurse should first initiate oxygen therapy and then notify the physician immediately. The physician will most likely order an anticoagulant such as heparin or an antithrombolytic to dissolve the thrombus. Analgesics can be administered to decrease pain and anxiety but administering oxygen takes priority. Suctioning typically isn't necessary with pulmonary embolism.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation. Which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside?

Manual resuscitation bag Explanation: The client with COPD depends on mechanical ventilation for adequate tissue oxygenation. The nurse must keep a manual resuscitation bag at the bedside to ventilate and oxygenate the client in case the mechanical ventilator malfunctions. Because the client doesn't have chest tubes or a tracheostomy, keeping a water-seal chest drainage set-up or a tracheostomy cleaning kit at the bedside isn't necessary. Although the nurse may keep an oxygen analyzer (pulse oximeter) on hand to evaluate the effectiveness of ventilation, this equipment is less important than the manual resuscitation bag.

The critical care nurse is precepting a new nurse on the unit. Together they are caring for a client who has a tracheostomy tube and is receiving mechanical ventilation. What action should the critical care nurse recommend when caring for the cuff?

Monitor the pressure in the cuff at least every 8 hours Explanation: Cuff pressure must be monitored by the respiratory therapist or nurse at least every 8 hours by attaching a handheld pressure gauge to the pilot balloon of the tube or by using the minimal leak volume or minimal occlusion volume technique. Plugging is only used when weaning the client from tracheal support. Deflating the cuff overnight would be unsafe and inappropriate. High cuff pressure can cause tissue trauma.

A client is receiving supplemental oxygen. When determining the effectiveness of oxygen therapy, which arterial blood gas value is most important?

Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) Explanation: The most significant and direct indicator of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy is the PaO2 value. Based on the PaO2 value, the nurse may adjust the type of oxygen delivery (cannula, Venturi mask, or mechanical ventilator), flow rate, and oxygen percentage. The other options reflect the client's ventilation status, not oxygenation. The pH, HCO3-, and PaCO2

A client who has just had a triple-lumen catheter placed in his right subclavian vein complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is decreased from baseline and, on auscultation of his chest, the nurse notes unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray is immediately ordered by the physician. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

Pneumothorax Explanation: Pneumothorax (air in the pleural space) is a potential complication of all central venous access devices. Signs and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, shoulder or neck pain, irritability, palpitations, light-headedness, hypotension, cyanosis, and unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray reveals the collapse of the affected lung that results from pneumothorax. Triple-lumen catheter insertion through the subclavian vein isn't associated with pulmonary embolism, MI, or heart failure.

A client continues to report dyspnea on exertion and overall weakness. A pulmonary artery catheter is placed and the mean pulmonary arterial pressure is 35 mm Hg. What condition is the client experiencing?

Pulmonary arterial hypertension Explanation: Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is confirmed with a mean pulmonary artery pressure greater than 25 mm Hg. The main symptom of PH is dyspnea. Clients with restrictive lung disease, asthma, and atelectasis should not have PH.

The nurse is assessing a client who, after an extensive surgical procedure, is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse assesses for which most common early sign of ARDS?

Rapid onset of severe dyspnea Explanation: The acute phase of ARDS is marked by a rapid onset of severe dyspnea that usually occurs less than 72 hours after the precipitating event.

The nurse is caring for a patient with pleurisy. What symptoms does the nurse recognize are significant for this patient's diagnosis?

Stabbing pain during respiratory movement Explanation: When the inflamed pleural membranes rub together during respiration (intensified on inspiration), the result is severe, sharp, knifelike pain. The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Pleuritic pain is limited in distribution rather than diffuse; it usually occurs only on one side. The pain may become minimal or absent when the breath is held. It may be localized or radiate to the shoulder or abdomen. Later, as pleural fluid develops, the pain decreases.

A mediastinal shift occurs in which type of chest disorder?

Tension pneumothorax Explanation: A tension pneumothorax causes the lung to collapse and the heart, the great vessels, and the trachea to shift toward the unaffected side of the chest (mediastinal shift). A traumatic pneumothorax occurs when air escapes from a laceration in the lung itself and enters the pleural space or enters the pleural space through a wound in the chest wall. A simple pneumothorax most commonly occurs as air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac.

The nurse suctions a patient through the endotracheal tube for 20 seconds and observes dysrhythmias on the monitor. What does the nurse determine is occurring with the patient?

The patient is hypoxic from suctioning. Explanation: Apply suction while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees (no longer than 10-15 seconds). Prolonged suctioning may result in hypoxia and dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac arrest.

A client in acute respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department. After endotracheal (ET) intubation and initiation of mechanical ventilation, the client is transferred to the intensive care unit. Before suctioning the ET tube, the nurse hyperventilates and hyperoxygenates the client. What is the rationale for these interventions?

They help prevent cardiac arrhythmias. Explanation: ET suctioning removes oxygen, lowering the partial pressure of arterial oxygen; this, in turn, may induce a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperventilating and hyperoxygenating the client before and during (or after) suctioning helps prevent this complication. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air from the pleural cavity leaks into subcutaneous tissue; it isn't a complication associated with suctioning. Hyperventilation and hyperoxygenation can't prevent a pneumothorax because this condition itself indicates air in the pleural space. Pulmonary edema is associated with cardiac dysfunction, not ET suctioning.

A client is exhibiting signs of a pneumothorax following tracheostomy. The surgeon inserts a chest tube into the anterior chest wall. What should the nurse tell the family is the primary purpose of this chest tube?

To remove air from the pleural space Explanation: Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. The primary purpose of a chest tube is not to drain sputum secretions, monitor bleeding, or assist with mechanical ventilation.

A nurse is aware that the diagnostic feature of ARDS is sudden:

Unresponsive arterial hypoxemia. Explanation: Clinically, the acute phase of ARDS is marked by a rapid onset of severe dyspnea that usually occurs 12 to 48 hours after the initiating event. A characteristic feature is arterial hypoxemia that does not respond to supplemental oxygen.

Which type of ventilator has a preset volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration?

Volume cycled Explanation: With volume-cycled ventilation, the volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration is preset. Negative-pressure ventilators exert a negative pressure on the external chest. Time-cycled ventilators terminate or control inspiration after a preset time. When the pressure-cycled ventilator cycles on, it delivers a flow of air (inspiration) until it reaches a preset pressure, and then cycles off, and expiration occurs passively.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. The nurse should best assess whether the client is hypoxemic by monitoring the client's:

oxygen saturation level.