NASM CPT Exam

What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure? Select one: a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia

a. Hypertension

Triple Extension

A multijoint exercise that involves extension at the hip, knee, and ankle. Ex: sprints, jumping, Olympic lifting

Upper crossed syndrome

A postural distortion syndrome characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders.

Gastrocnemius

Calf muscle

Waist to Hip Ratio

Correlates to the risk for developing cardiovascular disease Health Risk: Men Low 0.95 or lower Moderate 0.96-1.0 High 1.0 or higher Women Low 0.80 or lower Moderate 0.81-0.85 High 0.86 or higher

closed kinetic chain exercises

Exercises in which the foot or hand is in a weight bearing position on the ground or some other object ex: pushup

Balance Vision

Eyes closed, light, dark, etc.

Triple Flexion

Flexion of the thigh, leg, and dorsiflexion of foot

Systolic BP

Force of blood pushing against arterial walls when heart is contracting top number

Plyometrics

High-intensity movements, such as jumping, involving high-force loading of body weight during the landing phase of the movement that take advantage of the stretch-shortening cycle.

Soleus

Lower calf muscle

All-or-Nothing Principle

Motor units cannot vary the amount of force they generate; they either contract maximally or not at all.

Eccentric Movement

Muscle lengthens while producing force Ex: lowering the weight back down during bicep curl - holding back the weight

Concentric Movement

Muscle shortens while producing force Contracting the Muscle ex: raising the weight during bicep curl

Isometric Contraction

No movement Muscle is contracted but does not shorten or lengthen Ex: Holding the DB at 90degrees

Superficial/Global Muscles

Outer Core

Par-Q+

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire + all ages 7 questions screens for risk factors

Diastolic BP

Pressure in arteries and vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats bottom number

Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO)

Sense organ that receives info from the tendon senses TENSION

Somatosensory

Shoes vs barefoot (balance) our sense of touch, temperature, and pain

Davis' Law

Soft tissue models along the lines of stress

Archimedes' Principle

States that the buoyant force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by an object. Hydrostatic Underwater Weighing

Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements? Select one: a. Performance supplements b. Health supplements c. Anabolic steroids d. Stimulants

b. Health supplements

Principle of Specificity

The body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it (SAID principle)

open kinetic chain exercise

The foot or hand is not in contact with the ground or other object while performing exercises ex: DB chest fly

VT1 - First Ventilatory Threshold

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.

VT2 - Second Ventilatory Threshold

The point where glucose provides nearly all of the energy for the activity.

Lower crossed syndrome

a postural distortion syndrome characterized by an anterior tilt to the pelvis (arched lower back)

What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? Select one: a. 0.5 b. 0.25 c. 0.4 d. 0.1

a. 0.5

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight c. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight

a. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? Select one: a. 10 minutes b. 35 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 2 minutes

a. 10 minutes

What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest? Select one: a. 15 breaths per minute b. 7 breaths per minute c. 19 breaths per minute d. 25 breaths per minute

a. 15 breaths per minute

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM c. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed? Select one: a. 25 b. 22 c. 30 d. 18

a. 25

What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person? Select one: a. 80 beats per minute b. 120 beats per minute c. 105 beats per minute d. 50 beats per minute

a. 80 beats per minute

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity? Select one: a. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence. b. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines. c. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention. d. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.

a. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training? Select one: a. A decrease in metabolic rate b. A reduction in blood pressure at rest c. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest d. Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers

a. A decrease in metabolic rate

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise b. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature c. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle d. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed

a. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

A client reports that he is following a limited diet of chicken and rice every day to avoid eating extra calories from other foods in order to lose weight. What would be an appropriate response within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? Select one: a. A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them. b. The diet seems simple enough to maintain for a period of time and facilitate some weight loss. c. The chicken and rice combination seems adequate to provide caloric, macronutrient, and micronutrient needs. d. The limited diet sounds like a good plan to limit extra calories from other foods.

a. A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) c. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line d. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

a. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week

a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Select one: a. Adherence b. Goals c. Hypertrophy d. Overtraining

a. Adherence

What is defined as steady-state exercise? Select one: a. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity b. Exercise performed for a short duration of time c. Exercise that burns a lot of calories d. Exercise that goes on for a long time

a. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Altered length-tension relationship c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance

a. Altered reciprocal inhibition

What are the building blocks of body proteins? Select one: a. Amino acids b. Glucose c. Triglycerides d. Ketone bodies

a. Amino acids

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? Select one: a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging b. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible

a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication? Select one: a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin) b. Painkillers c. Insulin d. Inhalers

a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon? Select one: a. Archimedes' principle b. All-or-nothing principle c. Principle of specificity d. Davis's principle

a. Archimedes' principle

Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program? Select one: a. BOSU ball b. Firm surface c. Balance beam d. Foam pad

a. BOSU ball

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? Select one: a. Bench press and stability ball push-ups b. Deadlifts and squats c. Power step-ups and ice skaters d. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups

a. Bench press and stability ball push-ups

What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body? Select one: a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) b. Anthropometry c. Skinfold measurements d. Body mass index (BMI)

a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

What type of health concern is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Chronic diseases and conditions b. Alcohol c. Injuries d. Acute diseases

a. Chronic diseases and conditions

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature? Select one: a. Close grip bench press b. Ball cobra c. Lat pulldown d. Seated cable row

a. Close grip bench press

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Closed-chain movements b. Loaded movements c. Suspended bodyweight movements d. Open-chain movements

a. Closed-chain movements

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Confidentiality b. Professionalism c. Business practice d. Legal and ethical

a. Confidentiality

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Select one: a. Core stability b. Core strength c. Core power d. Core endurance

a. Core stability

Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Coronary artery disease b. Dementia c. Cancer d. Diabetes

a. Coronary artery disease

What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats? Select one: a. Diastolic blood pressure b. Pulse c. Hypertension d. Systolic blood pressure

a. Diastolic blood pressure

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion? Select one: a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension c. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion d. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion

a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Isometric d. Concentric

a. Eccentric

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined? Select one: a. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs b. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest d. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise

a. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

Which of the following is a primary goal of the strength endurance phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength b. Maximal muscle growth c. Maximal Strength Training d. Teaching optimal movement patterns

a. Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Internal oblique c. Multifidus d. Transversus abdominis

a. Erector spinae

What is the definition of kinesiophobia? Select one: a. Fear of movement b. Fear of stairs c. Fear of standing d. Fear of heights

a. Fear of movement

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Select one: a. Feed-forward b. Feedback c. Synergist function d. Antagonist function

a. Feed-forward

Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Deadlifts c. Repeat step-ups d. Barbell chest press

a. Floor bridge

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States? Select one: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Four b. Seven c. Three d. Six

a. Four

Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? Select one: a. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception. b. Free-weight training is often safer for a new user when compared to machines. c. Free weights are less intimidating than machines for those new to exercise. d. Training with free weights always requires the fitness professional to be a spotter.

a. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Gentle static stretching b. Pilates c. General cardiovascular exercise d. Deep soft-tissue massage

a. Gentle static stretching

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Gluconeogenesis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Glycolysis d. Oxidation

a. Gluconeogenesis

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Select one: a. Growth and volume b. Growth and stabilization c. Strength and volume d. Strength and stabilization

a. Growth and volume

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating? Select one: a. Health and well-being b. Being a part of a social group c. Improved physical appearance d. Competition with others

a. Health and well-being

The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following? Select one: a. Heart health b. Bone health c. Endocrine health d. Athletic performance

a. Heart health

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Gluteus medius c. Hamstrings complex d. Gluteus maximus

a. Hip flexor complex

Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Select one: a. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation b. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation c. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation d. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation

a. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement? Select one: a. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia. b. In order for exercise to improve sleep, it must be coupled with medication. c. Resistance training has not been shown to have any positive effect on sleep disturbances. d. Getting 10 minutes a day of physical activity is all that is needed to improve insomnia.

a. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional's accumulated education, experience, and practical skills? Select one: a. Individual professional expertise b. Client values and expectations c. Best external evidence d. Number of continuing education units earned

a. Individual professional expertise

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones? Select one: a. Insulin b. Testosterone c. Insulin-like growth factor d. Growth hormone

a. Insulin

With type 1 diabetes, what hormone does the pancreas fall short in making? Select one: a. Insulin b. Estrogen c. Testosterone d. Progesterone

a. Insulin

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Concentric c. Isometric d. Eccentric

a. Isokinetic

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? Select one: a. It causes stress to the connective tissues. b. It makes the next jump too easy to execute. c. It reduces force too much. d. It creates too powerful a jump.

a. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Why is third-party verification important? Select one: a. It provides unbiased testing for a product. b. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market. c. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients. d. It shows which supplements to trust.

a. It provides unbiased testing for a product.

Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete? Select one: a. Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete. b. Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish immediate rapport with club members and potential clients. c. Karim's experience as a professional athlete gives him the ability to create an accurate business forecast. d. Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish a recognizable brand identity.

a. Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Gluteus maximus c. Anterior deltoid d. Pectoralis major

a. Latissimus dorsi

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Middle and lower trapezius c. Posterior deltoid d. Rhomboids

a. Latissimus dorsi

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Pulmonary veins

a. Left atrium

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Select one: a. Ligament b. Tendon c. Collagen d. Elastin

a. Ligament

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? Select one: a. Macrocycle b. Microcycle c. Megacycle d. Mesocycle

a. Macrocycle

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Mechanical specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Posture specificity d. Metabolic specificity

a. Mechanical specificity

The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Motivation b. Ambition c. Aspiration d. Initiative

a. Motivation

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Erector spinae c. Gluteus maximus d. Rectus abdominis

a. Multifidus

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? Select one: a. Nerves b. Soft tissue c. Heart d. Bone

a. Nerves

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Nociceptor b. Neurotransmitter c. Action potential d. Mechanoreceptor

a. Nociceptor

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull? Select one: a. Nonsynovial b. Pivot c. Condyloid d. Ball-and-socket

a. Nonsynovial

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? Select one: a. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise. b. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands. c. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. d. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development.

a. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation? Select one: a. Omega-3 fatty acids b. Saturated fats c. Omega-6 fatty acids d. Trans fats

a. Omega-3 fatty acids

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Osteopenia b. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition. c. Arthritis d. Lung cancer

a. Osteopenia

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone? Select one: a. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods c. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods d. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods

a. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? Select one: a. Overweight b. Healthy weight c. Class II obesity d. Obese

a. Overweight

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. PAR-Q+ b. Overhead squat assessment c. An annual physical d. Dietary assessment

a. PAR-Q+

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 1

a. Phase 5

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior? Select one: a. Planning b. Outcome expectations c. Action self-efficacy d. Subjective norms

a. Planning

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk? Select one: a. Plantar fasciitis b. A sprain c. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear d. Patellar tendonitis

a. Plantar fasciitis

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Select one: a. Provide an increased range of motion b. Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers c. Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures d. Offer users the ability to change resistance easily

a. Provide an increased range of motion

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Provide them with education and knowledge b. Tell them to exercise with a friend c. Encourage them to make plans to exercise d. Help them identify barriers to exercise

a. Provide them with education and knowledge

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set? Select one: a. Pyramid system b. Complex training c. Superset system d. Multiple-set system

a. Pyramid system

Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat? Select one: a. Quadriceps b. Biceps brachii c. Adductor longus d. Gluteus medius

a. Quadriceps

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? Select one: a. Quickness b. Speed c. Strength d. Agility

a. Quickness

What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)? Select one: a. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function. b. RMR is the number of calories burned through digestion. c. RMR is the number of calories burned after exercise. d. RMR is the number of calories burned through fidgeting.

a. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their knee b. Reach to their toes c. Reach to their shin d. Reach to their waist

a. Reach to their knee

Javier has recently earned his NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and is starting to apply to health clubs for his first job as a personal trainer. Which job from his previous non-fitness industry work experience demonstrates qualities that would best be applicable to personal training? Select one: a. Restaurant server b. Warehouse worker c. Driver for a ride-sharing service d. Nightclub security guard

a. Restaurant server

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? Select one: a. Restore optimal length-tension relationships b. Improve sports skills c. Correct muscle imbalances d. Increase maximal strength

a. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteopenia c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Sagittal b. Transverse c. Extension d. Frontal

a. Sagittal

Which of the following foods is the most likely to be a good source of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Salmon b. Grilled chicken c. Milk d. Beef

a. Salmon

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row b. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press c. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat d. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown

a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Stable balance c. Dynamic balance d. Static balance

a. Semi-dynamic balance

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Static balance c. Moderate-level balance d. Dynamic balance

a. Semi-dynamic balance

What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder? Select one: a. Shoulder impingement b. Rotator cuff tear c. Frozen shoulder d. Dislocation of the shoulder

a. Shoulder impingement

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Push-up test c. Overhead squat d. 40-yard dash

a. Single-leg squat

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Situational factors b. Leadership styles c. Leader's qualities d. Follower's qualities

a. Situational factors

What are the three types of muscles in the body? Select one: a. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth b. Actin, myosin, and sarcomere c. Somatic, autonomic, and peripheral d. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

a. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine? Select one: a. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases b. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases c. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase d. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase

a. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible? Select one: a. Speed b. Quickness c. Power d. Agility

a. Speed

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Select one: a. Squatting b. Pulling c. Pushing d. Hip hinge

a. Squatting

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing b. Rate of force production c. Explosiveness d. Speed

a. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Stabilize vertebral segments b. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities c. Move the trunk d. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement

a. Stabilize vertebral segments

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes? Select one: a. Stage 1 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 4

a. Stage 1

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Step-ups b. Barbell clean c. Single-leg squat d. Depth jump

a. Step-ups

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called? Select one: a. Stretch reflex b. Lengthening reaction c. Isometric contraction d. Eccentric contraction

a. Stretch reflex

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Subscapularis b. Anterior tibialis c. Scalenes d. Infraspinatus

a. Subscapularis

Which joints are most associated with human movement? Select one: a. Synovial b. Saddle c. Nonsynovial d. Nonaxial

a. Synovial multiple classifications: ball-n-socket, hinge, pivot, etc.

Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein? Select one: a. Synthesis of hormones b. Insulation of internal organs c. Padding of vital internal organs d. Regulation of body temperature

a. Synthesis of hormones

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined? Select one: a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest b. A method to help determine an individual's heart rate c. An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development d. The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active

a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete? Select one: a. The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional. b. No balance training should be conducted following an injury. c. The athlete can perform complex stage 3 balance exercises first. d. A parent says training is okay.

a. The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? Select one: a. The environment b. Muscle strength c. Ligament integrity d. Joint stability

a. The environment

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. The essential amino acids b. Caffeine c. Minerals d. Vitamins

a. The essential amino acids

Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product? Select one: a. The ingredients list b. The nutrition label c. The nutrition facts panel d. The percent daily values

a. The ingredients list

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel b. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise c. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise d. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise

a. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined? Select one: a. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded c. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body d. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)

a. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress? Select one: a. The release of endorphins b. Restricted blood flow c. Atherosclerosis d. Hypertension

a. The release of endorphins

What are triglycerides? Select one: a. The stored form of fat b. A substrate for anaerobic exercise c. A substrate for high-intensity exercise d. The stored form of carbohydrate

a. The stored form of fat

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. b. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. c. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles. d. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.

a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee. b. The stretch is too complicated for the new client. c. The stretch is too advanced for the average person. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles

a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. b. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. c. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. d. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.

a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing? Select one: a. Unrealistic goals b. Lack of social support c. Social physique anxiety d. Ambivalence

a. Unrealistic goals

Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Knee valgus d. Pes planus distortion syndrome

a. Upper crossed syndrome

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Hip flexors c. Adductor complex d. Lower trapezius

a. Upper trapezius

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Visual system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. Auditory system

a. Visual system

What are the three micronutrients? Select one: a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients b. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids c. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids d. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids

a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source? Select one: a. Whole eggs b. Lentils c. Beans d. Peas

a. Whole eggs

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? Select one: a. 180 to 240 seconds b. 0 to 90 seconds c. 120 to 180 seconds d. 90 to 120 seconds

b. 0 to 90 seconds

Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water? Select one: a. 0.4 b. 0.6 c. 0.8 d. 0.5

b. 0.6

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? Select one: a. 0 sessions per week b. 1 or 2 sessions per week c. 5 to 7 sessions per week d. 3 or 4 sessions per week

b. 1 or 2 sessions per week

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 125 minutes per week b. 150 minutes per week c. 75 minutes per week d. 300 minutes per week

b. 150 minutes per week

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? Select one: a. 30 to 34.9 b. 18.5 to 24.9 c. 35 to 39.9 d. 25 to 29.9

b. 18.5 to 24.9

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate? Select one: a. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest b. 208 - (0.7 x age) c. HRmax x % intensity desired d. VO2max x % intensity desired

b. 208 - (0.7 x age)

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 8 to 10 reps b. 3 to 5 reps c. 1 or 2 reps d. 6 to 8 reps

b. 3 to 5 reps

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? Select one: a. 1 or 2 drills per workout b. 4 to 8 drills per workout c. 2 or 3 drills per workout d. 9 or 10 drills per workout

b. 4 to 8 drills per workout

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? Select one: a. 12 hours b. 48 to 72 hours c. 24 hours d. 1 week

b. 48 to 72 hours

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 9 or 10 drills b. 6 to 8 drills c. 2 to 4 drills d. 4 to 5 drills

b. 6 to 8 drills

How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 3 b. 8 c. 12 d. 21

b. 8

Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements c. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch d. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements

b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

How can health best be defined? Select one: a. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium in relation to the surrounding environment and the regular tasks it is required to perform b. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity c. Genetics, access to healthcare, access to preventive medicine, socioeconomic status, natural disasters, and the built environment d. A combination of education, income, and occupation

b. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body? Select one: a. A low-protein diet b. A very low-carbohydrate diet c. A caloric surplus d. High-intensity exercise

b. A very low-carbohydrate diet

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule? Select one: a. Pyruvate b. Acetyl CoA c. Amino acids d. ATP

b. Acetyl CoA

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Action c. Contemplation d. Maintenance

b. Action

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied? Select one: a. Switch to single-leg power step-ups b. Adding a stabilization pause between reps c. Being more explosive d. Increasing speed

b. Adding a stabilization pause between reps

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths? Select one: a. Collecting summaries b. Affirmations c. Reflections d. Transitional summaries

b. Affirmations

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Select one: a. Concentric b. Amortization c. Stabilization d. Eccentric

b. Amortization

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement? Select one: a. Push-up b. Ball squat, curl to press c. Romanian deadlift d. Standing cable chest press

b. Ball squat, curl to press

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up? Select one: a. Between 10 and 15 minutes b. Between 5 and 10 minutes c. Between 1 and 3 minutes d. Between 3 and 5 minutes

b. Between 5 and 10 minutes

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients? Select one: a. Choosing the highest box available b. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities c. Choosing only small step boxes d. Letting the client choose the box size

b. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages b. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs c. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle d. Discussing the customer's budget

b. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Isometric b. Concentric c. Isotonic d. Eccentric

b. Concentric

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Contemplation c. Precontemplation d. Action

b. Contemplation

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise? Select one: a. Psychological concern b. Contraindication c. Cardiovascular precaution d. Precaution

b. Contraindication

In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens? Select one: a. Peas and peanuts b. Dairy and shellfish c. Soy and aspartame d. Gluten and corn

b. Dairy and shellfish

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States? Select one: a. Hordenine b. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA) c. Caffeine d. Creatine

b. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability? Select one: a. High-level balance b. Dynamic balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Static balance

b. Dynamic balance

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Ankle stability b. Eccentric loading c. Increased amortization d. Concentric contractions

b. Eccentric loading

When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to? Select one: a. Traditional compliance b. Evidence-based practice c. Peer-observed procedure d. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums

b. Evidence-based practice

In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Select one: a. General manager b. Exercise leader c. Certified Personal Trainer d. Fitness manager

b. Exercise leader

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart. b. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. c. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors. d. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.

b. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Blood pressure b. Flexibility c. Body composition d. Resting heart rate

b. Flexibility

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Select one: a. Strengthening exercises b. Flexibility exercises c. Balance exercises d. Plyometric exercises

b. Flexibility exercises

What are ground reaction forces? Select one: a. Forces used by the muscles during a jump b. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping c. The force of gravity d. Deceleration forces in the muscles

b. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing? Select one: a. Creating a coping plan b. Forming an implementation intention c. Self-monitoring d. Stating an outcome expectation

b. Forming an implementation intention

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Iliopsoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Erector spinae

b. Iliopsoas

Rather than simply designing workout programs to change appearance, the modern personal trainer has evolved to a professional responsible for producing which of the following? Select one: a. Designing meal plans that can help clients shed unwanted fat b. Improving overall health and movement quality for their clients c. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts d. Helping clients get shredded to stand out and gain more followers on social media

b. Improving overall health and movement quality for their clients

What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels? Select one: a. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone and cortisol levels. b. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels. c. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels. d. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and cortisol levels.

b. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels.

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine. Select one: a. Decreased kyphosis b. Increased lordosis c. Increased kyphosis d. Decreased lordosis

b. Increased lordosis

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Deconditioned individuals b. Individuals with performance goals c. Elderly individuals d. Individuals recovering from an injury

b. Individuals with performance goals

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Medially b. Inferiorly c. Superiorly d. Laterally

b. Inferiorly

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Establish short- and long-term goals. b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. c. Start establishing an emotional support system. d. Create a plan for overcoming barriers.

b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Warm-up phase b. Interval phase c. Cool-down phase d. Conditioning phase

b. Interval phase

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable? Select one: a. Relaxed b. Isometrically contracted c. Concentrically contracted d. Eccentrically contracted

b. Isometrically contracted

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? Select one: a. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. b. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. c. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion. d. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion.

b. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Cable machine single-arm row b. Kettlebell RDL c. Sandbag rotational lunge d. Stability ball abdominal crunches

b. Kettlebell RDL

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Select one: a. Core stability b. Landing mechanics c. Power development d. Force production

b. Landing mechanics

Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Rear leg b. Lead leg c. Knee extension d. Ankle plantar flexion

b. Lead leg

Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable? Select one: a. The personality of the leader b. Leader's qualities c. Leader's style d. The requirements of the leader

b. Leader's qualities

How is a general warm-up best defined? Select one: a. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following. b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following. c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Preparation

b. Maintenance

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Action

b. Maintenance

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power? Select one: a. Terra-Core push-up b. Medicine ball chest pass c. Barbell squat d. Sandbag step-up

b. Medicine ball chest pass

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how? Select one: a. Not at all b. More efficiently c. Less efficiently d. Equally

b. More efficiently

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking? Select one: a. Positive outcome expectation b. Motivation c. Autonomy d. Self-efficacy

b. Motivation

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Select one: a. Muscle power b. Muscle hypertrophy c. Muscle strength d. Muscle endurance

b. Muscle hypertrophy

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Strength b. Neuromuscular stabilization c. Speed d. Power

b. Neuromuscular stabilization

Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs? Select one: a. Offering customized meal plans for each client b. Offering online coaching programs c. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts d. Teaching group fitness workouts

b. Offering online coaching programs

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Overhead squat c. Pushing assessment d. Pulling assessment

b. Overhead squat

Which of the following can cause undue fatigue, increase the risk of injury, and potentially lead to burnout? Select one: a. Adherence b. Overtraining c. Hypertrophy d. Stabilization

b. Overtraining

A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements? Select one: a. When a group or situation is warm and inviting, it brings people together; when people feel welcome, they are likely to return. b. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty. c. Participants have people they can compare themselves with. Being able to see what others can do and achieve can serve as further motivation. d. Participants are encouraged to push as hard as they can and may work harder in the presence of the group.

b. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.

What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow? Select one: a. Biometric data b. Performance assessments c. Body composition d. Movement assessments

b. Performance assessments

Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility? Select one: a. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts. b. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are. c. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working. d. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients.

b. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension c. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension d. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion

b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms? Select one: a. White blood cells b. Platelets c. Red blood cells d. Plasma

b. Platelets

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization training b. Plyometric training c. Power training d. SAQ training

b. Plyometric training

A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Preparation b. Precontemplation c. Action d. Maintenance

b. Precontemplation

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client? Select one: a. Prime-mover relaxation b. Previous injury c. Laxity of a joint d. Stabilizer muscle relaxation

b. Previous injury

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? Select one: a. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone. b. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate. c. Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it. d. Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate.

b. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career? Select one: a. Creating a social media page to post client results and a hashtag that her clients can use to help grow her following b. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results c. Providing a custom exercise prescription with an added meal plan for each client d. Offering her services as an in-home trainer to people in her immediate area

b. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? Select one: a. Biceps curls b. Push-ups c. Machine leg extension d. Lat pulldown

b. Push-ups

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program? Select one: a. Speed of exercise completion b. Quality of movement c. Number of sets/reps d. Amount of external resistance

b. Quality of movement

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective? Select one: a. Metabolic equivalents b. Ratings of perceived exertion c. Percentage of VO2max d. Percentage of maximal heart rate

b. Ratings of perceived exertion

What differentiates change of direction from agility? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Reaction to a signal c. Deceleration d. Changing directions

b. Reaction to a signal

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? Select one: a. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training. b. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions c. Voluntary contractions d. Preplanned voluntary contractions

b. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training? Select one: a. Core b. Rehabilitation c. Resistance training d. Plyometrics

b. Rehabilitation

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Stopping b. Reverse listing c. Imagery d. Cognitive fusion

b. Reverse listing

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Rotatores c. Iliopsoas d. Latissimus dorsi

b. Rotatores

Which of the following would be considered a process goal? Select one: a. Run one mile b. Run three times a week c. Run a 10k race d. Squat 100 pounds

b. Run three times a week

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training? Select one: a. SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol. b. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia. c. There is no evidence to support this adaptation. d. SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer.

b. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? Select one: a. Self-esteem b. Self-efficacy c. Resilience d. Self-image

b. Self-efficacy

A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Action planning b. Self-monitoring c. Coping planning d. Goal setting

b. Self-monitoring

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term? Select one: a. Social influence b. Socioeconomic status c. Income status d. Net worth

b. Socioeconomic status

What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements? Select one: a. Muscular endurance b. Stabilization c. Strength d. Muscular hypertrophy

b. Stabilization

Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Motion balance b. Static balance c. Dynamic balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

b. Static balance

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Select one: a. Ballistic stretching b. Static stretching c. Dynamic stretching d. Active stretching

b. Static stretching

What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance? Select one: a. Power b. Stride rate c. Agility d. Stride length

b. Stride rate

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point? Select one: a. Inferior b. Superior c. Posterior d. Anterior

b. Superior

What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature? Select one: a. Uneven surfaces b. Supportive shoes c. Balance plates d. Soft mats

b. Supportive shoes

When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system? Select one: a. Central nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Somatic nervous system

b. Sympathetic nervous system

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Antagonist b. Synergist c. Stabilizer d. Agonist

b. Synergist

Informational support would be provided by which example? Select one: a. Letting a client know they are not alone in the process of losing weight b. Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day c. Working out alongside a client d. Holding the client accountable to lifting weights 3 days per week

b. Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex c. Upper trapezius d. Hip flexors

b. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? Select one: a. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions. b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP. c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.

b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia

c. Hypoglycemia

What is the most accurate description of motor control? Select one: a. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span b. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements c. The integration of motor control processes through practice d. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli

b. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body? Select one: a. The highest elevation of the body in space when walking b. The approximate midpoint of the body c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

b. The approximate midpoint of the body

Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. The direct roller compression leads to endocrine release of growth hormones, which leads to enhanced physical performance. b. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors. c. The direct roller compression increases eccentric contraction to enhance muscle hypertrophy after the session. d. The direct roller compression leads to delayed onset of muscle soreness 72 to 96 hours after rolling.

b. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.

What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)? Select one: a. The same as daily value (DV) b. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect c. The amount recommended for the average person to take d. The amount of a specific nutrient in a single serving

b. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test? Select one: a. The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered. b. The individual is tired from the test. c. Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise. d. Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.

b. The individual is tired from the test.

Social support is best described by which statement? Select one: a. Posting on social media about the recent successes of clients b. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior c. Providing counseling sessions with clients who exhibit signs of depression d. Rearranging a schedule to accommodate a client's availability

b. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior

What is atherosclerosis? Select one: a. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable b. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow c. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. d. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream

b. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? Select one: a. The trunk leaning forward b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears c. The scapula protruding excessively from the back d. The arms falling forward

b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. c. This stretch is too complicated for the older client. d. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles.

b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols c. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol d. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s

b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type IIa b. Type I c. Type IIc d. Type IIb

b. Type I

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Direct periodization b. Undulating periodization c. Localized periodization d. Linear periodization

b. Undulating periodization

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Validity c. Reliability d. Relevance

b. Validity

Which vitamin is the most transient? (Transient=water soluble) Select one: a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin C

Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. Are you taking any medications? b. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences? c. Do you have any injuries? d. Are you currently exercising?

b. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?

Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option? Select one: a. Working for a low-cost health club company b. Working for a premium health club company c. Creating online coaching programs d. Offering in-home training services

b. Working for a premium health club company

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise? Select one: a. Weightlifting b. Yardwork c. Cycling d. Running

b. Yardwork

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 3 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 4

b. Zone 2

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? Select one: a. 0.62 b. 0.92 c. 0.72 d. 0.22

c. 0.72

What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 1.6 g/kg of body weight b. 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight d. 1.2 g/kg of body weight

c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? Select one: a. 12,000 kcal b. 5,000 kcal c. 1,200 kcal d. 500 kcal

c. 1,200 kcal

How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine? Select one: a. 8 b. 5 c. 12 d. 10

c. 12

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 5.0 mL/kg/min b. 7.0 mL/kg/min c. 3.5 mL/kg/min d. 2.5 mL/kg/min

c. 3.5 mL/kg/min

At what age is total peak bone mass reached? Select one: a. 35 b. 18 c. 30 d. 25

c. 30

Which of the following is an example of linear periodization? Select one: a. Phase 4 and 5, each trained 2 days per week b. Phases 1 and 5 every other day c. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2 d. Phase 1, 2, and 5, each trained 1 day per week

c. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall? Select one: a. 55 cm b. 65 cm c. 45 cm d. 75 cm

c. 45 cm

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men? Select one: a. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple d. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula

c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men? Select one: a. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change. b. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline. c. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change. d. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels.

c. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Pyruvate b. Glycogen c. Acetoacetic acid d. Lactic acid

c. Acetoacetic acid

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Skill development b. Resistance training c. Activation d. Client's choice

c. Activation

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Select one: a. Aqua therapy b. Stable floor environment c. Biomechanical ankle platform system d. Weight training

c. Biomechanical ankle platform system

The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus c. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

c. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators

What is sarcopenia? Select one: a. Lower than normal bone mineral density b. Age-related loss in bone mineral density c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue d. Chronic inflammation of the joints

c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

Which of the following describes structural scoliosis? Select one: a. Improper muscle balance in the lower extremity b. Improper muscle balance in the spine c. Altered bone shape through the spine d. Altered bone shape through the lower extremity

c. Altered bone shape through the spine

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Hip abduction b. Ankle dorsiflexion c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Knee flexion

c. Ankle plantar flexion

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Concussions b. Medial collateral ligament injuries c. Ankle sprains d. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries

c. Ankle sprains

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Adductor complex c. Anterior and posterior tibialis d. Upper trapezius

c. Anterior and posterior tibialis

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics? Select one: a. Patellar fracture b. Foot injury c. Anterior cruciate ligament injury d. Shoulder injury

c. Anterior cruciate ligament injury

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch

c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

Kettlebells were first used in which setting? Select one: a. The Russian military b. Eastern European gymnastic programs c. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales d. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators

c. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Speed c. Assessment of visual stimuli d. Acceleration

c. Assessment of visual stimuli

Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement? Select one: a. At the widest point of the waist (while seated) b. At the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold (while standing) c. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing) d. At the widest portion of the buttocks (while standing with feet together)

c. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)

What causes coronary heart disease? Select one: a. Tuberculosis b. Cirrhosis c. Atherosclerosis d. Osteoporosis

c. Atherosclerosis

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system? Select one: a. Upper and lower b. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts c. Axial and appendicular d. Anterior and posterior

c. Axial and appendicular

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Water-soluble vitamins b. Fat-soluble vitamins c. B vitamins d. Vitamin C

c. B vitamins

Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions? Select one: a. Hinge b. Saddle c. Ball-and-socket d. Pivot

c. Ball-and-socket

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Acidosis b. Glycolysis c. Beta-oxidation d. Ketosis

c. Beta-oxidation

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Select one: a. Decreased volume and intensity b. Muscle mass atrophy c. Body fat loss d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

c. Body fat loss

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone? Select one: a. Sarcopenia b. Osteopenia c. Bone density d. Osteoporosis

c. Bone density

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Brachialis b. Biceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Triceps brachii

c. Brachioradialis

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight training b. TRX Rip Trainer c. Cable machines d. Terra-Core

c. Cable machines

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Young children and older adults b. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins c. Cancer and bleeding disorders d. Pregnancy and diabetes

c. Cancer and bleeding disorders

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is "cutting out all carbs" from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? Select one: a. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training. b. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine. c. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts. d. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss.

c. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Compression of the myofascia "tightens" the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction. b. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling. c. Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions. d. Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones.

c. Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body? Select one: a. Lateral b. Ipsilateral c. Contralateral d. Posterior

c. Contralateral

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome? Select one: a. Lack of social support b. Ambivalence c. Convenience d. Lack of time

c. Convenience

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Overload principle b. Wolff's law c. Davis's law d. Archimedes' principle

c. Davis's law

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Select one: a. Medicine ball throw b. Back squat c. Drawing-in maneuver d. Bracing

c. Drawing-in maneuver

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion? Select one: a. Overhead squat assessment b. Performance assessment c. Dynamic posture assessment d. Static posture assessment

c. Dynamic posture assessment

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality? Select one: a. Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations. b. Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises. c. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance. d. Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined.

c. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? Select one: a. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium b. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium d. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium

c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Erector spinae d. Gluteus medius

c. Erector spinae

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? Select one: a. Carbon molecules b. Peptide bonds c. Essential and nonessential amino acids d. Essential amino acids only

c. Essential and nonessential amino acids

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training? Select one: a. Seated exercises b. Exercises using selectorized machines c. Exercises with free weights d. Standing exercises on a gym floor

c. Exercises with free weights

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question? Select one: a. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast. b. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss. c. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable. d. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss.

c. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Select one: a. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis b. Bony scoliosis c. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis d. Permanent scoliosis

c. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Select one: a. Muscle spindles b. Interneurons c. Golgi tendon organs d. Joint receptors

c. Golgi tendon organs

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle

c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

What is the number one cause of death in the United States? Select one: a. Smoking b. Cancer c. Heart disease d. Obesity

c. Heart disease

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Hip flexors d. Hamstrings complex

c. Hip flexors

Self-esteem is defined by which of the following? Select one: a. How someone conceptualizes their place in society b. How someone views their physical self or how they visualize their body c. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially d. When someone is anxious about how others view their body

c. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Select one: a. Increased user safety b. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements c. Increased multiplanar movement d. Decreased challenges to balance and stability

c. Increased multiplanar movement

A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need? Select one: a. Companionship support b. Emotional support c. Informational support d. Instrumental support

c. Informational support

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure b. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Select one: a. Planking on a stable surface b. Marching on a stable surface c. Instability training using a stability ball d. Prone dead bugs on floor

c. Instability training using a stability ball

Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes? Select one: a. The pancreas does not make insulin. b. It can develop regardless of a healthy diet. c. Insulin resistance d. The body has low levels of insulin.

c. Insulin resistance

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training? Select one: a. Calcitonin b. Glucagon c. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) d. Cortisol

c. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries? Select one: a. Heart valve problem b. Arrhythmia c. Ischemic heart disease d. Hypertension

c. Ischemic heart disease

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. It involves expiring against a closed glottis. b. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension. d. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise? Select one: a. Jumping down requires more concentric force control. b. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions. c. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics. d. Jumping down lessens force deceleration.

c. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization? Select one: a. Letting feet turn out for support b. Performing reps as quickly as possible c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes d. Letting the knees cave inward

c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. c. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.

c. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Local and global muscles b. Global muscles c. Local muscles d. Back muscles only

c. Local muscles

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body? Select one: a. Leg region b. Back region c. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region d. Scapular region

c. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Macronutrient b. Vitamin c. Macromineral d. Trace mineral

c. Macromineral

What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body? Select one: a. Lateral b. Posterior c. Medial d. Anterior

c. Medial

Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions? Select one: a. Anxiety, poor posture, and ligament sprains b. Type 2 diabetes, anxiety, and muscle strains c. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries d. High blood pressure, muscle strains, and balance deficits

c. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder? Select one: a. Maximal Strength Training b. Power Training c. Muscular Development Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

c. Muscular Development Training

What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? Select one: a. Concentric control b. All-or-nothing principle c. Neuromuscular efficiency d. Eccentric control

c. Neuromuscular efficiency

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways? Select one: a. Neurocircuitry b. Remodeling c. Neuroplasticity d. Neuromotor skills

c. Neuroplasticity

Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees b. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched c. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion - d. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely

c. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

What is credible nutrition information? Select one: a. Nutrition information that is reported to be true b. Nutrition information that is supported by news and media c. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science d. Nutrition information that is believable

c. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science

At his first visit to his new fitness trainer, Robert's BMI was 37. According to this information, how would Robert be classified? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Underweight c. Obese d. Overweight

c. Obese

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility? Select one: a. Static posture assessment b. Dynamic posture assessment c. Performance assessment d. Overhead squat assessment

c. Performance assessment

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult? Select one: a. Neuromuscular control b. Sensorimotor function c. Perturbation d. Somatosensation

c. Perturbation

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 2 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 3

c. Phase 4

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Select one: a. Place a small board under the toes b. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature c. Place a small board under the heels d. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature

c. Place a small board under the heels

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Select one: a. Superior b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Lateral

c. Posterior

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Select one: a. Rate of force production b. Core strength c. Postural alignment d. Maximal muscular strength

c. Postural alignment

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Power Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

c. Power Training

What is the correct order of the Stages of Change? Select one: a. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance b. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance c. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance d. Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance

c. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. All-or-nothing principle b. Systematic approach c. Progressive overload d. SAID principle

c. Progressive overload

Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends? Select one: a. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients. b. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements. c. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed. d. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.

c. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.

When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's general orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key sensory function? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Stretch reflex c. Proprioception d. Wolff's law

c. Proprioception

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms? Select one: a. Asymmetrical resistance loading b. Feed-forward activation c. Proprioceptively enriched environment d. Integrative function

c. Proprioceptively enriched environment

Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position? Select one: a. Powerlifting b. Olympic weightlifting c. Quickness training d. Speed training

c. Quickness training

What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate? Select one: a. Femoral pulse b. Carotid pulse c. Radial pulse d. Pedal pulse

c. Radial pulse

Which of the following best describes the term power? Select one: a. Joint protection b. Muscle growth c. Rate of force production d. Sport-specific skills

c. Rate of force production

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? Select one: a. Lengthening reaction b. Synergistic dominance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Length-tension relationships

c. Reciprocal inhibition

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen? Select one: a. Intensity b. Frequency c. Recovery d. Volume

c. Recovery

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Select one: a. Core training b. Cardiorespiratory training c. Resistance training d. Balance training

c. Resistance training

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together? Select one: a. Scapular depression b. Scapular elevation c. Scapular retraction d. Scapular protraction

c. Scapular retraction

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Bench press c. Seated leg extension d. Overhead press

c. Seated leg extension

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Select one: a. Dynamic stretches b. Active stretches c. Self-myofascial techniques d. Sports drills

c. Self-myofascial techniques

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Select one: a. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion b. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse c. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change d. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening

c. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects? Select one: a. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm b. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement c. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid d. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach

c. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Select one: a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. b. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. d. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement.

c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues? Select one: a. Lack of social support b. Ambivalence c. Social physique anxiety d. Unrealistic goals

c. Social physique anxiety

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Select one: a. Visual system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. Hearing system

c. Somatosensory system

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex? Select one: a. Strains and heel spurs b. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints c. Sprains and plantar fasciitis d. Achilles tendonitis and athlete's foot

c. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct? Select one: a. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power b. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power d. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance

c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement? Select one: a. Strength-focused exercise b. Plyometric exercise c. Stabilization-focused exercise d. Balance exercise

c. Stabilization-focused exercise

Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow? Select one: a. Bench press strength b. 40-yard dash c. Static posture d. Single-leg squat

c. Static posture

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Barbell clean b. Depth jump c. Step-ups d. Single-leg squat

c. Step-ups

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Muscular-power phase b. Stretching phase c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Explosive-shortening phase

c. Stretch-shortening cycle

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? Select one: a. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. b. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities. c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. d. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling.

c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Select one: a. A collecting summary b. Change talk c. Sustain talk d. An affirmation

c. Sustain talk

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP? Select one: a. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation b. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation c. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation d. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain

c. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? Select one: a. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation b. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion c. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension d. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension

c. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

What is the definition of anthropometry? Select one: a. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body b. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface c. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion d. The measurement of a person's weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity

c. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following? Select one: a. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect. b. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action. c. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action. d. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action.

c. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. Groups rely only on the leader for support. b. Groups function only when all members are present. c. The group feels distinct from other people. d. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in.

c. The group feels distinct from other people.

How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. b. A disease characterized by low bone density. c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. d. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.

c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains? Select one: a. Pathology of disease b. Physiological systems c. The mind and behavior d. Neuromuscular adaptations

c. The mind and behavior

What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction b. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction d. The Z-lines moving farther apart

c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction? Select one: a. The sliding filament theory b. The site of muscular contractions c. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate d. Exposing actin-binding sites

c. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate

What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body? Select one: a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) c. Thermoregulation d. Peripheral vasodilation

c. Thermoregulation

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Heart function b. Kidney function c. Thyroid function d. Liver function

c. Thyroid function

What is defined as an individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage? Select one: a. Training frequency b. Training volume c. Training intensity d. Training duration

c. Training intensity

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Select one: a. Gestational b. Type 2 c. Type 1 d. Prediabetes

c. Type 1

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? Select one: a. Type IIx b. Type III c. Type I d. Type IIa

c. Type I

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. WHR of 0.83 b. WHR of 0.78 c. WHR of 0.88 d. WHR of 0.72

c. WHR of 0.88

Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk? Select one: a. Thigh b. Arm c. Waist d. Hips

c. Waist

What is the definition of energy balance? Select one: a. When daily food intake is consistent b. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown c. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs d. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout

c. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

When is a muscle considered overactive? Select one: a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation b. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment c. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction d. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity

c. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement? Select one: a. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror b. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity c. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body d. When someone has anxiety about social situations

c. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches? Select one: a. 1.18 b. 1.04 c. 0.97 d. 0.85

d. 0.85

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 118/78 mm Hg b. 124/80 mm Hg c. 143/92 mm Hg d. 135/80 mm Hg

d. 135/80 mm Hg

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Select one: a. 60 to 90 seconds b. Less than 15 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds

d. 15 to 60 seconds

Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification. Select one: a. 1.5 b. 3 c. 4.5 d. 2

d. 2

When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less? Select one: a. 1 in. b. 0.5 in. c. 1.5 in. d. 2 in.

d. 2 in.

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)? Select one: a. 90 minutes b. 45 minutes c. 60 minutes d. 30 minutes

d. 30 minutes

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein? Select one: a. 2 b. 6 c. 9 d. 4

d. 4

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. X-X-X-X b. 1-2-3-4 c. 2-0-2-0 d. 4-2-1-1

d. 4-2-1-1

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM b. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 4 times a week b. 6 times a week c. 3 times a week d. 5 times a week

d. 5 times a week

What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime? Select one: a. 90% b. 50% c. 30% d. 80%

d. 80%

What is forecasting? Select one: a. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well b. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale c. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs d. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

d. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. A cadence of 112 steps per minute b. A cadence of 36 steps per minute c. A cadence of 60 steps per minute d. A cadence of 96 steps per minute

d. A cadence of 96 steps per minute

What is the principle of specificity? Select one: a. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle b. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium c. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts d. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

d. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

What is homeostasis? Select one: a. A combination of influences that include education, income, and occupation b. A situation in which the human body is rapidly changing all the time c. Any abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of a part of the body d. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

d. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

What is the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts b. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach c. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

Which statement best describes the term deconditioned? Select one: a. A state in which the individual is out of breath when climbing a flight of stairs b. A state in which a person is overweight or obese and at risk for diabetes c. A state in which a person is dealing with a chronic health condition d. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability

d. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability

What is the primary function of the large intestine? Select one: a. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum b. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine c. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? Select one: a. Speed b. Quickness c. Power d. Agility

d. Agility

What are nonessential amino acids? Select one: a. The by-product of the breakdown of animal proteins b. Amino acids that must be consumed in dietary protein and cannot be created by the body c. Amino acids that are not required in the body d. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate

d. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg b. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome? Select one: a. Adductor complex (inner thighs) b. Hip flexors c. Upper trapezius d. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

d. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Lateral pelvic tilt b. Posterior pelvic tilt c. Medial pelvic tilt d. Anterior pelvic tilt

d. Anterior pelvic tilt

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? Select one: a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant. c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases. d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client? Select one: a. Asking the member for a personal phone number to use to follow up via texting b. Swapping social media handles so the trainer and client can follow each other c. Agreeing to call the potential client in 2 days to follow up d. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session

d. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial? Select one: a. Sandbag squat b. Machine leg press c. Barbell squats d. BOSU squat

d. BOSU squat

Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter? Select one: a. Stability ball wall squat b. Selectorized machine lat pull down c. Terra-Core push-up d. Barbell chest press

d. Barbell chest press

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted? Select one: a. Set point b. Action phase c. Transformation phase d. Baseline value

d. Baseline value

From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity? Select one: a. Muscular fitness b. Cardiorespiratory fitness c. Flexibility d. Body composition

d. Body composition

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Select one: a. Ball cobra b. Single-leg dumbbell scaption c. Standing dumbbell lateral raise d. Calf raise

d. Calf raise

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body? Select one: a. Proteins b. Lipids c. Amino acids d. Carbohydrates

d. Carbohydrates

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan? Select one: a. In-season training b. Off-season training c. Preseason training d. Cardio training

d. Cardio training

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms. b. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity. c. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Select one: a. Giant set b. Drop set c. Pyramid system d. Complex training

d. Complex training

Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like? Select one: a. Mindlessness b. Accountability c. Intensity d. Consistency

d. Consistency

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness b. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going c. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise d. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

d. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Select one: a. Core stability b. Core endurance c. Core power d. Core strength

d. Core strength

What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women? Select one: a. COPD b. Diabetes c. Cancer d. Coronary heart disease

d. Coronary heart disease

Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model? Select one: a. Powerlifter b. Avid resistance trainer c. Olympic weightlifter d. Cross-country runner

d. Cross-country runner

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Box jumps c. Single-leg hops d. Depth jumps

d. Depth jumps

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? Select one: a. The ileum of the small intestine b. The ileum of the large intestine c. Duodenum of the large intestine d. Duodenum of the small intestine

d. Duodenum of the small intestine

Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Stationary balance b. Static balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Dynamic balance

d. Dynamic balance

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Mobility b. Stability c. Proper movement d. Endurance

d. Endurance

What does the first law of thermodynamics state? Select one: a. Metabolic rate is constant. b. Food increases metabolic rate. c. All energy is converted to heat. d. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

d. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Multifidus c. Pelvic floor muscles d. Erector spinae

d. Erector spinae

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client? Select one: a. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would be best to stay longer than normal. b. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea. c. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day. d. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

d. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program? Select one: a. Foam pad b. BOSU ball c. Wobble board d. Firm surface

d. Firm surface

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? Select one: a. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work b. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work c. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes d. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

d. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Select one: a. Plyometrics b. Core c. Resistance d. Flexibility and cardio

d. Flexibility and cardio

What equation represents power? Select one: a. a2 + b2 = c2 b. Y = mx + b c. Time ÷ work d. Force x velocity

d. Force x velocity

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 b. Below VT1 c. Above VT2 d. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

d. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Lower trapezius c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus and medius

d. Gluteus maximus and medius

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system b. The electron transport chain c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Glycolysis

d. Glycolysis

In a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be an example of a strength? Select one: a. Competition from the other health clubs and training studios in the immediate area b. Needing to learn more about marketing and sales c. Taking a workshop to learn more about sales and marketing for fitness professionals d. Having the NASM-CPT credential

d. Having the NASM-CPT credential

The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called? Select one: a. Fight-or-flight response b. Neuromuscular efficiency c. Excitation-contraction coupling d. Homeostasis

d. Homeostasis

A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal? Select one: a. I want to run in the morning before work. b. I want to run 3 times per week. c. I want to run outside. d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Asking for referrals b. Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and longevity c. Discussing pricing options d. Identifying a customer's needs

d. Identifying a customer's needs

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased stroke volume b. Decreased heart rate c. Increased end-systolic volume d. Increased heart rate

d. Increased heart rate

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? Select one: a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate b. Increased lipogenesis c. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume d. Increased lipolysis

d. Increased lipolysis

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month's mesocycle? Select one: a. Cardio b. Resistance c. SAQ d. Reassessment

d. Reassessment

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency b. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability c. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Low-back arching c. Posterior pelvic tilt d. Knee valgus

d. Knee valgus

Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers? Select one: a. Convenience b. Ambivalence c. Unrealistic goals d. Lack of time

d. Lack of time

The B vitamins have a primary role in what? Select one: a. Hydration b. Cancer prevention c. Muscle contraction d. Macronutrient metabolism

d. Macronutrient metabolism

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Maximal Strength Training

d. Maximal Strength Training

What area of the chest contains the heart? Select one: a. Myofibril b. Atrium c. Ventricle d. Mediastinum

d. Mediastinum

What is adaptive thermogenesis? Select one: a. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake b. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure c. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure d. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

d. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Teres major d. Middle and lower trapezius

d. Middle and lower trapezius

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Select one: a. Medial gastrocnemius b. Lateral triceps brachii c. Lateral hamstrings d. Middle deltoid

d. Middle deltoid

How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health? Select one: a. High doses can be dangerous. b. It improves the immune system. c. High doses can improve heart health. d. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.-

d. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Core stability b. Balance c. Overall base strength d. Motor unit recruitment

d. Motor unit recruitment

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system? Select one: a. Coronary b. Vascular c. Digestive d. Muscular

d. Muscular

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance b. Maximal Strength c. Strength Endurance d. Muscular Development

d. Muscular Development

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training? Select one: a. Sarcopenia b. Osteopenia c. Muscular atrophy d. Muscular hypertrophy

d. Muscular hypertrophy

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? Select one: a. Sternum and clavicle b. Cranium and facial bones c. Scapula and humerus d. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

d. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Biomechanics b. Kinesiology c. Arthrokinematics d. Osteokinematics

d. Osteokinematics

Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest? Select one: a. Somatic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system

d. Parasympathetic nervous system

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents? Select one: a. Exercise groups b. Peers c. The community d. Parents

d. Parents

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises? Select one: a. Phase 4 Maximal Strength b. Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance c. Phase 3 Muscular Development d. Phase 5 Power

d. Phase 5 Power

When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Oxidation b. ATP-PC c. Transformation d. Phosphorylation

d. Phosphorylation

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client? Select one: a. Diagnosing balance disorders b. Prescribing medications or supplements to improve components of the balance system (e.g., vision, vestibular, somatosensation) c. Performing medical rehabilitation with the client for their balance deficits d. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history

d. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions? Select one: a. Business practice b. Confidentiality c. Legal and ethical d. Professionalism

d. Professionalism

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what? Select one: a. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells b. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities c. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2 d. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

d. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training? Select one: a. Explosive power b. Jump height c. Amortization speed d. Proper technique

d. Proper technique

Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect? Select one: a. Fat b. Carbohydrate c. Glycogen d. Protein

d. Protein

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Overhead press b. Pushing assessment c. Bench press strength assessment d. Push-up test

d. Push-up test

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions? Select one: a. Hamstrings b. Adductor complex c. Sartorius d. Quadriceps

d. Quadriceps

Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase? Select one: a. Muscle growth b. Muscular endurance c. Stability d. Rate of force production

d. Rate of force production

How are dietary supplements defined? Select one: a. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals b. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders c. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients d. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

d. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss? Select one: a. Avoiding a food group (e.g., fats or carbohydrates) b. Replacing high-fiber foods with low-fiber options c. Limiting meals to once a day d. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

d. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. Jogging/running b. Sports competition c. Rowing d. Resistance training

d. Resistance training

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium

d. Right atrium

Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? Select one: a. Active stretching of the hamstrings b. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps c. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings d. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

d. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Select one: a. Intention b. Attitudes c. Outcome expectations d. Self-efficacy

d. Self-efficacy

Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)? Select one: a. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press b. Stability ball push-up c. Squat jump d. Shoulder/military press

d. Shoulder/military press

Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Decreased oxygen delivery b. Fewer capillaries c. Short-term contractions d. Slow to fatigue

d. Slow to fatigue

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? Select one: a. Heart rate cardio b. Long continuous runs c. Steady-state treadmill workouts d. Small circuits

d. Small circuits

Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation? Select one: a. Behavioral health b. Global state of health c. Emotional health d. Socioeconomic status

d. Socioeconomic status

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Select one: a. Developmental psychology b. Social psychology c. Health psychology d. Sport and exercise psychology

d. Sport and exercise psychology

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system? Select one: a. Standing on two limbs catching a ball b. Standing on two limbs with eyes open c. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb d. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

d. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Strength b. Power c. Endurance d. Stability

d. Stability

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Select one: a. Ball bridge b. Floor bridge c. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver d. Standing cable hip extension

d. Standing cable hip extension

What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes? Select one: a. Physical therapist b. Group fitness instructor c. Certified Personal Trainer d. Strength and conditioning coach

d. Strength and conditioning coach

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight training b. Resistance bands c. Terra-Core d. Strength machines

d. Strength machines

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel? Select one: a. Intermittent claudication b. Peripheral arterial disease c. Heart failure d. Stroke

d. Stroke

The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites? Select one: a. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac b. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen c. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school's rugby team? Select one: a. The talk test b. Rockport 1-mile walk test c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

d. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of? Select one: a. The remote control for the TVs or sound system b. Rags and cleaning supplies c. The vacuum cleaner, in case a personal trainer has to clean during the shift d. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

d. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

Which of the following would be a credible source of nutrition information? Select one: a. The Washington Post b. Social media c. A newspaper review article d. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics

d. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. c. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The assembled environment b. The constructed environment c. The manufactured environment d. The built environment

d. The built environment

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is continuous in nature. c. The exercise is rhythmic. d. The exercise is intense.

d. The exercise is intense.

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength. b. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise b. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise c. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise d. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

d. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure? Select one: a. The midline of the pelvis of the participant b. The head of the participant c. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant d. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

d. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia? Select one: a. Health Canada b. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

Which of the following is true of protein shakes? Select one: a. They are required to build muscle. b. They are dangerous and should be avoided. c. They are a poor choice for recovery. d. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

d. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? Select one: a. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron b. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons c. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body d. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

d. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

Lardosis

increase in lumbar curvature Forward rounding of back (Excessive arching)

Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers? Select one: a. To abide by federal guidelines that require continuing education units for allied health professionals b. To promote economic prosperity for the fitness industry and certifying organizations c. To elevate the fitness professional's status and reputation within the fitness community d. To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry

d. To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry

What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Force velocity b. Arthrokinematics c. Force d. Torque

d. Torque

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Axial b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Transverse

d. Transverse

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Erector spinae c. Latissimus dorsi d. Transverse abdominis

d. Transverse abdominis

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Medicine ball chest pass b. Soccer throw c. Front medicine ball oblique throw d. Two-arm push press

d. Two-arm push press

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation? Select one: a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis b. Type 1 diabetes c. Type 2 diabetes d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease? Select one: a. Appendicitis b. Flu c. Strep throat d. Type 2 diabetes

d. Type 2 diabetes

In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5? Select one: a. Obese b. Healthy weight c. Class II obesity d. Underweight

d. Underweight

What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)? Select one: a. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine b. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine c. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine d. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

d. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

Which three senses are involved in the balance system? Select one: a. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems b. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems c. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems d. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

d. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. Fruit juice b. An isotonic sports drink c. A hypertonic sports drink d. Water

d. Water

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell? Select one: a. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same. b. A kettlebell is heavier. c. A dumbbell is safer. d. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

d. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test c. Rockport 1-mile walk test d. YMCA 3-minute step test

d. YMCA 3-minute step test

Kyphosis

excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back.

Catecholamines

hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla that affect the sympathetic nervous system in stress response dopamine, adrenaline, etc

Contraindications

specific signs or circumstances under which it is not appropriate and may be harmful to exercised

Vestibular Sense

the sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance head side to side