NASM CPT Final Exam
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Select one: a. Strength Endurance b. Power c. Stabilization Endurance d. Maximal Strength
a. Strength Endurance
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Subscapularis b. Scalenes c. Infraspinatus d. Anterior tibialis
a. Subscapularis
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Hip abductors c. Hip extensors d. Hip internal rotators
b. Hip abductors
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isometric b. Isokinetic c. Eccentric d. Concentric
b. Isokinetic
Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. EDL (elevated-density lipoprotein) b. LDL (low-density lipoprotein) c. HDL (high-density lipoprotein) d. MDL (medium-density lipoprotein)
b. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)
Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion b. Lead leg c. Knee extension d. Rear leg
b. Lead leg
Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Trace mineral b. Macromineral c. Vitamin d. Macronutrient
b. Macromineral
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted c. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
B. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? Select one: a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases. c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases. d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
B. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Client's choice c. Activation d. Skill development
C. Activation
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Select one: a. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. b. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. c. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
D. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 135/80 mm Hg b. 143/92 mm Hg c. 124/80 mm Hg d. 118/78 mm Hg
a. 135/80 mm Hg
What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue b. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue c. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength d. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
a. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Select one: a. Altered movement patterns b. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods c. Ability to stretch only one muscle d. Ability to stretch in small increments
a. Altered movement patterns
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch c. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Isometric contraction c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Stretch reflex
a. Autogenic inhibition
For what is vitamin D most important? Select one: a. Bone health b. Skin pigmentation c. Hair growth d. Eyesight
a. Bone health
Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Select one: a. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. b. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency. c. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients. d. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization.
a. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.
What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats? Select one: a. Diastolic blood pressure b. Pulse c. Hypertension d. Systolic blood pressure
a. Diastolic blood pressure
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Internal oblique c. Multifidus d. Transversus abdominis
a. Erector spinae
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Family b. The community c. Exercise group d. Exercise leader
a. Family
Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells? Select one: a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head b. Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head c. Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck d. Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders
a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius and soleus b. Upper trapezius c. Hip flexors d. Adductor complex
a. Gastrocnemius and soleus
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Hip flexor c. Erector spinae d. Gluteus maximus
a. Gluteus medius
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Proprioceptive plyometrics c. Depth jumps d. Squat jump
a. Ice skaters
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual? Select one: a. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test. b. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test. c. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test. d. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.
a. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Medicine balls b. Strength machines c. Kettlebells d. BOSU balls
a. Medicine balls
Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion b. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees c. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely d. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched
a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? Select one: a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. b. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching. c. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling. d. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.
a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? Select one: a. Quickness b. Strength c. Speed d. Agility
a. Quickness
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Rotator cuff muscles c. Deltoid d. Rhomboids
a. Serratus anterior
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Side plank b. Floor crunch c. Cable rotation d. Medicine ball soccer throw
a. Side plank
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vision c. Vestibular d. Sensorimotor function
a. Somatosensation
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Select one: a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Rhomboids c. Diaphragm d. Upper trapezius
a. Sternocleidomastoid
What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols b. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats c. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s d. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol
a. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground. Select one: a. Vestibular b. Sensorimotor function c. Somatosensory d. Visual
a. Vestibular
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? Select one: a. 3 or 4 sessions per week b. 1 or 2 sessions per week c. 5 to 7 sessions per week d. 0 sessions per week
b. 1 or 2 sessions per week
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet? Select one: a. 5 to 20% of total calories b. 20 to 35% of total calories c. 10 to 35% of total calories d. 45 to 65% of total calories
b. 20 to 35% of total calories
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed? Select one: a. 2 seconds b. 4 seconds c. 3 seconds d. 1 second
b. 4 seconds
What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? Select one: a. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do. b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. c. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers d. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers
b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ADP and water b. ATP and water c. ATP and oxygen d. ADP and hydrogen ions
b. ATP and water
Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function? Select one: a. Lung cancer b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) c. Hypertension d. Asthma
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature? Select one: a. Lat pulldown b. Close grip bench press c. Ball cobra d. Seated cable row
b. Close grip bench press
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? Select one: a. Duodenum of the large intestine b. Duodenum of the small intestine c. The ileum of the small intestine d. The ileum of the large intestine
b. Duodenum of the small intestine
According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Stability b. Endurance c. Mobility d. Proper movement
b. Endurance
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? Select one: a. Affiliation motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Autonomy motivation d. Intrinsic motivation
b. Extrinsic motivation
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Select one: a. Strength and stabilization b. Growth and volume c. Growth and stabilization d. Strength and volume
b. Growth and volume
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Posture specificity b. Mechanical specificity c. Neuromuscular specificity d. Metabolic specificity
b. Mechanical specificity
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Butt kick b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Tuck jump d. Power step-up
b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull? Select one: a. Pivot b. Nonsynovial c. Condyloid d. Ball-and-socket
b. Nonsynovial
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization training b. Plyometric training c. SAQ training d. Power training
b. Plyometric training
Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Select one: a. Rate of force production b. Postural alignment c. Maximal muscular strength d. Core strength
b. Postural alignment
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder? Select one: a. Rotator cuff tear b. Shoulder impingement c. Dislocation of the shoulder d. Frozen shoulder
b. Shoulder impingement
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Select one: a. Atrioventricular node b. Sinoatrial node c. Intercalated discs d. Right bundle branch
b. Sinoatrial node
Balance is best described as which of the following? Select one: a. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position c. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate d. The ability to maintain control of the body while in motion
b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Axial d. Sagittal
b. Transverse
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Select one: a. Dumbbells b. ViPR c. Strength machines d. Suspended bodyweight training
b. ViPR
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C, D, and K b. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins c. Vitamin C, B complex, and K d. Vitamin C, B complex, and D
b. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
What is forecasting? Select one: a. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale b. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal d. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well
c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) d. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week
c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial? Select one: a. Machine leg press b. Sandbag squat c. BOSU squat d. Barbell squats
c. BOSU squat
When a person is ambivalent about changing, what stage of change are they likely in? Select one: a. Action b. Maintenance c. Contemplation d. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Select one: a. Fitness manager b. General manager c. Exercise leader d. Certified Personal Trainer
c. Exercise leader
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring? Select one: a. Supination and pronation b. Abduction and extension c. Flexion and extension d. Adduction and abduction
c. Flexion and extension
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. Below VT1 b. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 d. Above VT2
c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability b. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency d. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone? Select one: a. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods b. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods d. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods
c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Anterior chain b. Transverse plane c. Posterior chain d. Sagittal plane
c. Posterior chain
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle
c. Right atrium
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Rectus abdominis c. Rotatores d. Latissimus dorsi
c. Rotatores
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Amortization phase b. Loading phase c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Unloading phase
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Explosive-shortening phase b. Muscular-power phase c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Stretching phase
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? Select one: a. Series elastic component b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Cardiac output b. Venous return c. Stroke volume d. Resting heart rate
c. Stroke volume
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. The sight, hearing, and taste systems b. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems d. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.
c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis? Select one: a. Mesocycle b. Linear c. Undulating d. Macrocycle
c. Undulating
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Hip flexors c. Upper trapezius d. Lower trapezius
c. Upper trapezius
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 0 sets c. 7 to 9 sets d. 1 to 4 sets
d. 1 to 4 sets
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight b. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? Select one: a. 60 to 90 seconds b. 0 to 15 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds
d. 15 to 60 seconds
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? Select one: a. 90 to 120 seconds b. 0 to 15 seconds c. 60 to 90 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds
d. 15 to 60 seconds
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed? Select one: a. 1 second b. 4 seconds c. 3 seconds d. 2 seconds
d. 2 seconds
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. 1-2-3-4 b. X-X-X-X c. 2-0-2-0 d. 4-2-1-1
d. 4-2-1-1
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Select one: a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) b. Overhead squat c. Pro shuttle d. 40-yard dash
d. 40-yard dash
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Autogenic inhibition
d. Autogenic inhibition
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Select one: a. Aqua therapy b. Stable floor environment c. Weight training d. Biomechanical ankle platform system
d. Biomechanical ankle platform system
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Select one: a. Core power b. Core stability c. Core endurance d. Core strength
d. Core strength
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Wolff's law b. Archimedes' principle c. Overload principle d. Davis's law
d. Davis's law
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Gluteus medius d. Erector spinae
d. Erector spinae
How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. b. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. c. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. d. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
d. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips c. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward d. Forward head and protracted shoulders
d. Forward head and protracted shoulders
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Oxidation b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Glycolysis d. Gluconeogenesis
d. Gluconeogenesis
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. Oxidative phosphorylation b. The ATP-PC system c. The electron transport chain d. Glycolysis
d. Glycolysis
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. Vertical jump b. 40-yard dash c. Pro shuttle d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Core stability b. Overall base strength c. Balance d. Motor unit recruitment
d. Motor unit recruitment
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? Select one: a. Nonsynovial b. Condyloid c. Synovial d. Nonaxial
d. Nonaxial
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency. Select one: a. Maintenance b. Contemplation c. Precontemplation d. Preparation
d. Preparation
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium
d. Right atrium
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? Select one: a. TRX Rip Trainer b. Battle ropes c. Strength machines d. Sandbags
d. Sandbags
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo? Select one: a. Intensity b. Training duration c. Rest interval d. Speed
d. Speed
What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction b. The Z-lines moving farther apart c. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Select one: a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Rectus abdominis c. Diaphragm d. Transverse abdominis
d. Transverse abdominis
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Auditory system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. Visual system
d. Visual system
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Variables and pattern b. Velocity and pattern c. Variables and progression d. Volume and progression
d. Volume and progression
