Nclex Saunders Q&A Pt. 2
The client is receiving meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for pain. Which are side/adverse effects of this medication? Select all that apply.
- Tremors - Drowsiness - Hypotension Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Side/adverse effects include respiratory depression, drowsiness, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, vomiting, and tremors.
Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. Which laboratory result indicates that the heparin is prescribed at a therapeutic level?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 55 seconds The aPTT will assess the therapeutic effect of Heparin sodium. The PT and INR will assess for the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium (Coumadin). A decreased thrombocyte count can cause bleeding.
A client sustains a contusion of the eyeball after a traumatic injury with a blunt object. The nurse should take which immediate action?
Apply ice to the affected eye. Treatment for a contusion begins at the time of injury. Ice is applied immediately. The client should receive a thorough eye examination to rule out the presence of other eye injuries. Eye irrigation is not indicated in a contusion
The nurse is caring for a client with glaucoma. Which medication prescribed for the client should the nurse question?
Atropine sulfate (Isopto Atropine) - eye drops a mydriatic and cycloplegic medication, and its use is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma.
The nurse is calculating a client's 24-hour fluid intake. The client consumed coffee (8 oz), water (8 oz), and orange juice (6 oz) for breakfast; soup (4 oz) and iced tea (8 oz) for lunch; and milk (10 oz), tea (8 oz), and water (8 oz) for dinner. The client also consumed 24 oz of water during the day. How many milliliters of fluid did the client consume in the 24-hour period? Fill in the blank.
2520 mL The client consumed a total of 84 oz of fluid. Because 1 oz is equal to 30 mL, multiply 84 oz by 30 mL/oz. This yields 2520 mL.
The client who has a cold is seen in the emergency department with an inability to void. Because the client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse determines that the client should be questioned about the use of which medication?
Decongestants Episodes of urinary retention can be triggered by certain medications such as decongestants, anticholinergics, and antidepressants. Diuretics, antibiotics, and antitussives generally do not trigger urinary retention. Retention also can be precipitated by other factors such as alcoholic beverages, infection, bed rest, and becoming chilled.
The client with myasthenia gravis is suspected of having cholinergic crisis. Which sign/symptom indicates this crisis is taking place?
Hypertension Cholinergic crisis occurs as a result of an overdose of medication. Indications of cholinergic crisis include gastrointestinal disturbances, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, increased salivation and tearing, miosis, hypertension, sweating, and increased bronchial secretions.
The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which change in vital signs would occur if ICP is rising?
Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased ICP. Trends include increasing temperature and BP and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities may also arise.
The nurse is evaluating the client's use of a cane for left-sided weakness. The nurse should intervene and correct the client if the nurse observed that the client performed which action?
Moves the cane when the right leg is moved The cane is held on the stronger side to minimize stress on the affected extremity and provide a wide base of support. The cane is held 6 inches lateral to the fifth great toe. The cane is moved forward with the affected leg. The client leans on the cane for added support, while the stronger side swings through.
The nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. The nurse is monitoring the behavior of the client and understands that the client with anorexia nervosa manages anxiety by which action?
Observing rigid rules and regulations Clients with anorexia nervosa have the desire to please others. Their need to be correct or perfect interferes with rational decision-making processes. These clients are moralistic. Rules and rituals help the clients manage their anxiety.
The nurse is preparing a list of home care instructions for the client who has been hospitalized and treated for tuberculosis. Which instructions should the nurse reinforce? Select all that apply.
- Activities should be resumed gradually. - A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. - Respiratory isolation is not necessary because family members have already been exposed. - Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and confine used tissues to plastic bags. The nurse should provide the client and family with information about tuberculosis and allay concerns about the contagious aspect of the infection. The client is reassured that after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy, it is unlikely that the client will infect anyone. The client is also informed that activities should be resumed gradually. The client and family are informed that respiratory isolation is not necessary, because family members have already been exposed. The client is instructed about thorough hand washing and to cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and confine used tissues to plastic bags. The client is informed that a sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated and that when the results of three sputum cultures are negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and can usually return to his or her former employment.
A client with a seizure disorder is being admitted to the hospital. Which should the nurse plan to implement for this client? Select all that apply.
- Pad the bed's side rails. - Place an airway at the bedside. - Place oxygen equipment at the bedside. - Place suction equipment at the bedside. The nurse should plan seizure precautions for a client with a seizure disorder. The precautions include padded side rails and an airway, and oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside. Attempts to force a padded tongue blade between clenched teeth may result in injury to the teeth and mouth; therefore a padded tongue blade is not placed at the bedside.
The nurse is preparing a client for the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship. Which task should the nurse appropriately plan for this phase?
Assist in making appropriate referrals. Tasks of the termination phase include evaluating client performance, evaluating achievement of expected outcomes, evaluating future needs, making appropriate referrals, and dealing with the common behaviors associated with termination.
Pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine) is prescribed for the client with glaucoma. Which medication should the nurse plan to have available in the event of systemic toxicity?
Atropine sulfate Systemic absorption of pilocarpine hydrochloride can produce toxicity and includes manifestations of vertigo, bradycardia, tremors, hypotension, and seizures. Atropine sulfate must be available in the event of systemic toxicity.
A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and is receiving continuous bladder irrigations postoperatively. Which are the signs/symptoms of transurethral resection (TUR) syndrome?
Bradycardia and confusion TUR syndrome is caused by increased absorption of nonelectrolyte irrigating fluid used during surgery. The client may show signs of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure, such as increased blood pressure, bradycardia, confusion, disorientation, muscle twitching, visual disturbances, and nausea and vomiting.
A client is brought to the emergency department by the ambulance team after collapse at home. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is attempted but is unsuccessful. The wife of the client tells the nurse that the client is an organ donor and that his eyes are to be donated. Which action should the nurse take next?
Close the eyes, elevate the head of the bed, and place a small ice pack on the eyes. When a corneal donor dies, antibiotic eyedrops may be prescribed and instilled. The eyes are closed and a small ice pack is placed on the closed eyes. The head of the bed is raised to 30 degrees to prevent edema. Within 2 to 4 hours, the eyes are enucleated. The cornea is usually transplanted within 24 to 48 hours. Option 1 is incorrect because dry dressings are not applied. Some organ donation protocols indicate using normal saline-moistened gauze. Option 2 is not an immediate action. In addition, the client should have a signed donor card, living will, or an organ donor-identified driver's license stating his or her wishes. Additional legal documentation should not be required. Agency procedures regarding donor care should be followed.
A child with leukemia is experiencing nausea related to medication therapy. The nurse, concerned about the child's nutritional status, should offer which during an episode of nausea?
Cool, clear liquids When the child is nauseated, it is best to offer frequent intake of cool, clear liquids in small amounts because small portions are usually better tolerated. Cool, clear fluids are also soothing and better tolerated when a client is nauseated. It is best not to offer favorite foods when the child is nauseated because foods eaten during times of nausea will be associated with being sick. It is best to offer small, frequent meals of high-protein and high-calorie content once the nausea has been controlled with medication or has subsided.
A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?
Crackles Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles. Wheezes, rhonchi, and diminished breath sounds are not associated with pulmonary edema.
The nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position would require intervention by the nurse?
Head turned to the side The head of the client with increased ICP should be positioned so that the head is in a neutral, midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the neck or turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep ICP down.
The client was seen and treated in the emergency department (ED) for a concussion. Before discharge, the nurse explains the signs/symptoms of a worsening condition. The nurse determines that the family needs further teaching if they state they will return to the ED if the client experiences which sign/symptom?
Minor headache A concussion after head injury is a temporary loss of consciousness (from a few seconds to a few minutes) without evidence of structural damage. After concussion, the family is taught to monitor the client and call the health care provider or return the client to the emergency department if certain signs and symptoms are noted. These include confusion, difficulty awakening or speaking, one-sided weakness, vomiting, or severe headache. Minor headache is expected.
A client taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 month returns to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Which should indicate medication effectiveness?
No rapid heartbeats or anxiety Buspirone hydrochloride is not recommended for the treatment of drug or alcohol withdrawal, paranoid thought disorders, or schizophrenia (thought broadcasting or delusions). Buspirone hydrochloride is most often indicated for the treatment of anxiety and aggression.
The nursing student is developing a plan of care for the hospitalized client with bulimia nervosa. The nursing instructor intervenes if the student documents which incorrect intervention in the plan?
Observe for excessive exercise. Excessive exercise is a characteristic of anorexia nervosa, not bulimia nervosa. Frequent vomiting, in addition to laxative and diuretic abuse, may lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring for both dehydration and electrolyte imbalance is an important nursing action. Option 3 is the only option that is not associated with care of the client with bulimia.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of major depression. During the admission interview, the nurse determines that a major concern is the client's altered nutrition related to poor nutritional intake. Which nursing intervention related to altered nutrition should be the initial choice?
Offer the client several small, frequent meals daily, and schedule brief nursing interactions with the client during these times. Change in appetite is one of the major symptoms of depression. Offering the client several small, frequent meals and the nurse's presence at that time to support, encourage, or perhaps even feed the client is the most appropriate intervention. A client with depression experiences poor concentration and will not understand the importance of an adequate nutritional intake. Weighing the client does not address how to increase nutritional intake. Reporting the nutritional problems to the psychiatrist is correct to some degree, but it does not address how one might increase food intake.
The nurse is assisting in planning care for a client being admitted to the nursing unit who has attempted suicide. Which priority nursing intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
One-to-one suicide precautions One-to-one suicide precautions are required for the client who has attempted suicide. Options 2 and 3 are not appropriate, considering the situation. Option 4 may be an appropriate nursing intervention, but the priority is stated in option 1. The best option is constant supervision so that the nurse may intervene as needed if the client attempts to cause harm to him or herself.
Methenamine (Urex), a urinary antiseptic, is prescribed for the client. The nurse reviews the client's medical record and should contact the health care provider regarding which documented finding to verify the prescription? Refer to chart.
Renal insufficiency Methenamine is a urinary antiseptic. Methenamine can cause crystalluria and should not be used in clients with renal impairment.Therefore, the nurse would verify the prescription if the client had a documented history of renal insufficiency. The laboratory and diagnostic test results are normal findings. Folic acid (vitamin B6) may be prescribed for a client with renal insufficiency to prevent anemia.
The nurse is caring for a client who is hearing-impaired and should take which approach to facilitate communication?
Speak in a normal tone. It is important to speak in a normal tone to the client with impaired hearing and avoid shouting. The nurse should talk directly to the client while facing the client and should speak clearly. If the client does not seem to understand what is said, the nurse should express it differently. Moving closer to the client and toward the better ear may facilitate communication, but it is important to avoid talking directly into the impaired ear.
The nurse is monitoring a client following cardioversion. Which observations should be of highest priority to the nurse?
Status of airway Nursing responsibilities after cardioversion include maintenance of a patent airway, oxygen administration, assessment of vital signs and level of consciousness, and dysrhythmia detection. Airway is the priority.
A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for a possible adverse event after giving this medication?
Suction equipment Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. The nurse administering this medication as a mucolytic should have suction equipment available in case the client cannot manage to clear the increased volume of liquefied secretions.
A mother of a teenage client with an anxiety disorder is concerned about her daughter's progress on discharge. She states that her daughter "stashes food, eats all the wrong things that make her hyperactive," and "hangs out with the wrong crowd." In helping the mother prepare for her daughter's discharge, the nurse should suggest which?
The mother should restrict the amount of chocolate and caffeine products in the home. Clients with anxiety disorder should abstain from or limit their intake of caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol. These products have the potential of increasing anxiety. Options 1 and 3 are unreasonable and are an unhealthy approach. It may not be realistic for a family member to take time away from work.
Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication?
To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving glipizide (Glucotrol). Which outcome indicates an ineffective response from the medication?
A glycosylated hemoglobin level of 12% Glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral hypoglycemic agent administered to decrease the serum glucose level and the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia. Therefore, a decrease in both polyuria and polyphagia would indicate a therapeutic response. Laboratory values are also used to monitor a client's response to treatment. A fasting blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within normal limits. However, glycosylated hemoglobin of 12% indicates poor glycemic control.
The nurse notes that the health care provider has documented a diagnosis of presbycusis on the client's chart. The nurse understands that this condition is accurately described as which?
A sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging. It is a gradual sensorineural loss caused by nerve degeneration in the inner ear or auditory nerve.
The client is receiving an eyedrop and an eye ointment to the right eye. Which action should the nurse take?
Administer the eyedrop first, followed by the eye ointment. When an eyedrop and an eye ointment is scheduled to be administered at the same time, the eyedrop is administered first.
The client is diagnosed with stage I of Lyme disease. The nurse should check the client for which characteristic of this stage?
Flu-like symptoms The hallmark of stage I is the development of a skin rash within 2 to 30 days of infection, generally at the site of the tick bite. The rash develops into a concentric ring, giving it a bull's-eye appearance. The lesion enlarges up to 50 to 60 cm, and smaller lesions develop farther away from the original tick bite. In stage I, most infected persons develop flu-like symptoms that last 7 to 10 days; these symptoms may reoccur later. Arthralgias and joint enlargements are most likely to occur in stage III. Neurological deficits occur in stage II.
The nurse is assigned to care for a client with cytomegalovirus retinitis and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving foscarnet. The nurse should check the latest result of which laboratory study while the client is taking this medication?
Serum creatinine Foscarnet is toxic to the kidneys. Serum creatinine is monitored before therapy, two to three times per week during induction therapy and at least weekly during maintenance therapy. Foscarnet may also cause decreased levels of calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, and potassium. Thus, these levels are also measured with the same frequency.
Which electrocardiogram changes would the nurse note on the cardiac monitor with a client whose potassium (K+) level is 2.7 mEq/L?
U waves A serum potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L is indicative of hypokalemia. Potassium deficit is the most common electrolyte imbalance and is potentially life threatening. Cardiac changes with hypokalemia may include peaked P waves, flattened T waves, depressed ST segment, and the presence of U waves.
Which interventions would apply in the care of a client at high risk for an allergic response to a latex allergy? Select all that apply.
- Use nonlatex gloves. - Use medications from glass ampules. - Do not puncture rubber stoppers with needles. - Keep a latex-safe supply cart available in the client's area. If a client is allergic to latex and is at high risk for an allergic response, the nurse would use nonlatex gloves and latex-safe supplies and would keep a latex-safe supply cart available in the client's area. Any supplies or materials that contain latex would be avoided. These include blood pressure cuffs and medication bottles with rubber stoppers that require puncture with a needle. It is not necessary to place the client in a private room.
Which individual is least at risk for the development of Kaposi's sarcoma?
An individual working in an environment where exposure to asbestos exists Kaposi's sarcoma is a vascular malignancy that presents as a skin disorder and is a common acquired immunodeficiency syndrome indicator. It is seen frequently in men with a history of same-sex partners. Although the cause of Kaposi's sarcoma is not known, it is considered to be the result of an alteration or failure in the immune system. The renal transplant client and the client receiving antineoplastic medications are at risk for immunosuppression. Exposure to asbestos is not related to the development of Kaposi's sarcoma.
A client calls the office of his primary care health care provider and tells the nurse that he was just stung by a bumblebee while gardening. The client is afraid of a severe reaction because his neighbor experienced such a reaction just 1 week ago. Which is the appropriate nursing action?
Ask the client if he ever sustained a bee sting in the past. In some types of allergies, a reaction occurs only on second and subsequent contacts with the allergen. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to ask the client if he ever received a bee sting in the past. Option 1 is not appropriate advice. Option 3 is unnecessary. The client should not be told "not to worry."
Saquinavir (Invirase) is prescribed for the client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive. The nurse reinforces medication instructions and should provide the client with which health care measure?
Avoid sun exposure. Saquinavir (Invirase) is an antiretroviral (protease inhibitor) used with other antiretroviral medications to manage human immunodeficiency virus infection. Saquinavir is administered with meals and is best absorbed if the client consumes high-calorie, high-fat meals. Saquinavir can cause photosensitivity, and the nurse should instruct the client to avoid sun exposure.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe depression. Which activity is appropriate for this client?
Drawing Concentration and memory are poor in a client with severe depression. When a client has a diagnosis of severe depression, the nurse needs to provide activities that require little concentration. Activities that have no right or wrong choices or decisions minimize opportunities for the client to put down himself or herself. The nurse can also process the client's feelings by sitting with the client and talking or encouraging the client to write in a journal.
A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse monitors this client for which signs/symptoms of this disorder?
Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand
The client with spinal cord injury suddenly experiences an episode of autonomic dysreflexia. After checking vital signs, which immediate action should the nurse take?
Raise the head of the bed and remove the noxious stimulus Key nursing actions are to sit the client up in bed, remove the noxious stimulus, and bring the blood pressure under control with antihypertensive medication per protocol. The nurse can also clearly label the client's chart identifying the risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Client and family should be taught to recognize, and later manage, the signs and symptoms of this syndrome.
The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving didanosine (Videx). The nurse interprets that the client may have the medication discontinued by the health care provider if which significantly elevated result is noted?
Serum amylase Didanosine (Videx) can cause pancreatitis. A serum amylase level that is increased 1.5 to 2 times normal may signify pancreatitis in the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and is potentially fatal. The medication may have to be discontinued. The medication is also hepatotoxic and can result in liver failure.
A postoperative client requests medication for flatulence (gas pains). Which medication from the following PRN list should the nurse administer to this client?
Simethicone (Mylicon) Simethicone is an antiflatulent used in the relief of pain caused by excessive gas in the gastrointestinal tract. Ondansetron is used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Acetaminophen is a nonopioid analgesic. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and laxative.
A client being discharged from the hospital to home with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB) is worried about the possibility of infecting family members and others. Which information should reassure the client that contaminating family members and others is not likely?
The family will receive prophylactic therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 consecutive weeks of medication therapy. Family members or others who have been in close contact with a client diagnosed with TB are placed on prophylactic therapy with isoniazid for 6 to 12 months. The client is usually not contagious after taking medication for 2 to 3 consecutive weeks. However, the client must take the full course of therapy (for 6 months or longer) to prevent reinfection or drug-resistant TB.
The nurse prepares to give a bath and change the bed linens on a client with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma lesions. The lesions are open and draining a scant amount of serous fluid. Which should the nurse incorporate in the plan during the bathing of this client?
Wearing a gown and gloves Gowns and gloves are required if the nurse anticipates contact with soiled items, such as wound drainage, or while caring for a client who is incontinent with diarrhea or a client who has an ileostomy or colostomy. Masks are not required unless droplet or airborne precautions are necessary. Regardless of the amount of wound drainage, a gown and gloves must be worn.
Disulfiram (Antabuse) is prescribed for a client seen in the psychiatric health care clinic. The nurse is collecting data on the client and is reinforcing instructions regarding the use of this medication. Which is most important for the nurse to determine before administration of this medication?
When the last alcoholic drink was consumed Disulfiram is used as an adjunct treatment for selected clients with chronic alcoholism who want to remain in a state of enforced sobriety. Clients must abstain from alcohol intake for at least 12 hours before the initial dose of the medication is administered. The most important data are to determine when the last alcoholic drink was consumed. The medication is used with caution in clients with diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, cerebral damage, nephritis, and hepatic disease. It is contraindicated in severe heart disease, psychosis, or hypersensitivity related to the medication.
The nurse is providing care to a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anxiety disorder. The nurse is talking with the client, and the client says, "I have a secret that I want to tell you. You won't tell anyone about it, will you?" Which is the appropriate nursing response?
"I cannot promise to keep a secret." The nurse should never promise to keep a secret. Secrets are appropriate in a social relationship but not in a therapeutic one. The nurse needs to be honest with the client and tell the client that a promise cannot be made to keep the secret.
The nurse, a Cub Scout leader, is preparing a group of Cub Scouts for an overnight camping trip and instructs them about the methods to prevent Lyme disease. Which statement by one of the Cub Scouts indicates a need for further teaching?
"I should not use insect repellent because it will attract the ticks." In the prevention of Lyme disease, individuals need to be instructed to use an insect repellent on the skin and clothes when in an area where ticks are likely to be found. Long-sleeved tops and long pants, closed shoes, and a hat or cap should be worn. If possible, one should avoid heavily wooded areas or areas with thick underbrush. Socks can be pulled up and over the pant legs to prevent ticks from entering under clothing.
Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg orally three times daily, has been prescribed for a client for seizure control. The nurse reinforces instructions regarding the medication to the client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
"I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth." Phenytoin (Dilantin) is an anticonvulsant. Gingival hyperplasia, bleeding, swelling, and tenderness of the gums can occur with the use of this medication. The client needs to be taught good oral hygiene, gum massage, and the need for regular dentist visits. The client should not skip medication doses because this could precipitate a seizure. Capsules should not be chewed or broken, and they must be swallowed. The client needs to be instructed to report a sore throat, fever, glandular swelling, or any skin reaction because this indicates hematological toxicity.
The home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
"I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store." Nicotinic acid, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. All lipid-lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramine resin is to be avoided. Constipation and bloating are the two most common side effects. Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet are therapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels.
A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia, and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
"Ibuprofen (Motrin IB) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing." Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes before taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals; this will decrease gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).
The nurse is reviewing the client's record and notes that the health care provider has documented that the client has a renal disorder. Which laboratory results would indicate a decrease in renal function? Select all that apply.
- Elevated serum creatinine level - Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count - Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level BUN testing is a frequently used laboratory test to determine renal function. The BUN and serum creatinine levels start to rise when the glomerular filtration rate falls below 40% to 60%. A decreased RBC count may be noted if erythropoietic function by the kidney is impaired. An increased WBC is most likely to be noted in renal disease. Thrombocyte cell counts do not indicate decreased renal function.
Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse should monitor for which side/adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply.
- Signs of hepatitis - Flu-like syndrome - Low neutrophil count - Ocular pain or blurred vision Rifabutin (Mycobutin) may be prescribed for a client with active MAC disease and tuberculosis. It inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis. Side effects include rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, neutropenia (low neutrophil count), red-orange body secretions, uveitis (blurred vision and eye pain), myositis, arthralgia, hepatitis, chest pain with dyspnea, and flu-like syndrome. Vitamin B6 deficiency and numbness and tingling in the extremities are associated with the use of isoniazid. Ethambutol (Myambutol) also causes peripheral neuritis.
A client has reported that crying spells have been a major problem over the past several weeks and that the doctor said depression is probably the reason. The nurse observes that the client is sitting slumped in the chair, and the clothes that the client is wearing do not fit well. The nurse interprets that further data collection should focus on which?
- Weight loss All the options are possible issues to address; however, the weight loss is the first item that needs further data collection because ill-fitting clothing could indicate a problem with nutrition. The client has already told the nurse that the crying spells have been a problem. Medication or sleep patterns are not mentioned or addressed in the question.
A client with human immunodeficiency virus is taking nevirapine (Viramune). The nurse should monitor for which side/adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply.
- rash - Hepatotoxicity Nevirapine (Viramune) is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that is used to treat HIV infection. It is used in combination with other antiretroviral medications to treat HIV. Adverse effects include rash, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, hepatitis, and increased transaminase levels. Hyperglycemia, peripheral neuropathy, and reduced bone density are not side/adverse effects of this medication.
The nurse is asked to regulate the flow rate of an intravenous (IV) solution being administered to a client. The IV bag contains 50 mL of solution and the solution is to be administered over 30 minutes. The administration set has a drop factor of 10 drops (gtts)/mL. The nurse should regulate the roller clamp on the infusion set to deliver how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Round answer to the nearest whole number.
17 gtts/minute 50 mL × 10 gtt / 30 mins = 16.66 or 17
A client received 20 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at 8:00 am. The nurse should check the client for a potential hypoglycemic reaction at which time?
5:00 pm NPH is intermediate-acting insulin. Its onset of action is 1 to 2½ hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time.
A client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa, who is in a state of starvation, is in a two-bed hospital room. A newly admitted client will be assigned to this client's room. Which client should be an appropriate choice as this client's roommate?
A client receiving diagnostic tests The client receiving diagnostic tests is an appropriate roommate. The client with anorexia is most likely experiencing hematological complications, such as leukopenia. Having a roommate with pneumonia would place the client with anorexia nervosa at risk for infection. The client with anorexia nervosa should not be put in a situation in which he or she can focus on the nutritional needs of others or be managed by others, because this may contribute to sublimation and suppression of his or her own hunger.
A sulfonamide is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage Sulfonamides can potentiate the effects of warfarin sodium (Coumadin), phenytoin (Dilantin), and orally administered hypoglycemics such as tolbutamide (Orinase). When an oral anticoagulant is combined with a sulfonamide, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be needed.
The client with myasthenia gravis becomes increasingly weak. The health care provider prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic crisis) or increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium (Enlon) is administered. Which indicates that the client is in cholinergic crisis?
A temporary worsening of the condition An edrophonium (Enlon) injection makes the client in cholinergic crisis temporarily worse. This is known as a negative test. An improvement of weakness would occur if the client were experiencing myasthenia gravis. Options 1 and 2 would not occur in either crisis.
A client has epididymitis as a complication of a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nurse is giving the client instructions to prevent a recurrence. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states the intention to do which?
Continue to take antibiotics until all symptoms are gone. The client who experiences epididymitis from UTI should increase intake of fluids to flush the urinary system. Because organisms can be forced into the vas deferens and epididymis from strain or pressure during voiding, the client should limit the force of the stream. Condom use can help prevent urethritis and epididymitis from sexually transmitted infections. Antibiotics are always taken until the full course of therapy is completed
The nurse is collecting data from a client, and the client's spouse reports that the client is taking donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). Which disorder should the nurse suspect that this client may have based on the use of this medication?
Dementia Donepezil hydrochloride is a cholinergic agent used in the treatment of mild to moderate dementia of the Alzheimer type. It enhances cholinergic functions by increasing the concentration of acetylcholine. It slows the progression of Alzheimer's disease.
After kidney transplantation, cyclosporine (Sandimmune) is prescribed for a client. Which laboratory result would indicate an adverse effect from the use of this medication?
Elevated blood urea nitrogen level Nephrotoxicity can occur from the use of cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Nephrotoxicity is evaluated by monitoring for elevated blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels. Cyclosporine does not depress the bone marrow.
The client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive has been taking stavudine (d4t, Zerit). Which should the nurse monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
Gait Stavudine (d4t, Zerit) is an antiretroviral used to manage human immunodeficiency virus infection in clients who do not respond to or who cannot tolerate conventional therapy. The medication can cause peripheral neuropathy, and the nurse should monitor the client's gait closely and ask the client about paresthesia
The nurse is assigned to care for a client experiencing disturbed thought processes. The nurse is told that the client believes that the food is being poisoned. Which communication technique should the nurse plan to use to encourage the client to eat?
Open-ended questions and silence Open-ended questions and silence are strategies used to encourage clients to discuss their problem. Options 3 and 4 do not encourage the client to express feelings. The nurse should not offer opinions and should not state the reasons but should encourage the client to identify the reasons for the behavior.
The nurse has provided instructions regarding specific leg exercises for the client immobilized in right skeletal lower leg traction. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the nurse observes the client doing which activity?
Performing active range of motion (ROM) to the right ankle and knee Exercise is indicated within therapeutic limits for the client in skeletal traction to maintain muscle strength and range of motion (ROM). The client may pull up on the trapeze, perform active ROM with uninvolved joints, and do isometric muscle-setting exercises (e.g., quadriceps- and gluteal-setting exercises). The client may also flex and extend his or her feet. Performing active ROM to the affected leg can be harmful.
The nurse has given a client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states to report which occurrence immediately?
Problems with visual acuity Ethambutol (Myambutol) causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client is also taught to take the medication with food if GI upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Red-orange discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin).
A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath, and the client is visibly anxious. The nurse understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?
Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening complication of deep vein thrombosis and thrombophlebitis. Chest pain is the most common symptom, which is sudden in onset and may be aggravated by breathing. Other signs and symptoms include dyspnea, cough, diaphoresis, and apprehension.
The nurse is caring for the client who has suffered spinal cord injury. The nurse further monitors the client for signs of autonomic dysreflexia and suspects this complication if which sign/symptom is noted?
Severe, throbbing headache The client with spinal cord injury above the level of T7 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache, flushing of the face and neck, bradycardia, and sudden severe hypertension. Other signs include nasal stuffiness, blurred vision, nausea, and sweating. It is a life-threatening syndrome triggered by a noxious stimulus below the level of the injury.
The nurse is caring for a client who has a history of opioid abuse and is monitoring the client for signs of withdrawal. Which manifestations are specifically associated with withdrawal from opioids?
Yawning, irritability, diaphoresis, cramps, and diarrhea Opioids are central nervous system (CNS) depressants. Withdrawal effects include yawning, insomnia, irritability, rhinorrhea, diaphoresis, cramps, nausea and vomiting, muscle aches, chills, fever, lacrimation, and diarrhea. Withdrawal is treated by methadone tapering or medication detoxification. Option 2 identifies the clinical manifestations associated with withdrawal from opioids. Option 3 describes withdrawal from alcohol. Option 1 describes intoxication from hallucinogens. Option 4 describes withdrawal from cocaine.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of depression. The nurse monitors for signs of constipation and urinary retention, knowing that these problems are likely caused by which?
psychomotor retardation and side effects of medication In this situation, urinary retention is most likely caused by medications. Option 4 is the only option that addresses both constipation and urinary retention. Constipation can be related to inadequate food intake, lack of exercise, and poor diet.
The nurse is gathering data from a client in crisis. When determining the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, the most appropriate question to ask is which?
"What leads you to seek help now?" The nurse's initial task when gathering data from a client in crisis is to assess the individual or family and the problem. The more clearly the problem can be defined, the better the chance a solution can be found. Option 3 will assist in determining data related to the precipitating event that led to the crisis. Options 1 and 2 identify situational supports. Option 4 identifies personal coping skills.
During a conversation with a depressed client on a psychiatric unit, the client says to the nurse, "My family would be better off without me." The nurse should make which therapeutic response to the client?
"You sound very upset. Are you thinking of hurting yourself?" Clients who are depressed may be at risk for suicide. It is critical for the nurse to assess suicidal ideation and plan. The client should be directly asked if a plan for self-harm exists.
The nurse is preparing to suction an adult client through the client's tracheostomy tube. Which interventions should the nurse perform for this procedure? Select all that apply.
- Apply suction for up to 10 to 15 seconds. - Hyperoxygenate the client before suctioning - Apply intermittent suction while rotating and withdrawing the catheter. - Advance the catheter until resistance is met and then pull the catheter back 1 cm. Intermittent suction is applied while rotating the catheter for 10 to 15 seconds. The nurse should hyperoxygenate the client with a resuscitator bag/Ambu-bag connected to an oxygen source before suctioning because suction depletes the client's oxygen supply (option 2). The catheter should be inserted gently until resistance is met or the client coughs, then pulled back 1 cm or ½ inch. Intermittent suction is applied while rotating and withdrawing the catheter. Option 3 is incorrect because wall suction should be set to 80 to 120 mm Hg. Pressure set at a higher level can cause trauma to respiratory tract tissues. Strict asepsis needs to be maintained, and the nurse would wear sterile gloves to perform this procedure. Suction is never applied when inserting the catheter because it will deplete oxygen and can traumatize tissues.
The nurse is caring for the client with epididymitis. Which treatment modalities should be implemented? Select all that apply.
- Bed rest - Sitz bath - Antibiotics - Scrotal elevation Common interventions used in the treatment of epididymitis include bed rest, elevation of the scrotum, ice packs, sitz baths, analgesics, and antibiotics. A heating pad should not be used because direct application of heat could increase blood flow to the area and increase the swelling. Ambulation places the scrotum in a dependent position and increases pain.
The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. The nurse should take which actions? Select all that apply.
- Check the level of the drainage bag. - Reposition the client to his or her side. - Place the client in good body alignment. - Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the other side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing on the peritoneal dialysis system is also checked for kinks or twisting, and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the HCP. Increasing the flow rate is an inappropriate action and is unassociated with the amount of outflow solution.
Which nursing interventions are appropriate for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior? Select all that apply.
- Communicate expected behaviors to the client. - Assist the client in developing means of setting limits on personal behavior. - Follow through about the consequences of behavior in a nonpunitive manner. - Be clear with the client regarding the consequences of exceeding limits set regarding behavior. Interventions for dealing with the client exhibiting manipulative behavior include setting clear, consistent, and enforceable limits on manipulative behaviors; being clear with the client regarding the consequences of exceeding limits set; following through with the consequences in a nonpunitive manner; and assisting the client in developing means of setting limits on personal behaviors. Enforcing rules and informing the client that he or she will not be allowed to attend therapy groups are violations of a client's rights. Ensuring that the client knows that he or she is not in charge of the nursing unit is inappropriate; power struggles need to be avoided.
The nurse is planning to reinforce instructions to the client about how to stand on crutches. In the instructions, the nurse should plan to tell the client to place the crutches in which position?
8 inches to the front and side of the client's toes The classic tripod position is taught to the client before giving instructions on gait. The crutches are placed anywhere from 6 to 10 inches in front and to the side of the client, depending on the client's body size. This provides a wide enough base of support to the client and improves balance.
A client with chronic kidney disease has been on dialysis for 3 years. The client is receiving the usual combination of medications for the disease, including aluminum hydroxide as a phosphate-binding agent. The client now has mental cloudiness, dementia, and complaints of bone pain. Which does this data indicate?
Aluminum intoxication Aluminum intoxication may occur when there is accumulation of aluminum, an ingredient in many phosphate-binding antacids. It results in mental cloudiness, dementia, and bone pain from infiltration of the bone with aluminum. This condition was formerly known as dialysis dementia. It may be treated with aluminum-chelating agents, which make aluminum available to be dialyzed from the body. It can be prevented by avoiding or limiting the use of phosphate-binding agents that contain aluminum.
A client is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which data gathered by the nurse indicate a risk factor associated with glaucoma?
Cardiovascular disease Hypertension, cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are associated with the development of glaucoma. Smoking, ingestion of caffeine or large amounts of alcohol, illicit drugs, corticosteroids, altered hormone levels, posture, and eye movements may cause varying transient increases in intraocular pressure.
A client is admitted to a psychiatric unit for treatment of a psychotic disorder. The client is at the locked exit door and is shouting, "Let me out! There's nothing wrong with me! I don't belong here!" The nurse identifies this behavior as which?
Denial Denial is refusal to admit to a painful reality and is treated as if it does not exist. In projection, a person unconsciously rejects emotionally unacceptable features and attributes them to other people, objects, or situations. In regression, the client returns to an earlier, more comforting, although less mature, way of behaving. Rationalization is justifying the unacceptable attributes about oneself.
Before administering an intermittent tube feeding through a nasogastric tube, the nurse checks for gastric residual volume. Which is the best rationale for checking gastric residual volume before administering the tube feeding?
Evaluate absorption of the last feeding.
The client recovering from a head injury is arousable and participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure (ICP) if the nurse observes the client doing which activity?
Exhaling during repositioning Activities that increase intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressures cause indirect elevation of the ICP. Some of these activities include isometric exercises, Valsalva maneuver, coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed opens the glottis, which prevents intrathoracic pressure from rising.
The nurse is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago who is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). Which information should be important for the nurse to gather regarding the adverse effects related to the medication?
Gastrointestinal dysfunctions The most common adverse effects related to fluoxetine include central nervous system (CNS) and gastrointestinal (GI) system dysfunction. This medication affects the GI system by causing nausea and vomiting, cramping, and diarrhea.
The client with spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The least appropriate measure to minimize the risk of autonomic dysreflexia is which action?
Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be performed every 4 to 6 hours, and indwelling bladder catheters should be checked frequently for kinks in the tubing. It is not appropriate to catheterize the client every 12 hours. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.
An intoxicated client is brought to the emergency department by local police. The client is told that the health care provider (HCP) will be in to see the client in about 30 minutes. The client becomes very loud and offensive and wants to be seen by the HCP immediately. The nurse assisting to care for the client should plan for which appropriate nursing intervention?
Offer to take the client to an examination room until he or she can be treated. Safety of the client, other clients, and staff is of prime concern. Option 3 is in effect an isolation technique that allows for separation from others and provides a less stimulating environment where the client can maintain dignity. When dealing with an impaired individual, trying to talk may be out of the question. Waiting to intervene could cause the client to become even more agitated and a threat to others.
Which data would indicate a potential complication associated with age-related changes in the musculoskeletal system?
Overall sclerotic lesions Sclerotic lesions occur as bone resorption increases and results in replacement of original bone with fibrous material. This condition occurs in Paget's disease, an age-related disorder.
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is prescribed for a client. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom if it developed during the course of this medication therapy?
Sore throat Clients taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be informed about early signs of blood disorders that can occur from this medication. These include sore throat, fever, and pallor, and the client should be instructed to notify the health care provider (HCP) if these symptoms occur. The other options do not require HCP notification.
The client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, it is most important for the nurse to collect which data?
The white blood cell counts and platelet counts Infection and suppression can occur as a result of etanercept. Laboratory studies are performed before and during medication treatment. The appearance of abnormal white blood cell counts and abnormal platelet counts can alert the nurse to a potentially life-threatening infection or potential bleeding. Injection site itching and edema are common occurrences following administration. A metallic taste and loss of appetite are not associated with this medication. Fatigue and joint pain occur with rheumatoid arthritis.
The nurse assists to prepare the client for ear irrigation as prescribed by the health care provider. Which action should the nurse plan to take?
Warm the irrigating solution to 98° F. Irrigation solutions that are not close to the client's body temperature can be uncomfortable and may cause injury, nausea, and vertigo. The client is positioned so that the ear to be irrigated is facing downward, because this allows gravity to assist in the removal of the ear wax and solution. After the irrigation, the client is to lie on the affected side to finish draining the irrigating solution. A slow, steady stream of solution should be directed toward the upper wall of the ear canal and not toward the eardrum. Too much force could cause the tympanic membrane to rupture
The nurse is assigned to care for a client at risk for alcohol withdrawal. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that the early signs of withdrawal will usually develop within which time after cessation or reduction of alcohol intake?
Within a few hours Early signs of alcohol withdrawal develop within a few hours after cessation or reduction of alcohol and peak after 24 to 48 hours.
A female client with anorexia nervosa is a member of a support group. The client has verbalized that she would like to buy some new clothes, but her finances are limited. Group members have brought some used clothes for the client to replace her old clothes. The client believes that the new clothes were much too tight, so she has reduced her calorie intake to 800 calories daily. The nurse identifies this behavior as which?
evidence of the client's altered and distorted body image Altered or distorted body image is a concern with clients with anorexia nervosa. Although the client may struggle with ambivalence and present with regressed behavior, the client's coping pattern relates to the basic issue of distorted body image. The client's behavior is not normal.
A hospitalized client is started on phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) for the treatment of depression. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client and tells the client to avoid consuming which foods while taking this medication? Select all that apply.
- Figs - Yogurt - Aged cheese Phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. The client should avoid consuming foods that are high in tyramine. Eating these foods could trigger a potentially fatal hypertensive crisis. Some foods to avoid include yogurt, aged cheeses, smoked or processed meats, red wines, and fruits such as avocados, raisins, and figs.
The nurse in the mental health unit reviews the therapeutic and nontherapeutic communication techniques with a nursing student. Which are therapeutic communication techniques? Select all that apply.
- Restating - Listening - Maintaining neutral responses - Providing acknowledgment and feedback Some of the therapeutic communication techniques include listening, maintaining silence, maintaining neutral responses, using broad openings and open-ended questions, focusing and refocusing, restating, clarifying and validating, sharing perceptions, reflecting, providing acknowledgment and feedback, giving information and presenting reality, encouraging formulation of a plan of action, providing nonverbal encouragement, and summarizing. Asking why, giving advice, and approving or disapproving are nontherapeutic.
A client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease has recently begun hemodialysis. Which are signs/symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome?
Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea and vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. It is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing brain swelling and onset of symptoms. It most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates.
The nurse is gathering data on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should review the results of which diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis?
Sputum culture A definitive diagnosis of TB is confirmed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made on the basis of a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histologic evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy.
Ketoconazole is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of candidiasis. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care regarding this medication? Select all that apply.
- Instruct the client to avoid alcohol. - Monitor hepatic and liver function studies. - Instruct the client to avoid exposure to the sun. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication. It is administered with food (not on an empty stomach), and antacids are avoided for 2 hours after taking the medication to ensure absorption. The medication is hepatotoxic, and the nurse monitors liver function studies. The client is instructed to avoid exposure to the sun because the medication increases photosensitivity. The client is also instructed to avoid alcohol. There is no reason for the client to restrict fluid intake. In fact, this could be harmful to the client.
A client with delirium becomes agitated and confused at night. The best initial intervention by the nurse is which?
Use a night light and turn off the television. .It is important to provide a consistent daily routine and a low-stimulation environment when the client is agitated and confused. Noise levels including a radio and television may add to the confusion and disorientation. Moving the client next to the nurses' station is not the initial intervention.
