Network+ 8th Edition Chapter 7, Network+ 8th Edition Chapter 4, Network+ 8th Edition FINAL

24. What is NOT a TIA/EIA recognized cabling type that can be used for horizontal cabling?

a. RG-6 Coaxial

23. How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address?

a. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

1. A change coordinator functions as what type of manager?

a. project manager

10. Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of?

b. captive portal

19. Which 802.11 frame type is related to medium access and data delivery, and includes ACK and RTS/CTS frames?

b. control frames

24. In a fire suppression system, what term is used to describe what is typically a foaming chemical, gas, or water that is sprayed everywhere to put out a fire?

b. fire suppression agent

2. Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company?

b. master license agreement

3. Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type?

b. netstat -s

8. You are connected to your network's Cisco router, and need to verify the route table. What command should you enter?

b. show ip route

19. In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received?

b. sliding-window

21. What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal?

b. spectrum analyzer

6. Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines?

b. statistical time division multiplexing

19. What command can be used to check a domain computer's time source from a Command Prompt window?

b. w32tm /query /source

5. What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure?

b. wiring schematic

20. A Fast Ethernet connection utilizes what pins on an RJ-45 plug?

c. 1, 2, 3, 6

8. What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable?

c. 10 Gbps

18. 802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput?

c. 3.47 Gbps

3. In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?

c. 6 bytes

20. Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate?

c. BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.

16. Which of the following statements correctly describes the SFP+ transceiver?

c. SFP+ is the same size as SFP, and supports a theoretical maximum transmission speed of 16 Gbps.

4. What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?

c. SMTP

2. What Application layer protocol can be used to monitor and gather information about network traffic and can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention?

c. SNMP

14. The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?

c. TCP

4. You are setting up a DNS zone and have been asked to create SPF and DKIM records. What type of DNS record will hold this information?

c. TXT record

25. The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model?

c. Transport

23. In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines?

c. VoIP gateway

1. A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem?

c. ipconfig /flushdns

25. What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay?

c. latency

17. What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network?

c. ping

20. When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used?

d. 100 meters

22. What component of enterprise level structured cabling serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling?

d. entrance facility

13. What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?

a. A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

18. What type of scenario would be best served by using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model?

a. A group of developers needs access to multiple operating systems and the runtime libraries that the OS provides.

20. What scenario describes an evil twin attack?

a. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point.

22. Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type?

a. A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.

1. Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?

a. A router forwards broadcasts over the network.

7. What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch?

a. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.

10. When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router?

a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.

10. In the TCP/IP model, what layer combines the responsibilities of the Application, Presentation, and Session layers from the OSI model?

a. Application

15. The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions?

a. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

2. Which of the following virtualization products is an example of a bare-metal hypervisor?

a. Citrix XenServer

24. Which Bluetooth power class allows for a maximum power output of 100 mW and a range of up to 100 m?

a. Class 1

12. What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?

a. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)

4. What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels?

a. Dynamic Multipoint VPN

7. If a host's IPv6 address contains the network adapter's MAC address within the last 64 bits of the IPv6 address, what standard is being used?

a. EUI-64

20. Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers?

a. IaaS

8. How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission?

a. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.

3. What does a statement of work document do?

a. It documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular object, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline.

17. What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?

a. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.

23. What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer?

a. It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

22. At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?

a. Layer 2

6. The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address?

a. MAC (Media Access Control) address

11. Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is?

a. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

13. During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced?

a. No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

13. What federal agency is charged with safety and health in the workplace?

a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

4. At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary?

a. Physical layer

6. What optional protocol can be used in 802.11 to reserve the medium for one node's use?

a. RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send)

14. You have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. What twisted-pair wiring standard must you use?

a. TIA/EIA 568A

17. Which of the following is an example of encapsulation?

a. The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

17. You are troubleshooting a client's wireless networking issue. Which of the following will prevent the client from connecting to the network?

a. The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID.

6. What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?

a. The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.

1. Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?

a. The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.

14. How do routers create a broadcast domain boundary?

a. They forward broadcasts only to necessary segments.

11. A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of policy?

a. fail-open

21. Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?

a. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

11. What 802.11 frame type is involved in association and reassociation, including probe and beacon frames?

a. management frames

23. What utility is the equivalent to the pathping command on a Linux system?

a. mtr

12. The use of multiple antennas on an access point to issue a signal to one or more receivers is enabled by what 802.11 innovation?

a. multiple input-multiple output (MIMO)

3. What term is used to describe a space that is rented at a data center facility by a service provider?

a. point of presence (PoP)

21. What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic?

a. tcpdump port 22

17. Bidirectional transceivers utilize what technology to separate the data in each direction?

a. wavelength division multiplexing

21. What is the minimal amount of voltage required to damage an electrical component?

b. 10 volts

22. In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B?

b. 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y

4. When using the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), what is the maximum number of hops a message can take between its source and its destination before the destination is considered unreachable?

b. 15

7. By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network?

b. 1500 bytes

11. Which of the following IPv6 addresses represents a global unicast address?

b. 2000::/3

2. In an 802.11 data frame, what is the maximum amount of data that can be sent?

b. 2312 bytes

13. Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate?

b. 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.

13. In a DNS zone, what type of record holds the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses?

b. AAAA record

1. When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate?

b. Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.

12. Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean?

b. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.

15. What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS traceroute utility is accurate?

b. By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages.

7. The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field?

b. FCS

14. What is assigned to each node on a network, which is then used by the Network layer to uniquely identify the node?

b. IP address

11. When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect?

b. In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is.

21. What statement regarding the Server Message Block protocol is accurate?

b. It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files.

21. A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?

b. Layer 2

2. Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate?

b. Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.

12. At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate?

b. Network layer

19. In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded?

b. No more than four times the diameter of the cable.

20. In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held?

b. On the DNS root servers.

21. What statement regarding the Power Over Ethernet standards is inaccurate?

b. Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable.

23. Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable?

b. RG-6

16. What cloud service model involves providing applications through an online user interface, providing for compatibility with a multitude of different operating systems and devices?

b. SaaS

3. In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer?

b. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read.

6. Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination?

b. The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires.

18. What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID?

b. The last 24 bits of the MAC address.

22. Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation?

b. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.

5. Regarding VNC (Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection), what statement is accurate?

b. VNC is open source, allowing companies to develop their own software based on VNC.

17. A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term?

b. VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)

14. When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?

b. Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes.

12. What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility?

b. Zenmap

16. In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting?

b. at least 3 feet

7. In IEEE terminology, a group of stations that share an access point are said to be part of which of the following?

b. basic service set

9. What special signal is issued periodically from an AP and contains the network transmission rate and service set identifier (SSID), as well as other information needed for a computer to associate with the AP?

b. beacon frame

10. What type of IPv6 address is fe80::8cf1:2c42:ffde:da1c?

b. link local address

1. What kind of tool can you use to measure voltage on a cable length?

b. multimeter

11. Which of the following is NOT a best practice when performing cable management?

c. Cable ties should be pulled tightly to keep cables from moving around in a bundle.

25. What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds?

c. Cat 5e

8. What is a defining characteristic of a bus topology based network?

c. Devices are daisy-chained together in a single line.

10. You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate?

c. EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers.

9. What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission?

c. IPsec

16. What does the MX record do in a forward DNS zone?

c. It identifies the e-mail server to be used for e-mail traffic for the domain.

5. When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)?

c. It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.

8. By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM?

c. NAT mode

20. In the TCP/IP model, what layer is considered so simple that it is ignored entirely?

c. Physical

19. What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application?

c. Session Layer

9. In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level?

c. The President

9. You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean?

c. The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address.

2. In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate?

c. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.

7. What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network?

c. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).

16. How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be fragmented?

c. The sequence control field indicates how packets will be subdivided.

25. If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use?

c. Wi-Fi analyzer

15. What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?

c. coarse wavelength division multiplexing

19. Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit?

c. decibels

5. A typical fiber termination kit should include what tool for cutting a clean slice through fiber strands?

c. fiber cleaver

5. In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to?

c. flow label

9. What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?

c. hop limit

2. What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed?

c. ipconfig /all

6. The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term?

c. public-key infrastructure

25. What kind of document serves as a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer?

c. service-level agreement

8. What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?

c. vertical cross connect

3. What text editor can be used on Linux to view and edit the contents of a configuration file?

c. vim

9. When viewing the pinout for T568B, what is the correct order of wire colors, starting at pin 1?

c. white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

8. Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks?

d. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255

24. Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address?

d. 127.0.0.1

22. If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size?

d. 1522 bytes

10. Both 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW have what maximum distance limitation on a segment of single mode fiber?

d. 40km

24. Originally codified by ISO, what does the "intermediate system" in IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) stand for?

d. An IS-IS capable network router.

9. When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch?

d. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

22. Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments?

d. Citrix Xen

11. Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols?

d. EIGRP

13. What occurs when a collision happens on a network?

d. Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.

13. Which statement regarding the IKEv2 tunneling protocol is accurate?

d. IKEv2 offers fast throughput and good stability when moving between wireless hotspots.

10. Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device?

d. It provides poor authentication and no encryption.

23. HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?

d. Layer 7

18. The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options?

d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

16. At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?

d. Network

16. Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol?

d. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.

23. What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked?

d. OpenVPN

25. Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT accurate?

d. PPP can support strong encryption, such as AH or ESP.

1. The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions?

d. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

5. Which of the following protocols is used as a signaling protocol for the initial connection between hosts, but does not participate in data transfer during the session?

d. SIP

24. What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate?

d. SSH supports port forwarding.

18. What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate?

d. The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN.

7. A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue?

d. The cable must be a rollover cable.

3. In a coaxial cabling, what does the RG rating measure?

d. The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.

12. What occurs if a network layer protocol is aware that a packet is larger than the maximum size for its network?

d. The packet will be divided into smaller packets using fragmentation.

15. Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?

d. They centralize user account logins.

19. Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use?

d. Trivial FTP (TFTP)

15. When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites?

d. VPN gateway

17. What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization?

d. Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult.

15. You are troubleshooting a DNS issue on a Linux system, and need to test the resolution of your domain mycompany.com MX record using Google's DNS server with the IP address of 8.8.8.8. What dig command will accomplish this?

d. dig @8.8.8.8 mycompany.com MX

5. The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)?

d. frame

24. You've been handed a fiber with a 1.25-mm ferrule that requires a connector. What is the most commonly used connector for this ferrule size?

d. local connector (LC)

25. With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name?

d. mycompany.com

6. When using DHCP for IPv6 (i.e. DHCPv6), what port do clients receive responses on?

d. port 547

15. Which of the following is a document that is sent as a request to vendors to submit a proposal for a product or service that your company wants to purchase?

d. request for proposal

12. Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal?

d. simplex

18. Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?

d. traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com

14. The wireless spectrum, as defined by the FCC, spans between which two frequencies?

a. 9 kHz and 300 GHz

4. What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines?

a. A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data.

14. Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement?

a. 19 inches

18. What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)?

a. 8 degrees

4. PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard?

a. 802.3at