Neuro

Inhibition of the opposing alpha motor neuron in a myotatic reflex is accompished by the ____ _______ __________

1a inhibitory interneuron

Which deep mechanoreceptor is sensitive to stretching of the skin and sustained pressure and of slowly adapting

Ruffini's corpuscle

What method measures the minimum distance at which two stimuli can be noted as different

2 pt discrimination (2 point discrimination)

Diazepam causes _______ amnesia

Anterograde (think colonoscopy)

Wallerian degeneration is also called

Anterograde degeneration

What kinds of drugs do we use to treat both anxiety and depression in layman's terms

Antidepressants

What is the condition including failure of the prosencephalon to divide into two cerebral hemispheres?

Holoprosencephaly

What is the only way that signals can get to and from cortex is by a road way called?

Internal capsule (has huge bundles of projection fibers)

CNX carries GSA from skin posterior to the ear, dura in posterior cranial fossa, posterior and inferior aspect of external auditory meatus, mucous membranes of pharynx and larynx which will terminate at the Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal if

Pain

Lamina I (Nucleus Posteromarginalis) located at all levels is where all ______ info enters from below the face

Pain

Lamina I, II, and V of the dorsal horn are for

Pain

Which deep mechanoreceptor is sensitive to vibration and pressure and is rapidly adapting

Pacinian Corpuscle

What are two examples of deep mechanoreceptors

Pacinian and Ruffini Corpuscles

Lamina II (Substantia gelatinosa) relays ______ information from Lamina I and sends it to Lamina V

Pain

What modality corresponds with spinothalamic/anterolateral

Pain (sharp, acute, temperature)

Capsaicin directly activates _______ and ___________ receptors of the oral cavity

Pain and temperature

A-Delta fibers (axons) correspond with which sensations?

Pain and temperature (myelinated axons)

C fibers (axons) correspond with which sensations?

Pain, temperature, and itch (unmyelinated)

SSRI are blocking serotonin transporters where?

Presynaptic neuron (REUPTAKE... its in the name)

What 3 parts does a tripartide synapse include?

Presynaptic neuron, postsynaptic neuron, and an Astrocyte

_____________ sensory neurons wrap around the middle of the intrafusal muscle fibers within the muscle spindle

Primary 1a

Brodman's area 4 corresponds with which cortex?

Primary Motor Cortex

Broadman's areas 41 and 42 are which cortex

Primary auditory cortex

Which cortex creeps around to the insula? And which brodman's area is it?

Primary auditory cortex, 41 and 42

Which cortex is located in the sylvian fissure?

Primary auditory cortrex (41,42)

Unimodal association cortex receives inputs from a single ______ ____

Primary cortex

Cerebral cortex can be classified into _______ cortex and _______ cortex

Primary cortex and associative cortez

Injuring resulting from the initial trauma are called

Primary damage

The primary somatosensory cortex is caudal to which cortex

Primary motor cortex

What two parts does the primary cortical region consist of

Primary sensory and primary motor

Brodman's area 3,1,2 represent what cortex

Primary somatosensory cortex

The primary motor cortex is rostral to which cortex

Primary somatosensory cortex

Broadman's area 17 is which cortex

Primary visual cortex

GSA Axons from CN VII for touch will terminate at the _______ _______ _______ of Trigeminal

Principal Sensory Nuclei

Any GSA axons from CN IX like skin posterior to the ear, posterior 1/3rd of the tongue, soft palate, oropharynx, palatine tonsils, mucosa of the middle ear, auditory tube and mastoid air cells will terminate at the _______ _______ ________ of Trigeminal if for touch

Principal Sensory Nucleus

To communicate down or up what type of fibers are used?

Projection fibers

Dantrolene is a _________ receptor antagonist and inhibits calcium-induced calcium release

Ryanodine

_____, responsible for induction of the neural plate and forming central (motor) cell types is derived from the notochord

SHH (sonic hedgehog)

The _______ type of receptor is also found in brain ventricles in cells that respond to small changes in the acidity of the CSF

Sour

Knockout of TRPM5, PLCB2, or G-Protein impairs sweet, umami, and bitter but not ______ and ______

Sour and salty

Proprioception is where you are in _______

Space

An Upper Motor neuron lesion leads to what kind of paralysis?

Spastic paralysis

What is myeloschisis considered?

Spina bifida

What is the name of the caudal neural tube defect?

Spina bifida

In what condition does the CAUDAL Neuro pore fail to close, one or more vertebrae fail to fuse on the bony arch dorsal to the spinal cord and there is NO involvement of the meninges or spinal cord and the skin is CLOSED

Spina bifida occulta

Any GSA axons from CN IX like skin posterior to the ear, posterior 1/3rd of the tongue, soft palate, oropharynx, palatine tonsils, mucosa of the middle ear, auditory tube and mastoid air cells will terminate at the _______ ________ of Trigeminal if for pain

Spinal Nucleus

What is the name of the second order cell body in the Trigeminal pathway for pain and temperature

Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal

If we are innervating something below the head like the extremities where are the lower motor neurons located?

Spinal cord

In ______ _____ stained, grey matter is internal and white matter is external

Spinal cord

The vertebral column grows and develops faster than the

Spinal cord

The ________ of the muscle spindle causes 1a sensory neurons to fire causing the excitation of alpha motor neurons, which innervate extrafusal muscle fibers

Stretching

Basal ganglia Caudate and Putamen make up the

Striatum

In both the indirect and direct pathways of basal ganglia connectivity________ receives the input and ________ receives the output

Striatum, Thalamus

Striatum means

Striped

Layer 4 is big because it is receiving all of the information from the ______ (there are many cells ready to receive)

Thalamus

Golgi tendon organ- tension 1____

b

Bulbar means

brainstem

The anterior Nucleus of hypothalamus is ______ sensitive meaning stimulation causes heat dissipation

warm

Chiasm means

Cross

The _______ plexus is secretory

Choroid

paralysis; all voluntary movement is lost

Plegia

Projections of pia mater into the ventricles of the brain are called

Choroid plexus

What is found predominantly in the ventricles?

Choroid plexus (CSF) (both are found)

If you're innervating a gland, it has to be what axons?

GVE

First order cell body is always in a _______

Ganglion (e.g. DRG, Trigeminal Ganglion)

Which layer of the spinal cord forms second?

Marginal layer (VMM)

What cells 'dampin' the highly EXCITED deep cerebellar nuclei?

Purkinje Cells

What is the major output neuron of the cerebellar cortex?

Purkinje cell

Climbing fibers terminate on what cells

Purkinje cells

What two parts make up the lenticular nucleus?

Putamen and globus pallidus

What are the three Basal Ganglia (P GP C)

Putamen, Globus Pallidus, and Caudate Nucleus

What is the name of the ventral medial structure on the medulla

Pyramid

In what condition does the caudal Neuro pore fail to close as well as the vertebrae fail to fuse, but the meninges push out through the 'opening' in the vertebrae, forming a sac filled with spinal fluid

(Spina bifida Aperta) meningocele

Absent or hypotonic reflexes are associated with a lesion in an upper or lower motor neuron?

Lower motor neuron

Their is ______ anterior spinal artery on the anterior side of the spinal cord that runs through the anterior median fissure

1

Which layers correspond to association fibers

1,2, and 3

Which cranial nerve nuclei live in the Midbrain?

3 and 4

Patient comes in with left eye deviation medially what type of structure is likely lesioned

Lower motor neuron

Which cranial nerve nuclei reside in the medulla?

10 and 12 (nucleus ambiguus is also found here)

There are a total of 180 human brain regions but which 9 regions are not found in humans

12-16 and 48-51

The Primary visual cortex is which brodman's area

17

In somatic motor pathways there is a _____ neuron chain

2

In the cranium there are _____ layers of Dura

2

The hollow inside of the tube has __ lateral ventricles

2

There are ______ posterior spinal arteries that travel through the posterolateral sulcus of the spinal cord

2

What are the names of the four fluid filled ventricles in order

2 Laterals, 3rd, 4th

In the adult the spinal cord only occupies the upper _____/______ of the vertebral column. The lumbar and sacral nerve roots must descend quite a ways to exit through their respective intervertebral foramina

2/3rds

After the Neural plate proliferates producing neural folds, the neural groove will invaginate by day ____\____

20/21

The central closure of the neural groove occurs when?

21/22

What day will the cranial pore close?

24/25

What day will the caudal pore close?

26/27

What are the brodmann's areas for Primary Olfactory Cortex

28 and 34

With sensory pathways there is a ____ neuron chain

3

The primary somatosensory cortex is which brodman's areas

3,1, and 2

The spinal cord occupies the entire length of the vertebral canal until what month of fetal life?

3rd month

Lateral ventricles are connected to which ventricle?

3rd ventricle

The diencephalon includes which ventricle?

3rd ventricle

Which ventricle has the interthalamic adhesion called the donut hole?

3rd ventricle

Which ventricle is the midline cavity in the diencephalon and and contains the donut hole (interthalamic adhesion)

3rd ventricle

The CNS is basically a hollow tube. The hollow inside of the tube in the brain consists of how many fluid filled ventricles

4

The primary motor cortex is which brodman's area?

4

The primary auditory cortex is which brodman's areas

41 and 42

The primary gustatory cortex is what brodmann's number?

43

The two parts of the CSF system (internal and external) communicate via the aperture of what ventricle?

4th

3rd ventricle is connected to which ventricle ?

4th ventricle

The Myelencephalon houses part of which ventricle

4th ventricle

The metencephalon houses part of which ventricle?

4th ventricle

Which space comes from the metencephalon and Myelencephalon and is rostral to the cerebellum

4th ventricle

Each hemisphere has how many lobes

5

How many branches are there of the internal carotid artery?

5

Which cranial nerve nuclei live in the pons?

5,6,7,8

Which serotonin receptor when activated is associated with hallucinations?

5-HT2A

Which serotonin receptor suppresses appetite when activated

5-HT2C

Which serotonin receptor is ionotropic? And it is a target for antiemetic drugs (stop vomiting)

5-HT3

Where does the upper motor neuron originate from in the lateral corticospinal/pyramidal system

5th Layer of the primary motor cortex (brodman's area 4)

The cerebral cortex has how many layers?

6

There are how many layers of cell from superficial to deep?

6

Intracellular pH is normally

6.8

There are _____ serotonin families (5-HT1, 5HT2, 5HT3, 5HT4, 5HT5, 5HT6, 5HT7)

7

Extracellular pH is normally

7.4

Grey matter makes the _____ shape on stained spinal cord section

8

In Alzheimer's disease, is associated with lack of _____ in the brain

ACh

Release of what NT is inhibited by cleavage of SNARE protein by Botulinium Toxin?

ACh

Acetylcholine is metabolized extracellulary by

AChE

Donepezil can be used to treat Alzheimer's disease because it inhibits _______ metabolism of Acetylcholine

AChE

The labrinythe artery is a branch of what artery?

AICA (Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery)

The three Glutamate ionotropic receptors are

AMPA, NMDA, and Kainate

What are the three rostrally located neural tube defects (A, E, H)

Anencephaly, encephalocele, and Holoprosencephaly)

Ironically, the facial colliculus found ventral to the cerebellum contains the nuclei of the _______. It is called facial because some the of the facial nerve loops around inside

Abducens

During REM sleep, eye movements and brain activity are high but muscle tone is virtually _______

Absent

For _________, The UMN innervates ipsilateral accessory motor nucleus and the LMN innervates ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

Accessory

Sour taste is detected by the

Acid (pH) detector

The loss of sensation occurring after a local anesthetic binds a Na+ channel is caused by inhibition of an

Action potential

Excitatory and Inhibitory Synaptic potentials inputed together are _______ which will result in no change in potential

Additive

Tolerance to caffeine will result in up regulation of what receptors?

Adenosine

The dura mater in the spinal cord is not _____ to the vertebral bony body

Adhered

Saliva is essential for taste as a solvent for tastants. Drying of the mouth may produce temporary loss ( _________) or diminished sensation( _______ )of taste

Ageusia, hypoguesia

Primary sensory regions are granular. Primary motor (area 4) and ore motor cortex are ________

Agranular

What do the cells migrating dorsal to the sulcus limitans form

Alar plate (sensory neurons)

What two functional regions does sulcus limitans delineate?

Alar plate (sensory neurons) and Basal plate (motor neurons)

The site away from the agonist binding site is called ________ ________ ________

Allosteric binding site

The ventral horn contains mainly motor neurons called _____ and _____

Alpha and gamma

Amniocentesis checks for elevated levels of what? What can elevated levels indicate?

Alpha-fetoprotein, neural tube defects

Neurons in the Locus coeruleus show evidence of _______ _______ well before changes are seen in the cerebral cortex

Alzheimer's Disease

What drug promotes transport-mediated vesicular release of dopamine and norepinephrine from neurons, yielding more dopamine and norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft. Longer half life than cocaine. Psychosis, mania is contraindicated

Amphetamine

Which drug increases norepinephrine release?

Amphetamine

Which drug of abuse used for ADHD stimulates dopamine and norepinephrine release from presynaptic vesicles

Amphetamine

Motor neuron disease in which both upper and lower motor neurons and lower motor neurons degenerate in cortex brainstem and spinal cord. Clinical Features: Combination of weakness and atrophy of limb muscles, cramping and fasiculations and get weak hyperreflexia. Flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion Spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion Pt also have problems with swallowing, speaking (dysarthria) and breathing Touch, smell, taste, vision and heating NOY AFFECTED WHAT IS THIS DISEASE CALLED?

Amylotrophic Lateral Sclerosis ALS (Lou Gehrig Disease)

When we view spinal cord or brain stem sections we will view them in the ________ orientation

Anatomical

Craniorachischisus often occurs in combination with

Anencephaly

In _______, the neural tissue degenerates, brain stem and spinal cord are often malformed

Anencephaly

In __________ reflexes may be present because reflexes don't require Supra spinal/cortical control.

Anencephaly

What condition includes partial or complete absence of the brain along with defects in the cranial vault and scalp

Anencephaly

In what two conditions does the rostral Neuro pore fail to close?

Anencephaly and encephalocele

Lodocaine is a local

Anesthetic

What is the term used for a loss of the sense of smell?

Anosmia

Ketamine is non-competitive NMDA ______ and is used to treat anesthesia, pain, and depression

Antagonist

In ________ degeneration the segment of the nerve distal to the injury degenerates

Antergrade

Which insular cortex is believed to be involved in olfactory, visceral-autonomic, gustatory, and limbic (emotions) functions

Anterior Insular cortex

Since climbing fibers only come from Inferior olivary nucleus, What three tracts come in front the only other fiber type (mossy)?

Anterior Spinal Cerebellar, Posterior Spinal Cerebellar, and cuneocerebellar (when you see Cuneatus think upper limbs like cuneate)

What ascending pathway brings movement information from the distal lower extremities?

Anterior Spinocerebellar

The circle of Willis 2 A&Ps and ICA

Anterior and Posterior Cerebral, Anterior and Posterior Communicating, and ICA

Blood supply for the choroid plexus comes from either the ________ _______ _________ or ________ ________ _______

Anterior choroidal artery or posterior choroidal artery

The insula (5th lobe) is divided up into 2 parts the _______ ________ cortex and _______ _______ cortex

Anterior insular cortex and the Posterior insular cortex

The anterior spinal artery loves to run through what fissure?

Anterior median fissure

Which type of ataxia is caused by lesions to the lateral zone of the cerebellum and presents as an unsteady drunk like gait

Appendicular Ataxia

The _______ mater is spider like or web like so it will have that appearance

Arachnoid

_______ _________ are projections that extend to Pia Mater, and help to keep the brain suspended

Arachnoid Trabeculae

_______ _______ allow passage of CSF from subarachnoid space into dural venous sinuses.

Arachnoid Villi

Large arachnoid villi are called _______ ______

Arachnoid granulations

Arachnoid granulations are also called

Arachnoid villi

Extensions of arachnoid mater into the dural venous sinus?

Arachnoid villi

In the _______ nucleus some neurons release dopamine to inhibit the release of prolactin by the pituitary gland AND other neurons contain neuropeptide Y (NPY) and influence hunger

Arcuate

________ is an amide that also contains an ester (used in dental anesthesia)

Articaine

What is the name of the local anesthetic used in dentistry

Articaine (bupivacaine is also used as an infiltration anesthetic- meaning in the tissues)

The idea that there are regions in the brain stem that when simulated send an arousal signal to the cortex

Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS)

If my frontal lobe on the right wants to talk to my parietal lobe on the right this is called what kind of fiber?

Association

Layers 1,2, and 3 talking to layers 1,2, and 3 within the same hemisphere what kind of fiber is being used?

Association fiber

What is the name for the cortical regions that process and integrate information from one or more primary cortical regions

Associative cortical region

_____ is the disordered contractions of agonist and antagonist muscles & LACK OF COORDINATION between movements at different joints.

Ataxia

Inferior Colliculi is involved in the ______ system

Auditory

Presynaptic receptors are called

Auto-receptors

Neurons in the nucleus of the solitary tract project to the parabrachial nucleus, which then projects to the hypothalamus and amygdala to produce visceral responses to taste. To Amygdala for ________ and to Hypothalamus for _______

Aversive reactions to taste, appetite

Fasiculus or fiber or Lemniscus means

Axons

In stained sections of the spinal cord grey matter is

Axons

Pyramid is a collection of

Axons

In the brain wet section what will appear white? And where will it be located?

Axons, inside

In a Lower motor neuron lesion everything is

Lowered

Gadolinium enhanced MRI and Evan's Blue are two methods for determining if there is a _______ leakage, because the healthy brain is impermeable to these substamces

BBB (Blood Brain Barrier)

What modality of Trigeminal is responsible for supplying motor function to the muscles of mastication?

BE (remember V3, VII, IX, and X)

What are the three types of motor axons?

BE, GSE, GVE

______, responsible for forming dorsal (sensory) cell types is derived from SURFACE ECTODERM

BMP (Bone Morphogenic Protein)

If you suspect a patient has a a corticospinal lesion which is equal to an UMN you can expect a __________ sign

Babinski's

In an upper motor neuron lesion what sign is present?

Babinski's sign

What group is considered the break hypothesis?

Basal Ganglia

What do the cells migrating ventral to the sulcus limitans form?

Basal plate (motor neurons)

Millard-Gubler syndrome also called Medial Pontine Syndrome occur via OCCLUSION of paramedian branches of the ________ _______

Basilar artery

The two vertebral arteries combine to form what artery?

Basilar artery

Lesions to axons originating from the entire facial nucleus both dorsal and ventral components. THEREFORE, the entire ipsilateral side of the face is compromised. Muscles of facial expression are not receiving Innervation. This is called

Bell's Palsy

Genu means

Bend

___________ Syndrome is similar to Medial Midbrain Syndrome but it includes ATAXIA while medial Midbrain doesn't

Benedikt's Syndrome

_________ is a drug administered in a mouth gel to releive pain from ulcers in the mucous membranes

Benzocaine

Benzodiazepines don't bind to the same sites as GABA ion the GABAa receptor. They bind to their own ___________ site

Benzodiazepine

What are the specialized pyramidal cells in layer V of primary motor cortex called?

Betz cells

If you are a granular cortex your layer 4 is what size?

Big

Since the Uvula is a small structure you are able to observe damage, regardless of ________ Innervation

Bilateral

If you lesion the crossing fibers specifically you will lose ability to have discriminate touch, vibration, and pressure where?

Bilaterally

In the Dorsal column, medial lemniscus system, a lesion to the medial lemniscus will cause loss of discriminate touch modality _______

Bilaterally

Different tastes produce different reactions . Greatest sensitivity on back of tongue- protrusion of tongue, protective reactions

Bitter

________ can open up potential meningeal spaces

Bleeeing

In the _______ grey matter is external and white matter is internal

Brain

The tentorial notch is where the brain stem connects to the

Brain

Antidepressants increase the levels of neurotransmitters which leads to increased expression of what neurotrophic factor involved in neuroplasticity and synaptogenesis

Brain derived growth factor (BDGF)

What 5 parts make up the components of Central Nervous System? (BCBCS)

Brain, Cerebellum, Brain Stem, Cranial Nerves I-II, and Spinal cord

Everything that has to move afferently and efferently has to go through the

Brainstem

The dorsal (sensory)-ventral (motor) arrangement in the spinal cord becomes a lateral-medial arrangement in the _________

Brainstem

1. Loss of ipsilateral voluntary motor below the level of the lesion (spastic paralysis) and affected lower motor neurons on the ipsilateral aspect would cause a flaccid paralysis at that level 2.Loss of ipsilateral discriminative touch, vibration, and position sense 3. Contralateral loss of PAIN and TEMPERATURE sense below the level of the lesion. 4. Loss of pain and temperature ipsilateral to the damage at the level Collectively are clinical features of

Brown- Sequard syndrome

What condition is defined as a compression or lesion of one-half of the spinal cord?

Brown-Sequard syndrome

Trauma causes shearing of cranial nerve I fascicles from epithelium to the _______ as they pass through the cribriform plate. Olfactory neurons in epithelium can regenerate, but the plate scars over so the axons can't penetrate

Bulb (olfactory bulb)

Colliculus means

Bump

Fasiculus means

Bundle

What are two drugs used in a peripheral nerve block for a long term effect?

Bupivacaine and Ropivacaine

What drug has a long duration of action and is not used in day surgery (2 factors making it similar to ropivicaine) and has the greatest risk of cardiotoxicity

Bupivicaine

The branchial efferent axons originate at the facial nucleus to innervate muscles of _______ ________ and _______

Facial expression and Stapedius

Medulla and pons contain what important centers?

Cardiovascular Respiratory centers

The throbbing pain also called the second pain that follows an immediate sharp pain is caused by what fibers?

C fibers

Unmyelinated fiber bundles are called

C fibers

Lateral vesicles have a large what kind of shape? (Not a typo)

C shape

Taste (SVA) from Posterior 1/3rd of tongue is what cranial nerve

CN IX

Touch for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is what cranial nerve

CN IX

What cranial nerve innervates the parotid gland

CN IX (GVE)

Touch for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is what cranial nerve

CN V

Taste (SVA) from anterior 2/3 of the tongue is what cranial nerve

CN VII

Everything in the thorax and abdomen parasympathetically up to the left colic flexure is innervated by what cranial nerve?

CN X

Taste (SVA) from Epiglottis is what cranial nerve

CN X

Touch (GSA) for the epiglottis is what cranial nerve?

CN X

Falx cerebri separates ________ hemispheres

Cerebral

In general, axonal tracts in the ______ do not regenerate well following injury

CNS (in part because of inhibitory proteins expresses by oligodendrocytes)

Normally _______ is colorless, odorless, and clear

CSF

Pia mater + Ependyma>Telachoroidia > Choroid plexus > ________

CSF

What fills the Ventricles and space of the brain

CSF

Neurotransmitter release is _______ dependent

Ca2+ (Calcium)

Which drug is a stimulant and a competitive antagonist at adenosine A1 and A2 receptors

Caffeine

What drug is used to treat epilepsy by slowing down the rate of firing of neurons by way of interfering with the conformational changes of the Na+ channel

Carbamazepine

L-DOPA crosses the blood-brain barrier and it is ALWAYS given with ___________ to reduce peripheral conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine

Carbidopa

What condition includes Cerebellar vermal displacement along with hydrocephalus and possible spina bifida

Chiari Malformation Type II (Arnold-Chiari)

Any GVA axons from CN X (aortic chemo and baroreceptors, thoracic and abdominal viscera) terminate in the _______ collection of neurons in the Nucleus Solitarius

Caudal

GVA axons from CN VII terminate in the Nucleus Solitarius __________ collection of neurons

Caudal

Structures _________ to the junction between the midbrain and diencephalon take on conventional directional terms of the body

Caudal

"If you see a stem that says hoarseness of voice and dysphasia immediately put yourself in the ________ _______ "

Caudal Medulla

The GVA on IX from the carotid sinus, from the carotid nerve, any GVA relays to the brain stem to

Caudal Nucleus Solitarius

I see nucleus Gracilis and I see nucleus Cuneatus so we must be in what part of the medulla

Caudal medulla

Nucleus Ambiguus is only found in the

Caudal medulla

Where do fibers cross the neuroaxis in the trigeminal system

Caudal medulla

Nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus are only found in the ________ _________

Caudal medulla (you will also see pyramidal decussation)

Any GVA axons from CN VII, IX, or X terminate in the _______ collection of neurons from NS while any SVA (like anterior 2/3rds of taste from CN VII) axons from CN VII, IX, or X will terminate in the _______ collection of neurons

Caudal, Rostral

Basal ganglia ________ and _________ make up the Striatum

Caudate and Putamen

Dorsal, cranial, and autonomic are Neuronal ________ in the PNS

Cell bodies

In stained sections in the spinal cord white matter is

Cell bodies

In the brain wet section what will appear grey? And where will it be locatee

Cell bodies, external

What is the hollow tube inside the spinal cord called?

Central canal

What are the three trans-tentorial herniations?

Central, Upward Cerebellar, and Downward Cerebellar

Falx cerebelli separates _______ hemispheres

Cerebellar

The main name for cisterna magna is

Cerebellomedullary cistern

Choroid plexus is located in the lateral ventricles, interventricular foramina, 3rd ventricle, and 4th ventricle but Choroid Plexus is not normally found in the

Cerebral aqueduct

The aqueduct of sylvius also called the _____ _______ connects the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle

Cerebral aqueduct

The mesencephalon houses the

Cerebral aqueduct

What is the name of the stalks that connect the CEREBRAL hemispheres to the brain stem

Cerebral peduncle (cris cerebri)

The source of blood in a subarachnoid, intraparenchymal, or intraventricular hemorrhage is likely

Cerebral vein or artery

The ______ (cortex) is s the largest and most complex part of the brain and consists of two hemispheres: the cerebral hemispheres

Cerebrum

In ________ ___________ Cerebellar tissues (tonsils) are forced downward into the foramen magnum (spinal canal) because of abnormal development or lack of space in cranial vault.

Chiari Malformation

What is the name of a drug used in a peripheral nerve block for a short term effect?

Chloroprocaine

________ ________ cells interconnected by tight junctions. The side facing the CSF has an increased surface area due to microvilli

Choroidal epithelial cells

Non communicating (regarding hydrocephalus) means that we are not communicating between the subarachnoid space and _____ (meaning that the 4th ventricle is the boundary)

Cisterns

The fourth ventricle is used to exit and enter the ______

Cisterns (associated with subarachnoid space .....these are large)

Things can only enter the cerebellum from what two fibers?

Climbing fiber or mossy fiber

Glycine is intriguing because it is a Major inhibitory NT in the spinal cord and a _______ for NMDA-type glutamate receptors

Co-agonist

What drug acts on the dopamine uptake transporter (DAT)?

Cocaine

What drug of abuse blocks the DAT (Dopamine) and NET (Norepinephrine) and voltage gated sodium channels

Cocaine

Which drug is a stimulant and drug of abuse that inhibits dopamine and norepinephrine transporters (DAT, NET) also inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels (local anesthetic-like effect). Can cause Stoke or MI due to cardiac stimulation

Cocaine

The posterior nucleus of hypothalamus is ________ sensitive meaning stimulation causes heat conservation

Cold

Layers 1,2, and 3 talking to layers 1,2 and 3 in the other hemisphere are using what kind of fiber?

Commissural fiber

If your right frontal lobe wants to talk to your left temporal lobe what fibers will be used?

Commissural fibers

The area where crossing occurs

Commissures

The left and rights sides of the brain are connected by bundles of axons called

Commissures

Where do decussations occur?

Commisures

Compression or transverse lesion of entire spinal cord is called a _________ ________ ________

Complete cord transection

Loss of 1. discriminative touch, vibration, and position sense 2. Pain and temperature sensation 3. voluntary motor from below the lesion Are all clinical features of a _______ ________ ________

Complete cord transection (lose everything below the lesion)

Severe damage to the spinal cord and no motor or sensory function below the level of injury is what kind of spinal cord injury?

Complete spinal cord injury

Abnormal "fanning" of toes of usually a sign of a lesion to the _____________ tract or and Upper Motor Neuron

Corticospinal tract

What tract terminates on the ventral horn

Corticospinal tract

What 3 tracts loves to travel along the posterior limb of the internal capsule?

Corticospinal, spinothalamic, and medial lemniscus tracts

Tegmentum means

Covering

In the polysynaptic reflex called golgi tendon reflex, the Golgi tendon organ signals on the 1b sensory neurons; the sensory neurons synapse on the inhibitory interneuron. Then the inhibitory interneuron synapses on the alpha motor neuron thereby inhibiting muscle __________ and causing muscle relaxation and subsequent dropping of the weight/load

Contraction (think about it )

In a unilateral LMN lesion the uvula deviates away from the lesion upon phonation. Muscles on ipsilateral side are no longer Innervated so uvula is pulled to ___________ side

Contralateral

Lesions of the trigeminolemniscus tract results in ___________ deficits

Contralateral

Sensory and motor functions for ONE side of the body are connected with the ____________ forebrain (thalamus of the Diencephalon and cortex it the telencephalon

Contralateral

A substantial deviation of the uvula.... this is why the doctor says open up your mouth and say ahh. This is phonation..... and upon phonation the uvula can be deviated. The uvula will deviate ________ the side of a nucleus ambiguus lesion

Contralateral (opposite)

What represents the termination of the spinal cord?

Conus medullaris

_______ sections are viewed as if standing face to face with the patient

Coronal

Extracellular mineral deposits called brain sand that increase with age and make the pineal gland more visible during imaging

Corpora Aranaceum

What is the name of the largest commissure?

Corpus callosum

The ParaSympathetic nervous system being ____________ means that the preganglionic cell bodies located in cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X and in cell bodies in S2-S4

Craniosacral

The corticobulbar axons targeting the motor nucleus of V cross in the _________

Cortex

If you move tangentially and parallel to the pial surface, we will be traversing _______ _____

Cortical areas

If we put a probe 90 degrees to the surface and straight down we are orthogonal (perpendicular) to the Paul surface and we are traversing _______ ________

Cortical layers

What fibers/tracts love to travel in the genu of the internal capsule

Corticobulbar

Medial Midbrain syndrome can present as the affected eye is down on the affected side side ((Oculomotor) and on the contralateral side loss of motor function due to lesion of _________ tract

Corticospinal

Which two major tracts decussate at the caudal medulla

Corticospinal (somatic efferent) and Medial Lemniscus (discriminate touch)

In this reflex a painful stimulus from the RIGHT FOOT sends a signal through the sensory neuron to the CNS where synapses occur with multiple interneurons (polysynaptic). Interneurons synapse with alpha motor neurons for right leg. Thereby inhibiting extensors (quadriceps muscles) so they relax. And stimulating flexors so they contract. INTERNEURONS synapse on other INTERNEURONS for left leg (contralateral) thereby stimulating the extensors (quadriceps muscles) and inhibiting the flexors (hamstring muscles)

Crossed-Extensor reflex (helps you keep your balance)

Which reflex normally follows the withdrawal reflex

Crossed-extensor reflex (makes sense)

What are Decussations?

Crossings

In sensory pathways the synapse AWAYS occurs before the _______

Crossover

If you are ventral you will see the olives and the pyramid, but if you are dorsal you will see the _______ and _______

Cuneate tubercle and Gracile Tubercle

What mediates all touch from T6 and above

Cuneatus

What ascending pathway conveys signals from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs about individual muscles in the UPPER extremities

Cuneocerebellar pathway

Which spinal cord layer becomes the inner gray matter of the spinal cord

Mantle layer

The condition defined by congenital absence of the lateral (foramen of Luschka) and medial (foramen of Magendie) apertures which can cause hydrocephalus is called?

Dandy-Walker Syndrome

The superchiasmatic nucleus is active during the _______ and it send projections to inhibit the pineal gland

Day

______ rigidity is an infratentorial lesion at or below the red nucleus and MR LV (Medial Rubrospinal and Lateral Vestibulococchlear) is not being inhibited big brain so upper and lower limbs are extended

Decerebrate rigidity

______ rigidity is a supratentorial lesion above the red nucleus that involves flexion of the upper limb and extension of the lower limbs

Decorticate rigidity

What condition requiring prophylactic treatment should be monitored beginning 72 hours after a spinal cord injury? ________ _____ ______

Deep Vein Thrombosis

Mossy and Climbing fibers both synapse on the

Deep cerebellar nuclei ('bringing in information from your world')

What nuclei does the lateral to medial mnemonic Don't Eat greasy foods stand for?

Dentate, emboliform, Globose, fastigial

Carbamazepine is a use-__________ block meaning it does not completely inhibit the voltage gated Na channels

Dependent

Ion channels permit direct entry of sodium (salty) or protons (sour), which leads to _________ followed by calcium-dependent. Neurotransmitter release at base of cell

Depolarization

Transduction of odorants into neural signals uses G-protein receptors. Odorant binds directly to receptors, or via proteins in mucus (odorant binding proteins) that shuttle to receptor. Activation of receptor causes activation of Golf (red) dissociates from receptor and activates olfactory specific adenylyl cyclase (AC). AC catalyzes production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from hydrolysis of ATP. cAMP binds to and opens cation channels. Calcium and sodium entry _________ membrane and activates olfactory sensory neuron

Depolarize

Drugs that block the serotonin transporter serve to are used to treat

Depression

Ruffini and Pacinian corpuscles are found in what layer of the skin? (Indicating that they have large receptive fields)

Dermis (Deep dermis)

________ is used as a therapeutic for anxiety, epilepsy, agitation, insomnia, muscle spasms, and pre-anesthesia

Diazepam

The thalamus and hypothalamus walls arise from the

Diencephalon

What vesicle does the third ventricle arise from

Diencephalon

What are the 5 Major subdivisions of the CNS (DCBCS)

Diencephalon, cerebral hemispheres, brain stem, cerebellum, spinal cord

CSF flows from the villus and into the venous blood by ________ as the pressure driving the CSF is higher than that in the venous circulation

Diffusion

DWS stands for

Dilated 4th ventricle Water on the brain Small vermis

In addition to tetrabenazine, Amphetamines inhibit vesicular storage and release of _______

Dopamine

Modulator (___________) functions via actions on direct and instinct pathway

Dopamine

Tetrabenazine treatment inhibits the release and vesicular storage of _______

Dopamine

What is VMAT2 a transporter for?

Dopamine

Name the three catecholamines

Dopamine, Norepinephrine, and epinephrine

What are the three monoamine NTs (DSN)

Dopamine, Serotonin, and norepinephrine

Parkinson's Disease includes degeneration of __________ neurons in Substantia nigra (specifically Substantia nigra compacta)

Dopaminergic

In ventral horn somatotopy cells supplying flexor muscles are _____ to those supplying extensor muscles

Dorsal

Lesion of the POSTERIOR SPINAL ARTERY will affect the ________ column resulting in loss of pressure, touch, vibration, and proprioception

Dorsal

The _______ part of the facial nucleus innervates the upper quadrant of the face

Dorsal

Within the ________ column medially to laterally (you go from lower limb to upper limb) you have sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical

Dorsal

When the anterior spinal artery is lesioned disruptions in the spinothalamic and lateral corticospinal tracts result. However there is no loss of Touch, Pressure, Vibration, or Proprioception, because the ________ _________ tract is unaffected (being supplied by the Posterior Spinal arteries)

Dorsal Column (Medial Lemniscus)

The GVE axons for CNX to innervate mainly the thoracic and abdominal viscera originate at what nucleus?

Dorsal Motor Nucleus of Vagus

1st order cell bodies for Somatic sensory systems are where?

Dorsal Root Ganglion

Discriminate touch is what system

Dorsal column/medial lemniscus

The alar plate is also known as the _______ _______

Dorsal horn

Which hypothalamic nucleus results in obesity and savage behavior when activated?

Dorsomedial Nucleus

"The importance of staying on board"

Doublecortin

Microtubule associated protein important for proper migration

Doublecortin

What drugs acts on the norepinephrine uptake transporter (NET)

Duloxetine

What meningeal layer is tough, inflexible, sensitive to pain, has its own blood supply, separates compartments of the cranial vault and restrict brain from displacement

Dura mater

Source of blood in a subdural hematoma or epidural hematoma _______ _______ _______

Dural venous sinus

Impairment of ability to perform rapid alternating movements

Dysdiadochokinesia

__________ is the inability of patients with cerebellar dysfunction to pronate and supinate

Dysdiadochokinesia

What word means improper measuring of distance in muscular acts

Dysmetria

P-glycoprotein (P-gp) is a key _______ transporter that removes DRUGS and other molecules from the brain

Efflux (preventing drug accumulation)

Metal electrode is placed on the scalp to measure brain activity in what type of polysomnogram

Electroencephalogram (EEC)

Salty taste is detected by the

Electrolyte detector

Metal electrode is placed on the muscles to measure muscle activity what kind of polysomnogram is this?

Electromyogram

Metal electrode is placed around the eyes to measure eye movements what kind of polysomnogram is this?

Electrooculogram

What are microglial cells derived from?

Embryonic mesoderm

In what condition does the rostral Neuro pore fail to close and protrusion of the brain/neural tissue, meninges, and spinal fluid occur?

Encephalocele

In obstructive hydrocephalus treatment using _______ __________ ________ an endoscope is maneuvered into the lateral ventricle, interventricular foramen, and the 3rd ventricle. There the floor of the 3rd ventricle is broken allowing CSF release and absorption

Endoscopic Third ventriculostomy (ETV)

What two procedures can be done when a patient has hydrocephalus?

Endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) and shunt

Created by pia mater capillaries that contain fenestrations

Endothelium

Telachoroidia comes from what two entities?

Ependymal cells and pia mater

When thalamus talks to cortex it's always going to be

Excitatory

Merkel receptors and meissner's corpuscles are found in what layer of the skin? (Indicating that they have small receptive fields)

Epidermis

Convex lens shaped hematoma? ________ ______

Epidural hematoma

Hematoma that is Pushing down on the brain matter instead of spreading along the skull due to SKULL SUTURES

Epidural hematoma

Potential space between the skull and dura is called

Epidural space

There are many GABAa receptor mutations linked to what condition

Epilepsy

What is the condition including recurring seizures called

Epilepsy

What are the 4 functional regions of the Diencephalon

Epithalamus, subthalamic, Hypothalamus, and thalamus

Chlorprocaine is an ______ and is metabolized by plasma esterases (e.g. butyrylcholinesterase)

Ester

As a rule the local anesthetic esters have a shorter duration of action because they are subject to degradation by _______ in the plasma while amides are metabolized in the liver

Esterases (like butyrylcholinesterase/pseudocholinesterase)

__________ is a positive allosteric modulator at GABAa and causes behavioral disinhibition are low levels and ataxia and sedation at high levels

Ethanol (alcohol)

In craniorachischisis, the entire spinal cord and brain are

Exposed

The CSF system has 2 parts: the ______ is BEYOND the ventricular system and has the cisterns and subarachnoid space (80% Total Volume)

External

If the middle cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be affected? ________ and _______ limbs

Face and lower limbs

If the anterior cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be spared? ______ and _______ limbs

Face and upper limbs

What two CN VII nuclei are located in the pons?

Facial Nuclei (BE) and Superior Salivatory Nuclei (GVE)

What's the nucleus associated with the muscles of facial expression?

Facial nucleus

_______ ________ separates cerebellar hemispheres

Falx cerebelli

_______ _______ separates cerebral hemispheres

Falx cerebri

A GSA fiber entering from T6 and above is called

Fasiculus Cuneatus

A GSA fiber entering the CNS from T7 and below you are called

Fasiculus Gracilis

Downward Cerebellar/ Tonsillar transtentorial herniation is rapidly _______. This can compromise the brain stem

Fatal

Rare genetic disorder——hallucination; loss of motor control, seizures, inability to enter deep sleep; death within 18 months of initial symptoms is defined as what disorder? _______ _______ _______

Fatal familial insomnia

"The Importance of taking the train"

Filamin

Which actin-binding protein is responsible for initiating migration of neurons?

Filamin

What papillae don't have taste buds?

Filiform papillae

What test can be done to determine if a patient has appendicular ataxia?

Finger-nose-finger test (also called the pass pointing test)

What part of the body has the greatest discriminative capacity?

Fingertips (different from fingerprints which is dense with mechanoreceptors)

Regarding local anesthetics things inhibited by a higher concentration recover ______ and things inhibited by a lower concentration recover_____

First, Last (once that concentration has dropped below the concentration needed for inhibition it becomes active while it will take longer for the concentration to drop low enough for pain neurons to become active)

A lower motor neuron lesion leads to what kind of paralysis?

Flaccid paralysis

Each of the deep cerebellar nuclei work with one functional region for example fastigial nucleus loves

Flocculonodular lobe

The fastigial nucleus loves what cerebellar anatomical structure?

Flocculonodular lobe

By inhibiting serotonin transporters (SERT) ______ the extracellular serotonin levels increase and aiding in treatment of depression

Fluoxetine

What drugs act on the serotonin transporter?

Fluoxetine and duloxetine

Most spinal cord defects occur in the lumbosacral area and can be prevented by maternal use of ________ prior to and during pregnancy

Folic acid

What is the name of the foramen that connects the 4th ventricle to the quadrigeminal cistern (superior cistern/ cistern of the great cerebral vein)

Foramen of Luschka (lateral aperture Left and right)

What is the name of the foramen that connects the 4th ventricle to the cerebellomedullary cistern (cisterna magna)

Foramen of Magendie (median Aperture)

(Pro)enchephalon

Forebrain (Advancing forward)

In which ataxia is everything Fried?(symptoms include muscle weakness and I coordination. Diabetes and heart disease may also be present in some patients

Friedreich's Ataxia

The central sulcus separates which lobes?

Frontal and Parietal lobes

Diazepam is a positive allosteric modulator because it binds to a location different from the _______ binding site

GABA

GABAb is metabotropic receptor for inhibitory

GABA

The benzodiazepines require ______ to be present in order to work

GABA

The most important inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is

GABA

______ is a Major inhibitory NT in the brain

GABA

What are two amino acid neurotransmitters?

GABA and Glutamate

What are the two GABA receptors?

GABAa and GABAb

The ventro-lateral preoptic area (VLPO) is a region in the anterior hypothalamus that contains inhibitory ___________(ergic) neurons

GABAergic

Where does any touch, pain, vibration originate?

GSA (skin)

D2 coupled inhibitory receptors are coupled to

Gi

Putamen and ______ ________ makes up the lentiform

Globus Pallidus

Dendrites of mitral and tufted cells collect information from _________

Glomeruli

The most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is

Glutamate

VGLUT is a vesicular transporter for

Glutamate

_______ is a Major inhibitory NT in the spinal cord

Glycine

The drainage formed by astrocytes that form a perivascular space around arteries and veins within the brain. The drainage here is most active during SLEEP. This system removes debris (proteins) discarded by cells through metabolism.

Glymphatic System

Located at the origins and insertions of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle these entities are Proprioceptive sensory organs that detect changes in muscles tension and they are called ________ ________ ________

Golgi Tendon Organs

Weight is too much to bare forcing you to drop it represents what reflex?

Golgi tendon reflex

What condition is associated with mutations in sonic hedgehog (SHH) signaling, disregulated cholesterol biosynthesis, chromosomal abnormalities (Ch13), and fetal alcohol syndrome

Holoprosencephaly

The nucleus gracilus and nucleus cuneatus create what bumps?

Gracile tubercle and Cuneate Tubercle

What mediates all touch from T7 and below

Gracilus

What between the Bone Morphogenic Proteins and Sonic Hedgehog Protein dictates the neuron formation specificity?

Gradient

mossy fibers terminate on what cells

Granule cells

Pterygoid muscles allow you to _______ your food

Grind

D1 coupled stimulatory receptors are coupled to

Gs

The folds that are bulges/ridges are called

Gyri

_______ what drug is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist used to treat schizophrenia

Haloperidol

______ and ________ have more neurons designated for them in both motor and somatosensory primary cortices than other regions

Hands and face

Collection of Blood that is static

Hematoma

Which hyperkinetic disorder stems from the contralateral Subthalamic nucleus and presents as sudden wild flailing of 1 arm and the ipsilateral leg

Hemiballismus

Damaged subthalamic nucleus and we no longer have the excitation to globus pallidus interna and not as much inhibition to thalamus so more excitation to cortex

Hemiballismus (corticospinal)

Paralysis of one half of the body; typically in focal brain injuries usually seen in stroke and not spinal cord injuries

Hemiplegia

Blood that is bleeding out

Hemmorhage

Which association cortex requires integration of abstract sensory and motor information together with motivational and emotional influences

Heteromodal Association Cortex

(Rhombo)encephalon

Hindbrain (Diamond shaped)

What two areas does neurogenesis occur?

Hippocampus and olfactory bulb

What condition results in a single-lobed brain structure, skull, and facial defects

Holoprosencephaly

In what hyperkinetic CNS degenerative disease is the striatum affected and has clinical features of Chorea and athetosis

Huntington's Disease

Which CNS degnerative disorder is caused by a repeat disorder on Chromosome 4

Huntington's Disease

Tetrabenazine is used to treat

Huntington's disease

What happens if there is a blockage of CSF flow or absorption?

Hydrocephalus

______ may develop in spina bifida if the spinal cord is tethered to the sacrum. As the spinal cord lengthens, tethering pulls the cerebellum into foremen magnum, cutting off CSF flow

Hydrocephaly

GABAa is ionotropic receptor for inhibitory GABA. When activated CL- rushes in leading to _____________ of the neuron

Hyperpolarization

Histaminergic neurons can be found in the posterior ______ (tuberomamillary (TBM) nucleus)

Hypothalamus

What are the lower motor neurons of cranial nerves?

III, IV, VI, VII, XII, Nucleus Ambiguus

Nucleus Proprius (Proper Sensory Nucleus) includes what lamina?

III, IV, and V

Where will we find parasympathetic in the cranial nerves?

III, VII, IX, and X

Layer _____ receives the inputs from the thalamus

IV

In NonCommunicating or _____________ hydrocephalus, CSF FLOW is impaired within the ventricles PROXIMAL to foramen of magendie

In Communicating or ____________ hydrocephalus, CSF absorption is impaired. Usually due to functional problems of the arachnoid granulations (villi) or blockage distal to the foramen of Magendie

What does the prefix encephalo- mean?

In the brain

Damage to spinal cord with some evidence of motor and sensory function (e.g., feeling but little or no movement) is what type of spinal cord injury?

Incomplete (partial) spinal cord injury

In brain ischemia (stroke) glutamate levels will be______leading to glutamate-mediated excitotoxicity

Increased

Climbing fibers only come from what nucleus?

Inferior Olivary Nucleus

In Rostral Medulla you will see what 2 things

Inferior Olivary Nucleus and inferior cerebellar Peduncle

The GVE axons of CN IX to innervate the parotid gland originate at what nucleus?

Inferior Salivatory Nucleus (Salivatory is the hint)

Lidocaine is commonly used for _________ anesthesia

Infiltration

When a stretch reflex is activated, the opposing muscle group must be ________, preventing the muscle groups from working simultaneously against each other

Inhibited

Fluoxetine is an SSRI. It is a selective ________ of serotonin transporters

Inhibitor

D2 dopamine receptors are what kind of receptors

Inhibitory

When Basal ganglia talk to thalamus it's always gonna be _______

Inhibitory

Regarding principal inputs and outputs of the basal ganglia. From cerebral cortex to Striatum is an _______ while from striatum to thalamus is an ______

Input and output

If you pry open the sylvian fissure (lateral sulcus) you will see which lobe?

Insula

What is the 5th lobe called?

Insula

Where is the primary gustatory cortex located

Insula

The CSF system has 2 parts: the _________ includes the lateral ventricles, interventricular foramina (foramen of monro), 3rd ventricle, cerebral aqueduct, 4th ventricle (20% volume)

Internal

What axons traverse between the basal ganglia, putamen and caudate (striate), and Putamen and Globus Pallidus (lentiform)

Internal capsule (post thalamus everything needing to get to and leave the brain must pass here first)

What two systems that supply the brain have an anastomoses?

Internal carotid arterial system and vertebral/basilar arterial system

The main name for the cisterna interpeduncularis or chiasmatic stem is

Interpeduncular cistern

Globose and emboliform together are called the

Interposed nucleus

What is the name of the area on the third ventricle where the thalami attach

Interthalamic adhesion

What foramina connect the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle?

Interventricular foramina (foramen of Monro)

1 out of the 7 serotonin receptors is

Ionotropic

The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of what kind of receptor?

Ionotropic receptor (ligand-gated ion channel)

Ligand-gated ion channel receptors are also called

Ionotropic receptors (like nicotonic ACh receptor)

In a LMN lesion to accessory the patient would be unable to rotate head away from lesion and unable to raise ________ shoulder

Ipsilateral

Lesion of motor nucleus of Trigeminal or peripheral axons result in _________ atrophying of all muscles of mastication

Ipsilateral

Sensory and motor functions for ONE side of the body are CONNECTED WITH the ___________ CEREBELLUM

Ipsilateral

Since the corticobulbar axons targeting the motor nucleus of trigeminal cross in the cortex, the motor neurons of Trigeminal and it's peripheral axons innervate the _________ muscles of mastication

Ipsilateral

In an UMN lesion to accessory the patient t would be unable to rotate head away from lesion and unable to raise _________ shoulder

Ipsilateral (same for accessory LMN)

Lesions/trauma on one side of the neural axis can result in symptoms either on the same side ________ or opposite side _________ to the lesion

Ipsilateral and contralateral

If motor nucleus of Trigeminal or its peripheral axons is lesioned when opening the jaw, the jaw will deviate __________ toward the side of the lesion due to weakened pterygoid muscles.

Ipsilaterally

What is the name of the receptors that respond to touch and cold temperature. Found in specialized locations around the body like mucous membranes and synovial membrane

Krause End bulbs

What is the precursor for dopamine

L-DOPA

Conus medullaris in adults is at what vertebral level _____/______

L1/L2

The spinal cord has both a sacral and coccygeal region. It typically ends at around ____/______ and it is safe to puncture at L3/L4 or L4/L5 for adults. Go NO HIGHER than L4/L5 in children

L1/L2

Conus medullaris in newborns is at what vertebral level?

L3

Lumbar puncture is safe in adults caudal to what vertebral level?

L3

What is an agonist for the serotonin receptor 5-HT2A associated with hallucinations

LSD

What structure looks like Darth Vader on cross section?

Large Middle Cerebellar Peduncles

Which hypothalamic nucleus induces eating (think lunch) and regulates pleasure and reward

Lateral

In our neuroembryological construct of organization .... Motor medial Sensory _______

Lateral (e.g.

Disruption of nucleus Solitarius and nucleus ambiguus is only seen in _________ ______ ________

Lateral Medullary Syndrome (never PICA hoarse that can't eat)

Which tract originates in the reticular formation in the medulla and inhibits effect on voluntary motor and reflex responses of axial and limb muscles and Decreases muscle tone by inhibiting muscle spindle activity

Lateral Reticulospinal tract (Lateral- Stop!)

Which tract may inhibit some flexor motor neurons but mainly provides an excitatory influence on spinal motor neurons innervating extensors to maintain posture (e.g. extensors in the legs

Lateral Vestibulospinal tract

Which sulcus separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe

Lateral sulcus (Sylvian fissure)

After the Suprachiasmatic neuron projects to the paraventricular nucleus (PVN) the PVN projects to the __________ ________ horn of the thoracic cord

Lateral thoracic

The telencephalon includes which ventricles

Lateral ventricles

What layer is internal granular

Layer 4

What layer is internal pyramidal

Layer 5

What layer outputs to the striatum, brain stem, and spinal cord

Layer V

Communicating between cortexes is layers what?

Layers 1,2, and 3

The mammillary body is involved in both _______ and ______

Learning and memory

An occlusion of the middle cerebral artery can cause LANGUAGE deficits in addition to BILATERAL motor and somatosensory deficits if _____ hemisphere is involved

Left

When there is a lesion to Hypoglossus nucleus (LMN) on the right the side the tongue will deviate to the right side because the ______ side is unopposed

Left

The nucleus ambiguus for CNX on the right innervates (by way of BE) all (most) of the pharynx, larynx, and palate on the RIGHT. If the nucleus ambiguus on the right is lesioned the uvula will deviate to the

Left (this is due in part to the right palate being unable to elevate so the left side will successfully pull the uvula to its side )

If a patient comes in saying they have loss their ability to feel pain and temperature on their right side, the person likely has a lesion on the

Left side (spinothalamic/anterolateral system very long spinothalamic tract)

Putamen and Globus Pallidus make up the __________

Lentiform

A Spinal anesthetic which is administered into the subarachnoid space requires ______ dosage than an epidural injection

Less

L-DOPA stands for

Levodopa

Carbamazepine slows the rate at which the voltage gated sodium channel works so the channel is still working but ________ has a more aggressive effect. It actually blocks the sodium channel to PREVENTS repetitive firing

Lidocaine

emla cream is a combination of two different anesthetics that can be used as a cream to the surface of the skin. Which two anesthetics?

Lidocaine and Prilocaine

In orientation columns, a column in visual cortex may respond specifically to a bar of ______ in a particular orientation

Light

Melatonin which is secreted by the pineal gland is inhibited by

Light

What is the main extrinsic zeitberger?

Light

Meissner's corpuscles are sensitive to ______ _____. As a result these receptors are concentrated in areas like the fingers and lips

Light touch

Males with doublecortin mutation exhibit _________, pachygyri, and mental retardation

Lissencephaly (smooth brain, no gyri)

The positively charged _______ ________ binds to the Na+ channel thereby blocking the sodium channel and preventing Na+ from entering the cell and preventing an action potential. Allowing for the loss of sensation

Local anesthetic

Carbamazepine binds to inactivated channel and slows conversion to closed state and prevent high firing while _______ _______ bind to Open and inactivated channel and they STOP channel activation and Na+ reentry

Local anesthetics

You need higher doses of ______ _________ to have effects on touch pressure and motor function while A(Delta) ant C fibers which are for pain require less concentration or dosage

Local anesthetics

pKa of _______ ________ is normally between 7.5 and 10

Local anesthetics

Noradrenergic neurons are found in the

Locus Coeruleus

Where are the cell bodies for norepinephrine?

Locus ceruleus

During NREM sleep muscle tone, eye movements, and brain activity are all _____

Low

If the anterior cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be affected? _______ limbs

Lower

If the middle cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be spared? _______ limbs

Lower limbs

In a ________ ________ or spinal tap a needle pierces the skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space (contains the internal vertebral plexus), dura, arachnoid, and finally the subarachnoid space where CSF is drawn

Lumbar puncture

When Glutamate binds the AMPA receptor on the post synaptic neuron, a wave of depolarization occurs. This activates NMDA receptors and removes the ______ block from over NMDA

Magnesium

Superior Sagittal, straight, transverse and sigmoid are the 4 ______ venous sinuses

Major

The rostral Midbrain will have what two structures?

Mammillary Bodies and Red Nucleus

Which hypothalamic nucleus receives input from the hippocampal donation via fornix

Mammillary body

Which layer of the spinal cord is the last layer to form and becomes the inner grey matter of the spinal cord

Mantle layer (VMM)

The suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus is often called the _______ ______

Master clock

A-beta fibers (axons) correspond with which sensation

Mechanoreceptor

Fingerprints contain a dense matrix of what kind of receptors?

Mechanoreceptors

In ventral horn somatotopy cells supplying proximal musculature are _______ to those supplying distal limbs

Medial

On our neuroembryological construct Motor _______ Sensory Lateral

Medial

Occlusion of branches of the anterior spinal artery (AT THE LEVEL OF THE MEDULLA) On one one side or medullary branches of vertebral artery is defined as what syndrome?

Medial Medullary Syndrome (Inferior Alternating/Dejerine's Syndrome)

Which tract originates in the the pons and facilitates voluntary movements and increases muscle tone by acting on gamma motor neurons

Medial Reticulospinal tract (Medial Go)

Which tract maintains posture of the head and neck and terminates in cervical spinal cord levels?

Medial Vestibulospinal tract

Anterior Spinal Artery give some branches to the _______ before it drains into the vertebral arteries

Medulla

The accessory nucleus is located where?

Medulla

Where is the Hypoglossal nuclei locates?

Medulla

Anterior spinal artery occlusion at the level of the spinal cord is DIFFERENT than anterior spinal artery occlusion at the level of the

Medulla (Possible Medial Medullary Syndrome affecting multiple structures including Medial Lemniscus, Anterior CorticoSpinal, and Hypoglossal nucleus)

What two receptors are examples of superficial mechanoreceptors

Meissner's corpuscle and merkel's receptors

The sympathetic gland will act on The pineal gland to secrete ________ in times of darkness

Melatonin

What is the main intrinsic zeitgeber?

Melatonin

In addition to the primary olfactory Cortex, the primary olfactory tract will also project to the amygdala (emotions-aversion) and entorhinal Cortex which is critical for

Memory

What condition does the caudal Neuro pore fails to close and vertebrae fail to fuse and the meninges and spinal tissue push out through the opening in the vertebrae, forming a sac filled with spinal fluid and neural tissue

Meningomyelocele

Which receptor transmits pressure, position, texture sense, and 2 pt discrimination

Merkel receptor

Pretectum/Tegmentum develops from what vesicle?

Mesencephalon

Tectum (superior and inferior colliculi) develop from what vesicle?

Mesencephalon

The cerebral peduncle develops from what vesicle?

Mesencephalon

What vesicle does the aqueduct arise from

Mesencephalon

What cells condense to form the secondary neural tube (by neurulation)

Mesenchyme

Where do microglial cells reside?

Mesenchyme

The dopamine pathway which is from the central tegmental area to cerebral cortex

Mesocortical

Increased activity of which Dopamine pathway will lead to increased dopamine, psychotic behavior and drug induced psychosis

Mesolimbic

The ______ dopamine pathway goes from central tegmental area to limbic system

Mesolimbic

Most serotonin receptors are what type? (6 out of 7)

Metabotropic

The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of what kind of receptor?

Metabotropic receptor (G-Protein Coupled Receptor)

GPCR are also called

Metabotropic receptors

Cerebellum develops from what secondary vesicle?

Metencephalon

Pons develops from what secondary vesicle?

Metencephalon

The upper part of the 4th ventricle develops from what secondary vesicle?

Metencephalon

What vesicle do the pons and cerebellum arise from

Metencephalon

What vesicle does the upper part of the 4th ventricle arise from

Metencephalon

Benzocaine and lidocaine can both cause _________ as a side effect

Methemoglobinemia

What cells if the brain are not derived from neuroepithelial cells?

Microglia

(Mes)encephalon

Midbrain

Superior colliculis is associated with vision and located in the

Midbrain

Where is the nuclei for CN III located?

Midbrain

Where is the nuclei for CN IV located?

Midbrain

The neural axis bends at what junction

Midbrain-diencephalic junction

Injury to which artery will likely cause an epidural hematoma?

Middle meningeal artery

Without Reelin, earlier-born neurons stay attached to the radial glia fiber and block the _______ of later born neurons

Migration

Condition defined by a Mutation in the LIS1 gene leading to prolonged neuron migration, no gyri, and 4 cortical layers instead of 6

Miller-Dieker Syndrome

Inferior Sagittal sinus, occipital sinus, inferior petrosal sinus, and superior petrosal sinus are the four ______ venous sinuses

Minor

Dopamine can be metabolized by

Monoamine Oxidase-B

Output of the deep cerebellar nuclei is the result of the balance of excitation from _______ and ________ fibers and inhibition by the _______ cells

Mossy and climbing fibers, purkinje cells

Which tracts are descending sensory or motor

Motor

An occlusion of the middle cerebral artery causes RESTRICTED contralateral ______ and ______ deficits

Motor and somatosensory

Huntington's disease is hyperkinetic meaning there is increased ________

Movement

Parkinson's Disease is a hypokinetic disorder meaning that there less _________

Movement

One of the principles of cerebellar function is that lesions limited to the cerebullum DO NOT PRODUCE PARALYSIS (plegia)...they produce disequilibrium, ataxia, dysmetria, changes in _____ tone

Muscle

Sensory receptors within the body of the muscle that primarily detect changes in muscle length

Muscle spindles

Functionally the Peripheral nervous system links the peripheral structures of the body like ______ and ______ with the central nervous system

Muscles and glands

Motor nucleus of V innervates the

Muscles of mastication

What are the three types of proprioceptive mechanoreceptors

Muscles spindle receptors (stretch receptors), Golgi Tendon Organs (sense contractile Force or effort exerted), and Joint receptors (which sense flexion or extension of the Joint

Medulla arises from the

Myelencephalon

The lower part of the 4th ventricle arises from the

Myelencephalon

The medulla develops from what secondary vesicle?

Myelencephalon

The lower part of the 4th ventricle develops from what secondary vesicle?

Myelenephalon

Where are the teammates of the fasiculus cuneatus and fasiculus gracilis

Nucleus Cuneatus and Nucleus Gracilis

Knee jerk reflex is an example of what group of monosynaptic reflexes

Myotatic reflex

The binding of Glutamate to postsynaptic AMPA receptors causes a depolarization that activates which receptor

NMDA receptor

As the night progresses, sleep cycles are increasingly dominated by REM episodes and ________ amounts progressively decrease

NREM

Pattern of sleep cycle repeats 4-6 times per night. The first few cycles are dominated are dominated by the presence of _________. REM sleep amount is minimal in initial sleep cycles

NREM

________ is characterized by REM sleep attacks whole awake

Narcolepsy

An inhibitory Post Synaptic Potential will make the membrane potential more

Negative

A molecule binding to an allosteric site and inhibiting the actions of the receptor is called a

Negative allosteric Modulator

Principal Sensory Nucleus of Trigeminal is analogous to what nuclei responsibilities for painless touch below the face

Nucleus Gracilis (Nucleus Cuneatus)

The BE fibers for CNX to innervate the muscles of the larynx, pharynx, and palate originate from what nucleus?

Nucleus Ambiguus

Where do the BE axons to innervate Stylopharyngeus muscle by CN IX originate?

Nucleus Ambiguus

Where are the cell bodies for acetylcholine?

Nucleus Basalis of Meynert

Notochord(from mesoderm) induces the formation of the _______ _______ by week 3

Neural plate

Where do neuroepithelial cells come from?

Neuroectoderm

What CELLS are the cells within the brain and spinal cord derived from?

Neuroepithelial cells (one exception microglia)

Low heart rate despite low blood pressure is a key feature of ________ _______

Neurogenic shock (you have a loss of sympathetic tone thus heart rate is not compensating)

How do you treat encephalocele?

Neurosurgery

What is the process called by which the neural tube is formed from the neural plate

Neurulation

What drug is a stimulant and drug of abuse that acts as an agonist for nicotine acetylcholine receptors and ligand gated ion channels

Nicotine

The dopamine pathway that is from the substantia nigra to striatum

Nigrostriatal

In the Corticobulbar system, if you lesion the genu or the UMN in the corticobulbar tract there will be _____ ______

No deficit (due to bilateral Innervation with contralateral dominance)

Dandy Walker syndrome is an example of what type of hydrocephalus?

NonCommunicating (obstructive) hydrocephaly

In communicating or ____________ hydrocephalus. CSF ABSORPTION usually due to functional problems of the arachnoid granulations (villi) or blockage DISTAL to the foramen Magendie

NonObstructive

What is the agonist for adrenergic receptors

Norepinephrine

Olive is a collection of

Nuclei

Where do the BE axons originate to innervate the entire larynx, pharynx, and palate

Nucleus ambiguus

Where did the chemo and baroreceptors from cardio and Resp send their information? The send it to the ______ ________ in the medulla

Nucleus solitarius

Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus is also called

Obstructive hydrocephalus

Olfactory stimuli that must be small, volatile (airborne), and hydrophobic are called

Odorants

What is the only sensory system without an obligatory relay in the thalamus to reach cortex

Olfactory

The olfactory receptor neurons project to the

Olfactory bulb

What is the name of the ventral lateral structure on the medulla?

Olive

In the spinal cord there is _____ dural layer and it is suspended

One

OAP MA cerebral (what are the 5 branches of the Internal carotid Artery)

Ophthalmic artery, Anterior Choroidal Artery, Posterior Communicating Artery, Middle Cerebral Artery, and Anterior Cerebral artery

The 1a inhibitory interneuron prevents the alpha motor neuron from firing, thereby reducing the contraction of the _________ muscle

Opposing

Where does the primary olfactory cortex project to?

Orbital frontal cortex

Both the primary gustatory (43) and primary olfactory cortex (28 and 34) project to the

Orbitofrontal cortex

Gustatory cortex projects to what cortex?

Orbitofrontal cortex

In the lateral hypothalamic area orexinergic neurons can be found which use _______ as a neurotransmitter

Orexin

Haloperidol binds to what kind of site on the D2 receptor and is competing with dopamine

Orthosteric site

The site where the agonist binds is called the

Orthosteric site

Heterotopia means

Out of place

In the _______, nerves can regenerate

PNS

Impairment in motor or sensory function in LOWER EXTREMITIES is called a

Paraplegia

Which hypothalamic nucleus regulates water balance and produces ADH and oxytocin

Paraventricular Nucleus (and Supraoptic)

Suprachiasmatic nucleus projects to what nucleus of the hypothalamus?

Paraventricular nucleus

weakness; some muscle strength is preserved

Paresis

The parietal and occipital lobes are separated by the

Parieto-occupital sulcus

Neurons in the locus Coeruleus and raphe nucleus show evidence of __________ __________ well before pathology or cell death occurs in the substantia nigra

Parkinson's Disease

What is L-DOPA used to treat?

Parkinson's Disease

What is the name of the disease where a person loses some of the neurons that are releasing Dopamine?

Parkinson's Disease

What disease can Selegiline be used to treat?

Parkinson's Disease (by inhibiting metabolism of Dopamine)

CNVII: Superior Salivatory Nucleus use many GVE fibers to innervate Subling, submandibular, Lacrimal and Glands innervated by pterygopalatine ganglion. But CNIX: Inferior Salivatory Nucleus uses GVE fibers to innervate the

Parotid gland

________ is Defined as paralysis; all voluntary movement is lost while paresis is defined as weakness; some muscle strength is preserved

Plegia

What are the two layers of the dura mater

Periosteal and meningeal layers

If radial glial cells are unable to climb on the older radial glial and begin to ride clumps of neurons are appear and they are STUCK. This is called

Periventricular heterotopia

Mutations in the FLNA genes which codes for filamin result in

Periventricular heterotopia (males usually die in utero)

Vagus yields BE fibers to MOST of the skeletal muscles of

Pharynx, larynx, and palate

What does the double sheet lining the ventricles contain?

Pia and ependyma ( telachoroidia)

Which meningeal later is highly vascularized?

Pia mater

What is the order of meninge layers from deep to superficial?

Pia, Arachnoid, and Dura mater

The ______ gland is also called a circumventricular organ because it lacks a _____

Pineal (pineal gland), BBB

What are the two componenta of the epithalamus?

Pineal gland and habenular nuclei

The olfactory tract projects to the primary olfactory cortex which is also called the

Piriform cortex

The ________ (PSG) measures electrical activity using metal electrodes

Polysomnogram

Facial nuclei are located in the

Pons

When large middle cerebellar peduncles are observed on cross sections what brainstem level is shown?

Pons

Where are the abducens nuclei locates?

Pons

Where is Trigeminal Ganglion located?

Pons

Where is the nuclei for CN V located?

Pons

Motor Nucleus of V, Principle Sensory Nucleus of V, and Facial Nucleus are all you not found where

Pons (Lateral Pontine Syndrome)

"If you see a stem that says jaw deviation (Motor Nucleus of V), loss of touch from the face (principle sensory nucleus), Bell's palsy(Facial Nucleus) where should you put yourself immediately?

Pons (lateral Pontine Syndrome)

The main name for prepontine cisterna or cisterna Pontis is

Pontine cistern

The dentate nucleus like to work with what cerebellar region?

Pontocerebellaregion

Lateral most functional zone of the cerebellum is the

Pontocerebellum

A _______Hoffman's sign may indicate a neural issue like hypotonia or hyper-reflexia

Positive

An excitatory Post Synaptic Potential will make the membrane potential more

Positive

Diazepam is a ________ allosteric modulator

Positive

Local anesthetics can't bind the Na+ channel to block it without a ______ charge

Positive

When a physician taps or flicks the nail of the middle or ring finger to produce flexion of the index finger to the thumb if there is movement of the index finger and thumb, the person has a _______ Hoffman sign

Positive

When a physician taps or flicks the nail off the middle or ring finger to produce flexion of the index finger to the thumb of there is no movement of the index finger or thumb, the person has a _______ Hoffman sign

Positive

A molecule binding to an allosteric site and enhancing the actions of the receptor is called a

Positive allosteric modulator

Oculomotor nerve separates superior cerebellar artery from _______ ________ _______

Posterior Cerebellar Artery

What ascending pathway brings movement information about individual muscles in the lower proximal extremities

Posterior Spinocerebellar

Which Insular cortex is believed to involved in auditory, somatosensory and skeletomotor

Posterior insular cortex

When you see the thalamus you know you are in what limb of the internal capsule?

Posterior limb of the internal capsule

Which hypothalamic nucleus is involved in sex

Preoptic Nucleus

Dopamine (DA) inhibits release of what molecule?

Prolactin

A-alpha fibers (axons) correspond with which sensation

Proprioception

GSA axons for ___________ terminate in the mesencephalic nucleus and then the nucleus communicates with the motor nucleus of Trigeminal to monitor force of bite, adjustment of musculature for appropriate chewing

Proprioception

What type of sensation is identified as a sense of position and movement of one's own limbs and body without vision

Proprioception

Lamina III, IV, and VI of the dorsal horn are for

Proprioception (Painless)

Lamina VII of the dorsal horn is for what three things?

Proprioception, joint afferents, and sympathetic nervous system

Basal ganglia originates from what vesicle?

Prosencephalon

Internal capsule and commissures develop from what vesicle?

Prosencephalon

Medial temporal Lobe (hippocampus, amygdala) develop from what vesicle?

Prosencephalon

Olfactory system originates from what vesicle?

Prosencephalon

Pituitary glands originate from what vesicle?

Prosencephalon

Telencephalon and diencephalon vesicles arise from

Prosencephalon

The cerebral aqueduct develops from what vesicle?

Prosencephalon

What vesicles do lateral ventricles develop from

Prosencephalon

What are the three primary vesicles?

Prosencephalon, Mesenchephalon, and Rhomboencephalon

Retina originates from what vesicle?

Prosenecephalon

In infiltration anesthesia, the drug may be administered with bicarbonate to make the extracellular environment more negative allowing for more of the local anesthetic to be unionized able to cross the membrane and become _________ so it can bind and block the voltage gated sodium channel

Protonated

The main name for the superior cistern or cistern of the great cerebral vein is

Quadrigeminal Cistern

During depression _______ sleep periods are longer at the beginning

REM

Narcolepsy is caused by problems on the Orx2 gene. Narcolepsy is associated with impairment of brain circuits that inhibit _____ during waking state

REM

Dreams occur predominantly in what sleep state

REM sleep (paradoxical sleep)

In what condition does the caudal Neuro pore fail to close, vertebrae fail to fuse and are open leaving the spinal cord exposed? Motor and sensory deficits, chromic infections, and disturbances is bladder function often occur.

Rachischisis

Serotonergic neurons are found in what nuclei?

Raphe Nuclei

Where are the cell bodies for serotonin?

Raphe nucleus

Meissner's and Pacinian are the two ________ adapting receptors

Rapidly

___________ adapting mechanoreceptors respond ONLY at the start and end of a stimulus. Immediate short lived responses when the stimulus is applied and removed. E.g. as pressure increases, the total number of action potentials discharged rises and there are higher firing rates

Rapidly

In the spinal meningeal region the epidural space is a ______ space between dura and vertebral periosteum containing the veins (internal vertebral venous plexus)

Real

"The importance of getting off the train"

Reelin

Which extracellular protein is responsible for termination of neuron migration

Reelin

Which tract is parallel to the lateral corticospinal tract and may takeover if needed? Also facilitates motor neurons that innervate proximal flexor musculature

Rubrospinal tract

Both the Inferior Salivatory Nucleus and Nucleus Ambiguus are located in the _______ _______ in the medulla

Reticular Formation

In _______ degeneration the segment of the nerve proximal to the injury degenerates

Retrograde

Metencephalon and Myeloencephalon vesicles arise from

Rhomboencephelon

Due to the rule, "all LMN innervate ipsilaterally except for trochlear nerve"... if the abducens nuclei on the right side is blown out there will be a loss of abduction in the ______ eye and right eye will deviate towards the midline

Right

If I blow nucleus ambiguus on the left that will affect muscles of larynx pharynx palate on the left and uvula will deviate to the

Right

Tectum means

Roof

Both alpha and gamma motor neurons are lower motor neurons, originating in the ventral horn, signaling out the ventral _____

Root

Any taste on X (SVA) (typically from epiglottis regions) will go to the _____ collection of neurons on Nucleus Solitarius

Rostral

In what two conditions does the _______ Neuro pore fail to close (anencephaly and encephalocele)

Rostral

SVA axons from CN VII for taste from the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue terminate in the ________ Nucleus Solitarius collection of neurons

Rostral

Posterior 1/3rd Taste from CN IX and anterior 2/3rds taste from VII will go to

Rostral Nucleus Solitarius

What's the nucleus associated with relaying taste in from the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue

Rostral Solitarius

What proteins does botulinium cleave to prevent release of ACh from Motor neurons , leading to muscle paralysis

SNARE proteins

What is the common drug class of serotonin antidepressants? Used to treat depression and anxiety

SSRI

What are the two caudal parts of the spinal cord produced by secondary neurlation?

Sacral and coccyx

A phenomenon in which damage to the spinothalamic tracts leave pain, temperature, and simple tactile sensations intact in sacral dermatomes

Sacral sparing

Different tastes produce different reactions . Sensitivity on tip and diced of tongue produces salvation

Salty

One of the principles of cerebellar function is that if an afferent input to the cerebellum arises from one side of the body or "world", it terminates on the ______ side of the cerebellum

Same (ipsilateral)

If you lesion any LMN what side will be affected? ______ ______

Same side

If you lesion a LMN in the corticobulbar tract you will lose function on the ______ _____. This is deferent from an UMN lesion in the same tract which would have NO deficit.

Same side (with a few exceptions at VII, X, XI, and XII

Spina bifida occulta is mesodermal in origin. which mesoderm type does it originate from?

Sclerotome (vertebrae and ribs)

Injuries that are an indirect result of an insult (edema, inflammation) are called

Secondary damage

What drug can be used to inhibit dopamine metabolism by MOA-B?

Selegiline

_________ is a MAO-B inhibitor which will increase dopamine levels

Selegiline

Auto- means _____

Self

What is the major modality of trigeminal? (In general)

Sensory

Which tracts are ascending sensory or motor?

Sensory

There are two components for this reflex. The _______ component GSA is carried by CN IX and the _________ component BE is carried by X for the Gag reflex

Sensory, Motor

Fluoxetine blocks the ______ transporter and acts as an antidepressant

Serotonin (SERT)

In this procedure for hydrocephaly, a Thin, long tubing, is situated in a ventricle and then threaded under the skin. Excess CSF is carried away from the brain to be absorbed elsewhere, many times in the abd region. A valve is able to control the flow of CSF

Shunt

The alpha motor neuron supplies _______ muscles

Skeletal

______ _______ are Locations where hematoma expansion stops because dura mater is tightly attached to the skull

Skull sutures

Merkel's and Ruffini are two _________ adapting receptors

Slowly

___________ adapting mechanoreceptors respond THROUGHOUT a stimulus. E.g. as pressure increases, the total number of action potentials discharged rises and there are higher firing rates

Slowly

Efferent cortexes are focused on using layer 5 so it is expected that their layer 5 will be big and their layer 4 will be _______

Small

All sensory information except for _______ must go through the thalamus

Smell

AMPA is responsible for which ion?

Sodium (as a child Calcium is also used)

NMDA is responsible for which 2 ions ______ and ______

Sodium and Calcium

What is the orderly representation of "body parts" on cortex

Somatotopy

_______ is amazing for clinical deficits

Somatotopy

Different tastes produce different reactions . Sensitivity on sides of tongue produces facial responses (puckering), excessive salivation for dilution

Sour

What are the three components of the PNS (SCG)

Spinal nerves, cranial nerves III-XII, ganglia

GSA Axons from CN VII for pain will terminate at the ________ ________ of Trigeminal

Spinal nuclei

Lesions in the descending tract of Trigeminal (spinal Trigeminal tract) or ________ _______ ____ ________ results in ipsilateral deficits in pain and temperature from the face, teeth, anterior 2/3rds of the tongue and palate, etc....(all structures from 1st semester)

Spinal nucleus of Trigeminal

_______ _______ is characterized by the loss of REFLEX, motor, and sensory function below the level of cord injury

Spinal shock

The gamma motor neuron supplies muscle _______

Spindles

Globose and emboliform nucleus together form the interpose nucleus and they work with what region?

Spinocerebellar

Which tract carries crude touch sensation?

Spinothalamic Tract

Lesion of the ANTERIOR SPINAL ARTERY can cause BILATERAL loss of pain and temperature sense of (because of _______________ tract disruption) AND bilateral paralysis (because of __________ ______________ tract disruption)

Spinothalamic tract

What tract crosses at the anterior white commisure

Spinothalamic tract

Crude touch is what system?

Spinothalamic/anterolateral

CN XI innervates what two muscles?

Sternocleidomastoid and Trapezius

D1 dopamine receptors are what kind of receptors?

Stimulatory

Spinal cord lesions that occur because of a B12 deficiency (important for myelin synthesis). clinical features of: 1. bilateral spastic paralysis (from lateral corticospinal axon) 2. Bilateral loss of discriminative touch, vibration, and position sense (from dorsal column degeneration) are indicative of

Subacute combined degeneration

Epidural injection is outside of the dural membrane while spinal anesthesia is in the _______

Subarachnoid (S and S)

Large subarachnoid spaces that contain CSF. These containers are called _______ _______

Subarachnoid Cisterns

_________ _______ are openings in the subarachnoid space created by separation of arachnoid and pia mater, FILLED WITH CSF

Subarachnoid Cisterns

If symptoms are sudden with an extreme headache, it is likely a _______ _______ due to a vascular accident like an aneurysm

Subarachnoid hemmorhage

Flow of CSF Lateral ventricles > Interventricular foramen > 3rd ventricle > cerebral aqueduct > 4th ventricle > Foramen of Luschka and Foramen of Magendie > _________ _______ > cisterns > subarachnoid villus > sinuses > internal jugular vein

Subarachnoid space

Intrathecal space means

Subarachnoid space

Normally present, CSF-filled space, enlarged in cisterns

Subarachnoid space

The arachnoid villus allows for passage of CSF from the _______ space into a dural venous sinus

Subarachnoid space

In heterozygote females with doublecortin mutation they get double cortex called

Subcortical laminar band heterotopia (SCBH)

Hematoma which is unable to cross the tentorium cerebelli and falx cerebri

Subdural hematoma

Hematoma within which a midline shift may be noted

Subdural hematoma

Potential space in the innermost dural layer, near dura-arachnoid interface

Subdural hematoma

Axons that originate at the Superior Salivatory Nucleus for Facial Nerve are GVE and supply glands innervated by Pterygopalatine Ganglion and what other glands

Sublingual, submandibular, and lacrimal glands

The SNc (____ _____ ______ _______) inhibits the indirect pathway and excites the direct pathway

Substantia Nigra pars Compacta

Parkinson's disease is related to loss of dopaminergic neurons in the ________ ________

Substantia nigra

Which dopamine pathway degenerates in Parkinson's disease

Substantia nigra

__________ ________ is the only excitatory nucleus in the basal ganglia. It is the only one that will be sending excitatory information

Subthalamic nucleus

The folds that are valleys/grooves are called

Sulci

During proliferation of neurocytes, a groove at the midpoint along the lateral sides of the tube. This indentation is called

Sulcus limitans

What kind of receptors are meissner's corpuscles? _________ _____________

Superficial mechanoreceptors

The CEREBELLUM is connected to the brain stem by what 3 stalks?

Superior Cerebellar Peduncle, Middle Cerebellar Peduncle, and Inferior Cerebellar Peduncle

What's the nucleus associated with innervating sublingual, submandibular, lacrimal, and other glands innervated by peripheral nerves

Superior Salivatory Nucleus

After the Suprachiasmatic nucleus projects to the paraventricular nucleus and the PVN projects to the lateral horn Of the thoracic cord Preganglionic sympathetic fibers project to the _______ ________ ________ which then travel on blood vessels to get to the pineal gland

Superior cervical ganglion

What two landmarks orient you to the caudal midbrain

Superior colliculi and Cerebral Peduncles

What two limits delineate midbrain and medulla from the pons

Superior pontine sulcus and Inferior pontine sulcus

At Night the pineal gland is active while the __________ nucleus is not

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

The circadian clock is located within what nucleus?

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

Lesions to axons of the Corticobulbar tract (upper motor neurons) cause what condition?

Supranuclear Palsy

The hemispheres contain many folds which function to increase ______ _____ of the cortex

Surface area

Different tastes produce different reactions . Sensitive on tip of tongue; produces salivary secretion, insulin release, and swallowing. Which tastant?

Sweet

In which three tastants does the following occur... tastants bind producing the heterotrimeric G proteins (Ga2Bg;orange) Ga2 binds to and stimulates Phospholipase Cb2. Phospholipase Cb2 hydrolyzes PIP2 to produce Inositol triphosphate (IP3;red) and Diacyl glycerine (DAG) IP3 causes opening of the fast transduction channel (TRPM5). TRP lets in calcium, depolarizers the cell.

Sweet, Bitter, and Umami

Salty and sour are mediated by ion channels while ______, _______, and ______ are mediated by G protein coupled receptors

Sweet, bitter, umami

The intermediolateral cell column of lateral horn contains all the preganglionic ________ cell bodies

Sympathetic

Somatic (voluntary) motor does not need a second _________ to cross. It can cross without it

Synapse

An enlargement of the central canal develops resulting in a "cavity" and destruction of neural tissue usually occurs. Cervical levels result in a "cape" loss of pain and temperature sensation — follows C5 dermatome. Can extend to the medulla or to lumbar levels. Usually spares touch/ vibratory perception. Clinical features: Loss of pain and temp sensation over the neck shoulder and arms (b/c is spinal thalamic crossing axons at anterior commissure) Possible weakness and atrophy of hands and arms (if damage extends to anterior horns) indicative of what?

Syringomyelia

Where are the preganglionic Sympathetic cell bodies

T1-L2

Umami receptors which are AMINO ACID receptors express _______ and _______ receptors as the two types

T1R1 and T1R3

The sweet receptor has two parts _______ and _______

T1R2 And T1R3

The bitter-toxin receptors have around 30 divergent toxins GPRs called

T2Rs

_________ sensitivity is greatest on hairless skin

Tactile

All regions of tongue have all TCRs and respond to all ______

Tastes

Which tract originates from the superior colliculus and will receive inputs from the visual system on how to properly orient the head

Tectospinal tract

The ______houses the lateral ventricles

Telencephalon

The cerebral hemisphere walls arise from the

Telencephalon

The lateral ventricles arise from the

Telencephalon

What are the 5 secondary vesicles?

Telencephalon, Diencephalon, Mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephelon

The _______ _____ is significant when talking about herniations because different brain matter can come through and cause herniations

Tentorial Notch

_______ is an opening in the tentorium cerebelli that allows the brain stem to pass through

Tentorial Notch

VMAT2 is a drug target for

Tetrabenazine

Which drug blocks the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT2) thereby depleting norepinephrine

Tetrabenazine

What drug is used as an eye drop for pain?

Tetracaine

A_______ is weakness affecting all four limbs, may be flaccid or spastic

Tetraparesis (Quadriparesis)

A _______ is paralysis of upper and lower extremities as well as torso usually due to a cervical Spinal cord injury

Tetraplegia (quadriplegia)

3rd order cell bodies for Somatic sensory systems are found where? In the

Thalamus

Any type of sensory information (touch, temperature, pain etc...) EXCEPT SMELL must go to the ______ before reaching its respective cortex

Thalamus

Basal ganglia communicate to the UMN by way of what structure first?

Thalamus

If the basal ganglia or cerebellum needs to communicate to the cortex what must they go to first?

Thalamus

Taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue (Facial Nerve) will terminate at the

Tractus Solitarius

The sympathetic nervous system being _________ means that preganglionic cell bodies are located in the lateral horn of thoracic and lumbar regions (T1-L2)

Thoracolumbar

What at the Blood-CSF barrier prevents blood and it contents from interacting with CSF

Tight junctions

The tentorial notch is an opening that the brain stem sits in and other brain _____ can herniate down through there

Tissue

In infiltration anesthesia the drug is administered into the _____

Tissues

CNX carries GSA from skin posterior to the ear, dura in posterior cranial fossa, posterior and inferior aspect of external auditory meatus, mucous membranes of pharynx and larynx which will terminate at the Principal Sensory Nucleus of Trigeminal if

Touch

CN VII, IX, and X say take my sensory with you _____ and bring it in

Trigeminal

Doesn't matter where the GSA is coming from, it relays through the _______ system

Trigeminal

What is the major sensory nerve of the head

Trigeminal

__________ is the Major sensory nerve of the face

Trigeminal

All motor neurons innervate the same side except for

Trochlear

Which ataxia relates to problems to the midline (problems to the vermis and flocculonodular lobe)

Truncal ataxia

Which dopamine pathway is from the hypothalamus to pituitary gland

Tuberoinfundibular

What are two ways to detect neural tube defects?

Ultrasound and amniocentesis

Clarke's Column (Nucleus Dorsalis and Clarke's nucleus) sends _______ proprioception to cerebellum

Unconscious

What are the two types of associative cortical regions

Unimodal and heteromodal

In an Upper motor neuron lesion everything goes

Up

Hypereflexia is associated with with a lesion to the upper or lower motor neuron?

Upper motor neuron

The first order neurons for taste are the sensory ganglion (peripheral) of ______ _______ ______ and these axons form the solitary tract

VII, IX, and X

What thalamic nucleus loves to do everything below the head?

VPL

What thalamic nucleus loves to do everything in the brain

VPM

The source of blood during a subdural hematoma only ____ __ _______ __ _____

Vein at attachment to sinus

Dural Venous Sinuses are big _____

Veins

Dural _____ ________ are found between layer of dura mater, and they receive blood from the veins of the brain and CSF from the subarachnoid space. They all ultimately drain into the internal jugular veins

Venous sinuses

The ______ part of the facial nucleus innervates the lower quadrant of the face

Ventral

In an axial (CT or MRI) image you are looking at what orientation?

Ventral (because you're standing at the patients feet and looking towards the head)

The basal plate is also known as the ______ ______

Ventral Horn

Lamina IX of the dorsal horn is for ____ _____ ______ _______

Ventral Horn Motor Neurons

Where are the cell bodies for Dopamine?

Ventral Tegmental area (VTA) and Substantia Nigra (SN)

When the VLPO (_______ ________ _______ _____) turns on it inhibits some ARAS (ascending reticular activating system) systems like serotonergic and noradrenergic regions, it also in its histaminergic and Orexin-producing neurons in the hypothalamus

Ventral-lateral preoptic area

In nonobstructive hydrocephalus the issue is not with the

Ventricles

In obstructive hydrocephalus you are obstructing the _______

Ventricles

Where is CSF produced?

Ventricles

Which layer of the spinal cord is the proliferative layer and forms first?

Ventricular layer (VMM)

What are the three layers of the spinal cord?

Ventricular, marginal, and mantle layers

Which hypothalamic nucleus is called the satiety center and it destroyed will result in obesity and savage behavior

Ventromedial Nucleus (related to a dorsomedial which results in obesity and savage behavior without destruction)

If the labrinythe artery (Branch if AICA) is occluded the patient will have what two symptoms?

Vertigo and Deafness

What does VMAT2 stand for

Vesicular monoamine transporter 2

The labrinythe artery supplies what system

Vestibulocochlear System

Superior Colliculi is involved in the ______ system

Visual

During What weeks does primary neurulation occur?

Week 3 and 4

During what weeks does secondary neurulation occur

Weeks 5 and 6

The prefix holo means?

Whole

An unconscious (or drunk/ drugged) individual does not exhibit the ________ reflex. This person is at greater risk of damage as they cannot respond to the stimuli

Withdrawal

In a withdrawal reflex heat stimulates receptors in the skin, triggering a sense impulse that travels in the afferent neuron to the spinal cord. The afferent neuron synapses with interneurons that synapse with efferent neurons 1. Efferent neurons send impulses to flexors to stimulate limb ________ 2. Efferent neurons ALSO send inhibitory impulses to extensors so flexion is not inhibited (reciprocal Innervation)

Withdrawal

Which reflex is also known as a nociceptive or flexor withdrawal reflex?

Withdrawal reflex

Which reflex is intended to protect the body from damaging stimuli like heat or pain?

Withdrawal reflex

External and internal cues are responsible for changing, aligning, or modulating the period, phase, and amplitude of the clock are called

Zeitgebers

Muscle spindles- length and stretch 1___

a

The immediate stabbing pain also called the first pain is caused by what nociceptive fibers? (Fast because they are myelinated)

alpha (delta) fibers

Inability to coordinate voluntary movements is called

ataxia

Any GVA VII, IX, or X will you relay through Nucleus Solitarius

caudal

What structure connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles?

cerebral aqueduct

What produces CSF

choroid plexus

Nicotine and Alcohol can increase ________ release. This is largely due to this molecule playing a key role in the REWARD CENTER

dopamine

Glutamate is

excitatory

Glutamate is:

excitatory

alpha motor neurons innervate ________ ________ _____

extrafusal muscle fibers

In the PNS, cell bodies are called

ganglia

What does glabrous mean

hairless

GABA is

inhibitory

GABA is:

inhibitory

In a unilateral vagus UMN lesion , the uvula will deviate towards the lesion upon phonation. Muscles on contralateral side no longer receive Innervation so uvula is pulled to ________ side

ipsilateral

abducens innervates

lateral rectus

Prilocaine can cause

methemoglobinemia

What are three parts of the brain stem

midbrain, pons, and the medulla

PNS Axons

nerves

In the CNS, cell bodies are called

nuclei

ANYTIME you see spinothalamic tract it is carrying pain and temperature from the ________ side

opposite

Anytime you see cortical spinal above the medulla it trying to target the_______ side

opposite

What is the name for the pH at which 50% of the molecule is ionized and 50% is unionized

pKa

From Retina to Suprachiasmatic nucleus (then to paraventricular nucleus) then to reticular formation in ventrolateral medulla then to Intermediolateral neurons of spinal cord then to superior cervical ganglion is the path taken for the ________ _______ to secrete melatonin

pineal gland

TO MOVE the Basal ganglia put the breaks on some ________ ________, and release break on voluntary movement

postural reflexes

TO SIT STILL the basal ganglia put the breaks on all movements except those REFLEXES required to maintain upright ________

posture

In __________ palsy, lesions will affect only the lower quadrant of the contralateral side. The upper quadrant is unaffected because the dorsal component of the facial nucleus, which innervates this quadrant, is bilaterally innervated by Corticobulbar fibers

supranuclear palsy

_________ ___________ separates cerebrum from the cerebellum

tentorium cerebelli

If there is less going on in the basal ganglia that means there is less inhibition going to the thalamus and more excitation coming from the ______ and therefore more movement

thalamus

CNS axons are called

tracts

Superior Oblique is innervated by

trochlear nerve

In infiltration anesthesia, administration is into the tissues. It may be administered with epinephrine or bicarbonate in order to cause ___________ of the blood vessels and it allowsthe drug to stay localized to the administered

vasoconstriction