Neuro
Inhibition of the opposing alpha motor neuron in a myotatic reflex is accompished by the ____ _______ __________
1a inhibitory interneuron
Which deep mechanoreceptor is sensitive to stretching of the skin and sustained pressure and of slowly adapting
Ruffini's corpuscle
What method measures the minimum distance at which two stimuli can be noted as different
2 pt discrimination (2 point discrimination)
Diazepam causes _______ amnesia
Anterograde (think colonoscopy)
Wallerian degeneration is also called
Anterograde degeneration
What kinds of drugs do we use to treat both anxiety and depression in layman's terms
Antidepressants
What is the condition including failure of the prosencephalon to divide into two cerebral hemispheres?
Holoprosencephaly
What is the only way that signals can get to and from cortex is by a road way called?
Internal capsule (has huge bundles of projection fibers)
CNX carries GSA from skin posterior to the ear, dura in posterior cranial fossa, posterior and inferior aspect of external auditory meatus, mucous membranes of pharynx and larynx which will terminate at the Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal if
Pain
Lamina I (Nucleus Posteromarginalis) located at all levels is where all ______ info enters from below the face
Pain
Lamina I, II, and V of the dorsal horn are for
Pain
Which deep mechanoreceptor is sensitive to vibration and pressure and is rapidly adapting
Pacinian Corpuscle
What are two examples of deep mechanoreceptors
Pacinian and Ruffini Corpuscles
Lamina II (Substantia gelatinosa) relays ______ information from Lamina I and sends it to Lamina V
Pain
What modality corresponds with spinothalamic/anterolateral
Pain (sharp, acute, temperature)
Capsaicin directly activates _______ and ___________ receptors of the oral cavity
Pain and temperature
A-Delta fibers (axons) correspond with which sensations?
Pain and temperature (myelinated axons)
C fibers (axons) correspond with which sensations?
Pain, temperature, and itch (unmyelinated)
SSRI are blocking serotonin transporters where?
Presynaptic neuron (REUPTAKE... its in the name)
What 3 parts does a tripartide synapse include?
Presynaptic neuron, postsynaptic neuron, and an Astrocyte
_____________ sensory neurons wrap around the middle of the intrafusal muscle fibers within the muscle spindle
Primary 1a
Brodman's area 4 corresponds with which cortex?
Primary Motor Cortex
Broadman's areas 41 and 42 are which cortex
Primary auditory cortex
Which cortex creeps around to the insula? And which brodman's area is it?
Primary auditory cortex, 41 and 42
Which cortex is located in the sylvian fissure?
Primary auditory cortrex (41,42)
Unimodal association cortex receives inputs from a single ______ ____
Primary cortex
Cerebral cortex can be classified into _______ cortex and _______ cortex
Primary cortex and associative cortez
Injuring resulting from the initial trauma are called
Primary damage
The primary somatosensory cortex is caudal to which cortex
Primary motor cortex
What two parts does the primary cortical region consist of
Primary sensory and primary motor
Brodman's area 3,1,2 represent what cortex
Primary somatosensory cortex
The primary motor cortex is rostral to which cortex
Primary somatosensory cortex
Broadman's area 17 is which cortex
Primary visual cortex
GSA Axons from CN VII for touch will terminate at the _______ _______ _______ of Trigeminal
Principal Sensory Nuclei
Any GSA axons from CN IX like skin posterior to the ear, posterior 1/3rd of the tongue, soft palate, oropharynx, palatine tonsils, mucosa of the middle ear, auditory tube and mastoid air cells will terminate at the _______ _______ ________ of Trigeminal if for touch
Principal Sensory Nucleus
To communicate down or up what type of fibers are used?
Projection fibers
Dantrolene is a _________ receptor antagonist and inhibits calcium-induced calcium release
Ryanodine
_____, responsible for induction of the neural plate and forming central (motor) cell types is derived from the notochord
SHH (sonic hedgehog)
The _______ type of receptor is also found in brain ventricles in cells that respond to small changes in the acidity of the CSF
Sour
Knockout of TRPM5, PLCB2, or G-Protein impairs sweet, umami, and bitter but not ______ and ______
Sour and salty
Proprioception is where you are in _______
Space
An Upper Motor neuron lesion leads to what kind of paralysis?
Spastic paralysis
What is myeloschisis considered?
Spina bifida
What is the name of the caudal neural tube defect?
Spina bifida
In what condition does the CAUDAL Neuro pore fail to close, one or more vertebrae fail to fuse on the bony arch dorsal to the spinal cord and there is NO involvement of the meninges or spinal cord and the skin is CLOSED
Spina bifida occulta
Any GSA axons from CN IX like skin posterior to the ear, posterior 1/3rd of the tongue, soft palate, oropharynx, palatine tonsils, mucosa of the middle ear, auditory tube and mastoid air cells will terminate at the _______ ________ of Trigeminal if for pain
Spinal Nucleus
What is the name of the second order cell body in the Trigeminal pathway for pain and temperature
Spinal Nucleus of Trigeminal
If we are innervating something below the head like the extremities where are the lower motor neurons located?
Spinal cord
In ______ _____ stained, grey matter is internal and white matter is external
Spinal cord
The vertebral column grows and develops faster than the
Spinal cord
The ________ of the muscle spindle causes 1a sensory neurons to fire causing the excitation of alpha motor neurons, which innervate extrafusal muscle fibers
Stretching
Basal ganglia Caudate and Putamen make up the
Striatum
In both the indirect and direct pathways of basal ganglia connectivity________ receives the input and ________ receives the output
Striatum, Thalamus
Striatum means
Striped
Layer 4 is big because it is receiving all of the information from the ______ (there are many cells ready to receive)
Thalamus
Golgi tendon organ- tension 1____
b
Bulbar means
brainstem
The anterior Nucleus of hypothalamus is ______ sensitive meaning stimulation causes heat dissipation
warm
Chiasm means
Cross
The _______ plexus is secretory
Choroid
paralysis; all voluntary movement is lost
Plegia
Projections of pia mater into the ventricles of the brain are called
Choroid plexus
What is found predominantly in the ventricles?
Choroid plexus (CSF) (both are found)
If you're innervating a gland, it has to be what axons?
GVE
First order cell body is always in a _______
Ganglion (e.g. DRG, Trigeminal Ganglion)
Which layer of the spinal cord forms second?
Marginal layer (VMM)
What cells 'dampin' the highly EXCITED deep cerebellar nuclei?
Purkinje Cells
What is the major output neuron of the cerebellar cortex?
Purkinje cell
Climbing fibers terminate on what cells
Purkinje cells
What two parts make up the lenticular nucleus?
Putamen and globus pallidus
What are the three Basal Ganglia (P GP C)
Putamen, Globus Pallidus, and Caudate Nucleus
What is the name of the ventral medial structure on the medulla
Pyramid
In what condition does the caudal Neuro pore fail to close as well as the vertebrae fail to fuse, but the meninges push out through the 'opening' in the vertebrae, forming a sac filled with spinal fluid
(Spina bifida Aperta) meningocele
Absent or hypotonic reflexes are associated with a lesion in an upper or lower motor neuron?
Lower motor neuron
Their is ______ anterior spinal artery on the anterior side of the spinal cord that runs through the anterior median fissure
1
Which layers correspond to association fibers
1,2, and 3
Which cranial nerve nuclei live in the Midbrain?
3 and 4
Patient comes in with left eye deviation medially what type of structure is likely lesioned
Lower motor neuron
Which cranial nerve nuclei reside in the medulla?
10 and 12 (nucleus ambiguus is also found here)
There are a total of 180 human brain regions but which 9 regions are not found in humans
12-16 and 48-51
The Primary visual cortex is which brodman's area
17
In somatic motor pathways there is a _____ neuron chain
2
In the cranium there are _____ layers of Dura
2
The hollow inside of the tube has __ lateral ventricles
2
There are ______ posterior spinal arteries that travel through the posterolateral sulcus of the spinal cord
2
What are the names of the four fluid filled ventricles in order
2 Laterals, 3rd, 4th
In the adult the spinal cord only occupies the upper _____/______ of the vertebral column. The lumbar and sacral nerve roots must descend quite a ways to exit through their respective intervertebral foramina
2/3rds
After the Neural plate proliferates producing neural folds, the neural groove will invaginate by day ____\____
20/21
The central closure of the neural groove occurs when?
21/22
What day will the cranial pore close?
24/25
What day will the caudal pore close?
26/27
What are the brodmann's areas for Primary Olfactory Cortex
28 and 34
With sensory pathways there is a ____ neuron chain
3
The primary somatosensory cortex is which brodman's areas
3,1, and 2
The spinal cord occupies the entire length of the vertebral canal until what month of fetal life?
3rd month
Lateral ventricles are connected to which ventricle?
3rd ventricle
The diencephalon includes which ventricle?
3rd ventricle
Which ventricle has the interthalamic adhesion called the donut hole?
3rd ventricle
Which ventricle is the midline cavity in the diencephalon and and contains the donut hole (interthalamic adhesion)
3rd ventricle
The CNS is basically a hollow tube. The hollow inside of the tube in the brain consists of how many fluid filled ventricles
4
The primary motor cortex is which brodman's area?
4
The primary auditory cortex is which brodman's areas
41 and 42
The primary gustatory cortex is what brodmann's number?
43
The two parts of the CSF system (internal and external) communicate via the aperture of what ventricle?
4th
3rd ventricle is connected to which ventricle ?
4th ventricle
The Myelencephalon houses part of which ventricle
4th ventricle
The metencephalon houses part of which ventricle?
4th ventricle
Which space comes from the metencephalon and Myelencephalon and is rostral to the cerebellum
4th ventricle
Each hemisphere has how many lobes
5
How many branches are there of the internal carotid artery?
5
Which cranial nerve nuclei live in the pons?
5,6,7,8
Which serotonin receptor when activated is associated with hallucinations?
5-HT2A
Which serotonin receptor suppresses appetite when activated
5-HT2C
Which serotonin receptor is ionotropic? And it is a target for antiemetic drugs (stop vomiting)
5-HT3
Where does the upper motor neuron originate from in the lateral corticospinal/pyramidal system
5th Layer of the primary motor cortex (brodman's area 4)
The cerebral cortex has how many layers?
6
There are how many layers of cell from superficial to deep?
6
Intracellular pH is normally
6.8
There are _____ serotonin families (5-HT1, 5HT2, 5HT3, 5HT4, 5HT5, 5HT6, 5HT7)
7
Extracellular pH is normally
7.4
Grey matter makes the _____ shape on stained spinal cord section
8
In Alzheimer's disease, is associated with lack of _____ in the brain
ACh
Release of what NT is inhibited by cleavage of SNARE protein by Botulinium Toxin?
ACh
Acetylcholine is metabolized extracellulary by
AChE
Donepezil can be used to treat Alzheimer's disease because it inhibits _______ metabolism of Acetylcholine
AChE
The labrinythe artery is a branch of what artery?
AICA (Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery)
The three Glutamate ionotropic receptors are
AMPA, NMDA, and Kainate
What are the three rostrally located neural tube defects (A, E, H)
Anencephaly, encephalocele, and Holoprosencephaly)
Ironically, the facial colliculus found ventral to the cerebellum contains the nuclei of the _______. It is called facial because some the of the facial nerve loops around inside
Abducens
During REM sleep, eye movements and brain activity are high but muscle tone is virtually _______
Absent
For _________, The UMN innervates ipsilateral accessory motor nucleus and the LMN innervates ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
Accessory
Sour taste is detected by the
Acid (pH) detector
The loss of sensation occurring after a local anesthetic binds a Na+ channel is caused by inhibition of an
Action potential
Excitatory and Inhibitory Synaptic potentials inputed together are _______ which will result in no change in potential
Additive
Tolerance to caffeine will result in up regulation of what receptors?
Adenosine
The dura mater in the spinal cord is not _____ to the vertebral bony body
Adhered
Saliva is essential for taste as a solvent for tastants. Drying of the mouth may produce temporary loss ( _________) or diminished sensation( _______ )of taste
Ageusia, hypoguesia
Primary sensory regions are granular. Primary motor (area 4) and ore motor cortex are ________
Agranular
What do the cells migrating dorsal to the sulcus limitans form
Alar plate (sensory neurons)
What two functional regions does sulcus limitans delineate?
Alar plate (sensory neurons) and Basal plate (motor neurons)
The site away from the agonist binding site is called ________ ________ ________
Allosteric binding site
The ventral horn contains mainly motor neurons called _____ and _____
Alpha and gamma
Amniocentesis checks for elevated levels of what? What can elevated levels indicate?
Alpha-fetoprotein, neural tube defects
Neurons in the Locus coeruleus show evidence of _______ _______ well before changes are seen in the cerebral cortex
Alzheimer's Disease
What drug promotes transport-mediated vesicular release of dopamine and norepinephrine from neurons, yielding more dopamine and norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft. Longer half life than cocaine. Psychosis, mania is contraindicated
Amphetamine
Which drug increases norepinephrine release?
Amphetamine
Which drug of abuse used for ADHD stimulates dopamine and norepinephrine release from presynaptic vesicles
Amphetamine
Motor neuron disease in which both upper and lower motor neurons and lower motor neurons degenerate in cortex brainstem and spinal cord. Clinical Features: Combination of weakness and atrophy of limb muscles, cramping and fasiculations and get weak hyperreflexia. Flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion Spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion Pt also have problems with swallowing, speaking (dysarthria) and breathing Touch, smell, taste, vision and heating NOY AFFECTED WHAT IS THIS DISEASE CALLED?
Amylotrophic Lateral Sclerosis ALS (Lou Gehrig Disease)
When we view spinal cord or brain stem sections we will view them in the ________ orientation
Anatomical
Craniorachischisus often occurs in combination with
Anencephaly
In _______, the neural tissue degenerates, brain stem and spinal cord are often malformed
Anencephaly
In __________ reflexes may be present because reflexes don't require Supra spinal/cortical control.
Anencephaly
What condition includes partial or complete absence of the brain along with defects in the cranial vault and scalp
Anencephaly
In what two conditions does the rostral Neuro pore fail to close?
Anencephaly and encephalocele
Lodocaine is a local
Anesthetic
What is the term used for a loss of the sense of smell?
Anosmia
Ketamine is non-competitive NMDA ______ and is used to treat anesthesia, pain, and depression
Antagonist
In ________ degeneration the segment of the nerve distal to the injury degenerates
Antergrade
Which insular cortex is believed to be involved in olfactory, visceral-autonomic, gustatory, and limbic (emotions) functions
Anterior Insular cortex
Since climbing fibers only come from Inferior olivary nucleus, What three tracts come in front the only other fiber type (mossy)?
Anterior Spinal Cerebellar, Posterior Spinal Cerebellar, and cuneocerebellar (when you see Cuneatus think upper limbs like cuneate)
What ascending pathway brings movement information from the distal lower extremities?
Anterior Spinocerebellar
The circle of Willis 2 A&Ps and ICA
Anterior and Posterior Cerebral, Anterior and Posterior Communicating, and ICA
Blood supply for the choroid plexus comes from either the ________ _______ _________ or ________ ________ _______
Anterior choroidal artery or posterior choroidal artery
The insula (5th lobe) is divided up into 2 parts the _______ ________ cortex and _______ _______ cortex
Anterior insular cortex and the Posterior insular cortex
The anterior spinal artery loves to run through what fissure?
Anterior median fissure
Which type of ataxia is caused by lesions to the lateral zone of the cerebellum and presents as an unsteady drunk like gait
Appendicular Ataxia
The _______ mater is spider like or web like so it will have that appearance
Arachnoid
_______ _________ are projections that extend to Pia Mater, and help to keep the brain suspended
Arachnoid Trabeculae
_______ _______ allow passage of CSF from subarachnoid space into dural venous sinuses.
Arachnoid Villi
Large arachnoid villi are called _______ ______
Arachnoid granulations
Arachnoid granulations are also called
Arachnoid villi
Extensions of arachnoid mater into the dural venous sinus?
Arachnoid villi
In the _______ nucleus some neurons release dopamine to inhibit the release of prolactin by the pituitary gland AND other neurons contain neuropeptide Y (NPY) and influence hunger
Arcuate
________ is an amide that also contains an ester (used in dental anesthesia)
Articaine
What is the name of the local anesthetic used in dentistry
Articaine (bupivacaine is also used as an infiltration anesthetic- meaning in the tissues)
The idea that there are regions in the brain stem that when simulated send an arousal signal to the cortex
Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS)
If my frontal lobe on the right wants to talk to my parietal lobe on the right this is called what kind of fiber?
Association
Layers 1,2, and 3 talking to layers 1,2, and 3 within the same hemisphere what kind of fiber is being used?
Association fiber
What is the name for the cortical regions that process and integrate information from one or more primary cortical regions
Associative cortical region
_____ is the disordered contractions of agonist and antagonist muscles & LACK OF COORDINATION between movements at different joints.
Ataxia
Inferior Colliculi is involved in the ______ system
Auditory
Presynaptic receptors are called
Auto-receptors
Neurons in the nucleus of the solitary tract project to the parabrachial nucleus, which then projects to the hypothalamus and amygdala to produce visceral responses to taste. To Amygdala for ________ and to Hypothalamus for _______
Aversive reactions to taste, appetite
Fasiculus or fiber or Lemniscus means
Axons
In stained sections of the spinal cord grey matter is
Axons
Pyramid is a collection of
Axons
In the brain wet section what will appear white? And where will it be located?
Axons, inside
In a Lower motor neuron lesion everything is
Lowered
Gadolinium enhanced MRI and Evan's Blue are two methods for determining if there is a _______ leakage, because the healthy brain is impermeable to these substamces
BBB (Blood Brain Barrier)
What modality of Trigeminal is responsible for supplying motor function to the muscles of mastication?
BE (remember V3, VII, IX, and X)
What are the three types of motor axons?
BE, GSE, GVE
______, responsible for forming dorsal (sensory) cell types is derived from SURFACE ECTODERM
BMP (Bone Morphogenic Protein)
If you suspect a patient has a a corticospinal lesion which is equal to an UMN you can expect a __________ sign
Babinski's
In an upper motor neuron lesion what sign is present?
Babinski's sign
What group is considered the break hypothesis?
Basal Ganglia
What do the cells migrating ventral to the sulcus limitans form?
Basal plate (motor neurons)
Millard-Gubler syndrome also called Medial Pontine Syndrome occur via OCCLUSION of paramedian branches of the ________ _______
Basilar artery
The two vertebral arteries combine to form what artery?
Basilar artery
Lesions to axons originating from the entire facial nucleus both dorsal and ventral components. THEREFORE, the entire ipsilateral side of the face is compromised. Muscles of facial expression are not receiving Innervation. This is called
Bell's Palsy
Genu means
Bend
___________ Syndrome is similar to Medial Midbrain Syndrome but it includes ATAXIA while medial Midbrain doesn't
Benedikt's Syndrome
_________ is a drug administered in a mouth gel to releive pain from ulcers in the mucous membranes
Benzocaine
Benzodiazepines don't bind to the same sites as GABA ion the GABAa receptor. They bind to their own ___________ site
Benzodiazepine
What are the specialized pyramidal cells in layer V of primary motor cortex called?
Betz cells
If you are a granular cortex your layer 4 is what size?
Big
Since the Uvula is a small structure you are able to observe damage, regardless of ________ Innervation
Bilateral
If you lesion the crossing fibers specifically you will lose ability to have discriminate touch, vibration, and pressure where?
Bilaterally
In the Dorsal column, medial lemniscus system, a lesion to the medial lemniscus will cause loss of discriminate touch modality _______
Bilaterally
Different tastes produce different reactions . Greatest sensitivity on back of tongue- protrusion of tongue, protective reactions
Bitter
________ can open up potential meningeal spaces
Bleeeing
In the _______ grey matter is external and white matter is internal
Brain
The tentorial notch is where the brain stem connects to the
Brain
Antidepressants increase the levels of neurotransmitters which leads to increased expression of what neurotrophic factor involved in neuroplasticity and synaptogenesis
Brain derived growth factor (BDGF)
What 5 parts make up the components of Central Nervous System? (BCBCS)
Brain, Cerebellum, Brain Stem, Cranial Nerves I-II, and Spinal cord
Everything that has to move afferently and efferently has to go through the
Brainstem
The dorsal (sensory)-ventral (motor) arrangement in the spinal cord becomes a lateral-medial arrangement in the _________
Brainstem
1. Loss of ipsilateral voluntary motor below the level of the lesion (spastic paralysis) and affected lower motor neurons on the ipsilateral aspect would cause a flaccid paralysis at that level 2.Loss of ipsilateral discriminative touch, vibration, and position sense 3. Contralateral loss of PAIN and TEMPERATURE sense below the level of the lesion. 4. Loss of pain and temperature ipsilateral to the damage at the level Collectively are clinical features of
Brown- Sequard syndrome
What condition is defined as a compression or lesion of one-half of the spinal cord?
Brown-Sequard syndrome
Trauma causes shearing of cranial nerve I fascicles from epithelium to the _______ as they pass through the cribriform plate. Olfactory neurons in epithelium can regenerate, but the plate scars over so the axons can't penetrate
Bulb (olfactory bulb)
Colliculus means
Bump
Fasiculus means
Bundle
What are two drugs used in a peripheral nerve block for a long term effect?
Bupivacaine and Ropivacaine
What drug has a long duration of action and is not used in day surgery (2 factors making it similar to ropivicaine) and has the greatest risk of cardiotoxicity
Bupivicaine
The branchial efferent axons originate at the facial nucleus to innervate muscles of _______ ________ and _______
Facial expression and Stapedius
Medulla and pons contain what important centers?
Cardiovascular Respiratory centers
The throbbing pain also called the second pain that follows an immediate sharp pain is caused by what fibers?
C fibers
Unmyelinated fiber bundles are called
C fibers
Lateral vesicles have a large what kind of shape? (Not a typo)
C shape
Taste (SVA) from Posterior 1/3rd of tongue is what cranial nerve
CN IX
Touch for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is what cranial nerve
CN IX
What cranial nerve innervates the parotid gland
CN IX (GVE)
Touch for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is what cranial nerve
CN V
Taste (SVA) from anterior 2/3 of the tongue is what cranial nerve
CN VII
Everything in the thorax and abdomen parasympathetically up to the left colic flexure is innervated by what cranial nerve?
CN X
Taste (SVA) from Epiglottis is what cranial nerve
CN X
Touch (GSA) for the epiglottis is what cranial nerve?
CN X
Falx cerebri separates ________ hemispheres
Cerebral
In general, axonal tracts in the ______ do not regenerate well following injury
CNS (in part because of inhibitory proteins expresses by oligodendrocytes)
Normally _______ is colorless, odorless, and clear
CSF
Pia mater + Ependyma>Telachoroidia > Choroid plexus > ________
CSF
What fills the Ventricles and space of the brain
CSF
Neurotransmitter release is _______ dependent
Ca2+ (Calcium)
Which drug is a stimulant and a competitive antagonist at adenosine A1 and A2 receptors
Caffeine
What drug is used to treat epilepsy by slowing down the rate of firing of neurons by way of interfering with the conformational changes of the Na+ channel
Carbamazepine
L-DOPA crosses the blood-brain barrier and it is ALWAYS given with ___________ to reduce peripheral conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine
Carbidopa
What condition includes Cerebellar vermal displacement along with hydrocephalus and possible spina bifida
Chiari Malformation Type II (Arnold-Chiari)
Any GVA axons from CN X (aortic chemo and baroreceptors, thoracic and abdominal viscera) terminate in the _______ collection of neurons in the Nucleus Solitarius
Caudal
GVA axons from CN VII terminate in the Nucleus Solitarius __________ collection of neurons
Caudal
Structures _________ to the junction between the midbrain and diencephalon take on conventional directional terms of the body
Caudal
"If you see a stem that says hoarseness of voice and dysphasia immediately put yourself in the ________ _______ "
Caudal Medulla
The GVA on IX from the carotid sinus, from the carotid nerve, any GVA relays to the brain stem to
Caudal Nucleus Solitarius
I see nucleus Gracilis and I see nucleus Cuneatus so we must be in what part of the medulla
Caudal medulla
Nucleus Ambiguus is only found in the
Caudal medulla
Where do fibers cross the neuroaxis in the trigeminal system
Caudal medulla
Nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus are only found in the ________ _________
Caudal medulla (you will also see pyramidal decussation)
Any GVA axons from CN VII, IX, or X terminate in the _______ collection of neurons from NS while any SVA (like anterior 2/3rds of taste from CN VII) axons from CN VII, IX, or X will terminate in the _______ collection of neurons
Caudal, Rostral
Basal ganglia ________ and _________ make up the Striatum
Caudate and Putamen
Dorsal, cranial, and autonomic are Neuronal ________ in the PNS
Cell bodies
In stained sections in the spinal cord white matter is
Cell bodies
In the brain wet section what will appear grey? And where will it be locatee
Cell bodies, external
What is the hollow tube inside the spinal cord called?
Central canal
What are the three trans-tentorial herniations?
Central, Upward Cerebellar, and Downward Cerebellar
Falx cerebelli separates _______ hemispheres
Cerebellar
The main name for cisterna magna is
Cerebellomedullary cistern
Choroid plexus is located in the lateral ventricles, interventricular foramina, 3rd ventricle, and 4th ventricle but Choroid Plexus is not normally found in the
Cerebral aqueduct
The aqueduct of sylvius also called the _____ _______ connects the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
The mesencephalon houses the
Cerebral aqueduct
What is the name of the stalks that connect the CEREBRAL hemispheres to the brain stem
Cerebral peduncle (cris cerebri)
The source of blood in a subarachnoid, intraparenchymal, or intraventricular hemorrhage is likely
Cerebral vein or artery
The ______ (cortex) is s the largest and most complex part of the brain and consists of two hemispheres: the cerebral hemispheres
Cerebrum
In ________ ___________ Cerebellar tissues (tonsils) are forced downward into the foramen magnum (spinal canal) because of abnormal development or lack of space in cranial vault.
Chiari Malformation
What is the name of a drug used in a peripheral nerve block for a short term effect?
Chloroprocaine
________ ________ cells interconnected by tight junctions. The side facing the CSF has an increased surface area due to microvilli
Choroidal epithelial cells
Non communicating (regarding hydrocephalus) means that we are not communicating between the subarachnoid space and _____ (meaning that the 4th ventricle is the boundary)
Cisterns
The fourth ventricle is used to exit and enter the ______
Cisterns (associated with subarachnoid space .....these are large)
Things can only enter the cerebellum from what two fibers?
Climbing fiber or mossy fiber
Glycine is intriguing because it is a Major inhibitory NT in the spinal cord and a _______ for NMDA-type glutamate receptors
Co-agonist
What drug acts on the dopamine uptake transporter (DAT)?
Cocaine
What drug of abuse blocks the DAT (Dopamine) and NET (Norepinephrine) and voltage gated sodium channels
Cocaine
Which drug is a stimulant and drug of abuse that inhibits dopamine and norepinephrine transporters (DAT, NET) also inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels (local anesthetic-like effect). Can cause Stoke or MI due to cardiac stimulation
Cocaine
The posterior nucleus of hypothalamus is ________ sensitive meaning stimulation causes heat conservation
Cold
Layers 1,2, and 3 talking to layers 1,2 and 3 in the other hemisphere are using what kind of fiber?
Commissural fiber
If your right frontal lobe wants to talk to your left temporal lobe what fibers will be used?
Commissural fibers
The area where crossing occurs
Commissures
The left and rights sides of the brain are connected by bundles of axons called
Commissures
Where do decussations occur?
Commisures
Compression or transverse lesion of entire spinal cord is called a _________ ________ ________
Complete cord transection
Loss of 1. discriminative touch, vibration, and position sense 2. Pain and temperature sensation 3. voluntary motor from below the lesion Are all clinical features of a _______ ________ ________
Complete cord transection (lose everything below the lesion)
Severe damage to the spinal cord and no motor or sensory function below the level of injury is what kind of spinal cord injury?
Complete spinal cord injury
Abnormal "fanning" of toes of usually a sign of a lesion to the _____________ tract or and Upper Motor Neuron
Corticospinal tract
What tract terminates on the ventral horn
Corticospinal tract
What 3 tracts loves to travel along the posterior limb of the internal capsule?
Corticospinal, spinothalamic, and medial lemniscus tracts
Tegmentum means
Covering
In the polysynaptic reflex called golgi tendon reflex, the Golgi tendon organ signals on the 1b sensory neurons; the sensory neurons synapse on the inhibitory interneuron. Then the inhibitory interneuron synapses on the alpha motor neuron thereby inhibiting muscle __________ and causing muscle relaxation and subsequent dropping of the weight/load
Contraction (think about it )
In a unilateral LMN lesion the uvula deviates away from the lesion upon phonation. Muscles on ipsilateral side are no longer Innervated so uvula is pulled to ___________ side
Contralateral
Lesions of the trigeminolemniscus tract results in ___________ deficits
Contralateral
Sensory and motor functions for ONE side of the body are connected with the ____________ forebrain (thalamus of the Diencephalon and cortex it the telencephalon
Contralateral
A substantial deviation of the uvula.... this is why the doctor says open up your mouth and say ahh. This is phonation..... and upon phonation the uvula can be deviated. The uvula will deviate ________ the side of a nucleus ambiguus lesion
Contralateral (opposite)
What represents the termination of the spinal cord?
Conus medullaris
_______ sections are viewed as if standing face to face with the patient
Coronal
Extracellular mineral deposits called brain sand that increase with age and make the pineal gland more visible during imaging
Corpora Aranaceum
What is the name of the largest commissure?
Corpus callosum
The ParaSympathetic nervous system being ____________ means that the preganglionic cell bodies located in cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X and in cell bodies in S2-S4
Craniosacral
The corticobulbar axons targeting the motor nucleus of V cross in the _________
Cortex
If you move tangentially and parallel to the pial surface, we will be traversing _______ _____
Cortical areas
If we put a probe 90 degrees to the surface and straight down we are orthogonal (perpendicular) to the Paul surface and we are traversing _______ ________
Cortical layers
What fibers/tracts love to travel in the genu of the internal capsule
Corticobulbar
Medial Midbrain syndrome can present as the affected eye is down on the affected side side ((Oculomotor) and on the contralateral side loss of motor function due to lesion of _________ tract
Corticospinal
Which two major tracts decussate at the caudal medulla
Corticospinal (somatic efferent) and Medial Lemniscus (discriminate touch)
In this reflex a painful stimulus from the RIGHT FOOT sends a signal through the sensory neuron to the CNS where synapses occur with multiple interneurons (polysynaptic). Interneurons synapse with alpha motor neurons for right leg. Thereby inhibiting extensors (quadriceps muscles) so they relax. And stimulating flexors so they contract. INTERNEURONS synapse on other INTERNEURONS for left leg (contralateral) thereby stimulating the extensors (quadriceps muscles) and inhibiting the flexors (hamstring muscles)
Crossed-Extensor reflex (helps you keep your balance)
Which reflex normally follows the withdrawal reflex
Crossed-extensor reflex (makes sense)
What are Decussations?
Crossings
In sensory pathways the synapse AWAYS occurs before the _______
Crossover
If you are ventral you will see the olives and the pyramid, but if you are dorsal you will see the _______ and _______
Cuneate tubercle and Gracile Tubercle
What mediates all touch from T6 and above
Cuneatus
What ascending pathway conveys signals from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs about individual muscles in the UPPER extremities
Cuneocerebellar pathway
Which spinal cord layer becomes the inner gray matter of the spinal cord
Mantle layer
The condition defined by congenital absence of the lateral (foramen of Luschka) and medial (foramen of Magendie) apertures which can cause hydrocephalus is called?
Dandy-Walker Syndrome
The superchiasmatic nucleus is active during the _______ and it send projections to inhibit the pineal gland
Day
______ rigidity is an infratentorial lesion at or below the red nucleus and MR LV (Medial Rubrospinal and Lateral Vestibulococchlear) is not being inhibited big brain so upper and lower limbs are extended
Decerebrate rigidity
______ rigidity is a supratentorial lesion above the red nucleus that involves flexion of the upper limb and extension of the lower limbs
Decorticate rigidity
What condition requiring prophylactic treatment should be monitored beginning 72 hours after a spinal cord injury? ________ _____ ______
Deep Vein Thrombosis
Mossy and Climbing fibers both synapse on the
Deep cerebellar nuclei ('bringing in information from your world')
What nuclei does the lateral to medial mnemonic Don't Eat greasy foods stand for?
Dentate, emboliform, Globose, fastigial
Carbamazepine is a use-__________ block meaning it does not completely inhibit the voltage gated Na channels
Dependent
Ion channels permit direct entry of sodium (salty) or protons (sour), which leads to _________ followed by calcium-dependent. Neurotransmitter release at base of cell
Depolarization
Transduction of odorants into neural signals uses G-protein receptors. Odorant binds directly to receptors, or via proteins in mucus (odorant binding proteins) that shuttle to receptor. Activation of receptor causes activation of Golf (red) dissociates from receptor and activates olfactory specific adenylyl cyclase (AC). AC catalyzes production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from hydrolysis of ATP. cAMP binds to and opens cation channels. Calcium and sodium entry _________ membrane and activates olfactory sensory neuron
Depolarize
Drugs that block the serotonin transporter serve to are used to treat
Depression
Ruffini and Pacinian corpuscles are found in what layer of the skin? (Indicating that they have large receptive fields)
Dermis (Deep dermis)
________ is used as a therapeutic for anxiety, epilepsy, agitation, insomnia, muscle spasms, and pre-anesthesia
Diazepam
The thalamus and hypothalamus walls arise from the
Diencephalon
What vesicle does the third ventricle arise from
Diencephalon
What are the 5 Major subdivisions of the CNS (DCBCS)
Diencephalon, cerebral hemispheres, brain stem, cerebellum, spinal cord
CSF flows from the villus and into the venous blood by ________ as the pressure driving the CSF is higher than that in the venous circulation
Diffusion
DWS stands for
Dilated 4th ventricle Water on the brain Small vermis
In addition to tetrabenazine, Amphetamines inhibit vesicular storage and release of _______
Dopamine
Modulator (___________) functions via actions on direct and instinct pathway
Dopamine
Tetrabenazine treatment inhibits the release and vesicular storage of _______
Dopamine
What is VMAT2 a transporter for?
Dopamine
Name the three catecholamines
Dopamine, Norepinephrine, and epinephrine
What are the three monoamine NTs (DSN)
Dopamine, Serotonin, and norepinephrine
Parkinson's Disease includes degeneration of __________ neurons in Substantia nigra (specifically Substantia nigra compacta)
Dopaminergic
In ventral horn somatotopy cells supplying flexor muscles are _____ to those supplying extensor muscles
Dorsal
Lesion of the POSTERIOR SPINAL ARTERY will affect the ________ column resulting in loss of pressure, touch, vibration, and proprioception
Dorsal
The _______ part of the facial nucleus innervates the upper quadrant of the face
Dorsal
Within the ________ column medially to laterally (you go from lower limb to upper limb) you have sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical
Dorsal
When the anterior spinal artery is lesioned disruptions in the spinothalamic and lateral corticospinal tracts result. However there is no loss of Touch, Pressure, Vibration, or Proprioception, because the ________ _________ tract is unaffected (being supplied by the Posterior Spinal arteries)
Dorsal Column (Medial Lemniscus)
The GVE axons for CNX to innervate mainly the thoracic and abdominal viscera originate at what nucleus?
Dorsal Motor Nucleus of Vagus
1st order cell bodies for Somatic sensory systems are where?
Dorsal Root Ganglion
Discriminate touch is what system
Dorsal column/medial lemniscus
The alar plate is also known as the _______ _______
Dorsal horn
Which hypothalamic nucleus results in obesity and savage behavior when activated?
Dorsomedial Nucleus
"The importance of staying on board"
Doublecortin
Microtubule associated protein important for proper migration
Doublecortin
What drugs acts on the norepinephrine uptake transporter (NET)
Duloxetine
What meningeal layer is tough, inflexible, sensitive to pain, has its own blood supply, separates compartments of the cranial vault and restrict brain from displacement
Dura mater
Source of blood in a subdural hematoma or epidural hematoma _______ _______ _______
Dural venous sinus
Impairment of ability to perform rapid alternating movements
Dysdiadochokinesia
__________ is the inability of patients with cerebellar dysfunction to pronate and supinate
Dysdiadochokinesia
What word means improper measuring of distance in muscular acts
Dysmetria
P-glycoprotein (P-gp) is a key _______ transporter that removes DRUGS and other molecules from the brain
Efflux (preventing drug accumulation)
Metal electrode is placed on the scalp to measure brain activity in what type of polysomnogram
Electroencephalogram (EEC)
Salty taste is detected by the
Electrolyte detector
Metal electrode is placed on the muscles to measure muscle activity what kind of polysomnogram is this?
Electromyogram
Metal electrode is placed around the eyes to measure eye movements what kind of polysomnogram is this?
Electrooculogram
What are microglial cells derived from?
Embryonic mesoderm
In what condition does the rostral Neuro pore fail to close and protrusion of the brain/neural tissue, meninges, and spinal fluid occur?
Encephalocele
In obstructive hydrocephalus treatment using _______ __________ ________ an endoscope is maneuvered into the lateral ventricle, interventricular foramen, and the 3rd ventricle. There the floor of the 3rd ventricle is broken allowing CSF release and absorption
Endoscopic Third ventriculostomy (ETV)
What two procedures can be done when a patient has hydrocephalus?
Endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) and shunt
Created by pia mater capillaries that contain fenestrations
Endothelium
Telachoroidia comes from what two entities?
Ependymal cells and pia mater
When thalamus talks to cortex it's always going to be
Excitatory
Merkel receptors and meissner's corpuscles are found in what layer of the skin? (Indicating that they have small receptive fields)
Epidermis
Convex lens shaped hematoma? ________ ______
Epidural hematoma
Hematoma that is Pushing down on the brain matter instead of spreading along the skull due to SKULL SUTURES
Epidural hematoma
Potential space between the skull and dura is called
Epidural space
There are many GABAa receptor mutations linked to what condition
Epilepsy
What is the condition including recurring seizures called
Epilepsy
What are the 4 functional regions of the Diencephalon
Epithalamus, subthalamic, Hypothalamus, and thalamus
Chlorprocaine is an ______ and is metabolized by plasma esterases (e.g. butyrylcholinesterase)
Ester
As a rule the local anesthetic esters have a shorter duration of action because they are subject to degradation by _______ in the plasma while amides are metabolized in the liver
Esterases (like butyrylcholinesterase/pseudocholinesterase)
__________ is a positive allosteric modulator at GABAa and causes behavioral disinhibition are low levels and ataxia and sedation at high levels
Ethanol (alcohol)
In craniorachischisis, the entire spinal cord and brain are
Exposed
The CSF system has 2 parts: the ______ is BEYOND the ventricular system and has the cisterns and subarachnoid space (80% Total Volume)
External
If the middle cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be affected? ________ and _______ limbs
Face and lower limbs
If the anterior cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be spared? ______ and _______ limbs
Face and upper limbs
What two CN VII nuclei are located in the pons?
Facial Nuclei (BE) and Superior Salivatory Nuclei (GVE)
What's the nucleus associated with the muscles of facial expression?
Facial nucleus
_______ ________ separates cerebellar hemispheres
Falx cerebelli
_______ _______ separates cerebral hemispheres
Falx cerebri
A GSA fiber entering from T6 and above is called
Fasiculus Cuneatus
A GSA fiber entering the CNS from T7 and below you are called
Fasiculus Gracilis
Downward Cerebellar/ Tonsillar transtentorial herniation is rapidly _______. This can compromise the brain stem
Fatal
Rare genetic disorder——hallucination; loss of motor control, seizures, inability to enter deep sleep; death within 18 months of initial symptoms is defined as what disorder? _______ _______ _______
Fatal familial insomnia
"The Importance of taking the train"
Filamin
Which actin-binding protein is responsible for initiating migration of neurons?
Filamin
What papillae don't have taste buds?
Filiform papillae
What test can be done to determine if a patient has appendicular ataxia?
Finger-nose-finger test (also called the pass pointing test)
What part of the body has the greatest discriminative capacity?
Fingertips (different from fingerprints which is dense with mechanoreceptors)
Regarding local anesthetics things inhibited by a higher concentration recover ______ and things inhibited by a lower concentration recover_____
First, Last (once that concentration has dropped below the concentration needed for inhibition it becomes active while it will take longer for the concentration to drop low enough for pain neurons to become active)
A lower motor neuron lesion leads to what kind of paralysis?
Flaccid paralysis
Each of the deep cerebellar nuclei work with one functional region for example fastigial nucleus loves
Flocculonodular lobe
The fastigial nucleus loves what cerebellar anatomical structure?
Flocculonodular lobe
By inhibiting serotonin transporters (SERT) ______ the extracellular serotonin levels increase and aiding in treatment of depression
Fluoxetine
What drugs act on the serotonin transporter?
Fluoxetine and duloxetine
Most spinal cord defects occur in the lumbosacral area and can be prevented by maternal use of ________ prior to and during pregnancy
Folic acid
What is the name of the foramen that connects the 4th ventricle to the quadrigeminal cistern (superior cistern/ cistern of the great cerebral vein)
Foramen of Luschka (lateral aperture Left and right)
What is the name of the foramen that connects the 4th ventricle to the cerebellomedullary cistern (cisterna magna)
Foramen of Magendie (median Aperture)
(Pro)enchephalon
Forebrain (Advancing forward)
In which ataxia is everything Fried?(symptoms include muscle weakness and I coordination. Diabetes and heart disease may also be present in some patients
Friedreich's Ataxia
The central sulcus separates which lobes?
Frontal and Parietal lobes
Diazepam is a positive allosteric modulator because it binds to a location different from the _______ binding site
GABA
GABAb is metabotropic receptor for inhibitory
GABA
The benzodiazepines require ______ to be present in order to work
GABA
The most important inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is
GABA
______ is a Major inhibitory NT in the brain
GABA
What are two amino acid neurotransmitters?
GABA and Glutamate
What are the two GABA receptors?
GABAa and GABAb
The ventro-lateral preoptic area (VLPO) is a region in the anterior hypothalamus that contains inhibitory ___________(ergic) neurons
GABAergic
Where does any touch, pain, vibration originate?
GSA (skin)
D2 coupled inhibitory receptors are coupled to
Gi
Putamen and ______ ________ makes up the lentiform
Globus Pallidus
Dendrites of mitral and tufted cells collect information from _________
Glomeruli
The most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is
Glutamate
VGLUT is a vesicular transporter for
Glutamate
_______ is a Major inhibitory NT in the spinal cord
Glycine
The drainage formed by astrocytes that form a perivascular space around arteries and veins within the brain. The drainage here is most active during SLEEP. This system removes debris (proteins) discarded by cells through metabolism.
Glymphatic System
Located at the origins and insertions of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle these entities are Proprioceptive sensory organs that detect changes in muscles tension and they are called ________ ________ ________
Golgi Tendon Organs
Weight is too much to bare forcing you to drop it represents what reflex?
Golgi tendon reflex
What condition is associated with mutations in sonic hedgehog (SHH) signaling, disregulated cholesterol biosynthesis, chromosomal abnormalities (Ch13), and fetal alcohol syndrome
Holoprosencephaly
The nucleus gracilus and nucleus cuneatus create what bumps?
Gracile tubercle and Cuneate Tubercle
What mediates all touch from T7 and below
Gracilus
What between the Bone Morphogenic Proteins and Sonic Hedgehog Protein dictates the neuron formation specificity?
Gradient
mossy fibers terminate on what cells
Granule cells
Pterygoid muscles allow you to _______ your food
Grind
D1 coupled stimulatory receptors are coupled to
Gs
The folds that are bulges/ridges are called
Gyri
_______ what drug is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist used to treat schizophrenia
Haloperidol
______ and ________ have more neurons designated for them in both motor and somatosensory primary cortices than other regions
Hands and face
Collection of Blood that is static
Hematoma
Which hyperkinetic disorder stems from the contralateral Subthalamic nucleus and presents as sudden wild flailing of 1 arm and the ipsilateral leg
Hemiballismus
Damaged subthalamic nucleus and we no longer have the excitation to globus pallidus interna and not as much inhibition to thalamus so more excitation to cortex
Hemiballismus (corticospinal)
Paralysis of one half of the body; typically in focal brain injuries usually seen in stroke and not spinal cord injuries
Hemiplegia
Blood that is bleeding out
Hemmorhage
Which association cortex requires integration of abstract sensory and motor information together with motivational and emotional influences
Heteromodal Association Cortex
(Rhombo)encephalon
Hindbrain (Diamond shaped)
What two areas does neurogenesis occur?
Hippocampus and olfactory bulb
What condition results in a single-lobed brain structure, skull, and facial defects
Holoprosencephaly
In what hyperkinetic CNS degenerative disease is the striatum affected and has clinical features of Chorea and athetosis
Huntington's Disease
Which CNS degnerative disorder is caused by a repeat disorder on Chromosome 4
Huntington's Disease
Tetrabenazine is used to treat
Huntington's disease
What happens if there is a blockage of CSF flow or absorption?
Hydrocephalus
______ may develop in spina bifida if the spinal cord is tethered to the sacrum. As the spinal cord lengthens, tethering pulls the cerebellum into foremen magnum, cutting off CSF flow
Hydrocephaly
GABAa is ionotropic receptor for inhibitory GABA. When activated CL- rushes in leading to _____________ of the neuron
Hyperpolarization
Histaminergic neurons can be found in the posterior ______ (tuberomamillary (TBM) nucleus)
Hypothalamus
What are the lower motor neurons of cranial nerves?
III, IV, VI, VII, XII, Nucleus Ambiguus
Nucleus Proprius (Proper Sensory Nucleus) includes what lamina?
III, IV, and V
Where will we find parasympathetic in the cranial nerves?
III, VII, IX, and X
Layer _____ receives the inputs from the thalamus
IV
In NonCommunicating or _____________ hydrocephalus, CSF FLOW is impaired within the ventricles PROXIMAL to foramen of magendie
In Communicating or ____________ hydrocephalus, CSF absorption is impaired. Usually due to functional problems of the arachnoid granulations (villi) or blockage distal to the foramen of Magendie
What does the prefix encephalo- mean?
In the brain
Damage to spinal cord with some evidence of motor and sensory function (e.g., feeling but little or no movement) is what type of spinal cord injury?
Incomplete (partial) spinal cord injury
In brain ischemia (stroke) glutamate levels will be______leading to glutamate-mediated excitotoxicity
Increased
Climbing fibers only come from what nucleus?
Inferior Olivary Nucleus
In Rostral Medulla you will see what 2 things
Inferior Olivary Nucleus and inferior cerebellar Peduncle
The GVE axons of CN IX to innervate the parotid gland originate at what nucleus?
Inferior Salivatory Nucleus (Salivatory is the hint)
Lidocaine is commonly used for _________ anesthesia
Infiltration
When a stretch reflex is activated, the opposing muscle group must be ________, preventing the muscle groups from working simultaneously against each other
Inhibited
Fluoxetine is an SSRI. It is a selective ________ of serotonin transporters
Inhibitor
D2 dopamine receptors are what kind of receptors
Inhibitory
When Basal ganglia talk to thalamus it's always gonna be _______
Inhibitory
Regarding principal inputs and outputs of the basal ganglia. From cerebral cortex to Striatum is an _______ while from striatum to thalamus is an ______
Input and output
If you pry open the sylvian fissure (lateral sulcus) you will see which lobe?
Insula
What is the 5th lobe called?
Insula
Where is the primary gustatory cortex located
Insula
The CSF system has 2 parts: the _________ includes the lateral ventricles, interventricular foramina (foramen of monro), 3rd ventricle, cerebral aqueduct, 4th ventricle (20% volume)
Internal
What axons traverse between the basal ganglia, putamen and caudate (striate), and Putamen and Globus Pallidus (lentiform)
Internal capsule (post thalamus everything needing to get to and leave the brain must pass here first)
What two systems that supply the brain have an anastomoses?
Internal carotid arterial system and vertebral/basilar arterial system
The main name for the cisterna interpeduncularis or chiasmatic stem is
Interpeduncular cistern
Globose and emboliform together are called the
Interposed nucleus
What is the name of the area on the third ventricle where the thalami attach
Interthalamic adhesion
What foramina connect the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle?
Interventricular foramina (foramen of Monro)
1 out of the 7 serotonin receptors is
Ionotropic
The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of what kind of receptor?
Ionotropic receptor (ligand-gated ion channel)
Ligand-gated ion channel receptors are also called
Ionotropic receptors (like nicotonic ACh receptor)
In a LMN lesion to accessory the patient would be unable to rotate head away from lesion and unable to raise ________ shoulder
Ipsilateral
Lesion of motor nucleus of Trigeminal or peripheral axons result in _________ atrophying of all muscles of mastication
Ipsilateral
Sensory and motor functions for ONE side of the body are CONNECTED WITH the ___________ CEREBELLUM
Ipsilateral
Since the corticobulbar axons targeting the motor nucleus of trigeminal cross in the cortex, the motor neurons of Trigeminal and it's peripheral axons innervate the _________ muscles of mastication
Ipsilateral
In an UMN lesion to accessory the patient t would be unable to rotate head away from lesion and unable to raise _________ shoulder
Ipsilateral (same for accessory LMN)
Lesions/trauma on one side of the neural axis can result in symptoms either on the same side ________ or opposite side _________ to the lesion
Ipsilateral and contralateral
If motor nucleus of Trigeminal or its peripheral axons is lesioned when opening the jaw, the jaw will deviate __________ toward the side of the lesion due to weakened pterygoid muscles.
Ipsilaterally
What is the name of the receptors that respond to touch and cold temperature. Found in specialized locations around the body like mucous membranes and synovial membrane
Krause End bulbs
What is the precursor for dopamine
L-DOPA
Conus medullaris in adults is at what vertebral level _____/______
L1/L2
The spinal cord has both a sacral and coccygeal region. It typically ends at around ____/______ and it is safe to puncture at L3/L4 or L4/L5 for adults. Go NO HIGHER than L4/L5 in children
L1/L2
Conus medullaris in newborns is at what vertebral level?
L3
Lumbar puncture is safe in adults caudal to what vertebral level?
L3
What is an agonist for the serotonin receptor 5-HT2A associated with hallucinations
LSD
What structure looks like Darth Vader on cross section?
Large Middle Cerebellar Peduncles
Which hypothalamic nucleus induces eating (think lunch) and regulates pleasure and reward
Lateral
In our neuroembryological construct of organization .... Motor medial Sensory _______
Lateral (e.g.
Disruption of nucleus Solitarius and nucleus ambiguus is only seen in _________ ______ ________
Lateral Medullary Syndrome (never PICA hoarse that can't eat)
Which tract originates in the reticular formation in the medulla and inhibits effect on voluntary motor and reflex responses of axial and limb muscles and Decreases muscle tone by inhibiting muscle spindle activity
Lateral Reticulospinal tract (Lateral- Stop!)
Which tract may inhibit some flexor motor neurons but mainly provides an excitatory influence on spinal motor neurons innervating extensors to maintain posture (e.g. extensors in the legs
Lateral Vestibulospinal tract
Which sulcus separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe
Lateral sulcus (Sylvian fissure)
After the Suprachiasmatic neuron projects to the paraventricular nucleus (PVN) the PVN projects to the __________ ________ horn of the thoracic cord
Lateral thoracic
The telencephalon includes which ventricles
Lateral ventricles
What layer is internal granular
Layer 4
What layer is internal pyramidal
Layer 5
What layer outputs to the striatum, brain stem, and spinal cord
Layer V
Communicating between cortexes is layers what?
Layers 1,2, and 3
The mammillary body is involved in both _______ and ______
Learning and memory
An occlusion of the middle cerebral artery can cause LANGUAGE deficits in addition to BILATERAL motor and somatosensory deficits if _____ hemisphere is involved
Left
When there is a lesion to Hypoglossus nucleus (LMN) on the right the side the tongue will deviate to the right side because the ______ side is unopposed
Left
The nucleus ambiguus for CNX on the right innervates (by way of BE) all (most) of the pharynx, larynx, and palate on the RIGHT. If the nucleus ambiguus on the right is lesioned the uvula will deviate to the
Left (this is due in part to the right palate being unable to elevate so the left side will successfully pull the uvula to its side )
If a patient comes in saying they have loss their ability to feel pain and temperature on their right side, the person likely has a lesion on the
Left side (spinothalamic/anterolateral system very long spinothalamic tract)
Putamen and Globus Pallidus make up the __________
Lentiform
A Spinal anesthetic which is administered into the subarachnoid space requires ______ dosage than an epidural injection
Less
L-DOPA stands for
Levodopa
Carbamazepine slows the rate at which the voltage gated sodium channel works so the channel is still working but ________ has a more aggressive effect. It actually blocks the sodium channel to PREVENTS repetitive firing
Lidocaine
emla cream is a combination of two different anesthetics that can be used as a cream to the surface of the skin. Which two anesthetics?
Lidocaine and Prilocaine
In orientation columns, a column in visual cortex may respond specifically to a bar of ______ in a particular orientation
Light
Melatonin which is secreted by the pineal gland is inhibited by
Light
What is the main extrinsic zeitberger?
Light
Meissner's corpuscles are sensitive to ______ _____. As a result these receptors are concentrated in areas like the fingers and lips
Light touch
Males with doublecortin mutation exhibit _________, pachygyri, and mental retardation
Lissencephaly (smooth brain, no gyri)
The positively charged _______ ________ binds to the Na+ channel thereby blocking the sodium channel and preventing Na+ from entering the cell and preventing an action potential. Allowing for the loss of sensation
Local anesthetic
Carbamazepine binds to inactivated channel and slows conversion to closed state and prevent high firing while _______ _______ bind to Open and inactivated channel and they STOP channel activation and Na+ reentry
Local anesthetics
You need higher doses of ______ _________ to have effects on touch pressure and motor function while A(Delta) ant C fibers which are for pain require less concentration or dosage
Local anesthetics
pKa of _______ ________ is normally between 7.5 and 10
Local anesthetics
Noradrenergic neurons are found in the
Locus Coeruleus
Where are the cell bodies for norepinephrine?
Locus ceruleus
During NREM sleep muscle tone, eye movements, and brain activity are all _____
Low
If the anterior cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be affected? _______ limbs
Lower
If the middle cerebral artery is lesioned which supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral hemispheres based on somatotopy what body regions will be spared? _______ limbs
Lower limbs
In a ________ ________ or spinal tap a needle pierces the skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space (contains the internal vertebral plexus), dura, arachnoid, and finally the subarachnoid space where CSF is drawn
Lumbar puncture
When Glutamate binds the AMPA receptor on the post synaptic neuron, a wave of depolarization occurs. This activates NMDA receptors and removes the ______ block from over NMDA
Magnesium
Superior Sagittal, straight, transverse and sigmoid are the 4 ______ venous sinuses
Major
The rostral Midbrain will have what two structures?
Mammillary Bodies and Red Nucleus
Which hypothalamic nucleus receives input from the hippocampal donation via fornix
Mammillary body
Which layer of the spinal cord is the last layer to form and becomes the inner grey matter of the spinal cord
Mantle layer (VMM)
The suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus is often called the _______ ______
Master clock
A-beta fibers (axons) correspond with which sensation
Mechanoreceptor
Fingerprints contain a dense matrix of what kind of receptors?
Mechanoreceptors
In ventral horn somatotopy cells supplying proximal musculature are _______ to those supplying distal limbs
Medial
On our neuroembryological construct Motor _______ Sensory Lateral
Medial
Occlusion of branches of the anterior spinal artery (AT THE LEVEL OF THE MEDULLA) On one one side or medullary branches of vertebral artery is defined as what syndrome?
Medial Medullary Syndrome (Inferior Alternating/Dejerine's Syndrome)
Which tract originates in the the pons and facilitates voluntary movements and increases muscle tone by acting on gamma motor neurons
Medial Reticulospinal tract (Medial Go)
Which tract maintains posture of the head and neck and terminates in cervical spinal cord levels?
Medial Vestibulospinal tract
Anterior Spinal Artery give some branches to the _______ before it drains into the vertebral arteries
Medulla
The accessory nucleus is located where?
Medulla
Where is the Hypoglossal nuclei locates?
Medulla
Anterior spinal artery occlusion at the level of the spinal cord is DIFFERENT than anterior spinal artery occlusion at the level of the
Medulla (Possible Medial Medullary Syndrome affecting multiple structures including Medial Lemniscus, Anterior CorticoSpinal, and Hypoglossal nucleus)
What two receptors are examples of superficial mechanoreceptors
Meissner's corpuscle and merkel's receptors
The sympathetic gland will act on The pineal gland to secrete ________ in times of darkness
Melatonin
What is the main intrinsic zeitgeber?
Melatonin
In addition to the primary olfactory Cortex, the primary olfactory tract will also project to the amygdala (emotions-aversion) and entorhinal Cortex which is critical for
Memory
What condition does the caudal Neuro pore fails to close and vertebrae fail to fuse and the meninges and spinal tissue push out through the opening in the vertebrae, forming a sac filled with spinal fluid and neural tissue
Meningomyelocele
Which receptor transmits pressure, position, texture sense, and 2 pt discrimination
Merkel receptor
Pretectum/Tegmentum develops from what vesicle?
Mesencephalon
Tectum (superior and inferior colliculi) develop from what vesicle?
Mesencephalon
The cerebral peduncle develops from what vesicle?
Mesencephalon
What vesicle does the aqueduct arise from
Mesencephalon
What cells condense to form the secondary neural tube (by neurulation)
Mesenchyme
Where do microglial cells reside?
Mesenchyme
The dopamine pathway which is from the central tegmental area to cerebral cortex
Mesocortical
Increased activity of which Dopamine pathway will lead to increased dopamine, psychotic behavior and drug induced psychosis
Mesolimbic
The ______ dopamine pathway goes from central tegmental area to limbic system
Mesolimbic
Most serotonin receptors are what type? (6 out of 7)
Metabotropic
The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of what kind of receptor?
Metabotropic receptor (G-Protein Coupled Receptor)
GPCR are also called
Metabotropic receptors
Cerebellum develops from what secondary vesicle?
Metencephalon
Pons develops from what secondary vesicle?
Metencephalon
The upper part of the 4th ventricle develops from what secondary vesicle?
Metencephalon
What vesicle do the pons and cerebellum arise from
Metencephalon
What vesicle does the upper part of the 4th ventricle arise from
Metencephalon
Benzocaine and lidocaine can both cause _________ as a side effect
Methemoglobinemia
What cells if the brain are not derived from neuroepithelial cells?
Microglia
(Mes)encephalon
Midbrain
Superior colliculis is associated with vision and located in the
Midbrain
Where is the nuclei for CN III located?
Midbrain
Where is the nuclei for CN IV located?
Midbrain
The neural axis bends at what junction
Midbrain-diencephalic junction
Injury to which artery will likely cause an epidural hematoma?
Middle meningeal artery
Without Reelin, earlier-born neurons stay attached to the radial glia fiber and block the _______ of later born neurons
Migration
Condition defined by a Mutation in the LIS1 gene leading to prolonged neuron migration, no gyri, and 4 cortical layers instead of 6
Miller-Dieker Syndrome
Inferior Sagittal sinus, occipital sinus, inferior petrosal sinus, and superior petrosal sinus are the four ______ venous sinuses
Minor
Dopamine can be metabolized by
Monoamine Oxidase-B
Output of the deep cerebellar nuclei is the result of the balance of excitation from _______ and ________ fibers and inhibition by the _______ cells
Mossy and climbing fibers, purkinje cells
Which tracts are descending sensory or motor
Motor
An occlusion of the middle cerebral artery causes RESTRICTED contralateral ______ and ______ deficits
Motor and somatosensory
Huntington's disease is hyperkinetic meaning there is increased ________
Movement
Parkinson's Disease is a hypokinetic disorder meaning that there less _________
Movement
One of the principles of cerebellar function is that lesions limited to the cerebullum DO NOT PRODUCE PARALYSIS (plegia)...they produce disequilibrium, ataxia, dysmetria, changes in _____ tone
Muscle
Sensory receptors within the body of the muscle that primarily detect changes in muscle length
Muscle spindles
Functionally the Peripheral nervous system links the peripheral structures of the body like ______ and ______ with the central nervous system
Muscles and glands
Motor nucleus of V innervates the
Muscles of mastication
What are the three types of proprioceptive mechanoreceptors
Muscles spindle receptors (stretch receptors), Golgi Tendon Organs (sense contractile Force or effort exerted), and Joint receptors (which sense flexion or extension of the Joint
Medulla arises from the
Myelencephalon
The lower part of the 4th ventricle arises from the
Myelencephalon
The medulla develops from what secondary vesicle?
Myelencephalon
The lower part of the 4th ventricle develops from what secondary vesicle?
Myelenephalon
Where are the teammates of the fasiculus cuneatus and fasiculus gracilis
Nucleus Cuneatus and Nucleus Gracilis
Knee jerk reflex is an example of what group of monosynaptic reflexes
Myotatic reflex
The binding of Glutamate to postsynaptic AMPA receptors causes a depolarization that activates which receptor
NMDA receptor
As the night progresses, sleep cycles are increasingly dominated by REM episodes and ________ amounts progressively decrease
NREM
Pattern of sleep cycle repeats 4-6 times per night. The first few cycles are dominated are dominated by the presence of _________. REM sleep amount is minimal in initial sleep cycles
NREM
________ is characterized by REM sleep attacks whole awake
Narcolepsy
An inhibitory Post Synaptic Potential will make the membrane potential more
Negative
A molecule binding to an allosteric site and inhibiting the actions of the receptor is called a
Negative allosteric Modulator
Principal Sensory Nucleus of Trigeminal is analogous to what nuclei responsibilities for painless touch below the face
Nucleus Gracilis (Nucleus Cuneatus)
The BE fibers for CNX to innervate the muscles of the larynx, pharynx, and palate originate from what nucleus?
Nucleus Ambiguus
Where do the BE axons to innervate Stylopharyngeus muscle by CN IX originate?
Nucleus Ambiguus
Where are the cell bodies for acetylcholine?
Nucleus Basalis of Meynert
Notochord(from mesoderm) induces the formation of the _______ _______ by week 3
Neural plate
Where do neuroepithelial cells come from?
Neuroectoderm
What CELLS are the cells within the brain and spinal cord derived from?
Neuroepithelial cells (one exception microglia)
Low heart rate despite low blood pressure is a key feature of ________ _______
Neurogenic shock (you have a loss of sympathetic tone thus heart rate is not compensating)
How do you treat encephalocele?
Neurosurgery
What is the process called by which the neural tube is formed from the neural plate
Neurulation
What drug is a stimulant and drug of abuse that acts as an agonist for nicotine acetylcholine receptors and ligand gated ion channels
Nicotine
The dopamine pathway that is from the substantia nigra to striatum
Nigrostriatal
In the Corticobulbar system, if you lesion the genu or the UMN in the corticobulbar tract there will be _____ ______
No deficit (due to bilateral Innervation with contralateral dominance)
Dandy Walker syndrome is an example of what type of hydrocephalus?
NonCommunicating (obstructive) hydrocephaly
In communicating or ____________ hydrocephalus. CSF ABSORPTION usually due to functional problems of the arachnoid granulations (villi) or blockage DISTAL to the foramen Magendie
NonObstructive
What is the agonist for adrenergic receptors
Norepinephrine
Olive is a collection of
Nuclei
Where do the BE axons originate to innervate the entire larynx, pharynx, and palate
Nucleus ambiguus
Where did the chemo and baroreceptors from cardio and Resp send their information? The send it to the ______ ________ in the medulla
Nucleus solitarius
Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus is also called
Obstructive hydrocephalus
Olfactory stimuli that must be small, volatile (airborne), and hydrophobic are called
Odorants
What is the only sensory system without an obligatory relay in the thalamus to reach cortex
Olfactory
The olfactory receptor neurons project to the
Olfactory bulb
What is the name of the ventral lateral structure on the medulla?
Olive
In the spinal cord there is _____ dural layer and it is suspended
One
OAP MA cerebral (what are the 5 branches of the Internal carotid Artery)
Ophthalmic artery, Anterior Choroidal Artery, Posterior Communicating Artery, Middle Cerebral Artery, and Anterior Cerebral artery
The 1a inhibitory interneuron prevents the alpha motor neuron from firing, thereby reducing the contraction of the _________ muscle
Opposing
Where does the primary olfactory cortex project to?
Orbital frontal cortex
Both the primary gustatory (43) and primary olfactory cortex (28 and 34) project to the
Orbitofrontal cortex
Gustatory cortex projects to what cortex?
Orbitofrontal cortex
In the lateral hypothalamic area orexinergic neurons can be found which use _______ as a neurotransmitter
Orexin
Haloperidol binds to what kind of site on the D2 receptor and is competing with dopamine
Orthosteric site
The site where the agonist binds is called the
Orthosteric site
Heterotopia means
Out of place
In the _______, nerves can regenerate
PNS
Impairment in motor or sensory function in LOWER EXTREMITIES is called a
Paraplegia
Which hypothalamic nucleus regulates water balance and produces ADH and oxytocin
Paraventricular Nucleus (and Supraoptic)
Suprachiasmatic nucleus projects to what nucleus of the hypothalamus?
Paraventricular nucleus
weakness; some muscle strength is preserved
Paresis
The parietal and occipital lobes are separated by the
Parieto-occupital sulcus
Neurons in the locus Coeruleus and raphe nucleus show evidence of __________ __________ well before pathology or cell death occurs in the substantia nigra
Parkinson's Disease
What is L-DOPA used to treat?
Parkinson's Disease
What is the name of the disease where a person loses some of the neurons that are releasing Dopamine?
Parkinson's Disease
What disease can Selegiline be used to treat?
Parkinson's Disease (by inhibiting metabolism of Dopamine)
CNVII: Superior Salivatory Nucleus use many GVE fibers to innervate Subling, submandibular, Lacrimal and Glands innervated by pterygopalatine ganglion. But CNIX: Inferior Salivatory Nucleus uses GVE fibers to innervate the
Parotid gland
________ is Defined as paralysis; all voluntary movement is lost while paresis is defined as weakness; some muscle strength is preserved
Plegia
What are the two layers of the dura mater
Periosteal and meningeal layers
If radial glial cells are unable to climb on the older radial glial and begin to ride clumps of neurons are appear and they are STUCK. This is called
Periventricular heterotopia
Mutations in the FLNA genes which codes for filamin result in
Periventricular heterotopia (males usually die in utero)
Vagus yields BE fibers to MOST of the skeletal muscles of
Pharynx, larynx, and palate
What does the double sheet lining the ventricles contain?
Pia and ependyma ( telachoroidia)
Which meningeal later is highly vascularized?
Pia mater
What is the order of meninge layers from deep to superficial?
Pia, Arachnoid, and Dura mater
The ______ gland is also called a circumventricular organ because it lacks a _____
Pineal (pineal gland), BBB
What are the two componenta of the epithalamus?
Pineal gland and habenular nuclei
The olfactory tract projects to the primary olfactory cortex which is also called the
Piriform cortex
The ________ (PSG) measures electrical activity using metal electrodes
Polysomnogram
Facial nuclei are located in the
Pons
When large middle cerebellar peduncles are observed on cross sections what brainstem level is shown?
Pons
Where are the abducens nuclei locates?
Pons
Where is Trigeminal Ganglion located?
Pons
Where is the nuclei for CN V located?
Pons
Motor Nucleus of V, Principle Sensory Nucleus of V, and Facial Nucleus are all you not found where
Pons (Lateral Pontine Syndrome)
"If you see a stem that says jaw deviation (Motor Nucleus of V), loss of touch from the face (principle sensory nucleus), Bell's palsy(Facial Nucleus) where should you put yourself immediately?
Pons (lateral Pontine Syndrome)
The main name for prepontine cisterna or cisterna Pontis is
Pontine cistern
The dentate nucleus like to work with what cerebellar region?
Pontocerebellaregion
Lateral most functional zone of the cerebellum is the
Pontocerebellum
A _______Hoffman's sign may indicate a neural issue like hypotonia or hyper-reflexia
Positive
An excitatory Post Synaptic Potential will make the membrane potential more
Positive
Diazepam is a ________ allosteric modulator
Positive
Local anesthetics can't bind the Na+ channel to block it without a ______ charge
Positive
When a physician taps or flicks the nail of the middle or ring finger to produce flexion of the index finger to the thumb if there is movement of the index finger and thumb, the person has a _______ Hoffman sign
Positive
When a physician taps or flicks the nail off the middle or ring finger to produce flexion of the index finger to the thumb of there is no movement of the index finger or thumb, the person has a _______ Hoffman sign
Positive
A molecule binding to an allosteric site and enhancing the actions of the receptor is called a
Positive allosteric modulator
Oculomotor nerve separates superior cerebellar artery from _______ ________ _______
Posterior Cerebellar Artery
What ascending pathway brings movement information about individual muscles in the lower proximal extremities
Posterior Spinocerebellar
Which Insular cortex is believed to involved in auditory, somatosensory and skeletomotor
Posterior insular cortex
When you see the thalamus you know you are in what limb of the internal capsule?
Posterior limb of the internal capsule
Which hypothalamic nucleus is involved in sex
Preoptic Nucleus
Dopamine (DA) inhibits release of what molecule?
Prolactin
A-alpha fibers (axons) correspond with which sensation
Proprioception
GSA axons for ___________ terminate in the mesencephalic nucleus and then the nucleus communicates with the motor nucleus of Trigeminal to monitor force of bite, adjustment of musculature for appropriate chewing
Proprioception
What type of sensation is identified as a sense of position and movement of one's own limbs and body without vision
Proprioception
Lamina III, IV, and VI of the dorsal horn are for
Proprioception (Painless)
Lamina VII of the dorsal horn is for what three things?
Proprioception, joint afferents, and sympathetic nervous system
Basal ganglia originates from what vesicle?
Prosencephalon
Internal capsule and commissures develop from what vesicle?
Prosencephalon
Medial temporal Lobe (hippocampus, amygdala) develop from what vesicle?
Prosencephalon
Olfactory system originates from what vesicle?
Prosencephalon
Pituitary glands originate from what vesicle?
Prosencephalon
Telencephalon and diencephalon vesicles arise from
Prosencephalon
The cerebral aqueduct develops from what vesicle?
Prosencephalon
What vesicles do lateral ventricles develop from
Prosencephalon
What are the three primary vesicles?
Prosencephalon, Mesenchephalon, and Rhomboencephalon
Retina originates from what vesicle?
Prosenecephalon
In infiltration anesthesia, the drug may be administered with bicarbonate to make the extracellular environment more negative allowing for more of the local anesthetic to be unionized able to cross the membrane and become _________ so it can bind and block the voltage gated sodium channel
Protonated
The main name for the superior cistern or cistern of the great cerebral vein is
Quadrigeminal Cistern
During depression _______ sleep periods are longer at the beginning
REM
Narcolepsy is caused by problems on the Orx2 gene. Narcolepsy is associated with impairment of brain circuits that inhibit _____ during waking state
REM
Dreams occur predominantly in what sleep state
REM sleep (paradoxical sleep)
In what condition does the caudal Neuro pore fail to close, vertebrae fail to fuse and are open leaving the spinal cord exposed? Motor and sensory deficits, chromic infections, and disturbances is bladder function often occur.
Rachischisis
Serotonergic neurons are found in what nuclei?
Raphe Nuclei
Where are the cell bodies for serotonin?
Raphe nucleus
Meissner's and Pacinian are the two ________ adapting receptors
Rapidly
___________ adapting mechanoreceptors respond ONLY at the start and end of a stimulus. Immediate short lived responses when the stimulus is applied and removed. E.g. as pressure increases, the total number of action potentials discharged rises and there are higher firing rates
Rapidly
In the spinal meningeal region the epidural space is a ______ space between dura and vertebral periosteum containing the veins (internal vertebral venous plexus)
Real
"The importance of getting off the train"
Reelin
Which extracellular protein is responsible for termination of neuron migration
Reelin
Which tract is parallel to the lateral corticospinal tract and may takeover if needed? Also facilitates motor neurons that innervate proximal flexor musculature
Rubrospinal tract
Both the Inferior Salivatory Nucleus and Nucleus Ambiguus are located in the _______ _______ in the medulla
Reticular Formation
In _______ degeneration the segment of the nerve proximal to the injury degenerates
Retrograde
Metencephalon and Myeloencephalon vesicles arise from
Rhomboencephelon
Due to the rule, "all LMN innervate ipsilaterally except for trochlear nerve"... if the abducens nuclei on the right side is blown out there will be a loss of abduction in the ______ eye and right eye will deviate towards the midline
Right
If I blow nucleus ambiguus on the left that will affect muscles of larynx pharynx palate on the left and uvula will deviate to the
Right
Tectum means
Roof
Both alpha and gamma motor neurons are lower motor neurons, originating in the ventral horn, signaling out the ventral _____
Root
Any taste on X (SVA) (typically from epiglottis regions) will go to the _____ collection of neurons on Nucleus Solitarius
Rostral
In what two conditions does the _______ Neuro pore fail to close (anencephaly and encephalocele)
Rostral
SVA axons from CN VII for taste from the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue terminate in the ________ Nucleus Solitarius collection of neurons
Rostral
Posterior 1/3rd Taste from CN IX and anterior 2/3rds taste from VII will go to
Rostral Nucleus Solitarius
What's the nucleus associated with relaying taste in from the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
Rostral Solitarius
What proteins does botulinium cleave to prevent release of ACh from Motor neurons , leading to muscle paralysis
SNARE proteins
What is the common drug class of serotonin antidepressants? Used to treat depression and anxiety
SSRI
What are the two caudal parts of the spinal cord produced by secondary neurlation?
Sacral and coccyx
A phenomenon in which damage to the spinothalamic tracts leave pain, temperature, and simple tactile sensations intact in sacral dermatomes
Sacral sparing
Different tastes produce different reactions . Sensitivity on tip and diced of tongue produces salvation
Salty
One of the principles of cerebellar function is that if an afferent input to the cerebellum arises from one side of the body or "world", it terminates on the ______ side of the cerebellum
Same (ipsilateral)
If you lesion any LMN what side will be affected? ______ ______
Same side
If you lesion a LMN in the corticobulbar tract you will lose function on the ______ _____. This is deferent from an UMN lesion in the same tract which would have NO deficit.
Same side (with a few exceptions at VII, X, XI, and XII
Spina bifida occulta is mesodermal in origin. which mesoderm type does it originate from?
Sclerotome (vertebrae and ribs)
Injuries that are an indirect result of an insult (edema, inflammation) are called
Secondary damage
What drug can be used to inhibit dopamine metabolism by MOA-B?
Selegiline
_________ is a MAO-B inhibitor which will increase dopamine levels
Selegiline
Auto- means _____
Self
What is the major modality of trigeminal? (In general)
Sensory
Which tracts are ascending sensory or motor?
Sensory
There are two components for this reflex. The _______ component GSA is carried by CN IX and the _________ component BE is carried by X for the Gag reflex
Sensory, Motor
Fluoxetine blocks the ______ transporter and acts as an antidepressant
Serotonin (SERT)
In this procedure for hydrocephaly, a Thin, long tubing, is situated in a ventricle and then threaded under the skin. Excess CSF is carried away from the brain to be absorbed elsewhere, many times in the abd region. A valve is able to control the flow of CSF
Shunt
The alpha motor neuron supplies _______ muscles
Skeletal
______ _______ are Locations where hematoma expansion stops because dura mater is tightly attached to the skull
Skull sutures
Merkel's and Ruffini are two _________ adapting receptors
Slowly
___________ adapting mechanoreceptors respond THROUGHOUT a stimulus. E.g. as pressure increases, the total number of action potentials discharged rises and there are higher firing rates
Slowly
Efferent cortexes are focused on using layer 5 so it is expected that their layer 5 will be big and their layer 4 will be _______
Small
All sensory information except for _______ must go through the thalamus
Smell
AMPA is responsible for which ion?
Sodium (as a child Calcium is also used)
NMDA is responsible for which 2 ions ______ and ______
Sodium and Calcium
What is the orderly representation of "body parts" on cortex
Somatotopy
_______ is amazing for clinical deficits
Somatotopy
Different tastes produce different reactions . Sensitivity on sides of tongue produces facial responses (puckering), excessive salivation for dilution
Sour
What are the three components of the PNS (SCG)
Spinal nerves, cranial nerves III-XII, ganglia
GSA Axons from CN VII for pain will terminate at the ________ ________ of Trigeminal
Spinal nuclei
Lesions in the descending tract of Trigeminal (spinal Trigeminal tract) or ________ _______ ____ ________ results in ipsilateral deficits in pain and temperature from the face, teeth, anterior 2/3rds of the tongue and palate, etc....(all structures from 1st semester)
Spinal nucleus of Trigeminal
_______ _______ is characterized by the loss of REFLEX, motor, and sensory function below the level of cord injury
Spinal shock
The gamma motor neuron supplies muscle _______
Spindles
Globose and emboliform nucleus together form the interpose nucleus and they work with what region?
Spinocerebellar
Which tract carries crude touch sensation?
Spinothalamic Tract
Lesion of the ANTERIOR SPINAL ARTERY can cause BILATERAL loss of pain and temperature sense of (because of _______________ tract disruption) AND bilateral paralysis (because of __________ ______________ tract disruption)
Spinothalamic tract
What tract crosses at the anterior white commisure
Spinothalamic tract
Crude touch is what system?
Spinothalamic/anterolateral
CN XI innervates what two muscles?
Sternocleidomastoid and Trapezius
D1 dopamine receptors are what kind of receptors?
Stimulatory
Spinal cord lesions that occur because of a B12 deficiency (important for myelin synthesis). clinical features of: 1. bilateral spastic paralysis (from lateral corticospinal axon) 2. Bilateral loss of discriminative touch, vibration, and position sense (from dorsal column degeneration) are indicative of
Subacute combined degeneration
Epidural injection is outside of the dural membrane while spinal anesthesia is in the _______
Subarachnoid (S and S)
Large subarachnoid spaces that contain CSF. These containers are called _______ _______
Subarachnoid Cisterns
_________ _______ are openings in the subarachnoid space created by separation of arachnoid and pia mater, FILLED WITH CSF
Subarachnoid Cisterns
If symptoms are sudden with an extreme headache, it is likely a _______ _______ due to a vascular accident like an aneurysm
Subarachnoid hemmorhage
Flow of CSF Lateral ventricles > Interventricular foramen > 3rd ventricle > cerebral aqueduct > 4th ventricle > Foramen of Luschka and Foramen of Magendie > _________ _______ > cisterns > subarachnoid villus > sinuses > internal jugular vein
Subarachnoid space
Intrathecal space means
Subarachnoid space
Normally present, CSF-filled space, enlarged in cisterns
Subarachnoid space
The arachnoid villus allows for passage of CSF from the _______ space into a dural venous sinus
Subarachnoid space
In heterozygote females with doublecortin mutation they get double cortex called
Subcortical laminar band heterotopia (SCBH)
Hematoma which is unable to cross the tentorium cerebelli and falx cerebri
Subdural hematoma
Hematoma within which a midline shift may be noted
Subdural hematoma
Potential space in the innermost dural layer, near dura-arachnoid interface
Subdural hematoma
Axons that originate at the Superior Salivatory Nucleus for Facial Nerve are GVE and supply glands innervated by Pterygopalatine Ganglion and what other glands
Sublingual, submandibular, and lacrimal glands
The SNc (____ _____ ______ _______) inhibits the indirect pathway and excites the direct pathway
Substantia Nigra pars Compacta
Parkinson's disease is related to loss of dopaminergic neurons in the ________ ________
Substantia nigra
Which dopamine pathway degenerates in Parkinson's disease
Substantia nigra
__________ ________ is the only excitatory nucleus in the basal ganglia. It is the only one that will be sending excitatory information
Subthalamic nucleus
The folds that are valleys/grooves are called
Sulci
During proliferation of neurocytes, a groove at the midpoint along the lateral sides of the tube. This indentation is called
Sulcus limitans
What kind of receptors are meissner's corpuscles? _________ _____________
Superficial mechanoreceptors
The CEREBELLUM is connected to the brain stem by what 3 stalks?
Superior Cerebellar Peduncle, Middle Cerebellar Peduncle, and Inferior Cerebellar Peduncle
What's the nucleus associated with innervating sublingual, submandibular, lacrimal, and other glands innervated by peripheral nerves
Superior Salivatory Nucleus
After the Suprachiasmatic nucleus projects to the paraventricular nucleus and the PVN projects to the lateral horn Of the thoracic cord Preganglionic sympathetic fibers project to the _______ ________ ________ which then travel on blood vessels to get to the pineal gland
Superior cervical ganglion
What two landmarks orient you to the caudal midbrain
Superior colliculi and Cerebral Peduncles
What two limits delineate midbrain and medulla from the pons
Superior pontine sulcus and Inferior pontine sulcus
At Night the pineal gland is active while the __________ nucleus is not
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
The circadian clock is located within what nucleus?
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Lesions to axons of the Corticobulbar tract (upper motor neurons) cause what condition?
Supranuclear Palsy
The hemispheres contain many folds which function to increase ______ _____ of the cortex
Surface area
Different tastes produce different reactions . Sensitive on tip of tongue; produces salivary secretion, insulin release, and swallowing. Which tastant?
Sweet
In which three tastants does the following occur... tastants bind producing the heterotrimeric G proteins (Ga2Bg;orange) Ga2 binds to and stimulates Phospholipase Cb2. Phospholipase Cb2 hydrolyzes PIP2 to produce Inositol triphosphate (IP3;red) and Diacyl glycerine (DAG) IP3 causes opening of the fast transduction channel (TRPM5). TRP lets in calcium, depolarizers the cell.
Sweet, Bitter, and Umami
Salty and sour are mediated by ion channels while ______, _______, and ______ are mediated by G protein coupled receptors
Sweet, bitter, umami
The intermediolateral cell column of lateral horn contains all the preganglionic ________ cell bodies
Sympathetic
Somatic (voluntary) motor does not need a second _________ to cross. It can cross without it
Synapse
An enlargement of the central canal develops resulting in a "cavity" and destruction of neural tissue usually occurs. Cervical levels result in a "cape" loss of pain and temperature sensation — follows C5 dermatome. Can extend to the medulla or to lumbar levels. Usually spares touch/ vibratory perception. Clinical features: Loss of pain and temp sensation over the neck shoulder and arms (b/c is spinal thalamic crossing axons at anterior commissure) Possible weakness and atrophy of hands and arms (if damage extends to anterior horns) indicative of what?
Syringomyelia
Where are the preganglionic Sympathetic cell bodies
T1-L2
Umami receptors which are AMINO ACID receptors express _______ and _______ receptors as the two types
T1R1 and T1R3
The sweet receptor has two parts _______ and _______
T1R2 And T1R3
The bitter-toxin receptors have around 30 divergent toxins GPRs called
T2Rs
_________ sensitivity is greatest on hairless skin
Tactile
All regions of tongue have all TCRs and respond to all ______
Tastes
Which tract originates from the superior colliculus and will receive inputs from the visual system on how to properly orient the head
Tectospinal tract
The ______houses the lateral ventricles
Telencephalon
The cerebral hemisphere walls arise from the
Telencephalon
The lateral ventricles arise from the
Telencephalon
What are the 5 secondary vesicles?
Telencephalon, Diencephalon, Mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephelon
The _______ _____ is significant when talking about herniations because different brain matter can come through and cause herniations
Tentorial Notch
_______ is an opening in the tentorium cerebelli that allows the brain stem to pass through
Tentorial Notch
VMAT2 is a drug target for
Tetrabenazine
Which drug blocks the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT2) thereby depleting norepinephrine
Tetrabenazine
What drug is used as an eye drop for pain?
Tetracaine
A_______ is weakness affecting all four limbs, may be flaccid or spastic
Tetraparesis (Quadriparesis)
A _______ is paralysis of upper and lower extremities as well as torso usually due to a cervical Spinal cord injury
Tetraplegia (quadriplegia)
3rd order cell bodies for Somatic sensory systems are found where? In the
Thalamus
Any type of sensory information (touch, temperature, pain etc...) EXCEPT SMELL must go to the ______ before reaching its respective cortex
Thalamus
Basal ganglia communicate to the UMN by way of what structure first?
Thalamus
If the basal ganglia or cerebellum needs to communicate to the cortex what must they go to first?
Thalamus
Taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue (Facial Nerve) will terminate at the
Tractus Solitarius
The sympathetic nervous system being _________ means that preganglionic cell bodies are located in the lateral horn of thoracic and lumbar regions (T1-L2)
Thoracolumbar
What at the Blood-CSF barrier prevents blood and it contents from interacting with CSF
Tight junctions
The tentorial notch is an opening that the brain stem sits in and other brain _____ can herniate down through there
Tissue
In infiltration anesthesia the drug is administered into the _____
Tissues
CNX carries GSA from skin posterior to the ear, dura in posterior cranial fossa, posterior and inferior aspect of external auditory meatus, mucous membranes of pharynx and larynx which will terminate at the Principal Sensory Nucleus of Trigeminal if
Touch
CN VII, IX, and X say take my sensory with you _____ and bring it in
Trigeminal
Doesn't matter where the GSA is coming from, it relays through the _______ system
Trigeminal
What is the major sensory nerve of the head
Trigeminal
__________ is the Major sensory nerve of the face
Trigeminal
All motor neurons innervate the same side except for
Trochlear
Which ataxia relates to problems to the midline (problems to the vermis and flocculonodular lobe)
Truncal ataxia
Which dopamine pathway is from the hypothalamus to pituitary gland
Tuberoinfundibular
What are two ways to detect neural tube defects?
Ultrasound and amniocentesis
Clarke's Column (Nucleus Dorsalis and Clarke's nucleus) sends _______ proprioception to cerebellum
Unconscious
What are the two types of associative cortical regions
Unimodal and heteromodal
In an Upper motor neuron lesion everything goes
Up
Hypereflexia is associated with with a lesion to the upper or lower motor neuron?
Upper motor neuron
The first order neurons for taste are the sensory ganglion (peripheral) of ______ _______ ______ and these axons form the solitary tract
VII, IX, and X
What thalamic nucleus loves to do everything below the head?
VPL
What thalamic nucleus loves to do everything in the brain
VPM
The source of blood during a subdural hematoma only ____ __ _______ __ _____
Vein at attachment to sinus
Dural Venous Sinuses are big _____
Veins
Dural _____ ________ are found between layer of dura mater, and they receive blood from the veins of the brain and CSF from the subarachnoid space. They all ultimately drain into the internal jugular veins
Venous sinuses
The ______ part of the facial nucleus innervates the lower quadrant of the face
Ventral
In an axial (CT or MRI) image you are looking at what orientation?
Ventral (because you're standing at the patients feet and looking towards the head)
The basal plate is also known as the ______ ______
Ventral Horn
Lamina IX of the dorsal horn is for ____ _____ ______ _______
Ventral Horn Motor Neurons
Where are the cell bodies for Dopamine?
Ventral Tegmental area (VTA) and Substantia Nigra (SN)
When the VLPO (_______ ________ _______ _____) turns on it inhibits some ARAS (ascending reticular activating system) systems like serotonergic and noradrenergic regions, it also in its histaminergic and Orexin-producing neurons in the hypothalamus
Ventral-lateral preoptic area
In nonobstructive hydrocephalus the issue is not with the
Ventricles
In obstructive hydrocephalus you are obstructing the _______
Ventricles
Where is CSF produced?
Ventricles
Which layer of the spinal cord is the proliferative layer and forms first?
Ventricular layer (VMM)
What are the three layers of the spinal cord?
Ventricular, marginal, and mantle layers
Which hypothalamic nucleus is called the satiety center and it destroyed will result in obesity and savage behavior
Ventromedial Nucleus (related to a dorsomedial which results in obesity and savage behavior without destruction)
If the labrinythe artery (Branch if AICA) is occluded the patient will have what two symptoms?
Vertigo and Deafness
What does VMAT2 stand for
Vesicular monoamine transporter 2
The labrinythe artery supplies what system
Vestibulocochlear System
Superior Colliculi is involved in the ______ system
Visual
During What weeks does primary neurulation occur?
Week 3 and 4
During what weeks does secondary neurulation occur
Weeks 5 and 6
The prefix holo means?
Whole
An unconscious (or drunk/ drugged) individual does not exhibit the ________ reflex. This person is at greater risk of damage as they cannot respond to the stimuli
Withdrawal
In a withdrawal reflex heat stimulates receptors in the skin, triggering a sense impulse that travels in the afferent neuron to the spinal cord. The afferent neuron synapses with interneurons that synapse with efferent neurons 1. Efferent neurons send impulses to flexors to stimulate limb ________ 2. Efferent neurons ALSO send inhibitory impulses to extensors so flexion is not inhibited (reciprocal Innervation)
Withdrawal
Which reflex is also known as a nociceptive or flexor withdrawal reflex?
Withdrawal reflex
Which reflex is intended to protect the body from damaging stimuli like heat or pain?
Withdrawal reflex
External and internal cues are responsible for changing, aligning, or modulating the period, phase, and amplitude of the clock are called
Zeitgebers
Muscle spindles- length and stretch 1___
a
The immediate stabbing pain also called the first pain is caused by what nociceptive fibers? (Fast because they are myelinated)
alpha (delta) fibers
Inability to coordinate voluntary movements is called
ataxia
Any GVA VII, IX, or X will you relay through Nucleus Solitarius
caudal
What structure connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles?
cerebral aqueduct
What produces CSF
choroid plexus
Nicotine and Alcohol can increase ________ release. This is largely due to this molecule playing a key role in the REWARD CENTER
dopamine
Glutamate is
excitatory
Glutamate is:
excitatory
alpha motor neurons innervate ________ ________ _____
extrafusal muscle fibers
In the PNS, cell bodies are called
ganglia
What does glabrous mean
hairless
GABA is
inhibitory
GABA is:
inhibitory
In a unilateral vagus UMN lesion , the uvula will deviate towards the lesion upon phonation. Muscles on contralateral side no longer receive Innervation so uvula is pulled to ________ side
ipsilateral
abducens innervates
lateral rectus
Prilocaine can cause
methemoglobinemia
What are three parts of the brain stem
midbrain, pons, and the medulla
PNS Axons
nerves
In the CNS, cell bodies are called
nuclei
ANYTIME you see spinothalamic tract it is carrying pain and temperature from the ________ side
opposite
Anytime you see cortical spinal above the medulla it trying to target the_______ side
opposite
What is the name for the pH at which 50% of the molecule is ionized and 50% is unionized
pKa
From Retina to Suprachiasmatic nucleus (then to paraventricular nucleus) then to reticular formation in ventrolateral medulla then to Intermediolateral neurons of spinal cord then to superior cervical ganglion is the path taken for the ________ _______ to secrete melatonin
pineal gland
TO MOVE the Basal ganglia put the breaks on some ________ ________, and release break on voluntary movement
postural reflexes
TO SIT STILL the basal ganglia put the breaks on all movements except those REFLEXES required to maintain upright ________
posture
In __________ palsy, lesions will affect only the lower quadrant of the contralateral side. The upper quadrant is unaffected because the dorsal component of the facial nucleus, which innervates this quadrant, is bilaterally innervated by Corticobulbar fibers
supranuclear palsy
_________ ___________ separates cerebrum from the cerebellum
tentorium cerebelli
If there is less going on in the basal ganglia that means there is less inhibition going to the thalamus and more excitation coming from the ______ and therefore more movement
thalamus
CNS axons are called
tracts
Superior Oblique is innervated by
trochlear nerve
In infiltration anesthesia, administration is into the tissues. It may be administered with epinephrine or bicarbonate in order to cause ___________ of the blood vessels and it allowsthe drug to stay localized to the administered
vasoconstriction