Neuro assess, TIA, stroke, ICP, NCLEX

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

An elderly patient fell at home. Which information from the patient's history makes this patient at high risk for an intracerebral bleed? A. History of a heart condition B. Taking warfarin (Coumadin) C. Has lost consciousness for 5 seconds D. History of migraine headaches

B Anticoagulant use is associated with increased hemorrhage and more severe head injury. A heart condition may have caused the syncope that caused the fall, but it was not solely responsible for increased bleeding. Concussions are usually minor injuries that resolve, and the typical signs include a brief disruption in level of consciousness (LOC). If the loss of consciousness is less than 5 minutes, patients are usually discharged. Headache by itself does not indicate a risk for intracerebral bleeding.

Preventing which problem is a priority nursing goal for a patient who had cranial surgery today? A. Pain B. Increased ICP C. Infection D. Malnutrition

B The primary goal of care after cranial surgery is prevention of increased ICP. Other priorities are monitoring neurologic function, fluid and electrolyte levels, and serum osmolality. The brain does not have pain receptors, although the patient can have a headache. However, increased ICP remains a priority. Infection is not a priority the day of surgery, and nutrition is important, but increased ICP is the priority.

To promote communication during rehabilitation of the patient with aphasia, an appropriate nursing intervention is to a. use gestures, pictures, and music to stimulate patient responses b. talk about activities of daily living (ADLs) that are familiar to the patient c. structure statements so that patient does not have to respond verbally d. use flashcards with simple words and pictures to promote language recall

B: Talk about ADLs that are familiar to the patient- during rehabilitation, the patient with aphasia needs frequent, meaningful verbal stimulation that has relevance for him. Conversation by the nurse and family should address ADLs that are familiar to the patient. Gestures, pictures, and simple statements are more appropriate in the acute phase, when patients may be overwhelmed with verbal stimuli. Flashcards are often perceived by the patient as childish and meaningless.

What to measure

Body function/Structure Activity Participation

You explain to the patient with a stroke who is scheduled for angiography that the test is used to determine the A. presence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). B. site and size of the infarction. C. patency of the cerebral blood vessels. D. presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

C Angiography provides visualization of cerebral blood vessels, can provide an estimate of perfusion, and can detect filling defects in the cerebral arteries.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: A) Has had a prior heart attack. B) Is older than 60 years of age. C) Has bleeding within the brain. D) Has a GCS score that is less than 8.

C) Has bleeding within the brain.

A patient being monitored has an ICP pressure of 12 mm Hg. You understand that this pressure reflects A. a severe decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure. B. an alteration in the production of cerebrospinal fluid. C. the loss of autoregulatory control of intracranial pressure. D. a normal balance between brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid.

D Normal ICP ranges from 10 to 15 mm Hg. A sustained pressure above the upper limit is considered abnormal.

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a thrombus. B. an acute arterial rupture. C. an embolism. D. cerebral vasodilation.

D. cerebral vasodilation.

Purpose of Measure

Discriminative Predictive Evaluative

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called:

an aneurysm.

Pre-test questions: The physician orders alteplase (Activase) for a 58-year-old man diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke. Which nursing action is most appropriate? A) Administer the medication by an IV route at 15 mL/hr for 24 hours. B) Insert two or three large-bore IV catheters before administering the medication. C) If gingival bleeding occurs, discontinue the medication and notify the physician. D) Reduce the medication infusion rate for a systolic blood pressure above 180 mm Hg.

*B) Insert two or three large-bore IV catheters before administering the medication.* Rationale: Before giving alteplase, the nurse should start two or three large bore IVs. Bleeding is a major complication with fibrinolytic therapy, and venipunctures should not be attempted after alteplase is administered. Altepase is administered IV with an initial bolus dose followed by an infusion of the remaining medication within the next 60 minutes. Gingival bleeding is a minor complication and may be controlled with pressure or ice packs. Control of blood pressure is critical prior to altepase administration and for the following 24 hours. Before administering altepase, a systolic pressure above 180 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 110 mm Hg requires aggressive blood pressure treatment to reduce the risk of cerebral hemorrhage.

Cortical blindness of the contralateral visual field, memory deficit, ataxia, & contralateral or ipsilateral hemiparesis are all effects of a stroke in the: a. middle cerebral artery (MCA) b. anterior cerebral artery (ACA) c. posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

c. posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

4 major causes of hemorrhagic stroke

1)deep hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhages, 2)ruptured saccular aneurysms, 3)arteriovenous malformation,4)spontaneous lobar hemorrhages

People who have thrombotic strokes also usually have which 3 comorbidities?

1. HTN 2. diabetes 3. vascular disease

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced: A. a ruptured cerebral artery. B. acute hypoglycemia. C. an occluded cerebral artery. D. a complex partial seizure.

A. a ruptured cerebral artery.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: A. cerebrum. B. brain stem. C. cerebral cortex. D. cerebellum.

B. brain stem.

Thrombotic strokes often occur at places where arteries ___ & where ___ may have narrowed the arteries for years.

Branch; plaques

NCLEX Review Questions: The nurse would expect to find what clinical manifestation in a patient admitted with a left-sided stroke? A) Impulsivity B) Impaired speech C) Left-side neglect D) Short attention span

*B) Impaired speech* Rationale: Clinical manifestations of left-sided brain damage include right hemiplegia, impaired speech/language, impaired right/left discrimination, and slow and cautious performance. Impulsivity, left-sided neglect, and short attention span are all manifestations of right-sided brain damage.

Which of the following is the best treatment for acute ischemic stroke? a. heparin b. LMWH c. Alteplase d. Eptifibatie e. Warfarin Which of the following is the best treatment for acute ischemic stroke? a. heparin b. LMWH c. Alteplase d. Eptifibatie e. Warfarin

C: Alteplase

For a patient who is suspected of having a stroke, one of the most important pieces of information that the nurse can obtain is a. time of the patient's last meal. b. time at which stroke symptoms first appeared. c. patient's hypertension history and management. d. family history of stroke and other cardiovascular diseases.

*b. time at which stroke symptoms first appeared.* Rationale: During initial evaluation, the most important point in the patient's history is the time since onset of stroke symptoms. If the stroke is ischemic, recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical signs of ischemic stroke; tPA reestablishes blood flow through a blocked artery and prevents brain cell death in patients with acute onset of ischemic stroke.

Factors to consider when selecting outcome measures

1) What to measure 2) Purpose of Measure 3) Type of Measure 4) Patient and Clinic factors 5) Psychometric factors 6) Feasibility

Secondary prevention: Risk factor modification (4)

1. smoking cessation 2. diabetes control 3. aggressive cholesterol lowering 4. hypertension control

During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic treatment for an ischemic stroke, the primary goal is to control the client's: 1. Pulse. 2. Respirations. 3. Blood pressure. 4. Temperature.

3. Control of blood pressure is critical during the first 24 hours after treatment because an intracerebral hemorrhage is the major adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy. Vital signs are monitored, and blood pressure is maintained as identified by the physician and specific to the client's ischemic tissue needs and risk of bleeding from treatment. The other vital signs are important, but the priority is to monitor blood pressure.

What is the expected outcome of thrombolytic drug therapy for stroke? 1. Increased vascular permeability. 2. Vasoconstriction. 3. Dissolved emboli. 4. Prevention of hemorrhage.

3. Thrombolytic enzyme agents are used for clients with a thrombotic stroke to dissolve emboli, thus reestablishing cerebral perfusion. They do not increase vascular permeability, cause vasoconstriction, or prevent further hemorrhage.

Which modifiable risk factors for stroke would be most important for the nurse to include when planning a community education program? A. Hypertension B. Hyerlipidemia C. Alcohol consumption D. Oral contraceptive use

A. Hypertension Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor, but it is still often undetected and inadequately treated. The public is often more aware of hyperlipidemia and oral contraceptive use as risk factors for stroke. Alcohol is also a modifiable risk factor.

Manifestations of left brain damage

Aphasia, inability to remember words

You are caring for a patient admitted with a subdural hematoma after a motor vehicle accident. Which change in vital signs would you interpret as a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure? A. Tachypnea B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Narrowing pulse pressure

B Changes in vital signs indicative of increased ICP are known as Cushing's triad, which consists of increasing systolic pressure with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, and irregular respirations.

Vasogenic cerebral edema increases ICP by A. shifting fluid in the gray matter. B. altering the endothelial lining of cerebral capillaries. C. leaking molecules from the intracellular fluid to the capillaries. D. altering the osmotic gradient flow into the intravascular component.

B Vasogenic cerebral edema occurs mainly in the white matter and is caused by changes in the endothelial lining of cerebral capillaries.

The nurse would expect to find what clinical manifestation in a patient admitted with a left-sided stroke? A. Impulsivity B. Impaired speech C. Left-side neglect D. Short attention span

B. Impaired speech Clinical manifestations of left-sided brain damage include right hemiplegia, impaired speech/language, impaired right/left discrimination, and slow and cautious performance. Impulsivity, left-sided neglect, and short attention span are all manifestations of right-sided brain damage.

The anterior aspect of the cerebrum controls: A) Vision. B) Touch C) Emotion. D) Movement.

C) Emotion

When caring for a patient with a new right-sided homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Apply an eye patch to the right eye. b. Approach the patient from the right side. c. Place objects needed on the patient's left side. d. Teach the patient that the left visual deficit will resolve.

C. During the acute period, the nurse should place objects on the patient's unaffected side. Because there is a visual defect in the right half of each eye, an eye patch is not appropriate. The patient should be approached from the left side. The visual deficit may not resolve, although the patient can learn to compensate for the defect.

Paralysis of lateral gaze indicates a lesion of cranial nerve A. II. B. III. C. IV. D. VI.

D Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) are responsible for eye movement. The lateral rectus eye muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VI and is the primary muscle that is responsible for lateral eye movement

When assessing motor function of a patient admitted with a stroke, you notice mild weakness of the arm demonstrated by downward drifting of the extremity. How would you accurately document this finding? A. Athetosis B. Hypotonia C. Hemiparesis D. Pronator drift

D Downward drifting of the arm or pronation of the palm is identified as pronator drift. Hemiparesis is weakness of one side of the body, hypotonia describes flaccid muscle tone, and athetosis is a slow, writhing, involuntary movement of the extremities

Which option is the most sensitive indication of increased ICP? A. Papilledema B. Cushing's triad C. Projectile vomiting D. Change in the level of consciousness (LOC)

D The LOC is the most sensitive and reliable indicator of the patient's neurologic status. Changes in LOC are a result of impaired cerebral brain flow. Papilledema and Cushing's triad are late signs. Projectile vomiting is not a sensitive indicator.

What action should you take as part of care for a patient who had a craniotomy? A. Use promethazine (Phenergan) for nausea. B. Position the patient on the operative side if a bone flap was removed. C. Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) by rapid intravenous push (IVP) every 6 hours. D. Keep the head in alignment with the trunk.

D The primary goal of care after cranial surgery is prevention of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which includes keeping the body in alignment. Use of promethazine is discouraged because it can increase somnolence and alter the accuracy of a neurologic assessment. The patient is not positioned on the operative side if a bone flap was removed (craniectomy). Dilantin is administered slowly, no faster than 25 to 50 mg/min. Reference: 1450

Characteristics of subarachnoid hemorrhage

High initial mortality, symptoms of meningeal irritation, caused by rupture of intracranial aneurysm, associated with sudden, severe headache

Feasibility

Time, space, and equipment Training required Cost Respondent burden Culture and language Proprietary Issues

Characteristics of a thrombotic stroke

Type most often signaled by TIAs, commonly occurs during or after sleep, strong association with hypertension

Contralateral paralysis & sensory loss of (more) LE, appearance of a grasp or sucking reflex, lack of spontaneous behavior, motor inattention, perseveration, & amnesia are all effects of a stroke in the: a. middle cerebral artery (MCA) b. anterior cerebral artery (ACA) c. posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

b. anterior cerebral artery (ACA)

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?

blockage of a cerebral artery

A patient experiencing TIAs is scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy. The nurse explains that this procedure is done to a. decrease cerebral edema. b. reduce the brain damage that occurs during a stroke in evolution. c. prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques blocking cerebral blood flow. d. provide a circulatory bypass around thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation.

c Rationale: In a carotid endarterectomy, the atheromatous lesion is removed from the carotid artery to improve blood flow.

The factor related to cerebral blood flow that most often determines the extent of cerebral damage from a stroke is the a. amount of cardiac output. b. oxygen content of the blood. c. degree of collateral circulation. d. level of carbon dioxide in the blood.

c Rationale: The extent of the stroke depends on the rapidity of onset, size of the lesion, and presence of collateral circulation.

___ is the most common type of stroke. a. embolic b. hemorrhagic c. thrombotic d. they are equally likely

c. thrombotic

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

cerebellum.

Tx for ___ strokes includes lowering arterial BP & surgery to remove the clot & decrease intracranial pressure. a. thrombotic b. TIA c. lacunar d. embolic e. hemorrhagic

e. hemorrhagic

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:

the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery.

A patient with right hemisphere stroke has a nursing diagnosis of unilateral neglect related to sensory perceptual deficits. During the patient's rehabilitation, it is important for the nurse to a. avoid positioning the patient on the affected side b. place all objects for care on the patient's unaffected side c. teach the patient to care consciously for the affected side d. protect the affected side from injury with pillows and supports

C: Teach the patient to care consciously for the affected side- unilateral neglect, or neglect syndrome, occurs when the patient with a stroke is unaware of the affected side of the body, which puts the patient at risk for injury. During the acute phase, the affected side is cared for by the nurse with positioning and support, during rehabilitation the patient is taught to care consciously for and attend to the affected side of the body to protect it from injury. Patients may be positioned on the affected side for up to 30 minutes.

The neurologic functions that are affected by a stroke are primarily related to a. the amount of tissue area involved b. the rapidity of onset of symptoms c. the brain area perfused by the affected artery d. the presence or absence of collateral circulation

C: The brain area perfused by the affected artery- clinical manifestation of altered neurologic function differ, depending primarily on the specific cerebral artery involved and the area of the brain that is perfused by the artery. The degree of impairment depends on rapidity of onset, the size of the lesion, and the presence of collateral circulation.

An appropriate food for a patient with a stroke who has mild dysphagia is a. fruit juices b. pureed meat c. scrambled eggs d. fortified milkshakes

C: scrambled eggs- soft foods that provide enough texture, flavor, and bulk to stimulate swallowing should be used for the patient with dysphasia. Thin liquids are difficult to swallow, and patients may not be able to control them in the mouth. Pureed foods are often too bland and to smooth, and milk products should be avoided because they tend to increase the viscosity of mucus and increase salivation.

NCLEX Review Questions: The nurse is discharging a patient admitted with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). For which medications might the nurse expect to provide discharge instructions (select all that apply)? Clopidogrel (Plavix) Enoxaparin (Lovenox) Dipyridamole (Persantine) Enteric-coated aspirin (Ecotrin) Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

* Clopidogrel (Plavix), Dipyridamole (Persantine), Enteric-coated aspirin (Ecotrin)* Rationale: Aspirin is the most frequently used antiplatelet agent. Other drugs to prevent clot formation include clopidogrel (Plavix), dipyridamole (Persantine), ticlopidine (Ticlid), combined dipyridamole and aspirin (Aggrenox), and anticoagulant drugs, such as oral warfarin (Coumadin). Tissue plasminogen activator is a fibrinolytic medication used to treat ischemic stroke not prevent TIAs or strokes.

NCLEX Review Questions: Which modifiable risk factors for stroke would be most important for the nurse to include when planning a community education program? A) Hypertension B) Hyperlipidemia C) Alcohol consumption D) Oral contraceptive use

*A) Hypertension* Rationale: Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor, but it is still often undetected and inadequately treated. The public is often more aware of hyperlipidemia and oral contraceptive use as risk factors for stroke. Alcohol is also a modifiable risk factor.

*c. degree of collateral circulation.* Rationale: The extent of the stroke depends on the rapidity of onset, size of the lesion, and presence of collateral circulation.

*c.prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques blocking cerebral blood flow.* Rationale: In a carotid endarterectomy, the atheromatous lesion is removed from the carotid artery to improve blood flow.

Secondary prevention of stroke (3)

1. Anticoagulants 2. Antiplatelets 3. Surgery

A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. The nurse should first: 1. Ask what medications the client is taking. 2. Complete a history and health assessment. 3. Identify the time of onset of the stroke. 4. Determine if the client is scheduled for any surgical procedures.

3. Studies show that clients who receive recombinant t-PA treatment within 3 hours after the onset of a stroke have better outcomes. The time from the onset of a stroke to t-PA treatment is critical. A complete health assessment and history is not possible when a client is receiving emergency care. Upcoming surgical procedures may need to be delayed because of the administration of t-PA, which is a priority in the immediate treatment of the current stroke. While the nurse should identify which medications the client is taking, it is more important to know the time of the onset of the stroke to determine the course of action for administering t-PA.

NCLEX Review Questions: Computed tomography (CT) of a 68-year-old male patient's head reveals that he has experienced a hemorrhagic stroke. What is the priority nursing intervention in the emergency department? A) Maintenance of the patient's airway B) Positioning to promote cerebral perfusion C) Control of fluid and electrolyte imbalances D) Administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

*A) Maintenance of the patient's airway* Rationale: Maintenance of a patent airway is the priority in the acute care of a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke. It supersedes the importance of fluid and electrolyte imbalance and positioning. tPA is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke.

When assessing a patient with a traumatic brain injury, you notice uncoordinated movement of the extremities. How would you document this? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. Anisocoria D. Anosognosia

A Ataxia is a lack of coordination of movement, possibly caused by lesions of sensory or motor pathways, cerebellar disorders, or certain medications.

NCLEX Review Questions: The patient with diabetes mellitus has had a right-sided stroke. Which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to provide for this patient related to expected manifestations of this stroke? A) Safety measures B) Patience with communication C) Mobility assistance on the right side D) Place food in the left side of patient's mouth.

*A) Safety measures* Rationale: A patient with a right-sided stroke has spatial-perceptual deficits, tends to minimize problems, has a short attention span, is impulsive, and may have impaired judgment. Safety is the biggest concern for this patient. Hemiplegia occurs on the left side of this patient's body. The patient with a left-sided stroke has hemiplegia on the right, is more likely to have communication problems, and needs mobility assistance on the right side with food placed on the left side if the patient needs to be fed after a swallow evaluation has taken place.

Pre-test questions: The nurse observes a student nurse assigned to initiate oral feedings for a 68-year-old woman with an ischemic stroke. The nurse should intervene if she observes the student nurse... A) giving the patient 8 ounces of ice water to swallow. B) telling the patient to perform a chin tuck before swallowing. C) assisting the patient to sit in a chair before feeding the patient. D) assessing cranial nerves IX and X before the patient attempts to eat.

*A) giving the patient 8 ounces of ice water to swallow.* Rationale: The majority of patients after a stroke have dysphagia. The gag reflex and swallowing ability (cranial nerves IX and X) should be assessed before the first oral feeding. To assess swallowing ability, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to an upright position (unless contraindicated) and give the patient a very small amount (not 8 ounces) of crushed ice or ice water to swallow. The patient should remain in a high Fowler's position, preferably in a chair with the head flexed forward, for the feeding and for 30 minutes following.

NCLEX Review Questions: A female patient has left-sided hemiplegia following an ischemic stroke that she experienced 4 days earlier. How should the nurse best promote the health of the patient's integumentary system? A) Position the patient on her weak side the majority of the time. B) Alternate the patient's positioning between supine and side-lying. C) Avoid the use of pillows in order to promote independence in positioning. D) Establish a schedule for the massage of areas where skin breakdown emerges.

*B) Alternate the patient's positioning between supine and side-lying.* Rationale: A position change schedule should be established for stroke patients. An example is side-back-side, with a maximum duration of 2 hours for any position. The patient should be positioned on the weak or paralyzed side for only 30 minutes. Pillows may be used to facilitate positioning. Areas of skin breakdown should never be massaged.

The priority intervention in the emergency department for the patient with a stroke is a. intravenous fluid replacement b. administration of osmotic diuretics to reduce cerebral edema c. initiation of hypothermia to decrease the oxygen needs of the brain d. maintenance of respiratory function with a patent airway and oxygen administration

D: Maintenance of respiratory function with a patent airway and oxygen administration- the first priority in acute management of the patient with a stroke is preservation of life. Because the patient with a stroke may be unconscious or have a reduced gag reflex, it is most important to maintain a patent airway for the patient and provide oxygen if respiratory effort is impaired. IV fluid replacement, treatment with osmotic diuretics, and perhaps hypothermia may be used for further treatment.

Most common artery involved

Internal Carotid Artery

Which factor related to cerebral blood flow most often determines the extent of cerebral damage from a stroke? A. Amount of cardiac output B. Oxygen content of the blood C. Degree of collateral circulation D. Level of carbon dioxide in the blood

The extent of the stroke depends on rapidity of onset, the size of the lesion, and the presence of collateral circulation.

___ strokes occur in smaller penetrating "end" arteries, tend occur in ppl w/ multiple medical dx's in the circulatory system, and are the "best" type of stroke to have. a. thrombotic b. TIA c. lacunar d. embolic e. hemorrhagic

c. lacunar

In strokes of the ___, the limbic system & memory can be greatly involved. If the damage reaches the pons or brainstem, the person usually dies. a. middle cerebral artery (MCA) b. anterior cerebral artery (ACA) c. posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

c. posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:

dysarthria.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for stroke? a. age b. gender c. race d. heredity e. all are risk factors

e. all are risk factors

___ strokes are caused by AV malformations, weakness of arterial walls, aneurysms, or head injuries. a. thrombotic b. TIA c. lacunar d. embolic e. hemorrhagic

e. hemorrhagic

Problem with IV-TPA

only 1-3% of patients arrive in time to receive it

NCLEX Review Questions: The nurse is planning psychosocial support for the patient and family of the patient who suffered a stroke. What factor will most likely have the greatest impact on positive family coping with the situation? A) Specific patient neurologic deficits B) The patient's ability to communicate C) Rehabilitation potential of the patient D) Presence of complications of a stroke

*C) Rehabilitation potential of the patient* Rationale: Although a patient's neurologic deficit might initially be severe after a stroke, the ability of the patient to recover is most likely to positively impact the family's coping with the situation. Providing explanations and emotional support beginning in the acute phase through the rehabilitation phase will facilitate coping. Emphasizing successes will offer the most realistic hope for the patient's rehabilitation and helps maintain hope for the patient's future abilities.

NCLEX Review Questions: Which sensory-perceptual deficit is associated with left-sided stroke (right hemiplegia)? A) Overestimation of physical abilities B) Difficulty judging position and distance C) Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks D) Impulsivity and impatience at performing tasks

*C) Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks* Rationale: Patients with a left-sided stroke (right hemiplegia) commonly are slower in organization and performance of tasks and may have a fearful, anxious response to a stroke. Overconfidence, spatial disorientation, and impulsivity are more commonly associated with a right-sided stroke.

Pre-test questions: The nurse is teaching a senior citizen's group about signs and symptoms of a stroke. Which statement by the nurse would provide accurate information? A) "Take the person to the hospital if a headache lasts for more than 24 hours." B) "Stroke symptoms usually start when the person is awake and physically active." C) "A person with a transient ischemic attack has mild symptoms that will go away." D) "Call 911 immediately if a person develops slurred speech or difficulty speaking."

*D) "Call 911 immediately if a person develops slurred speech or difficulty speaking."* Rationale: Medical assistance should be obtained immediately for someone with signs and symptoms of a stroke such as sudden numbness; weakness; paralysis of the face, arm, or leg (especially on one side of the body); sudden confusion; trouble speaking or understanding; slurred speech; sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes; sudden trouble walking; dizziness; loss of balance or coordination; or a sudden, severe headache with no known cause. A person with signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack should seek medical attention immediately because it is unknown if the symptoms will resolve or persist and progress to a stroke. Onset of signs and symptoms of a stroke vary depending on the type. Onset of an ischemic thrombotic stroke usually occurs at rest. Onset of an ischemic embolic stroke is not related to rest or activity, and onset of a hemorrhagic stroke usually occurs with activity.

Pre-test questions: The nurse in a primary care provider's office is assessing several patients today. Which patient is most at risk for a stroke? A) A 92-year-old female who takes warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. B) A 28-year-old male who uses marijuana after chemotherapy to control nausea. C) A 42-year-old female who takes oral contraceptives and has migraine headaches. D) A 72-year-old male who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus and smokes tobacco.

*D) A 72-year-old male who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus and smokes tobacco.* Rationale: Stroke risk increases after 65 years of age. Strokes are more common in men. Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor for stroke. Diabetes mellitus is a significant stroke risk factor; and smoking nearly doubles the risk of a stroke. Other risk factors include drug abuse (especially cocaine), high-dose oral contraception use, migraine headaches, and untreated heart disease such as atrial fibrillation.

Pre-test questions: A 74-year-old man who has right-sided extremity paralysis related to a thrombotic stroke develops constipation. Which action should the nurse take first? A) Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours. B) Provide incontinence briefs to wear during the day. C) Administer a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) rectal suppository every day. D) Arrange for several servings per day of cooked fruits and vegetables.

*D) Arrange for several servings per day of cooked fruits and vegetables.* Rationale: Patients after a stroke frequently have constipation. Dietary management includes the following: fluid intake of 2500 to 3000 mL daily, prune juice (120 mL) or stewed prunes daily, cooked fruit three times daily, cooked vegetables three times daily, and whole-grain cereal or bread three to five times daily. Patients with urinary incontinence should be assisted to the bathroom every 2 hours when appropriate. Suppositories may be ordered for short-term management if the patient does not respond to increased fluid and fiber. Incontinence briefs are indicated as a short-term intervention for urinary incontinence.

NCLEX Review Questions: The female patient has been brought to the ED with a sudden onset of a severe headache that is different from any other headache she has had previously. When considering the possibility of a stroke, which type of stroke should the nurse know is most likely occurring? A) TIA B) Embolic stroke C) Thrombotic stroke D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage

*D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage* Rationale: Headache is common in a patient who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage or an intracerebral hemorrhage. A TIA is a transient loss of neurologic function usually without a headache. A headache may occur with an ischemic embolic stroke, but severe neurologic deficits are the initial symptoms. The ischemic thrombotic stroke manifestations progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase.

NCLEX Review Questions: Which intervention is most appropriate when communicating with a patient suffering from aphasia following a stroke? A) Present several thoughts at once so that the patient can connect the ideas. B) Ask open-ended questions to provide the patient the opportunity to speak. C) Finish the patient's sentences to minimize frustration associated with slow speech. D) Use simple, short sentences accompanied by visual cues to enhance comprehension.

*D) Use simple, short sentences accompanied by visual cues to enhance comprehension.* Rationale: When communicating with a patient with aphasia, the nurse should present one thought or idea at a time. Ask questions that can be answered with a "yes," "no," or simple word. Use visual cues and allow time for the individual to comprehend and respond to conversation.

Bridge to NCLEX question: Common psychosocial reactions of the stroke patient to the stroke include (select all that apply) a. depression. b. disassociation. c. intellectualization. d. sleep disturbances. e. denial of severity of stroke.

*a. depression, d. sleep disturbances, e. denial of severity of stroke* Rationale: The patient with a stroke may experience many losses, including sensory, intellectual, communicative, functional, role behavior, emotional, social, and vocational losses. Some patients experience long-term depression, manifesting symptoms such as anxiety, weight loss, fatigue, poor appetite, and sleep disturbances. The time and energy required to perform previously simple tasks can result in anger and frustration. Frustration and depression are common in the first year after a stroke. A stroke is usually a sudden, extremely stressful event for the patient, caregiver, family, and significant others. The family is often affected emotionally, socially, and financially as their roles and responsibilities change. Reactions vary considerably but may involve fear, apprehension, denial of the severity of stroke, depression, anger, and sorrow.

Bridge to NCLEX question: Bladder training in a male patient who has urinary incontinence after a stroke includes a. limiting fluid intake. b. keeping a urinal in place at all times. c. assisting the patient to stand to void. d. catheterizing the patient every 4 hours.

*c. assisting the patient to stand to void.* Rationale: In the acute stage of stroke, the primary urinary problem is poor bladder control and incontinence. Nurses should promote normal bladder function and avoid the use of indwelling catheters. A bladder retraining program consists of (1) adequate fluid intake, with most fluids administered between 7:00 am and 7:00 pm; (2) scheduled toileting every 2 hours with the use of a bedpan, commode, or bathroom; and (3) noting signs of restlessness, which may indicate the need for urination. Intermittent catheterization may be used for urinary retention (not urinary incontinence). During the rehabilitation phase after a stroke, nursing interventions focused on urinary continence include (1) assessment for bladder distention by palpation; (2) offering the bedpan, urinal, commode, or toilet every 2 hours during waking hours and every 3 to 4 hours at night; (3) using a direct command to help the patient focus on the need to urinate; (4) assistance with clothing and mobility; (5) scheduling most fluid intake between 7:00 am and 7:00 pm; and (6) encouraging the usual position for urinating (i.e., standing for men and sitting for women).

4. A patient with right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia resulting from a stroke most likely has involvement of the a. brainstem. b. vertebral artery. c. left middle cerebral artery. d. right middle cerebral artery.

*c. left middle cerebral artery.* Rationale: If the middle cerebral artery is involved in a stroke, the expected clinical manifestations include aphasia, motor and sensory deficit, and hemianopsia on the dominant side and include neglect, motor and sensory deficit, and hemianopsia on the nondominant side.

The nurse explains to the patient with a stroke who is scheduled for angiography that this test is used to determine the a. presence of increased ICP. b. site and size of the infarction. c. patency of the cerebral blood vessels. d. presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

*c. patency of the cerebral blood vessels.* Rationale: Angiography provides visualization of cerebral blood vessels and can help estimate perfusion and detect filling defects in the cerebral arteries.

Information provided by the patient that would help differentiate a hemorrhagic stroke from a thrombotic stroke includes a. sensory disturbance. b. a history of hypertension. c. presence of motor weakness. d. sudden onset of severe headache.

*d. sudden onset of severe headache.* Rationale: A hemorrhagic stroke usually causes a sudden onset of symptoms, which include neurologic deficits, headache, nausea, vomiting, decreased level of consciousness, and hypertension. Ischemic stroke symptoms may progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase.

In a completed stroke, the damage has been stable for at least ___.

1 day

The nurse is planning the care of a hemiplegic client to prevent joint deformities of the arm and hand. Which of the following positions are appropriate? 1. Placing a pillow in the axilla so the arm is away from the body. 2. Inserting a pillow under the slightly flexed arm so the hand is higher than the elbow. 3. Immobilizing the extremity in a sling. 4. Positioning a hand cone in the hand so the fingers are barely flexed. 5. Keeping the arm at the side using a pillow.

1, 2, 4. Placing a pillow in the axilla so the arm is away from the body keeps the arm abducted and prevents skin from touching skin to avoid skin breakdown. Placing a pillow under the slightly flexed arm so the hand is higher than the elbow prevents dependent edema. Positioning a hand cone (not a rolled washcloth) in the hand prevents hand contractures. Immobilization of the extremity may cause a painful shoulder-hand syndrome. Flexion contractures of the hand, wrist, and elbow can result from immobility of the weak or paralyzed extremity. It is better to extend the arms to prevent contractures

Tests and Measures in Stroke Rehab that can be used for the general population (6)

1. 6 min walk test 2. 10 meter walk test 3. Ashworth scale 4. Berg Balance test 5. Dynamic gait index 6. Functional reach test

Regular oral hygiene is essential for the client who has had a stroke. Which of the following nursing measures is not appropriate when providing oral hygiene? 1. Placing the client on the back with a small pillow under the head. 2. Keeping portable suctioning equipment at the bedside. 3. Opening the client's mouth with a padded tongue blade. 4. Cleaning the client's mouth and teeth with a toothbrush.

1. A helpless client should be positioned on the side, not on the back, with the head on a small pillow. A lateral position helps secretions escape from the throat and mouth, minimizing the risk of aspiration. It may be necessary to suction the client if he aspirates. Suction equipment should be nearby. It is safe to use a padded tongue blade, and the client should receive oral care, including brushing with a toothbrush.

Tests and Measures in Stroke Rehab that are specific to stroke population (4)

1. Fugl-Meyer 2. Orpington prognostic scale 3. Postural assessment scale for stroke 4. Stroke impact scale

Arterial sources of stroke (3)

1. Intracranial vascular disease 2. Carotid vascular disease 3. Aortic arch

In planning care for the client who has had a stroke, the nurse should obtain a history of the client's functional status before the stroke because? 1. The rehabilitation plan will be guided by it. 2. Functional status before the stroke will help predict outcomes. 3. It will help the client recognize his physical limitations. 4. The client can be expected to regain much of his functioning.

1. The primary reason for the nursing assessment of a client's functional status before and after a stroke is to guide the plan. The assessment does not help to predict how far the rehabilitation team can help the client to recover from the residual effects of the stroke, only what plans can help a client who has moved from one functional level to another. The nursing assessment of the client's functional status is not a motivating factor.

The nurse is teaching a client about taking prophylactic warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement indicates that the client understands how to take the drug? Select all that apply. 1. "The drug's action peaks in 2 hours." 2. "Maximum dosage is not achieved until 3 to 4 days after starting the medication." 3. "Effects of the drug continue for 4 to 5 days after discontinuing the medication." 4. "Protamine sulfate is the antidote for warfarin." 5. "I should have my blood levels tested periodically."

2, 3, 5. The maximum dosage of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is not achieved until 3 to 4 days after starting the medication, and the effects of the drug continue for 4 to 5 days after discontinuing the medication. The client should have his blood levels tested periodically to make sure that the desired level is maintained. Warfarin has a peak action of 9 hours. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin; protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.

. The nurse is teaching the family of a client with dysphagia about decreasing the risk of aspiration while eating. Which of the following strategies is not appropriate? 1. Maintaining an upright position. 2. Restricting the diet to liquids until swallowing improves. 3. Introducing foods on the unaffected side of the mouth. 4. Keeping distractions to a minimum.

2. A client with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) commonly has the most difficulty ingesting thin liquids, which are easily aspirated. Liquids should be thickened to avoid aspiration. Maintaining an upright position while eating is appropriate because it minimizes the risk of aspiration. Introducing foods on the unaffected side allows the client to have better control over the food bolus. The client should concentrate on chewing and swallowing; therefore, distractions should be avoided.

For the client who is experiencing expressive aphasia, which nursing intervention is most helpful in promoting communication? 1. Speaking loudly. 2. Using a picture board. 3. Writing directions so client can read them. 4. Speaking in short sentences.

2. Expressive aphasia is a condition in which the client understands what is heard or written but cannot say what he or she wants to say. A communication or picture board helps the client communicate with others in that the client can point to objects or activities that he or she desires.

Which food-related behaviors are expected in a client who has had a stroke that has left him with homonymous hemianopia? 1. Increased preference for foods high in salt. 2. Eating food on only half of the plate. 3. Forgetting the names of foods. 4. Inability to swallow liquids.

2. Homonymous hemianopia is blindness in half of the visual field; therefore, the client would see only half of his plate. Eating only the food on half of the plate results from an inability to coordinate visual images and spatial relationships. There may be an increased preference for foods high in salt after a stroke, but this would not be related to homonymous hemianopia. Forgetting the names of foods would be aphasia, which involves a cerebral cortex lesion. Being unable to swallow liquids is dysphagia, which involves motor pathways of cranial nerves IX and X, including the lower brain stem.

What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with a thrombotic stroke? 1. Cholesterol level. 2. Pupil size and pupillary response. 3. Bowel sounds. 4. Echocardiogram.

2. It is crucial to monitor the pupil size and pupillary response to indicate changes around the cranial nerves. The cholesterol level is not a priority assessment, although it may be an assessment to be addressed for long-term healthy lifestyle rehabilitation. Bowel sounds need to be assessed because an ileus or constipation can develop, but this is not a priority in the first 24 hours, when the primary concerns are cerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. An echocardiogram is not needed for the client with a thrombotic stroke without heart problems.

Which of the following techniques does the nurse avoid when changing a client's position in bed if the client has hemiparalysis? 1. Rolling the client onto the side. 2. Sliding the client to move up in bed. 3. Lifting the client when moving the client up in bed. 4. Having the client help lift off the bed using a trapeze.

2. Sliding a client on a sheet causes friction and is to be avoided. Friction injures skin and predisposes to pressure ulcer formation. Rolling the client is an acceptable method to use when changing positions as long as the client is maintained in anatomically neutral positions and her limbs are properly supported. The client may be lifted as long as the nurse has assistance and uses proper body mechanics to avoid injury to himself or herself or the client. Having the client help lift herself off the bed with a trapeze is an acceptable means to move a client without causing friction burns or skin breakdown.

A client is experiencing mood swings after a stroke and often has episodes of tearfulness that are distressing to the family. Which is the best technique for the nurse to instruct family members to try when the client experiences a crying episode? 1. Sit quietly with the client until the episode is over. 2. Ignore the behavior. 3. Attempt to divert the client's attention. 4. Tell the client that this behavior is unacceptable.

3. A client who has brain damage may be emotionally labile and may cry or laugh for no explainable reason. Crying is best dealt with by attempting to divert the client's attention. Ignoring the behavior will not affect the mood swing or the crying and may increase the client's sense of isolation. Telling the client to stop is inappropriate.

Which nursing intervention has been found to be the most effective means of preventing plantar flexion in a client who has had a stroke with residual paralysis? 1. Place the client's feet against a firm footboard. 2. Reposition the client every 2 hours. 3. Have the client wear ankle-high tennis shoes at intervals throughout the day. 4. Massage the client's feet and ankles regularly.

3. The use of ankle-high tennis shoes has been found to be most effective in preventing plantar flexion (footdrop) because they add support to the foot and keep it in the correct anatomic position. Footboards stimulate spasms and are not routinely recommended. Regular repositioning and range-of-motion exercises are important interventions, but the client's foot needs to be in the correct anatomic position to prevent overextension of the muscle and tendon. Massaging does not prevent plantar flexion and, if rigorous, could release emboli.

The client who has had a stroke with residual physical handicaps becomes discouraged by his physical appearance. What approach to the client is best for the nurse to use to help the client overcome his negative self-concept? Select all that apply. 1. Helpfulness. 2. Charity. 3. Firmness. 4. Encouragement. 5. Patience.

4, 5. When offering emotional support to a client who is discouraged and has a negative self-concept because of physical handicaps, the nurse should approach the client with encouragement and patience. The client should be praised when he or she shows progress in efforts to overcome handicaps. An attitude of helpfulness and sympathy allows the client to assume a role of someone not ordinary, someone who is not like others. Regardless of the handicap, the client still feels the same on the inside and has the same innate needs for his or her growth and developmental age-group. An attitude of charity tends to make the client feel like a "charity case" or like someone who is given something free because of his "condition." The client feels unequal to his peers or unable to fulfill the role relationships that were obtained before the stroke. An approach using firmness is inappropriate because it implies that the client can do better if he just tries harder and leaves no room for softness in the approach to overcoming a negative self-concept.

A nurse is teaching a client who had a stroke about ways to adapt to a visual disability. Which does the nurse identify as the primary safety precaution to use? 1. Wear a patch over one eye. 2. Place personal items on the sighted side. 3. Lie in bed with the unaffected side toward the door. 4. Turn the head from side to side when walking.

4. To expand the visual field, the partially sighted client should be taught to turn the head from side to side when walking. Neglecting to do so may result in accidents. This technique helps maximize the use of remaining sight. Covering an eye with a patch will limit the field of vision. Personal items can be placed within sight and reach, but most accidents occur from tripping over items that cannot be seen. It may help the client to see the door, but walking presents the primary safety hazard.

The patient had an acute ischemic stroke 4 hours ago and has an elevated blood pressure. What action should you take? A. Document the findings because the increased pressure is needed to perfuse the brain. B. Administer an antihypertensive medication to prevent additional damage. C. Hyperventilate the patient to cause vasodilatation. D. Teach patient about a low sodium diet.

A After a stroke, temporary hypertension is needed to perfuse the area of swelling. No treatment is done unless the pressure is above 220/110 mm Hg in the first few hours. Aggressive lowering of blood pressure is not done, because if the pressure drops, it can prevent regional perfusion and lead to local tissue damage. Hyperventilation is done if hypercapnia is identified, but it is not prophylactic.

During admission of a patient with a severe head injury to the emergency department, you place the highest priority on assessment of A. patency of airway. B. presence of a neck injury. C. neurologic status with the Glasgow Coma Scale. D. cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ears or nose.

A An initial priority in the emergency management of a patient with a severe head injury is for you to ensure that the patient has a patent airway.

The patient reports falling when he his foot got "stuck" on a crack in the sidewalk, hitting his head when he fell, and "passing out". The paramedics found the patient walking at the scene and talking before transporting the patient to the hospital. In the emergency department, the patient starts to lose consciousness. This is a classic scenario for which complication? A. Epidural hematoma B. Subdural hematoma C. Subarachnoid bleed D. Diffuse axial inju

A Epidural hematoma often results from a linear fracture crossing a major artery in the dura. The classic sign is an initial period of unconsciousness at the scene and a brief lucid interval followed by a decrease in LOC. A subdural hematoma often results from injury to the brain and veins and develops more slowly. The classic sign or symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage is a patient describing "the worst headache of my life." Diffuse axonal injury is widespread axonal damage occurring after a traumatic brain injury.

Which nursing action should be implemented in the care of a patient who is experiencing increased ICP? A. Monitor fluid and electrolyte status astutely. B. Position the patient in a high-Fowler's position. C. Administer vasoconstrictors to maintain cerebral perfusion. D. Maintain physical restraints to prevent episodes of agitation.

A Fluid and electrolyte disturbances can have an adverse effect on ICP and must be vigilantly monitored. The head of the patient's bed should be kept at 30 degrees in most circumstances, and physical restraints are not applied unless absolutely necessary. Vasoconstrictors are not typically administered in the treatment of ICP.

Computed tomography of a 68-year-old patient's head reveals that he has experienced a hemorrhagic stroke. Which option is a nursing priority intervention in the emergency department? A. Maintenance of the patient's airway B. Positioning to promote cerebral perfusion C. Control of fluid and electrolyte imbalances D. Administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A Maintenance of a patent airway is the priority in the acute care of a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke, and it supersedes the importance of fluid and electrolyte imbalance and positioning. Use of tPA is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke.

Why are the data regarding mobility, strength, coordination, and activity tolerance important for you to obtain? A. Many neurologic diseases affect one or more of these areas. B. Patients are less able to identify other neurologic impairments. C. These are the first functions to be affected by neurologic disease. D. Aspects of movement are the most important function of the nervous system.

A Many neurologic disorders can cause problems in the patient's mobility, strength, and coordination. These problems can result in changes in the patient's usual activity and exercise patterns.

The patient is diagnosed with a brain tumor. Which option is the correct understanding of the preferred treatment? A. Surgical removal is preferred, even if the tumor is not malignant. B. Chemotherapy is a common and effective treatment. C. Stereotactic radiosurgery is the preferred treatment. D. A large dose of intravenous steroid therapy is preferred.

A Surgical removal is the preferred treatment. It can reduce tumor mass (decreasing intracranial pressure [ICP]), provides relief of symptoms, and extend survival time. Even a benign mass has a malignant effect by taking up space. Traditional chemotherapy effectiveness is limited because of the blood-brain barrier, tumor cell heterogeneity, and tumor cell drug resistance. Stereotactic radiosurgery delivers a high, concentrated dose of radiation precisely directed and is used when conventional surgery has failed or is not an option. Corticosteroids are not an integral part of therapy, but are used to control complications of radiation therapy.

What is the standard to evaluate the degree of impaired consciousness for a patient with an acute head trauma? A. Best eye opening, verbal response, and motor response B. National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale C. Romberg test D. Widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respirations

A The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess the degree of impaired consciousness, and it consists of three components. The NIH stroke scale is used for a suspected stroke and includes other components of cranial nerve assessment, motor testing, and sensory testing. The Romberg test measures balance and is used for suspected cerebellar dysfunction. The components in the last option are Cushing's triad and an indication of increased ICP, not LOC.

Which statement is true for a patient who has pathology in Wernicke's area of the cerebrum? A. Receptive speech is affected. B. The parietal lobe is involved. C. Sight processing is abnormal. D. An abnormal Romberg test is present.

A The temporal, not parietal, lobe contains the Wernicke area, which is responsible for receptive speech and integration of somatic, visual, and auditory data. Sight processing occurs in the occipital lobe. The Romberg test is used to assess the position sense of the lower extremities.

A patient with a suspected closed head injury has bloody nasal drainage. You suspect that this patient has a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak when observing which of the following? A. A halo sign on the nasal drip pad B. Decreased blood pressure and urinary output C. A positive reading for glucose on a Test-tape strip D. Clear nasal drainage along with the bloody discharge

A When drainage containing CSF and blood is allowed to drip onto a white pad, the blood coalesces into the center within a few minutes, and a yellowish ring of CSF encircles the blood, giving a halo effect. The presence of glucose is unreliable for determining the presence of CSF because blood also contains glucose.

You are caring for a semiconscious man with left-sided paralysis. His airway is patent and his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. Treatment for this patient should include: A) Oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, left lateral recumbent position, and transport. B) An oral airway, assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, Fowler's position, and transport. C) Assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, right lateral recumbent position, and transport. D) Oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, supine position with legs elevated 6² to 12², and transport.

A) Oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, left lateral recumbent position, and transport.

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A) The normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery. B) Signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours. C) Medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. D) A small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage.

A) The normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery.

The nurse is discharging a patient admitted with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). For which medications might the nurse expect to provide discharge instructions (select all that apply)? A. Clopidogrel (Plavix) B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) C. Dipyridamole (Persantine) D. Enteric-coated aspirin (Ecotrin) E. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A, C, D. Aspirin is the most frequently used antiplatelet agent. Other drugs to prevent clot formation include clopidogrel (Plavix), dipyridamole (Persantine), ticlopidine (Ticlid), combined dipyridamole and aspirin (Aggrenox), and anticoagulant drugs, such as oral warfarin (Coumadin). Tissue plasminogen activator is a fibrinolytic medication used to treat ischemic stroke not prevent TIAs or strokes.

You are providing care for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury who requires regular neurologic vital signs. Which assessments are components of the patient's score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (select all that apply)? A. Eye opening B. Abstract reasoning C. Best verbal response D. Best motor response E. Cranial nerve function

A,C,D The three dimensions of the Glasgow Coma Scale are eye opening, best verbal response, and best motor response.

What are the common psychosocial reactions of the patient to the stroke (select all that apply)? A. Depression B. Disassociation C. Intellectualization D. Sleep disturbances E. Denial of the severity of the stroke

A,D,E The patient with a stroke may experience many losses, including sensory, intellectual, communicative, functional, role behavior, emotional, social, and vocational losses. Some patients experience long-term depression and symptoms such as anxiety, weight loss, fatigue, poor appetite, and sleep disturbances. The time and energy required to perform previously simple tasks can result in anger and frustration. Frustration and depression are common in the first year after a stroke. A stroke is usually a sudden, extremely stressful event for the patient, caregiver, family, and significant others. The family is often affected emotionally, socially, and financially, as well as changing roles and responsibilities. Reactions vary considerably but may involve fear, apprehension, denial of the severity of the stroke, depression, anger, and sorrow.

A. Clopidogrel (Plavix) C. Dipyridamole (Persantine) D. Enteric-coated aspirin (Ecotrin) Aspirin is the most frequently used antiplatelet agent. Other drugs to prevent clot formation include clopidogrel (Plavix), dipyridamole (Persantine), ticlopidine (Ticlid), combined dipyridamole and aspirin (Aggrenox), and anticoagulant drugs, such as oral warfarin (Coumadin). Tissue plasminogen activator is a fibrinolytic medication used to treat ischemic stroke not prevent TIAs or strokes.

A female patient who had a stroke 24 hours ago has expressive aphasia. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication. An appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient communicate is to a. ask questions that the patient can answer with "yes" or "no." b. develop a list of words that the patient can read and practice reciting. c. have the patient practice her facial and tongue exercises with a mirror. d. prevent embarrassing the patient by answering for her if she does not respond.

A. Communication will be facilitated and less frustrating to the patient when questions that require a "yes" or "no" response are used. When the language areas of the brain are injured, the patient might not be able to read or recite words, which will frustrate the patient without improving communication. Expressive aphasia is caused by damage to the language areas of the brain, not by the areas that control the motor aspects of speech. The nurse should allow time for the patient to respond.

A patient with carotid atherosclerosis asks the nurse to describe a carotid endarterectomy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The obstructing plaque is surgically removed from an artery in the neck." b. "The diseased portion of the artery in the brain is replaced with a synthetic graft." c. "A wire is threaded through an artery in the leg to the clots in the carotid artery and the clots are removed." d. "A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area, and the balloon is inflated to flatten the plaque."

A. In a carotid endarterectomy, the carotid artery is incised and the plaque is removed. The response beginning, "The diseased portion of the artery in the brain is replaced" describes an arterial graft procedure. The answer beginning, "A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area" describes an angioplasty. The final response beginning, "A wire is threaded through the artery" describes the mechanical embolus removal in cerebral ischemia (MERCI) procedure.

Computed tomography (CT) of a 68-year-old male patient's head reveals that he has experienced a hemorrhagic stroke. What is the priority nursing intervention in the emergency department? A. Maintenance of patient's airway. B. Positioning to promote cerebral perfusion. C. Control of fluid and electrolyte imbalances. D. Administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A. Maintenance of patient's airway. Maintenance of a patent airway is the priority in the acute care of a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke. It supersedes the importance of fluid and electrolyte imbalance and positioning. tPA is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke.

The patient with diabetes mellitus has had a right-sided stroke. Which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to provide for this patient related to expected manifestations of this stroke? A. Safety measures B. Patience with communication C. Mobility assistance on the right side D. Place food in the left side of patient's mouth

A. Safety measures A patient with a right-sided stroke has spatial-perceptual deficits, tends to minimize problems, has a short attention span, is impulsive, and may have impaired judgment. Safety is the biggest concern for this patient. Hemiplegia occurs on the left side of this patient's body. The patient with a left-sided stroke has hemiplegia on the right, is more likely to have communication problems, and needs mobility assistance on the right side with food placed on the left side if the patient needs to be fed after a swallow evaluation has taken place.

A 40-year-old patient has a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention will be included in the care plan? a. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. b. Assist to dangle on edge of bed and assess for dizziness. c. Encourage patient to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway to prevent airway obstruction.

A. The patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage usually has minimal activity to prevent cerebral vasospasm or further bleeding and is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Activities such as coughing and sitting up that might increase intracranial pressure (ICP) or decrease cerebral blood flow are avoided. Because there is no indication that the patient is unconscious, an oropharyngeal airway is inappropriate.

For a patient who had a right hemisphere stroke the nurse establishes a nursing diagnosis of a. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. b. impaired physical mobility related to right-sided hemiplegia. c. impaired verbal communication related to speech-language deficits. d. ineffective coping related to depression and distress about disability.

A. The patient with right-sided brain damage typically denies any deficits and has poor impulse control, leading to risk for injury when the patient attempts activities such as transferring from a bed to a chair. Right-sided brain damage causes left hemiplegia. Left-sided brain damage typically causes language deficits. Left-sided brain damage is associated with depression and distress about the disability.

The nurse observes a student nurse assigned to initiate oral feedings for a 68-year-old woman with an ischemic stroke. The nurse should intervene if she observes the student nurse: A. giving the patient 8 ounces of ice water to swallow. B. telling the patient to perform a chin tuck before swallowing. C. assisting the patient to sit in a chair before feeding the patient. D. assessing cranial nerves IX and X before the patient attempts to eat.

A. giving the patient 8 ounces of ice water to swallow. The majority of patients after a stroke have dysphagia. The gag reflex and swallowing ability (cranial nerves IX and X) should be assessed before the first oral feeding. To assess swallowing ability, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to an upright position (unless contraindicated) and give the patient a very small amount (not 8 ounces) of crushed ice or ice water to swallow. The patient should remain in a high Fowler's position, preferably in a chair with the head flexed forward, for the feeding and for 30 minutes following.

After receiving change-of-shift report on the following four patients, which patient should the nurse see first? a. A 60-year-old patient with right-sided weakness who has an infusion of tPA prescribed b. A 50-year-old patient who has atrial fibrillation and a new order for warfarin (Coumadin) c. A 40-year-old patient who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due d. A 30-year-old patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 2 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled

A. tPA needs to be infused within the first few hours after stroke symptoms start in order to be effective in minimizing brain injury. The other medications should also be given as quickly as possible, but timing of the medications is not as critical.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a left hemiplegia. To determine the size and location and to ascertain whether a stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, the nurse anticipates that the health care provider will request a a. CT scan b. lumbar puncture c. cerebral arteriogram d. positron emission tomography (PET)

A: CT scan- A CT scan is the most commonly used diagnostic test to determine the size and location of the lesion and to differentiate a thrombotic stroke from a hemorrhagic stroke. Positron emission tomography (PET) will show the metabolic activity of the brain and provide a depiction of the extent of tissue damage after a stroke. Lumbar punctures are not performed routinely because of the chance of increased intracranial pressure causing herniation. Cerebral arteriograms are invasive and may dislodge an embolism or cause further hemorrhage; they are performed only when no other test can provide the needed information.

During the acute phase of a stroke, the nurse assesses the patient's vital signs and neurologic status every 4 hours. A cardiovascular sign that the nurse would see as the body attempts to increase cerebral blood flow is a. hypertension b. fluid overload c. cardiac dysrhythmias d. S3 and S4 heart sounds

A: Hypertension- The body responds to the vasopasm and a decreased circulation to the brain that occurs with a stroke by increasing the BP, frequently resulting in hypertension. The other options are important cardiovascular factors to assess, but they do not result from impaired cerebral blood flow.

A newly admitted patient who has suffered a right sided brain stroke has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed visual sensory perception related to homonymous hemianopsia. Early in the care of the patient, the nurse should a. place objects on the right side within the patient's field of vision b. approach the patient from the left side to encourage the patient to turn the head c. place objects on the patient's left side to assess the patient's ability to compensate d. patch the affected eye to encourage the patient to turn the head to scan the environment

A: Place objects on the right side within the patient's field of vision- the presence of homonymous hemianopia in a patient with right-hemisphere brain damage causes a loss of vision in the left field. Early in the care of the patient, objects should be placed on the right side of the patient in the field of vision, and the nurse should approach the patient from the right side. Later in treatment, patients should be taught to turn the head and scan the environment and should be approached from the affected side to encourage head turning. Eye patches are used if patients have diplopia (double vision).

Four days following a stroke, a patient is to start oral fluids and feedings. Before feeding the patient, the nurse should first a. check the patient's gag reflex b. order a soft diet for the patient c. raise the head of the bed to sitting position d. evaluate the patient's ability to swallow small sips of ice water

A: check the patient's gag reflex- the first step in providing oral feedings for a patient with a stroke is ensuring that the patient has an intact gag reflex because oral feedings will not be provided if gag reflex is impaired. The nurse should then evaluate the patient's ability to swallow ice chips or ice water after placing the patient in an upright position

You are alerted to a possible acute subdural hematoma in the patient who A. has a linear skull fracture crossing a major artery. B. has focal symptoms of brain damage with no recollection of a head injury. C. develops decreasing LOC and a headache within 48 hours of a head injury. D. has an immediate loss of consciousness with a brief lucid interval followed by decreasing LOC.

An acute subdural hematoma manifests within 24 to 48 hours of the injury. The signs and symptoms are similar to those associated with brain tissue compression by increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and include decreasing LOC and headache.

The patient has rhinorrhea after a head injury. What action should you take? A. Pack the nares with sterile gauze. B. A loose collection pad may be placed under the nose. C. Suction the drainage with an inline suction catheter. D. Obtain a sample for culture.

B A loose collection pad may be placed under the nose. Do not place a dressing in the nasal cavity, and nothing should be placed inside the nostril. There is no need to culture the drainage. The concern is whether it is spinal fluid, which is determined by a test for glucose or the halo or ring sign.

A female patient has left-sided hemiplegia after an ischemic stroke that occurred 2 weeks earlier. How should you best promote the integrity of the patient's skin? A. Position the patient on her weak side most of the time. B. Alternate the patient between supine and side-lying positions. C. Avoid the use of pillows to promote independence in positioning. D. Establish a schedule for the massage of areas where skin breakdown emerges.

B A position change schedule should be established for stroke patients. An example is side-backside positioning, with a maximum duration of 2 hours for any position. The patient should be positioned on the weak or paralyzed side for only 30 minutes. Pillows may be used to facilitate positioning. Areas of skin breakdown should never be massaged.

For a patient with a suspected stroke, which important piece of information should you obtain? A. Time of the patient's last meal B. Time at which stroke symptoms first appeared C. Patient's hypertension history and management D. Family history of stroke and other cardiovascular diseases

B During initial evaluation, the single most important point in the patient's history is the time of onset of stroke symptoms. If the stroke is ischemic, recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical signs; tPA reestablishes blood flow through a blocked artery and prevents brain cell death in patients with an acute onset of symptoms.

Which response can be expected in a patient with low oxygen concentration and acidosis? A. Decreased cerebral fluid flow with decreased cerebral pressure B. Vasodilation with increased cerebral pressure C. Systemic hypotension with decreased cerebral pressure D. Cerebral tissue hypertrophy with increased cerebral pressure

B Low concentration of oxygen ions and high concentration of hydrogen ions cause vasodilation, which can result in increased ICP if autoregulation has failed. The other options are not possible

What is the treatment of choice for normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Donepezil (Aricept) B. Shunt C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Aspiration

B Normal pressure hydrocephalus results from an obstruction in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which causes a buildup of CSF fluid in the brain. Manifestations of the condition include dementia, urinary incontinence, and difficulty walking. Meningitis, encephalitis, or head injury may cause the condition. If diagnosed early, it is treated by surgically inserting a shunt to divert the fluid.

How should you most accurately assess the position sense of a patient with a recent traumatic brain injury? A. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and slowly bring the tips of the index fingers together. B. Ask the patient to maintain balance while standing with his or her feet together and eyes closed. C. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and identify the presence of a common object on the forearm. D. Place the two points of a calibrated compass on the tips of the fingers and toes, and ask the patient to discriminate the points.

B The Romberg test is an assessment of position sense in which the patient stands with the feet together and then closes his or her eyes while attempting to maintain balance. The other tests of neurologic function do not directly assess position sense.

After a major head trauma, the patient's respiratory and cardiac functions are affected. Which area of the brain is damaged? A. Temporal lobe of the cerebrum B. Brainstem C. Cerebellum D. Spinal nerves

B The brainstem includes the midbrain, pons, and medulla. The vital centers concerned with respiratory, vasomotor, and cardiac function are located in the medulla. Integration of somatic, visual, and auditory data occurs in the temporal lobe. The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, trunk stability, and equilibrium. Motor and spinal nerves serve particular areas of the body.

What is important when obtaining a history of a patient with a neurologic problem? A. Have patient agree or disagree with suggested symptoms to obtain a thorough history. B. Mode of onset and course of illness are essential aspects. C. Check out neurologic problems caused by nutrition by asking about sodium. D. Assess for dementia using the Confusion Assessment Method (CAM).

B The mode of onset and the course of the illness are especially important aspects of the history. The nature of a neurologic disease process often can be described by these facts alone. Avoid suggesting certain symptoms or using leading questions. Nutritional deficits of B vitamins are most likely to cause neurologic problems. CAM is used to assess for delirium.

How do you assess the accessory nerve? A. Assess the gag reflex by stroking the posterior pharynx. B. Ask the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance. C. Ask the patient to push the tongue to either side against resistance. D. Have the patient say "ah" while visualizing elevation of the soft palate

B The spinal accessory nerve is tested by asking the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance and to turn the head to either side against resistance. The other options are used to test the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.

You plan care for the patient with increased ICP with the knowledge that the best way to position the patient is to A. keep the head of the bed flat. B. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. C. maintain patient on the left side with the head supported on a pillow. D. use a continuous-rotation bed to continuously change patient position.

B You should maintain the patient with increased ICP in the head-up position. Elevation of the head of the bed to 30 degrees enhances respiratory exchange and aids in decreasing cerebral edema. You should position the patient to prevent extreme neck flexion, which can cause venous obstruction and contribute to elevated ICP. Elevation of the head of the bed reduces sagittal sinus pressure, promotes drainage from the head through the valveless venous system in the jugular veins, and decreases the vascular congestion that can produce cerebral edema. However, raising the head of the bed above 30 degrees may decrease the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) by lowering systemic blood pressure. Careful evaluation of the effects of elevation of the head of the bed on the ICP and the CPP is required.

A female patient has left-sided hemiplegia following an ischemic stroke that she experienced 4 days earlier. How should the nurse best promote the health of the patient's integumentary system? A. Position the patient on her weak side the majority of the time. B. Alternate the patient's positioning between supine and side-lying. C. Avoid the use of pillows in order to promote independence in positioning. D. Establish a schedule for the message of areas where skin breakdown emerges.

B. Alternate the patient's positioning between supine and side-lying. A position change schedule should be established for stroke patients. An example is side-back-side, with a maximum duration of 2 hours for any position. The patient should be positioned on the weak or paralyzed side for only 30 minutes. Pillows may be used to facilitate positioning. Areas of skin breakdown should never be massaged.

Several weeks after a stroke, a 50-year-old male patient has impaired awareness of bladder fullness, resulting in urinary incontinence. Which nursing intervention will be best to include in the initial plan for an effective bladder training program? a. Limit fluid intake to 1200 mL daily to reduce urine volume. b. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. c. Perform intermittent catheterization after each voiding to check for residual urine. d. Use an external "condom" catheter to protect the skin and prevent embarrassment.

B. Developing a regular voiding schedule will prevent incontinence and may increase patient awareness of a full bladder. A 1200 mL fluid restriction may lead to dehydration. Intermittent catheterization and use of a condom catheter are appropriate in the acute phase of stroke, but should not be considered solutions for long-term management because of the risks for urinary tract infection (UTI) and skin breakdown.

A patient in the clinic reports a recent episode of dysphasia and left-sided weakness at home that resolved after 2 hours. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. alteplase (tPA). b. aspirin (Ecotrin). c. warfarin (Coumadin). d. nimodipine (Nimotop).

B. Following a transient ischemic attack (TIA), patients typically are started on medications such as aspirin to inhibit platelet function and decrease stroke risk. tPA is used for acute ischemic stroke. Coumadin is usually used for patients with atrial fibrillation. Nimodipine is used to prevent cerebral vasospasm after a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

The physician orders alteplase (Activase) for a 58-year-old man diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke. Which nursing action is most appropriate? A. Administer the medication by an IV route at 15 mL/hr for 24 hours. B. Insert two or three large-bore IV catheters before administering the medication. C. If gingival bleeding occurs, discontinue the medication and notify the physician. D. Reduce the medication infusion rate for a systolic blood pressure above 180 mm Hg.

B. Insert two or three large-bore IV catheters before administering the medication. Before giving alteplase, the nurse should start two or three large bore IVs. Bleeding is a major complication with fibrinolytic therapy, and venipunctures should not be attempted after alteplase is administered. Altepase is administered IV with an initial bolus dose followed by an infusion of the remaining medication within the next 60 minutes. Gingival bleeding is a minor complication and may be controlled with pressure or ice packs. Control of blood pressure is critical prior to altepase administration and for the following 24 hours. Before administering altepase, a systolic pressure above 180 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 110 mm Hg requires aggressive blood pressure treatment to reduce the risk of cerebral hemorrhage.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned after having left carotid artery angioplasty and stenting. Which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse? a. The pulse rate is 102 beats/min. b. The patient has difficulty speaking. c. The blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. d. There are fine crackles at the lung bases.

B. Small emboli can occur during carotid artery angioplasty and stenting, and the aphasia indicates a possible stroke during the procedure. Slightly elevated pulse rate and blood pressure are not unusual because of anxiety associated with the procedure. Fine crackles at the lung bases may indicate atelectasis caused by immobility during the procedure. The nurse should have the patient take some deep breaths.

The home health nurse is caring for an 81-year-old who had a stroke 2 months ago. Based on information shown in the accompanying figure from the history, physical assessment, and physical therapy/occupational therapy, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for this patient? a. Impaired transfer ability b. Risk for caregiver role strain c. Ineffective health maintenance d. Risk for unstable blood glucose level

B. The spouse's household and patient care responsibilities, in combination with chronic illnesses, indicate a high risk for caregiver role strain. The nurse should further assess the situation and take appropriate actions. The data about the control of the patient's diabetes indicates that ineffective health maintenance and risk for unstable blood glucose are not priority concerns at this time. Because the patient is able to ambulate with a cane, the nursing diagnosis of impaired transfer ability is not supported.

Which information about the patient who has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of having a stiff neck. b. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg. c. The patient reports a severe and unrelenting headache. d. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report shows red blood cells (RBCs).

B. To prevent cerebral vasospasm and maintain cerebral perfusion, blood pressure needs to be maintained at a level higher than 90 mm Hg systolic after a subarachnoid hemorrhage. A low BP or drop in BP indicates a need to administer fluids and/or vasopressors to increase the BP. An ongoing headache, RBCs in the CSF, and a stiff neck are all typical clinical manifestations of a subarachnoid hemorrhage and do not need to be rapidly communicated to the health care provider.

A patient has been receiving scheduled doses of phenytoin (Dilantin) and begins to experience diplopia. The nurse immediately assesses the patient for A. an aura or focal seizure. B. nystagmus or confusion. C. abdominal pain or cramping. D. irregular pulse or palpitations.

B. nystagmus or confusion. Diplopia is a sign of phenytoin toxicity. The nurse should assess for other signs of toxicity, which include neurologic changes, such as nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, dizziness, or slurred speech. An aura, focal seizure, abdominal pain or cramping, irregular pulse, or palpitations are not associated with phenytoin toxicity.

When you are obtaining a medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: A. if the patient has been hospitalized before. B. when the patient last appeared normal. C. the patient's overall medication compliance. D. if there is a family history of a stroke.

B. when the patient last appeared normal.

A diagnosis of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm has been made in a patient with manifestations of a stroke. The nurse anticipates that treatment options that would be evaluated for the patient include a. hyperventilation therapy b. surgical clipping of the aneurysm c. administration of hyperosmotic agents d. administration of thrombolytic therapy

B: Surgical clipping of they aneurysm- Surgical management with clipping of an aneurysm to decrease re bleeding and vasospasm is an option for a stroke cause by rupture of a cerebral aneurysm. Placement of coils into the lumens of the aneurysm by intercentional radiologists is increasing in popularity. Hyperventilation therapy would increase vasodilation and the potential for hemorrhage. Thrombolytic therapy would be absolutely contraindicated, and if a vessel is patent, osmotic diuretics may leak into tissue, pulling fluid out of the vessel and increasing edema.

A patient's sudden onset of hemiplegia has necessitated a computed tomography (CT) of her head. Which assessment should you complete before this diagnostic study? A. Assess the patient's immunization history. B. Screen the patient for any metal parts or a pacemaker. C. Assess the patient for allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes. D. Assess the patient's need for tranquilizers or antiseizure medications.

C Allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes contraindicate the use of contrast media for CT. The patient's immunization history is not a central consideration, and the presence of metal in the body does not preclude the use of CT as a diagnostic tool. The need to assess for allergies supersedes the need for tranquilizers or antiseizure medications in most patients.

Which option is most indicative of a skull fracture after blunt head trauma? A. Facial edema B. Epitasis C. Otorrhea positive for glucose D. Laceration oozing blood

C An indication of a basal fracture is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ear, which confirms that the fracture has traversed the dura. Periorbital ecchymosis can indicate a skull fracture, but generalized facial edema does not. The head is vascular, and it is not unusual to have a nosebleed; a positive ring sign (halo sign) indicates a skull fracture. A superficial laceration does not indicate a skull fracture.

What sign would make you suspect the cause of increased ICP involves the hypothalamus? A. Contralateral hemiparesis B. Ipsilateral pupil dilation C. Rise in temperature D. Decreased urine output

C If the ICP affects the hypothalamus, there can be a change in the body temperature. Increasing ICP can cause changes in motor ability, with contralateral hemiparesis. Compression of the cranial nerve III causes dilation of the pupil on the side of the mass (ipsilateral). Decreased urine output is not specific for hypothalamic function.

A patient with right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia resulting from a stroke most likely has involvement of the A. brainstem. B. vertebral artery. C. left middle cerebral artery. D. right middle cerebral artery.

C If the middle cerebral artery is involved in a stroke, the expected clinical manifestations include aphasia, motor and sensory deficit, and hemianopsia on the dominant side and include neglect, motor and sensory deficit, and hemianopsia on the nondominant side.

A patient experiencing TIAs is scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy. You explain that this procedure is done to A. decrease cerebral edema. B. reduce the brain damage that occurs during a stroke in evolution. C. prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques blocking cerebral blood flow. D. provide a circulatory bypass around thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation.

C In carotid endarterectomy, the atheromatous lesions are removed from the carotid artery to improve blood flow.

Bladder training for a male patient who has urinary incontinence after a stroke includes A. limiting fluid intake. B. keeping a urinal in place at all times. C. assisting the patient to stand to void. D. catheterizing the patient every 4 hours.

C In the acute stage of stroke, the primary urinary problem is poor bladder control and incontinence. Nurses should promote normal bladder function and avoid the use of indwelling catheters. A bladder retraining program consists of (1) adequate fluid intake, with most given between 8:00 AM and 7:00 PM; (2) scheduled toileting every 2 hours using a bedpan, commode, or bathroom; and (3) observing signs of restlessness, which may indicate the need for urination. Intermittent catheterization may be used for urinary retention (not urinary incontinence). During the rehabilitation phase after a stroke, nursing interventions focused on urinary continence include (1) assessment for bladder distention by palpation; (2) offering the bedpan, urinal, commode, or toilet every 2 hours during waking hours and every 3 to 4 hours at night; (3) focusing the patient on the need to urinate with a direct command; (4) assistance with clothing and mobility; (5) scheduling most fluid intake between 7:00 AM and 7:00 PM; and (6) encouraging the usual position for urinating (standing for men and sitting for women).

A patient with increased ICP has mannitol (Osmitrol) prescribed. Which option is the best indication that the drug is achieving the desired therapeutic effects? A. Urine output increases from 30 mL to 50 mL/hour. B. Blood pressure remains less than 150/90 mm Hg. C. The LOC improves. D. No crackles are auscultated in the lung fields.

C LOC is the most sensitive indicator of ICP. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works to decrease the ICP by plasma expansion and an osmotic effect. Although the other options may indicate a therapeutic effect of a diuretic, they are not the main reason this drug is given.

What is most important finding for you to act on for a patient who had a craniotomy? A. Sodium: 134 mEq/L B. While blood cell (WBC) count: 11,000/μL C. Urine specific gravity: 1.001 D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 25 mg/dL

C Patients need frequent monitoring for sodium regulation, onset of diabetes insipidus, and severe hypovolemia. Normal specific gravity for urine should not be below 1.003 and this low value is a priority.

Which sensory-perceptual deficit is associated with a left-brain stroke? A. Overestimation of physical abilities B. Difficulty judging position and distance C. Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks D. Impulsivity and impatience at performing tasks

C Patients with a left-brain stroke (right hemiplegia) commonly are slower in organization and performance of tasks and may have a fearful, anxious response to a stroke. Overconfidence, spatial disorientation, and impulsivity are more commonly associated with a right-brain stroke.

An obstruction of the anterior cerebral arteries affects A. visual imaging. B. balance and coordination. C. judgment, insight, and reasoning. D. visual and auditory integration for language comprehension.

C The anterior cerebral artery feeds the medial and anterior portions of the frontal lobes. The anterior portion of the frontal lobe controls higher-order processes such as judgment and reasoning.

What is the purpose of the blood-brain barrier? A. To protect the brain by cushioning B. To inhibit damage from external trauma C. To keep harmful agents away from brain tissue D. To provide the blood supply to brain tissue

C The blood-brain barrier is a physiologic barrier between capillaries and brain tissue. The structure of the brain's capillaries is different from others, and substances that are harmful are not allowed to enter brain tissue. Lipid-soluble compounds enter the brain easily, but water-soluble and ionized drugs enter slowly. The spinal fluid and meninges help cushion the brain. The skull protects from external trauma. Blood is supplied to the brain from the internal carotid arteries and the vertebral arteries.

A 63-year-old patient who began experiencing right arm and leg weakness is admitted to the emergency department. In which order will the nurse implement these actions included in the stroke protocol? a. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast. b. Infuse tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). c. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation >95%. d. Use National Institute of Health Stroke Scale to assess patient.

C, D, A, B The initial actions should be those that help with airway, breathing, and circulation. Baseline neurologic assessments should be done next. A CT scan will be needed to rule out hemorrhagic stroke before tPA can be administered.

A 68-year-old patient is being admitted with a possible stroke. Which information from the assessment indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed aspirin? a. The patient has dysphasia. b. The patient has atrial fibrillation. c. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache. d. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right-sided hemiplegia.

C. A sudden onset headache is typical of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and aspirin is contraindicated. Atrial fibrillation, dysphasia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) are not contraindications to aspirin use, so the nurse can administer the aspirin.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing stroke symptoms for 60 minutes. Which action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assess the patient's gag and cough reflexes. b. Determine when the stroke symptoms began. c. Administer the prescribed short-acting insulin. d. Infuse the prescribed IV metoprolol (Lopressor).

C. Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. The other actions require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

A 72-year-old patient who has a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) has an order for aspirin 160 mg daily. When the nurse is administering medications, the patient says, "I don't need the aspirin today. I don't have a fever." Which action should the nurse take? a. Document that the aspirin was refused by the patient. b. Tell the patient that the aspirin is used to prevent a fever. c. Explain that the aspirin is ordered to decrease stroke risk. d. Call the health care provider to clarify the medication order.

C. Aspirin is ordered to prevent stroke in patients who have experienced TIAs. Documentation of the patient's refusal to take the medication is an inadequate response by the nurse. There is no need to clarify the order with the health care provider. The aspirin is not ordered to prevent aches and pains.

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired self-feeding ability for a left-handed patient with left-sided hemiplegia. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Provide a wide variety of food choices. b. Provide oral care before and after meals. c. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. d. Teach the patient the "chin-tuck" technique.

C. Because the nursing diagnosis indicates that the patient's imbalanced nutrition is related to the left-sided hemiplegia, the appropriate interventions will focus on teaching the patient to use the right hand for self-feeding. The other interventions are appropriate for patients with other etiologies for the imbalanced nutrition.

Which stroke risk factor for a 48-year-old male patient in the clinic is most important for the nurse to address? a. The patient is 25 pounds above the ideal weight. b. The patient drinks a glass of red wine with dinner daily. c. The patient's usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. d. The patient works at a desk and relaxes by watching television.

C. Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor. People who drink more than 1 (for women) or 2 (for men) alcoholic beverages a day may increase risk for hypertension. Physical inactivity and obesity contribute to stroke risk but not as much as hypertension.

The nurse is planning psychosocial support for the patient and family of the patient who suffered a stroke. What factor will most likely have the greatest impact on positive family coping with the situation? A. Specific patient neurologic deficits B. The patient's ability to communicate C. Rehabilitation potential of the patient D. Presence of complications of a stroke

C. Rehabilitation potential of the patient Although a patient's neurologic deficit might initially be severe after a stroke, the ability of the patient to recover is most likely to positively impact the family's coping with the situation. Providing explanations and emotional support beginning in the acute phase through the rehabilitation phase will facilitate coping. Emphasizing successes will offer the most realistic hope for the patient's rehabilitation and helps maintain hope for the patient's future abilities.

Which sensory-perceptual deficit is associated with left-sided stroke (right hemiplegia)? A. Overestimation of physical abilities B. Difficulty judging position and distance C. Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks D. Impulsivity and impatience at performing tasks

C. Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks Patients with a left-sided stroke (right hemiplegia) commonly are slower in organization and performance of tasks and may have a fearful, anxious response to a stroke. Overconfidence, spatial disorientation, and impulsivity are more commonly associated with a right-sided stroke.

Which sensory-perceptual deficit is associated with left-sided stroke (right hemiplegia)? A. Overestimation of physical abilities. B. Difficulty judging position and distance. C. Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks. D. Impulsivity and impatience at performing tasks.

C. Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks. Patients with a left-sided stroke (right hemiplegia) commonly are slower in organization and performance of tasks and may have a fearful, anxious response to a stroke. Overconfidence, spatial disorientation, and impulsivity are more commonly associated with a right-sided stroke.

A male patient who has right-sided weakness after a stroke is making progress in learning to use the left hand for feeding and other activities. The nurse observes that when the patient's wife is visiting, she feeds and dresses him. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Interrupted family processes related to effects of illness of a family member b. Situational low self-esteem related to increasing dependence on spouse for care c. Disabled family coping related to inadequate understanding by patient's spouse d. Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to hemiplegia and aphasia

C. The information supports the diagnosis of disabled family coping because the wife does not understand the rehabilitation program. There are no data supporting low self-esteem, and the patient is attempting independence. The data do not support an interruption in family processes because this may be a typical pattern for the couple. There is no indication that the patient has impaired nutrition.

A 70-year-old female patient with left-sided hemiparesis arrives by ambulance to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the blood pressure. b. Send the patient for a computed tomography (CT) scan. c. Check the respiratory rate and effort. d. Assess the Glasgow Coma Scale score.

C. The initial nursing action should be to assess the airway and take any needed actions to ensure a patent airway. The other activities should take place quickly after the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) are completed.

A 47-year-old patient will attempt oral feedings for the first time since having a stroke. The nurse should assess the gag reflex and then a. order a varied pureed diet. b. assess the patient's appetite. c. assist the patient into a chair. d. offer the patient a sip of juice.

C. The patient should be as upright as possible before attempting feeding to make swallowing easier and decrease aspiration risk. To assess swallowing ability, the nurse should initially offer water or ice to the patient. Pureed diets are not recommended because the texture is too smooth. The patient may have a poor appetite, but the oral feeding should be attempted regardless.

After a patient experienced a brief episode of tinnitus, diplopia, and dysarthria with no residual effects, the nurse anticipates teaching the patient about a. cerebral aneurysm clipping. b. heparin intravenous infusion. c. oral low-dose aspirin therapy. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).

C. The patient's symptoms are consistent with transient ischemic attack (TIA), and drugs that inhibit platelet aggregation are prescribed after a TIA to prevent stroke. Continuous heparin infusion is not routinely used after TIA or with acute ischemic stroke. The patient's symptoms are not consistent with a cerebral aneurysm. tPA is used only for acute ischemic stroke, not for TIA.

During the change of shift report a nurse is told that a patient has an occluded left posterior cerebral artery. The nurse will anticipate that the patient may have a. dysphasia. b. confusion. c. visual deficits. d. poor judgment.

C. Visual disturbances are expected with posterior cerebral artery occlusion. Aphasia occurs with middle cerebral artery involvement. Cognitive deficits and changes in judgment are more typical of anterior cerebral artery occlusion.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: A. heart rate and pupil reaction. B. the right side of the face. C. the right side of the body. D. breathing and blood pressure.

C. the right side of the body.

Which intervention should the nurse delegate to the LPN when caring for a patient following an acute stroke? a. assess the patient's neurologic status b. assess the patient's gag reflex before beginning feeding c. administer ordered antihypertensives and platelet inhibitors d. teach the patient's caregivers strategies to minimize unilateral neglect

C: Administer ordered antihypertensives and platelet inhibitors- medication administration is within the scope of practice for an LPN. Assessment and teaching are within the scope of practice for the RN.

A thrombus that develops in a cerebral artery does not always cause a loss of neurologic function because a. the body can dissolve the atherosclerotic plaques as they form b. some tissues of the brain do not require constant blood supply to prevent damage c. circulation through the circle of Willis may provide blood supply to the affected area of the brain d. neurologic deficits occur only when major arteries are occluded by thrombus formation around an atherosclerotic plaque

C: Circulation through the circle of Willis may provide blood supply to the affected area of the brain. The communication between cerebral arteries in the circle of Willing provides a collateral circulation, which may maintain circulation to an area of the brain if its original blood supply is obstructed. ALl areas of the brain require constant blood supply, and atherosclerotic plaques are not readily reversed. Neurologic deficits can result from ischemia cause by many factors.

The incidence of ischemic stroke in patients with TIAs and other risk factors is reduced with administration of a. furosemide (Lasix) b. lovastatin (Mevacor) c. daily low dose aspirin d. nimodipine (Nimotop)

C: Daily low dose aspirin- the administration of antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin, dipyridamole (Persantine), and ticlopdipine (Ticlid), reduces the incidence of stroke in those at risk. Anticoagulants are also used for prevention of embolic strokes but increase the risk for hemorrhage. Diuretics are not indicated for stroke prevention other than for their role in controlling BP, and antilipemic agents have bot been found to have a significant effect on stroke prevention. The calcium channel blocker nimodipine is used in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage to decrease the effects of vasospasm and minimize tissue damage.

A patient with a stroke has a right sided hemiplegia. The nurse prepares family members to help control behavior changes seen with this type of stroke by teaching them to a. ignore undesirable behaviors manifested by the patient b. provide directions to the patient verbally in small steps c. distract the patient from inappropriate emotional responses d. supervise all activities before allowing the patient to pursue them independently

C: Distract the patient from inappropriate emotional responses- patients with left-sided brain damage from stroke often experience emotional lability, inappropriate emotional responses, mood swings, and uncontrolled tears or laughter disproportionate or out of context with the situation. The behavior is upsetting and embarrassing to both the patient and the family, and the patient should be distracted to minimize its presence. Patients with right-brain damage often have impulsive, rapid behavior that supervision and direction.

In promoting health maintenance for prevention of strokes, the nurse understands that the highest risk for the most common type of stroke is present in a. African Americans b. women who smoke c.individuals with hypertension and diabetes d. those who are obese with high dietary fat intake

C: Individuals with hypertension and diabetes- The highest risk factors for thrombotic stroke are hypertension and diabetes. African Americans have a higher risk for stroke than do white persons but probably because they have a greater incidence of hypertension. Factors such as obesity, diet high in saturated fats and cholesterol, cigarette smoking, and excessive alcohol use are also risk factors but carry less risk than hypertension.

A carotid endarterectomy is being considered as a treatment for a patient who has had several TIAs. The nurse explains to the patient that this surgery a. is used to restore blood to the brain following an obstruction of a cerebral artery b. involves intracranial surgery to join a superficial extracranial artery to an intracranial artery c. involves removing an atherosclerotic plaque in the carotid artery to prevent an impending stroke d. is sued to open a stenosis in a carotid artery with a balloon and stent to restore cerebral circulation

C: Involves removing an atherosclerotic plaque in the carotid artery to prevent an impending stroke- An endarterectomy is a removal of an atherosclerotic plaque, and plaque in the carotid artery may impair circulation enough to cause a stroke. A carotid endarterectomy is performed to prevent a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), as are most other surgical procedures. An extacranial-intracranial bypass involves cranial surgery to bypass a sclerotic intacranial artery. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty uses a balloon to compress stenotic areas in the carotid and vertebrobasilar arteries and often includes inserting a stent to hold the artery open.

What information provided by the patient can help differentiate a hemorrhagic stroke from a thrombotic stroke? A. Sensory disturbance B. A history of hypertension C. Presence of motor weakness D. Sudden onset of severe headache

D A hemorrhagic stroke usually causes sudden onset of symptoms, including neurologic deficits, headache, nausea, vomiting, decreased level of consciousness, and hypertension. Ischemic stroke symptoms may progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase. Reference: 1464

The patient had a blunt head injury. What is most important for you to do before the patient's discharge? A. Have the patient sign the discharge papers. B. Teach the patient how to perform the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). C. Tell the patient to return if he has a headache. D. Ensure there is a responsible adult to check on the patient

D Complications from a head injury can arise 2 to 3 days later, and the discharged patient must have a responsible adult who can stay with or check on the patient. The patient may understand the instructions but without an objective observer, he or she would not be aware whether some of the key symptoms were occurring. A patient would not know how to do the GCS if impaired or confused. A headache is not a concern, but a worsening headache unrelieved by over-the-counter medications needs to be checked.

Which option indicates a sign of Cushing's triad, an indication of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. Heart rate increases from 90 to 110 beats/minute B. Kussmaul respirations C. Temperature over 100.4° F (38° C) D. Heart rate decreases from 75 to 55 beats/minute

D Cushing's triad is systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, and slowed respirations. The rise in blood pressure is an attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion, and it is a neurologic emergency because decompensation is imminent. The other options are not part of Cushing's triad.

Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a stroke? A. An obese, 45-year-old Native American B. A 35-year-old Asian American woman who smokes C. A 32-year-old, white woman taking oral contraceptives D. A 65-year-old African American man with hypertension

D Nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke include age (>65 years), male gender, ethnicity or race (African Americans > Hispanics, Native Americans/Alaska Natives, and Asian Americans > whites), and family history of stroke or personal history of a transient ischemic attack or stroke. Modifiable risk factors for stroke include hypertension (most important), heart disease (especially atrial fibrillation), smoking, excessive alcohol consumption (causes hypertension), abdominal obesity, sleep apnea, metabolic syndrome, lack of physical exercise, poor diet (high in saturated fat and low in fruits and vegetables), and drug abuse (especially cocaine). Other risk factors for stroke include a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, increased serum cholesterol, birth control pills (high levels of progestin and estrogen), history of migraine headaches, inflammatory conditions, hyperhomocysteinemia, and sickle cell disease.

What is the most common visual field change resulting from a brain lesion? A. Diplopia B. Blurred vision C. Presbyopia D. Hemianopsia

D Visual field changes resulting from brain lesions are usually diagnosed as hemianopsia (one half of the visual field) or quadrantanopsia (one fourth of the visual field) or monocular vision.

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: A) Instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test. B) Defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech. C) Repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward. D) Repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself.

D) Repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself.

The nurse is teaching a senior citizen's group about signs and symptoms of a stroke. Which statement by the nurse would provide accurate information? A. "Take the person to the hospital if a headache lasts for more than 24 hours." B. "Stroke symptoms usually start when the person is awake and physically active." C. "A person with a transient ischemic attack has mild symptoms that will go away." D. "Call 911 immediately if a person develops slurred speech or difficulty speaking."

D. "Call 911 immediately if a person develops slurred speech or difficulty speaking." Medical assistance should be obtained immediately for someone with signs and symptoms of a stroke such as sudden numbness; weakness; paralysis of the face, arm, or leg (especially on one side of the body); sudden confusion; trouble speaking or understanding; slurred speech; sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes; sudden trouble walking; dizziness; loss of balance or coordination; or a sudden, severe headache with no known cause. A person with signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack should seek medical attention immediately because it is unknown if the symptoms will resolve or persist and progress to a stroke. Onset of signs and symptoms of a stroke vary depending on the type. Onset of an ischemic thrombotic stroke usually occurs at rest. Onset of an ischemic embolic stroke is not related to rest or activity, and onset of a hemorrhagic stroke usually occurs with activity.

Of the following patients, the nurse recognizes that the one with the highest risk for stroke is a(n): A. obese 45-year old Native American. B. 35-year-old Asian American woman who smokes. C. 32-year-old white woman taking oral contraceptives. D. 65-year-old African American man with hypertension.

D. 65-year-old African American man with hypertension. Nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke include age (older than 65 years), male gender, ethnicity or race (incidence is highest in African Americans; next highest in Hispanics, Native Americans/Alaska Natives, and Asian Americans; and next highest in white people), and family history of stroke or personal history of a transient ischemic attack or stroke. Modifiable risk factors for stroke include hypertension (most important), heart disease (especially atrial fibrillation), smoking, excessive alcohol consumption (causes hypertension), abdominal obesity, sleep apnea, metabolic syndrome, lack of physical exercise, poor diet (high in saturated fat and low in fruits and vegetables), and drug abuse (especially cocaine). Other risk factors for stroke include a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, increased serum levels of cholesterol, birth control pills (high levels of progestin and estrogen), history of migraine headaches, inflammatory conditions, hyperhomocystinemia, and sickle cell disease.

The nurse in a primary care provider's office is assessing several patients today. Which patient is most at risk for a stroke? A. A 92-year-old female who takes warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. B. A 28-year-old male who uses marijuana after chemotherapy to control nausea. C. A 42-year-old female who takes oral contraceptives and has migraine headaches. D. A 72-year-old male who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus and smokes tobacco.

D. A 72-year-old male who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus and smokes tobacco. Stroke risk increases after 65 years of age. Strokes are more common in men. Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor for stroke. Diabetes mellitus is a significant stroke risk factor; and smoking nearly doubles the risk of a stroke. Other risk factors include drug abuse (especially cocaine), high-dose oral contraception use, migraine headaches, and untreated heart disease such as atrial fibrillation.

A 74-year-old man who has right-sided extremity paralysis related to a thrombotic stroke develops constipation. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours. B. Provide incontinence briefs to wear during the day. C. Administer a bisocodyl (Dulcolax) rectal suppository every day. D. Arrange for several servings per day of cooked fruits and vegetables.

D. Arrange for several servings per day of cooked fruits and vegetables. Patients after a stroke frequently have constipation. Dietary management includes the following: fluid intake of 2500 to 3000 mL daily, prune juice (120 mL) or stewed prunes daily, cooked fruit three times daily, cooked vegetables three times daily, and whole-grain cereal or bread three to five times daily. Patients with urinary incontinence should be assisted to the bathroom every 2 hours when appropriate. Suppositories may be ordered for short-term management if the patient does not respond to increased fluid and fiber. Incontinence briefs are indicated as a short-term intervention for urinary incontinence.

A patient admitted with possible stroke has been aphasic for 3 hours and his current blood pressure (BP) is 174/94 mm Hg. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Keep head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr. c. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) per protocol. d. Administer a labetalol (Normodyne) drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg.

D. Because elevated BP may be a protective response to maintain cerebral perfusion, antihypertensive therapy is recommended only if mean arterial pressure (MAP) is >130 mm Hg or systolic pressure is >220 mm Hg. Fluid intake should be 1500 to 2000 mL daily to maintain cerebral blood flow. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees, unless the patient has symptoms of poor tissue perfusion. tPA may be administered if the patient meets the other criteria for tPA use.

When teaching about clopidogrel (Plavix), the nurse will tell the patient with cerebral atherosclerosis a. to monitor and record the blood pressure daily. b. that Plavix will dissolve clots in the cerebral arteries. c. that Plavix will reduce cerebral artery plaque formation. d. to call the health care provider if stools are bloody or tarry.

D. Clopidogrel (Plavix) inhibits platelet function and increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, so patients should be advised to notify the health care provider about any signs of bleeding. The medication does not lower blood pressure, decrease plaque formation, or dissolve clots.

A 58-year-old patient with a left-brain stroke suddenly bursts into tears when family members visit. The nurse should a. use a calm voice to ask the patient to stop the crying behavior. b. explain to the family that depression is normal following a stroke. c. have the family members leave the patient alone for a few minutes. d. teach the family that emotional outbursts are common after strokes.

D. Patients who have left-sided brain stroke are prone to emotional outbursts that are not necessarily related to the emotional state of the patient. Depression after a stroke is common, but the suddenness of the patient's outburst suggests that depression is not the major cause of the behavior. The family should stay with the patient. The crying is not within the patient's control and asking the patient to stop will lead to embarrassment.

Nurses in change-of-shift report are discussing the care of a patient with a stroke who has progressively increasing weakness and decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). Which nursing diagnosis do they determine has the highest priority for the patient? a. Impaired physical mobility related to weakness b. Disturbed sensory perception related to brain injury c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility d. Risk for aspiration related to inability to protect airway

D. Protection of the airway is the priority of nursing care for a patient having an acute stroke. The other diagnoses are also appropriate, but interventions to prevent aspiration are the priority at this time.

A patient with left-sided weakness that started 60 minutes earlier is admitted to the emergency department and diagnostic tests are ordered. Which test should be done first? a. Complete blood count (CBC) b. Chest radiograph (Chest x-ray) c. 12-Lead electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan

D. Rapid screening with a noncontrast CT scan is needed before administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which must be given within 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical manifestations of the stroke. The sooner the tPA is given, the less brain injury. The other diagnostic tests give information about possible causes of the stroke and do not need to be completed as urgently as the CT scan.

A 73-year-old patient with a stroke experiences facial drooping on the right side and right-sided arm and leg paralysis. When admitting the patient, which clinical manifestation will the nurse expect to find? a. Impulsive behavior b. Right-sided neglect c. Hyperactive left-sided tendon reflexes d. Difficulty comprehending instructions

D. Right-sided paralysis indicates a left-brain stroke, which will lead to difficulty with comprehension and use of language. The left-side reflexes are likely to be intact. Impulsive behavior and neglect are more likely with a right-side stroke.

The female patient has been brought to the ED with a sudden onset of a severe headache that is different from any other headache she has had previously. When considering the possibility of a stroke, which type of stroke should the nurse know is most likely occurring? A. TIA B. Embolic stroke C. Thrombotic stroke D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Headache is common in a patient who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage or an intracerebral hemorrhage. A TIA is a transient loss of neurologic function usually without a headache. A headache may occur with an ischemic embolic stroke, but severe neurologic deficits are the initial symptoms. The ischemic thrombotic stroke manifestations progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase.

A 56-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department with hemiparesis and dysarthria that started 2 hours previously, and health records show a history of several transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). The nurse anticipates preparing the patient for a. surgical endarterectomy. b. transluminal angioplasty. c. intravenous heparin administration. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) infusion.

D. The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest an acute ischemic stroke and a patient who is seen within 4.5 hours of stroke onset is likely to receive tPA (after screening with a CT scan). Heparin administration in the emergency phase is not indicated. Emergent carotid transluminal angioplasty or endarterectomy is not indicated for the patient who is having an acute ischemic stroke.

A patient in the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided weakness is diagnosed with an intracerebral hemorrhage. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's speech is difficult to understand. b. The patient's blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg. c. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension. d. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin).

D. The use of warfarin probably contributed to the intracerebral bleeding and remains a risk factor for further bleeding. Administration of vitamin K is needed to reverse the effects of the warfarin, especially if the patient is to have surgery to correct the bleeding. The history of hypertension is a risk factor for the patient but has no immediate effect on the patient's care. The BP of 144/90 indicates the need for ongoing monitoring but not for any immediate change in therapy. Slurred speech is consistent with a left-sided stroke, and no change in therapy is indicated.

Which intervention is most appropriate when communicating with a patient suffering from aphasia following a stroke? A. Present several thoughts at once so that the patient can connect the ideas. B. Ask open-ended questions to provide the patient the opportunity to speak. C. Finish the patient's sentences to minimize frustration associated with slow speech. D. Use simple, short sentences accompanied by visual cues to enhance comprehension.

D. Use simple, short sentences accompanied by visual cues to enhance comprehension. When communicating with a patient with aphasia, the nurse should present one thought or idea at a time. Ask questions that can be answered with a "yes," "no," or simple word. Use visual cues and allow time for the individual to comprehend and respond to conversation.

When assessing arm movement of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: A. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. B. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down. C. observe the patient for approximately 5 minutes. D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

A nursing intervention is indicated for the patient with hemiplegia is a. the use of a footboard to prevent plantar flexion b. immobilization of the affected arm against the chest with a sling c. positioning the patient in bed with each joint lower than the joint proximal to it d. having the patient perform passive ROM of the affected limb with the unaffected limb

D: Having the patient perform passive ROM of the affected limb with the unaffected limb- active ROM should be initiated on the unaffected side as soon as possible, and passive ROM of the affected side should be started on the first day. Having the patient actively exercise the unaffected side provides the patient with active and passive ROM as needed. Use of footboards is controversial because they stimulate plantar flexion. The unaffected arm should be supported, but immobilization may precipitate a painful shoulder-hand syndrome. The patient should be positioned with each joint higher than the joint proximal to it to prevent dependent edema.

The nurse can assist the patient and the family in coping with the long term effects of a stroke by a. informing family members that the patient will need assistance with almost all ADLs b. explaining that the patient's prestroke behavior will return as improvement progresses c. encouraging the patient and family members to seek assistance from family therapy or stroke support groups d. helping the patient and family understand the significance of residual stroke damage to promote problem solving and planning

D: Helping the patient and family understand the significance of residual stroke damage to promote problem solving and planning- the patient and family need accurate and complete information about the effects of the stroke to problem solve and make plans for chronic care of the patient. It is uncommon for patients with major strokes to return completely to pre stroke function, behaviors, and role, and both the patient and family will mourn these losses. The patient's specific needs for care must be identified, and rehabilitation efforts should be continued at home. Family therapy and support groups may be helpful for some patients and families.

A patient's wife asks the nurse why her husband did not receive the clot busting medication (tPA) she has been reading about. Her husband is diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. What should the nurse respond? a. He didn't arrive within the time frame for that therapy b. Not every is eligible for this drug. Has he had surgery lately? c. You should discuss the treatment of your husband with your doctor d. The medication you are talking about dissolves clots and could cause more bleeding in your husband's head

D: The medication you are talking about dissolves clots and could cause more bleeding in your husband's head- tPA dissolves clots and increases the risk for bleeding. It is not used with hemorrhagic strokes. If the patient had a thrombotic/embolic stroke the time frame would be important as well as a history of surgery. The nurse should answer the question as accurately as possible and then encourage the individual to talk with the primary care physician if he or she has further questions.

A patient comes to the emergency department immediately after experiencing numbness of the face and an inability to speak, but while the patient awaits examination, the symptoms disappear and the patient request discharge. The nurse stresses that it is important for the patient to be evaluated primarily because a. the patient has probably experienced an asymptomatic lacunar stroke b. the symptoms are likely to return and progress to worsening neurologic deficit in the next 24 hours c. neurologic deficits that are transient occur most often as a result of small hemorrhages that clot off d. the patient has probably experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a sign of progressive cerebral vascular disease

D: The patient has probably experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a sign of progressive cerebral vascular disease- A TIA is a temporary focal loss of neurologic function caused by ischemia of an area of the brain, usually lasting only about 3 hours. TIAs may be due to microemboli from heart disease or carotid or cerebral thrombi and are a warning of progressive disease. Evaluation is necessary to determine the cause of the neurologic deficit and provide prophylactic treatment if possible.

The (deeper/shallower?) the location of the clot in the brain, the less damage it does.

Deeper (bc it's more localized & causes less generalized damage)

Type of Measure

Disease-specific or generic Self-report or performance-based

Permissive hypertension

If you drop blood pressure then more green tissue (ischemic) turns red (infarcted) (only treat BP if >200)

TIAs, thromboses, embolisms, & lacunar strokes are all types of (hemorrhagic/ischemic?) stroke.

Ischemic

___ strokes occur when arterial supply to the brain is blocked, usually by the narrowing of arteries or by clots moving from the heart (heart attack, AFib).

Ischemic

Drugs aimed at preventing stroke usually work to prevent (hemorrhagic/ischemic?) stroke.

Ischemic (bc usually they are clot-breaking drugs)

Manifestations of right brain damage

Left homonymous hemianopsia, agnosia, quick impulsive behavior, neglect of the left side of the body

Treat for hemorrhagic stroke

Lower BP

Which method gives more/better information on the extent of damage from a stroke, CT or MRI?

MRI

1st thing you do when you suspect a stroke

Non-contrast CT scan (determines hemorrhagic vs ischemic)

Characteristics of embolic stroke

Onset unrelated to activity, quick onset and resolution, associated with endocardial disorders

Patient and Clinic factors

Patient recovery and ability Patient goals Clinic Requirements

Psychometric factors

Reliability Validity Diagnostic accuracy Responsiveness

Characteristics of intracerebral hemorrhage

Rupture of atherosclerotic vessels, carries the poorest prognosis, creates mass that compresses the brain

What do doctors have to verify before giving a pt thrombolytic therapy for stroke?

That the stroke is not hemorrhagic (the drug will cause further bleeding if it is)

Why do embolic strokes tend to be more severe than thrombotic strokes?

They occur rapidly & there is no opportunity for a collateral blood supply to develop (so they tend to have more serious effects)

Common psychosocial reactions of the stroke patient to the stroke include (select all that apply) a. depression. b. disassociation. c. intellectualization. d. sleep disturbances. e. denial of severity of stroke.

a, d, e Rationale: The patient with a stroke may experience many losses, including sensory, intellectual, communicative, functional, role behavior, emotional, social, and vocational losses. Some patients experience long-term depression, manifesting symptoms such as anxiety, weight loss, fatigue, poor appetite, and sleep disturbances. The time and energy required to perform previously simple tasks can result in anger and frustration. Frustration and depression are common in the first year after a stroke. A stroke is usually a sudden, extremely stressful event for the patient, caregiver, family, and significant others. The family is often affected emotionally, socially, and financially as their roles and responsibilities change. Reactions vary considerably but may involve fear, apprehension, denial of the severity of stroke, depression, anger, and sorrow.

A 58-year-old male presents with confusion, right-sided weakness, and slurred speech. His wife is present and is very upset. As your partner is applying oxygen, it is MOST important for you to:

ask his wife when she noticed the symptoms.

b Rationale: During initial evaluation, the most important point in the patient's history is the time since onset of stroke symptoms. If the stroke is ischemic, recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical signs of ischemic stroke; tPA reestablishes blood flow through a blocked artery and prevents brain cell death in patients with acute onset of ischemic stroke.

___ are not really considered strokes, but rather precursors to stroke. There's a brief, focal loss of function, but full recovery w/in 24 hrs. a. thromboses b. TIAs c. lacunar strokes d. embolisms

b. TIAs

c Rationale: Angiography provides visualization of cerebral blood vessels and can help estimate perfusion and detect filling defects in the cerebral arteries.

A patient with right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia resulting from a stroke most likely has involvement of the a. brainstem. b. vertebral artery. c. left middle cerebral artery. d. right middle cerebral artery.

c Rationale: If the middle cerebral artery is involved in a stroke, the expected clinical manifestations include aphasia, motor and sensory deficit, and hemianopsia on the dominant side and include neglect, motor and sensory deficit, and hemianopsia on the nondominant side.

Bladder training in a male patient who has urinary incontinence after a stroke includes a. limiting fluid intake. b. keeping a urinal in place at all times. c. assisting the patient to stand to void. d. catheterizing the patient every 4 hours.

c Rationale: In the acute stage of stroke, the primary urinary problem is poor bladder control and incontinence. Nurses should promote normal bladder function and avoid the use of indwelling catheters. A bladder retraining program consists of (1) adequate fluid intake, with most fluids administered between 7:00 am and 7:00 pm; (2) scheduled toileting every 2 hours with the use of a bedpan, commode, or bathroom; and (3) noting signs of restlessness, which may indicate the need for urination. Intermittent catheterization may be used for urinary retention (not urinary incontinence). During the rehabilitation phase after a stroke, nursing interventions focused on urinary continence include (1) assessment for bladder distention by palpation; (2) offering the bedpan, urinal, commode, or toilet every 2 hours during waking hours and every 3 to 4 hours at night; (3) using a direct command to help the patient focus on the need to urinate; (4) assistance with clothing and mobility; (5) scheduling most fluid intake between 7:00 am and 7:00 pm; and (6) encouraging the usual position for urinating (i.e., standing for men and sitting for women).

A patient with increased ICP is being monitored in the intensive care unit (ICU) with a fiberoptic catheter. Which order is a priority for you? A. Perform hourly neurologic checks. B. Take a complete set of vital signs. C. Administer the prescribed mannitol (Osmitrol). D. Give an H2-receptor blocker.

c he priority is to treat the known existing problem, and mannitol is the only thing that can do that. Because the patient is having the current pressure measured with objective numbers, treating the known problem is a priority over additional assessments. H2-blockers are given when corticosteroids are administered to help prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, but they are not a priority compared with the treatment of ICP.

d Rationale: A hemorrhagic stroke usually causes a sudden onset of symptoms, which include neurologic deficits, headache, nausea, vomiting, decreased level of consciousness, and hypertension. Ischemic stroke symptoms may progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase.

Of the following patients, the nurse recognizes that the one with the highest risk for a stroke is a(n) a. obese 45-year-old Native American. b. 35-year-old Asian American woman who smokes. c. 32-year-old white woman taking oral contraceptives. d. 65-year-old African American man with hypertension.

d Rationale: Nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke include age (older than 65 years), male gender, ethnicity or race (incidence is highest in African Americans; next highest in Hispanics, Native Americans/Alaska Natives, and Asian Americans; and next highest in white people), and family history of stroke or personal history of a transient ischemic attack or stroke. Modifiable risk factors for stroke include hypertension (most important), heart disease (especially atrial fibrillation), smoking, excessive alcohol consumption (causes hypertension), abdominal obesity, sleep apnea, metabolic syndrome, lack of physical exercise, poor diet (high in saturated fat and low in fruits and vegetables), and drug abuse (especially cocaine). Other risk factors for stroke include a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, increased serum levels of cholesterol, birth control pills (high levels of progestin and estrogen), history of migraine headaches, inflammatory conditions, hyperhomocystinemia, and sickle cell disease.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for stroke? a. HTN b. smoking c. obesity d. contraceptives w/ high levels of progesterone e. all are risk factors

d. contraceptives w/ high levels of progesterone (should say estrogen)

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, and is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth. You should:

suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen.

After a stroke, thrombolytic therapy ___ can help control the damage, but it must be given w/in ___ hours of the onset of the stroke to be effective.

t-PA; 3

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia:

usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

See all study sets

Neuro assess, TIA, stroke, ICP, NCLEX

Related study sets

Chapter 4 Atomic Structure

Perfect Competition(Short Run)

Biology - Chapter 16 Short Answer

Group Work

Media Studies

chapter 7 practice questions

Ecology Comprehensive Final Exam (lect 20-end)

Final review list from prof

English Vocab (unit 1)

Arizona School of Real Estate and Business Chapter 1-18 Quizzes and Book Questions

Rh blood-groups/human blood types

Fundamentals Ch. 24

Investing - 12.2 - Stocks - Buying And Selling - WHS Albert

Chapter Exam 2 - Policy Provisions, Options and Riders

Latin American Exam 2

Physics Chapter 23

The Ku Klux Klan

Sociology Final Exam Review (Chapters 13, 14, 17, 20, 21)

CBA 396 Ch. 6

Peds Exam 2 Practice Questions