NPTE Review Questions 7
Which scenario of a bicep curl would produce the most power? -2 lb dumbbell lifted in 2 seconds -2 lb dumbbell lifted in 3 seconds -4 lb dumbbell lifted in 1 seconds -4 lb dumbbell lifted in 4 seconds
-4 lb dumbbell lifted in 1 seconds
Which pt would be most at risk for a pressure ulcer? -55 year old white male with diabetes -60 year old African American female with a C7 spinal cord -80 year old African American male with COPD -65 year old white female status post total knee arthroplasty
-60 year old African American female with a C7 spinal cord
What is the loose packed position of the ulnohumeral joint? -full extension -70 deg flexion, 10 deg supination -70 deg flexion, 35 deg supination -full extension, full supination
-70 deg flexion, 10 deg supination -full extension= closed packed position of the ulnohumeral joint -70 deg flexion, 35 deg supination= loose packed position of the proximal radioulnar joint -full extension, full supination= loose packed position of the radiohumeral joint
A pt classifies the intensity of exercise as a 16 using Borg's (20-point) Rating Perceived Exertion Scale. This classification BEST corresponds to? -40% of max HR range -60% of max HR range -70% of max HR range -85% of max HR range
-85% of max HR range
Which 3 bony landmarks are used to measure the Q angle of the hip? -ASIS, superior border of the patella, tibial tubercle -ASIS, midpoint, of the patella, tibial tubercle -ASIS, inferior border of the patella, tibial tubercle -greater trochanter, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle
-ASIS, midpoint, of the patella, tibial tubercle
Which PNF pattern would best promote improved posture from a stooped position? -D1 extension -D1 flexion -D2 extension -D2 flexion
-D2 flexion
What self-care assessment is used to examine change over time in rehab programs, uses a 7 point scale to examine 18 items, and the collected information is based on observations of pt performance? -Functional Independence Measure -Functional Status Index -Physical Self-Maintenance Scale -Katz Index of Activities of Daily Living
-Functional Independence Measure
Which pt profile is most typical with a diagnosis of osteonecrosis of the femoral condyle? -a 42 yr old female with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle -a 64 yr old female with osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle -a 46 yr old male with osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle -a 68 yr old male with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle
-a 64 yr old female with osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle =females are 3x more likely than males to experience osteonecrosis of the femoral condyle with peak incidence occurring in women over 60 yrs old, the medial femoral condyle is more likely to be affected than the lateral condyle due to increased weight bearing forces caused by the center of gravity being medial to the knee
Which statement best describes an osteosarcoma? -a malignant growth affecting the long bones -a malignant growth affecting the flat bones -a benign growth affecting the long bones -a benign growth affecting the flat bones
-a malignant growth affecting the long bones
A 7 year old boy sitting in the PT waiting area suddenly grasps his throat and appears to be in distress. The boy slowly stands, but is obviously unable to breath. The PT recognizing the signs of an airway obstruction should administer? -abdominal thrusts -chest thrusts -rescue breathing -finger sweep
-abdominal thrusts
A 68 year old male is referred to PT after being diagnosed with primary osteoarthritis. The associated articular changes are most likely attributed to? -age related changes -trauma from previous injuries -congenital bony abnormalities -underlying inflammatory processes
-age related changes
A PT believes that the discomfort a pt is feeling is caused by periosteal pain from an ultrasound treatment. Which scenario is most likely associated with the pt's subjective report of discomfort? -an ultrasound unit with a high beam non-uniformity ratio -an ultrasound unit with a low beam non-uniformity ratio -a transducer with a large effective radiating area -a transducer with a small effective radiating area
-an ultrasound unit with a high beam non-uniformity ratio
Which type of indwelling line would be used to collect arterial blood gas analysis 6x daily? -intravenous line -arterial line -central venous line -pulmonary artery line
-arterial line= consists of a catheter inserted through the skin into an artery connected to pressure tubing, a transducer and a monitor, used for continuous direct blood pressure readings and to sample arterial blood for arterial blood gas analysis, the radial and brachial arteries are the most common arteries used -intravenous line= used as a route to administer medications or fluids -central venous line=used as a route for medication or fluid administration, blood sampling, and emergency placement of a pacemaker -pulmonary artery line= used to monitor CV pressures and to sample mixed venous blood for gas analysis
A pt rehabbing from a CHF begins to complain of pain during therapy. What is the most appropriate PT action? -notify the nursing staff to administer pain medication -contact the referring physician -discontinue the treatment session -ask the pt to describe the location and severity of the pain
-ask the pt to describe the location and severity of the pain
Which of the following clinical findings is not typically associated with cerebellar degeneration? -athetosis -dysmetria -nystagmus -dysdiadochokinesia
-athetosis= characterized by extraneous and involuntary movements, slowness of movement, and alterations in muscle tone, Athetoid movements may look wormlike with a rotatory component evident
A PT treats a pt rehabilitating from a traumatic brain injury by applying approximation to the pelvis to increase bilateral lower extremity weight bearing. The pt exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is most likely using a thera ball on top of a table with the pt's UE placed on top of the thera ball to? -avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing -encourage active AROM -allow the pt partial weight bearing through the ball -limit ROM at the shoulder
-avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing
A PT examines a pt with coordination deficits presenting with excessive involuntary and extraneous movements including hemiballismus. This clinical presentation is most consistent with damage to the? -cerebellum -basal ganglia -frontal lobe -medulla oblongata
-basal ganglia =Basal ganglia are gray matter masses located deep w/ in the white matter of the cerebrum and include the caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nuclei. In addition to hemiballismus, other basal ganglia deficits include choreoathetosis, hyperkinesis, rigidity, and bradykinesia
Which pt condition would be least likely to benefit from the use of the heel lift? -true leg length discrepancy -Achilles tendonitis -Achilles tendon repair -calcaneal bone spur
-calcaneal bone spur
Which bone would be least likely impacted by a Lis Franc fracture? -calcaneus -cuboid -second cuneiform -navicular
-calcaneus
Which clinical finding would provide the best support for a pt with a proximal humerus fracture to be cleared to perform AAROM? -hematoma formation -diminished pain -callus formation -remodeling
-callus formation= one of the first indications that healing has occurred -hematoma formation= first sign of the inflammatory stage -diminished pain= associated with healing but not enough information alone to begin AAROM -remodeling= final stage of healing and AAROM would occur before this
What is the primary source for the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) produced while running on a treadmill at ~75% intensity of their max? -amino acids -carbohydrates -fats -proteins
-carbohydrates
The most likely rationale for airborne precautions for a pt who is HIV positive and has a cough that produces bloody sputum? -decrease the risk of exposing the immunocompromised pt to pneumonia -decrease the risk of exposing the immunocompromised pt to active tuberculosis -decrease the risk of staff and visitor exposure to pneumonia -decrease the risk of staff and visitor exposure to active tuberculosis
-decrease the risk of staff and visitor exposure to active tuberculosis- pts with HIV have a significant prevalence of tuberculosis and a cough with bloody sputum is consistent with the critical presentation of the disease
A pt with Addison's disease suffers from fatigue and extreme weight loss. The most likely cause of this pt's symptoms is? -decreased production of cortisol -hyperfunction of the thyroid gland -decreased absorption of nutrients within the intestines -hyperfunction of the adrenal gland
-decreased production of cortisol
A pt presents with ape hand deformity secondary to a peripheral nerve injury. Which of the following findings would most likely be noted on examination? -decreased strength with thumb opposition -fixed flexion of the MTP joints -fixed hyperextension of the MTP joints -wasting of the hypothenar eminence
-decreased strength with thumb opposition
The most likely cause associated with a syncopal event in a pt with diarrhea and vomiting in the last 24 hrs is? -anemia -dehydration -orthostatic hypotension -pregnancy
-dehydration =can cause syncope by itself even if it leads to orthostatic hypotension later
Which of the following would serve as the best predictor of altered sensation in a pt with a burn injury? -presence of a skin graft -depth of burn injury -percentage of body surface affected -extent of hypertrophic scarring
-depth of burn injury
The most appropriate action to resolve an extended knee throughout early stance on the prosthetic side? -plantar flex the foot -soften the heel wedge -move the foot anteriorly -dorsiflex the foot
-dorsiflex the foot
Which parameter would be the most critical to adjust in an US treatment if the goal was to increase tissue temperature? -time -duty cycle -frequency -intensity
-duty cycle
Which of the following responses is most indicative of a normal muscle at rest during an EMG test? -electrical silence -spontaneous potentials -polyphasic potentials -occasional motor unit potentials
-electrical silence
Most consistent laboratory finding with a diagnosis of chronic respiratory alkalosis? -elevated arterial blood pH, low PaCO2 -low arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2 -elevated arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2 -low arterial blood pH, low PaCO2
-elevated arterial blood pH, low PaCO2 =these findings are consistent with respiratory alkalosis, condition can be caused by alveolar hyperventilation due to dizziness or syncope -low arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2 =consistent with respiratory acidosis, condition can be caused by alveolar hypoventilation due to anxiety, confusion, and coma -elevated arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2 =consistent with partially compensated metabolic alkalosis, condition can be caused by bicarbonate ingestion, vomiting, diuretics, steroids, and adrenal disease -low arterial blood pH, low PaCO2 =consistent with partially compensated metabolic acidosis, can be caused by metabolic diseases or distrubances such as diabetes, lactic acid, uremic acidosis and chronic diarrhea
Which of the following tests would be most likely abnormal in a pt with Myasthenia Gravis? -coordination testing -sensory testing -deep tendon reflex testing -endurance testing
-endurance testing =condition characterized muscle weakness and significant muscle fatigability -coordination testing =most abnormal in a pt with a cerebellar disorder -sensory testing =most abnormal in a pt with a SCI -deep tendon reflex testing =most abnormal in a pt w/ a TBI
Which position would be the most appropriate when assessing posterior instability of the shoulder? -abduction to 90 deg with neutral rotation -abduction to 90 deg with full external rotation -flexion to 90 deg with full internal rotation -arm at the side in neutral rotation
-flexion to 90 deg with full internal rotation
The most important factor when determining the most appropriate time to schedule the calibration and maintenance of an US machine is? -beam nonuniformity ratio -frequency of use -cost associated with calibration and maintenance -availability of qualified personnel to inspect the unit
-frequency of use
Which muscle experiences the greatest trauma with a posterolateral surgical approach to THA? -gluteus maximus -gluteus medius -piriformis -vastus lateralis
-gluteus maximus
Performing a Thessaly test on a pt with a suspected meniscal tear would require the PT to? -passively medially rotate the pt's tibia and extend the knee -cup the patient's heel and allow the knee to extend from a fully flexed position -grasp the pt's hands in standing to promote balance -passively flex and extend the pt's knee while feeling for popping
-grasp the pt's hands in standing to promote balance -passively medially rotate the pt's tibia and extend the knee- McMurrays Test -cup the patient's heel and allow the knee to extend from a fully flexed position-Bounce Home Test -passively flex and extend the pt's knee while feeling for popping- Hughston's Plica Test
A rocker bottom modification would be the most beneficial for a pt diagnosed with? -Achilles tendonitis -hallux rigidus -plantar fasciitis -posterior tibial tendonitis
-hallux rigidus
The most probable finding in a pt with posterior tibial tendon dysfunction when observing the posterior aspect of the pt's lower leg and ankle in standing is? -forefoot adduction -hindfoot valgus -hypertrophy of the gastrocnemius -swelling in the lateral ankle region
-hindfoot valgus
Which method of data collection would provide a PT with the most valid measurement of body composition? -anthropometric measurements -bioelectrical impedance -hydrostatic weighing -skinfold measurements
-hydrostatic weighing
Which surgical procedure would best address the excessive lumbar lordosis during ambulation in a child with spastic cerebral palsy? -hamstring tendon lengthening -adductor longus tendon lengthening -iliopsoas tendon lengthening -lumbar laminectomy
-iliopsoas tendon lengthening =contracture of the iliopsoas causes excessive anterior pelvic tilt
Which objective finding would be most indicative of a suspected rupture of the patellar tendon? -marked tenderness along the anterior surface of the knee joint -inability to actively extend the knee against gravity -limited ability to complete ROM due to hamarthrosis -resistive isometrics are strong and painful for knee extension
-inability to actively extend the knee against gravity
A PT would like to minimize the likelihood of a burn when using iontophoresis. Which action would be the most consistent with the therapist's objective? -increase the size of the cathode relative to the anode -decrease the space b/w the electrodes -increase the current intensity -decrease the moisture of the electrodes
-increase the size of the cathode relative to the anode =the cathode refers to the negatively charged electrode and the anode refers to the positively charged electrode, the accumulation of positively charged ions in a small area creates an alkaline reaction that is more likely to create tissue damage, as a result it is desirable to increase the size of the cathode
A pt with diabetes insipidus is being treated with exogenous administration of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which potential side effect of ADH is most likely? -increased BP -decrease BP -hypovolemia -constipation
-increased BP
What is the primary purpose of an emetic agent? -promote defecation -induce vomiting -minimize gastrointestinal irritation -reduce diarrhea
-induce vomiting
A PT completes a series of resisted movements on a pt with a LE injury. The pt denies pain initially, complains of increasing pain after performing a number of repetitions. This scenario is most consistent with? -complete rupture of a tendon -intermittent claudication -ligamentous laxity -emotional hypersensitivity
-intermittent claudication =muscles distal to the occluded vessel cramp and cause pain
Which exercise would most likely be problematic for a pt diagnosed with PFPS? -terminal knee extension in standing -mini-squats from 0-30 degrees of knee flexion -long arc quads from 0-45 degrees of knee flexion -quadriceps setting in terminal knee extension in supine
-long arc quads from 0-45 degrees of knee flexion- in contrast to CKC the patellofemoral joint reaction forces for OKC activities are their lowest at 90 degrees flexion and increase as the joint gets closer to full extension
Which bony prominence should a PT position a tuning fork on when administering the Rinne test to assess the integrity of the vestibulocochlear nerve? -midline of the skull -occipital protuberance -inion -mastoid process
-mastoid process -midline of the skull= utilized during the Weber test -occipital protuberance= prominence on the outer surface of the occipital bone -inion=most prominent projecting point of the occipital bone at the midline of the base of the skull, marks the center of the superior nuchal line
What is the primary limitation of a maximal exercise test? -maximal exercise testing requires participants to exercise to the point of volitional fatigue -maximal exercise testing does not typically allow a steady state heart rate at each work rate -maximal exercise testing is not useful in diagnosing coronary artery disease -maximal exercise testing requires progressive stages of increasing work intensities without rest intervals
-maximal exercise testing requires participants to exercise to the point of volitional fatigue =some subjects terminate the exercise test due to fatigue or exercise intolerance before reaching their physiological maximum, this reduces the sensitivity of the estimate of maximum oxygen uptake
What type of receptor is primarily responsible for generating information regarding stereognosis, vibration and 2 point discrimination? -deep sensory receptors -mechanoreceptors -nociceptors -thermoreceptors
-mechanoreceptors
Which of the following school based activities would be the most challenging for a child with dyspraxia? -maintaining upright sitting posture in a classroom chair -negotiating a crowded hallway b/w classrooms -opened and closing a locker -writing their name
-negotiating a crowded hallway b/w classrooms
The most appropriate intervention to assist a pt with ADLs who's ankle DF and eversion are MMT at 2/5? -electrical stimulation -orthosis -exercise program -aquatic program
-orthosis
Which of the following techniques would be the most effective when assisting a pt with a pulmonary pathology to complete a selected activity without dyspnea? -diaphragmatic breathing -pacing -pursed lip breathing -ventilatory muscle training
-pacing
What is the preferred method to initially teach a child with T10 spina bifida how to maintain standing? -bilateral hip knee ankle foot orthoses (HKAFO) and forearm crutches -parapodium and the parallel bars -bilateral knee ankle foot orthoses (KAFO) and the parallel bars -bilateral ankle foot orthoses (AFO) and the parallel bars
-parapodium and the parallel bars
Where would a PT assess the integrity of the L4 spinal level reflex? -lateral hamstrings reflex -medial hamstrings reflex -patellar reflex -Achilles reflex
-patellar reflex= L3-L4 spinal level -lateral hamstrings reflex= S1-S2 spinal level -medial hamstrings reflex= L5-S1 spinal level -Achilles reflex=S1-S2 spinal level
A pt following a THA using a posterolateral surgical approach experiences hip instability. Which finding would best explain the reason for the instability? -trabecular bone erosion -femoral nerve paralysis -posterior capsule damage -hip abductor weakness
-posterior capsule damage
Which joint mobilization technique would be used to increase carpometacarpal abduction? -medial glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium -lateral glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium -anterior glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium -posterior glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium
-posterior glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium =used to increase carpometacarpal abduction (vex/cave) -medial glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium =used to increase carpometacarpal flexion (cave/vex) -lateral glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium =used to increase carpometacarpal extension (cave/vex) -anterior glide of the 1st MCP on the trapezium =used to increase carpometacarpal adduction (vex/cave)
Which grading system is most appropriate when recording the obtained results of superficial reflexes? -present, absent -ordinal scale from 0-4+ -hypoactive, normal, hyperactive -zero, trace, poor, fair, good normal
-present, absent -ordinal scale from 0-4+ =scale of deep tendon reflexes -hypoactive, normal, hyperactive =describe relative responses of DTRs -zero, trace, poor, fair, good normal =manual muscle testing scale
A PT examines a pt with a suspected lesion of the common fibular nerve. Which objective finding would be the most useful to rule out the possibility of a sciatic nerve lesion? -inability to actively DF the foot -preservation of the Achilles reflex -presence of a steppage gait -weakness of the quadriceps mm
-preservation of the Achilles reflex
What is the primary purpose of phenobarbital? -decrease agitation -prevent seizures -reduce spasticity -limit arrhythmias
-prevent seizures
The defining characteristic of a first degree atrioventricular heart block is? -inverted T wave -prolonged PR interval -bizarre QRS complex -ST segment depression
-prolonged PR interval
The most appropriate activity to incorporate into a HEP with a pt who presents with a 10 deg hip flexion contracture? -prone lying -progressive relaxation exercises -lower extremity resistive exercises with ankle weights -postural awareness in standing
-prone lying
The most appropriate method to assess clonus is? -provide a quick stretch to the PFs -provide a quick stretch to the DFs -provide a quick stretch to the PFs while extending the knee -proved a quick stretch to the DFs while extending the knee
-provide a quick stretch to the PFs- clonus is assessed with the knee slightly flexed
Which of the following is an acceptable rationale as to why a pt who is 4 s/p ACL reconstruction is still PWB? -pt does not have full active knee extension -pt has good quadriceps strength -pt has fair hamstrings strength -pt has diminished superficial cutaneous sensation
-pt does not have full active knee extension
Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for a patient with a platelet count of 25,000 cells/mm^3? -log roll training and breathing exercises -progressive resistive exercises and infection control -bicycling and lower extremity stretching -pt edu on fall prevention and progressive ambulation
-pt edu on fall prevention and progressive ambulation =normal platelet counts are 150,000-400,000 cells/mm^3, when levels fall below 20,000 serious bleeding can occur and pts should be aware of dangerous activities
Which technique would be the most beneficial when treating muscle abnormalities in a child with Down Syndrome? -quick stretch -deep pressure -prolonged icing -neutral warmth
-quick stretch =providing a quick stretch to a muscle helps activate muscles spindles and results in enhanced muscular contraction. For pts with low tone, this technique may help facilitate increased activity in affected muscles
The most appropriate PT action when they notice a recently applied bivalved cast is causing the pt's toes to turn blue? -d/c the use of the anterior portion of the cast -contact the staff nurse and request that the cast is removed -refer the pt to an orthotist -remove the cast
-remove the cast =a PT possesses the requisite skills and training to remove the bivalved cast
A pt receiving PT services in an outpatient clinic explains that he has felt nauseous since having his methotrexate medication level altered. The most appropriate PT action is to? -explain to the pt that nausea is very common when altering medication levels -ask the pt to stop taking the prescribed medication -request that the pt make an appointment with the physician -request that the pt contact the physician's office
-request that the pt contact the physician's office
The most appropriate patient position to initiate treatment of a weak diaphragm is? -prone -supine -Trendelenburg -reverse Trendelenburg
-reverse Trendelenburg-uses gravity to reduce hypertension and facilitate movement of the diaphragm by using gravity to reduce the weight of the abdominal contents on the diaphragm
Which of the following would be the most likely graft site of an autograft for a hamstring ACL repair? -semitendinosus and semimembranosus -semitendinosus and gracilis -semimembranosus and gracilis -semitendinosus and biceps femoris
-semitendinosus and gracilis =commonly used together as a graft for ACNL reconstruction, the grafts results in decreased incidence of post operative patellofemoral knee pain, however, provide weaker initial fixation, the gracilis functions a hip adductor and is innervated by the obturator nerve (L2-L4)
Which measure of validity examines the instrument's ability to identify diseased persons by comparing true positives? -adaptability -selectivity -sensitivity -specificity
-sensitivity= measure of the validity of a screening test, based on the probability that the screening test will be positive in someone with the disease or target condition -adaptability -selectivity -specificity= measure of the validity of a screening test, based on the probability that the screening test will be negative in someone who does not have the disease or target condition
Which objective finding would be consistent with a thoracodorsal nerve injury? -shoulder medial rotation weakness -shoulder extension weakness -paralysis of the rhomboids -paralysis of the diaphragm
-shoulder extension weakness
Which objective finding in a pt with PAD would most severely limit the pt's ability to participate in an ambulation exercise program? -signs of resting claudication -decreased peripheral pulses -cool skin -blood pressure of 165/90
-signs of resting claudication =claudication pain is a symptom of ischemia of the LE muscles caused by peripheral arterial disease. Resting claudication pain is typically considered a contraindication to exercise with PAD and may be an indication that the disease process is more advanced
The most immediate action to address a pt suffering from autonomic dysreflexia is? -elevate the pt's legs -call for assistance -sit the pt upright -check the urinary drainage system
-sit the pt upright
Which the following findings would be most likely in a pt s/p right CVA who demo's pusher syndrome? -sitting with increased lean to the left along with increased weight bearing through the left buttocks -sitting with increased lean to the right along with increased weight bearing through the right buttocks -sitting with increased weight bearing through the right buttocks and the head rotated to the right, unresponsive to stimuli on the left -sitting with unequal weight bearing and the head rotated to the left, unresponsive to stimuli on the right
-sitting with increased lean to the left along with increased weight bearing through the left buttocks =pusher syndrome is characterized by a significant lateral deviation to the side of the hemiplegia
What pattern of activity would be required to maintain an upright posture when weight is shifted forward in sitting position? -spinal extension resulting from concentric contraction of the spinal extensors -spinal flexion resulting from concentric contraction of the spinal flexors -spinal extension resulting from eccentric contraction of the spinal extensors -spinal flexion resulting from eccentric contraction of the spinal flexors
-spinal extension resulting from concentric contraction of the spinal extensors
Recommendations from a PT for a child diagnosed with cerebral palsy classified at Level V using the Gross Motor Function Classification System most likely include? -orthoses and assistive devices for community ambulation -orthoses and assistive devices for household ambulation -standing frame and orthoses and/or ADs for household ambulation -standing frame and w/c for community ambulation
-standing frame and w/c for community ambulation =standing frame is an appropriate recommendation to facilitate WB and hip flexor stretching, a child classified at Level V will most likely use a w/c for both home and community mobility -orthoses and assistive devices for community ambulation =community ambulation not likely for a child at Level V, children at Levels I and II would be more likely to effectively ambulate in community with orthoses and/ or ADs -orthoses and assistive devices for household ambulation =household ambulation not likely for a child at Level V, children at levels III and IV would be more likely to have some ability in the home, but would primarily use a w/c for community mobility -standing frame and orthoses and/or ADs for household ambulation =household ambulation not likely for a child at Level V
When applying a topical antibiotic, the PT should utilize which form of medical asepsis? -gloves -sterile gloves -sterile gloves, gown -sterile gloves, gown, mask
-sterile gloves
Which stimulus would be the most appropriate when assessing Hoffman's reflex? -tapping the nail of the middle finger -stroking the inner thigh -stroking the plantar aspect of the foot -rapidly dorsiflexing the foot
-tapping the nail of the middle finger
What is the most logical explanation for a firm end feel of wrist extension? -tension in the dorsal radiocarpal ligament and the dorsal joint capsule -contact b/w the ulna and the carpal bones -contact b/w the radius and the carpal bones -tension in the palmar radiocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule
-tension in the palmar radiocarpal ligament and the palmar joint capsule
When administering the Romberg test it would be most important for the PT to determine? -the width of the BOS necessary in order to maintain standing -the amount of time the pt is able to maintain the test position -the amount of sway present during the testing period -the complexity of tasks the pt is able to perform with EO and EC
-the amount of sway present during the testing period
Which finding would best dispute a pt's claim of complete paresis of the R LE during a rapid SLR of the L LE? -the pt is unable to lift their L heel from the PT's hand -the pt experiences radiating pain into the R LE -the pt exerts a downward force into the PT's hand with their R heel -the pt reports severe pain while performing the SLR
-the pt exerts a downward force into the PT's hand with their R heel
A 36 year old patient is referred to physical therapy after having back pain 2 weeks ago. The pt indentifies a majority of pain in the buttock and lateral thigh and denies any referred pain down the posterior leg. Presently she rates the pain as a 3 but indicates that the pain is a 6-7 during activity or at night. This description most closely resembles? -sacroiliitis -iliolumbar syndrome -piriformis syndrome -trochanteric bursitis
-trochanteric bursitis
A yellow discoloration of a pt's skin and sclera of the eye would least likely be observed with? -cholecystitis -ulcerative colitis -pancreatitis -hepatitis
-ulcerative colitis =jaundice is not associated with this, s/s of ulcerative colitis are: rectal bleeding, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fever
A pt communicates that he misses visits because he has difficulty understanding the scheduling card. What is the PT's most appropriate action? -contact the referring physician to discuss the pt's poor attendance in therapy -make sure the pt is given a scheduling card at the conclusion of each session -write down the pt's appointments on a piece of paper in a manner the pt can understand -discharge the pt from physical therapy
-write down the pt's appointments on a piece of paper in a manner the pt can understand
A PT determines that a pt's cadence is 120 steps per minute. How long would it take the pt to complete 120 full strides? 30 seconds 60 120 240
120 seconds- 2 steps= 1 stride
The duty cycle of an US treatment with 2 msec on and 8 msec off should be recorded as? 10% 20% 25% 50%
20%
What percentage is one standard deviation above the mean? 14% 34% 48% 68%
34%
At what age should an infant begin to sit with hand support for an extended period of time? 6-7 months 8-9 months 10-11 months 12-15 months
6-7 months
The normal degree of toe out during free speed walking for a male pt is? 3 degrees 7 14 21
7 degrees
What is a skin graft using cadaver skin termed? allograft autograft heterograft xenograft
allograft autograft- pt's own body heterograft- temporary skin graft taken from another species xenograft- synonymous with the term heterograft
What is the most likely organ causing visceral referral pain to the TMJ? heart liver diaphragm pancreas
heart- can refer to shoulder, neck, upper back and TMJ liver- shoulder, midthoracic, low back diaphragm- shoulder or lumbar spine pancreas- shoulder, midthoracic, or low back
The most appropriate timeframe for long term goals of an Individualized Educational Plan for a child? one month four months six months one year
one year
What pathology is treated using viscosupplementation? arrhythmias bursitis osteoarthritis spasticity
osteoarthritis
Which of the following measures would be the most valuable to collect in regards to a pt who is susceptible to heat illness? -height -weight -percent body fat -vital capacity
percent body fat
After 15 min of training a pt with a PTB prosthesis has multiple areas of redness on the residual limb. What area of redness would be the greatest concern? patellar tendon fibular shaft gastrocnemius muscle distal anterior tibia
distal anterior tibia
Which area of a pt's body would experience the most hydrostatic pressure when standing in the deep end of a pool? shoulders torso hips feet
feet
The most appropriate activity to promote strengthening of the hip extensors but the pt can't perform bridging is? anterior pelvic tilts heel slids straight leg raises isometric gluteal sets
isometric gluteal sets
A pt demos a significant loss of strength when trying to grasp a cup but not a pencil. This scenario is consistent with a pathology affecting the? median nerve suprascapular nerve musculocutaneous nerve ulnar nerve
ulnar nerve
