NURS 329 Midterm

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about rifampin therapy? Select all the apply A.Oral contraceptives are not effective when used with rifampin therapy. B.You may notice the color of your body fluids changes to reddish orange. C.Rifampin is safe to use in patients who have hepatic disease. D.Rifampin may only be taken orally.

A and B

Which instructions will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cephalosporin therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. "Notify your healthcare provider if you develop diarrhea." B. "Take aspirin if you develop a headache." C. "Notify your healthcare provider if you develop a rash." D. "Cephalosporins may not be taken with food." E. "Do not take cephalosporins if you have lactose intolerance."

A and C

Which of the following types of penicillin can be given intravenously (IV)? A) Potassium penicillin B) Procaine penicillin C) Benzathine penicillin D) Sodium penicillin

A and D

A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to: (Select all that apply) A) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water a day B) Eat foods that are high in potassium C) Take the medication with food D) Take folic acid supplements E) Stay out of the sun

A and E Rationale: Crystalluria and photosensitivity are adverse effects of Bactrim

Peak levels of aminoglycosides ordered every 6 hours should be drawn when? A) 30 min to 1 hour after the dose is completed B) 2-3 hours after the dose is completed C) 4 hours after the dose is completed D) 6 hours after the dose is completed

A) 30 min to 1 hour after the dose is completed

In order for Penicillin to work, which of the following must happen? A) Must bind to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PCB'S) B) Must block the receptor sites of Penicillin Binding Proteins (PCB'S) C) Inhibit the breakdown of the cell wall D) Must activate beta lactamase to work

A) Must bind to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PCB'S)

The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin [Amoxil] and not ampicillin. What will the nurse tell the parent? A)Amoxicillin works on a broader spectrum of bacteria than ampicillin. B) Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases. C) Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions. D) Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin

A)Amoxicillin works on a broader spectrum of bacteria than ampicillin.

A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed erythromycin ethylsuccinate 250mg every 6 hours. The medication administration record has the medication scheduled at 0600, 1200, 1800, and 2400. On the 2nd day of therapy, the patient complaints that he does not like taking the drug because it causes heartburn. What would be an appropriate intervention by the nurse? A. Administer the drug with food. B. Change the timing of the drug so that most doses are administered with meals. C. Explain that taking the drug with food or antacids will prevent absorption of the drug. D. Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber.

A. Administer the drug with food. Rationale: Erythromycin absorption is not affected by food

A patient is receiving penicillin G [Bicillin C-R]. Which assessment should the nurse monitor as an indicator of an undesired effect? A. Cardiac rhythm B. Serum sodium level C. Lung sounds D. Red blood cell (RBC) count

A. Cardiac rhythm

Both IV ampicillin/sulbactam [Unasyn] and gentamicin are ordered for a patient. When administering these medications, the nurse will do what? A. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used. B. Use two different peripheral IV sites. C. Administer the gentamicin first. D. There are no necessary precautions.

A. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used.

Which statement about allergic reactions to penicillin does the nurse identify as true? A.Anaphylactic reactions occur more frequently with penicillins than with any other drug. B.Allergy to penicillin always increases over time. C.Benadryl is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis due to penicillin allergy. D.Patients allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin.

A.Anaphylactic reactions occur more frequently with penicillins than with any other drug. Rationale: Anaphylactic reactions occur more frequently with penicillins than with any other drug. Allergy to penicillin can decrease over time. Epinephrine is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis. Vancomycin, erythromycin, and clindamycin are effective and safe alternatives for patients with penicillin allergy.

A nurse administered a PRN dose of Maalox to a pt at 07:30. The pt has a scheduled dose of PO tetracycline at 8:00 what should the RN do? A.Hold the tetracycline until 09:30 B.Contact HCP to get alternate antibiotic C.Administer the tetracycline as ordered D.Skip the 08:00 dose of tetracycline and resume treatment with the next scheduled dose

A.Hold the tetracycline until 09:30

A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient? A) Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin [Vancocin], to the patient's regimen B) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole [Flagyl] C) Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement D) Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures

B) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole [Flagyl]

When performing a skin test for penicillin allergy, the nurse will do what? (Select all that apply.) A. Inject a tiny amount of the allergen subcutaneously. B. Observe for a local allergic response. C. Have epinephrine readily available. D. Have respiratory support readily available. E. Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl] as the first-line agent should anaphylaxis occur.

B, C, and D

Which instructions should a nurse provide to a patient who is to start taking amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]? A. "Take Augmentin once per day and only at bedtime." B. "Augmentin may be taken with food or meals." C. "Avoid taking Augmentin with grapefruit juice." D. "Use a minimal amount of liquid to swallow the Augmentin."

B. "Augmentin may be taken with food or meals."

A patient is to be started on TB therapy with rifampin. Which of these statements by the patient would indicate the patient needs further teaching? A. "I should contact my ophthalmologist regarding use of my contact lens." B. "I should contact my prescriber if I experience reddish-orange colored urine." C. "My oral contraceptive birth control may not work." D. "This drug can stain my contact lens."

B. "I should contact my prescriber if I experience reddish-orange colored urine."

Which instruction should a nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient who is to start taking tetracycline? A. "You may stop taking the pills when you begin to feel better." B. "Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors." C. "You'll have to come back to the clinic for a weekly blood work." D. "Take the medication with yogurt or milk so you won't have nausea."

B. "Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors."

Before administering intravenous (IV) penicillin, the nurse should do what? A. Flush the IV site with normal saline. B. Assess the patient for allergies. C. Review the patient's intake and output record. D. Determine the latest creatinine clearance result.

B. Assess the patient for allergies.

A patient with a history of a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin has an order to receive cephalosporin. What should the nurse do? A. Administer the cephalosporin as ordered. B. Contact the health care provider for a different antibiotic. C. Administer a test dose of cephalosporin to determine reactivity. D. Have an epinephrine dose available when administering the cephalosporin.

B. Contact the health care provider for a different antibiotic. Rationale: A few patients with penicillin allergy (about 1%) display cross-sensitivity to cephalosporins. If at all possible, patients with penicillin allergy should not be treated with any member of the penicillin family. Use of cephalosporins depends on the intensity of the allergic response to penicillin; if the penicillin allergy is mild, use of cephalosporins is probably safe. However, if the allergy is severe, cephalosporins should be avoided.

Which of these assessment findings, if identified in a patient who is receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), should the nurse report to the prescriber immediately? A. Brown colored urine B. Dyspnea C. Nausea D. Headache

B. Dyspnea

A patient is prescribed erythromycin. What is one reason why careful review of all drugs this patient is prescribed is important? A. Erythromycin's action is prevented by clindamycin B. Erythromycin can increase levels of warfarin and cause bleeding C. Erythromycin becomes ineffective because metabolism is increased by nondihydropyridine CCB D. Erythromycin prevents the absorption of -azole antifungals.

B. Erythromycin can increase levels of warfarin and cause bleeding

What is the priority reason why the nurse teaches a patient who is prescribed sulfamethoxazole to take this medication with a full glass of water? A. Decrease the risk of esophageal irritation B. Minimize crystal formation in the urine C. Prevent nausea D. Stimulate frequent voiding

B. Minimize crystal formation in the urine

A patient is prescribed cefixime. The nurse should teach the patient to immediately report any signs of what? A. Milk intolerance B. Skin rash, hives, or itching C. Constipation, nausea, or vomiting D. Headache, contusions, or seizures

B. Skin rash, hives, or itching Rationale: Hypersensitivity reactions are common with cephalosporins. Patients should be instructed to report any signs of allergy, such as skin rash, itching, or hives. Cefditoren contains a milk protein and should not be prescribed for patients with a milk protein allergy. Cefoperazone and cefotetan can promote bleeding. Diarrhea associated with antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (AAPMC) is a possible side effect with cephalosporins.

Because of the risk of hyperkalemia when prescribed trimethoprim, it is a priority for the nurse to teach the patient to report what symptoms? A. Bruising B. Weakness C. Pallor D. Sore throat

B. Weakness

Your patient has syphilis. He states he has a mild allergy to PCN, what medication would you anticipate being ordered for him? A.Amoxicillin B.Tetracycline C.Bactrim D.Cephalosporin

B.Tetracycline

A patient has been prescribed oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a skin infection. When administering the medication, it is most important for the nurse to do what? A.Monitor for a decrease in the prothrombin time (PT) if the patient is also taking warfarin [Coumadin] B.Withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before or 2 hours afterward C.Inform the healthcare provider if the patient has a history of asthma D.Assess the skin for Stevens-Johnson syndrome

B.Withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before or 2 hours afterward

Your patient has intermittent colitis. Which antibiotic is contraindicated for use in this patient? A. Erythromycin B. Doxycycline C. Clindamycin D. Azithromycin

C. Clindamycin

If someone is allergic to PCN which other antibiotic might they also be allergic to? A) Carpapenem B) Gentamicin C) Cephalosporins D) Azithromycin

C) Cephalosporins

A patient who is receiving a final dose of intravenous (IV) cephalosporin begins to complain of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes signs of redness at the IV insertion site and along the vein. What is the nurse's priority action? A) Apply warm packs to the arm and infuse the medication at a slower rate. B) Continue the infusion while elevating the arm. C) Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly D) Request central venous access.

C) Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly

If you have a patient receiving IV Clindamycin and they develop hypotension and ECG changes, what would you do? A) Continue monitoring the patient closely B) Transfer Pt to ICU C) Stop the drug D) Slow the rate of administration

C) Stop the drug

Which medications are most appropriate to administer to a patient with a C.diff infection? Select all that apply. A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B. Loperamide C. Metronidazole (Flagyl) D. Vancomycin E. Fidamoxicin (Dificid)

C, D, and E

It would be a priority to monitor which laboratory test when a patient is prescribed linezolid (Zyvox)? A. AST and ALT B. BUN C. CBC and differential D. Fasting blood glucose

C. CBC and differential Rationale: Linezolid can cause reversible myelosuppression, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, or pancytopenia. CBC should be done weekly!

What is a benefit of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) over using the two drugs components alone? A. Lack of interaction with drugs that have a narrow therapeutic range B. Fewer adverse effects C. Less resistance has developed D. Lower incidence of toxicity

C. Less resistance has developed

The nurse is assessing for adverse effects of IV gentamycin. Which change would be a priority to report to the prescriber? A. Dilute urine B. Headache C. Limp, weak muscles D. Ringing in the ears

C. Limp, weak muscles Rationale: Aminoglycosides can inhibit neuromuscular transmission, causing flaccid paralysis and potentially fatal respiratory depression. Most episode of nm blockade have occurred following intraperitoneal or intrapleural instillation (not common!!), however, nm blockade has also occurred with IV, IM ,and PO dosing.

A patient who is receiving ceftriaxone has all of these medications ordered. The nurse monitors the patient for an adverse effect related to an interaction with which medication? A. Regular insulin B. Ampicillin [Polycillin] C. Naproxen [Naprosyn] D. Bisacodyl [Dulcolax]

C. Naproxen [Naprosyn]

A nurse observes a red streak and palpates the vein as hard and cordlike at the intravenous (IV) site of a patient receiving cefepime [Maxipime]. Which assessment should the nurse make about the IV site? A. An allergic reaction has developed to the drug solution. B. The drug has infiltrated the extravascular tissues. C. Phlebitis of the vein used for the antibiotic has developed. D. Local infection from bacterial contamination has occurred.

C. Phlebitis of the vein used for the antibiotic has developed.

A patient is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse identifies what as the most common toxic effect of vancomycin therapy? A. Ototoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Renal toxicity D. Cardiac toxicity

C. Renal toxicity

Because of the risk of prolonged QT interval and torsades de pointes, the nurse would consult the prescriber before administering erythromycin to a patient who has experienced A. frequent headaches B. nausea C. unexplained fainting D. wheezing

C. unexplained fainting

A patient who takes warfarin has been prescribed sulfadiazine. When teaching the patient about this drug, which statement will the nurse include? A."If you become pregnant, it is safe to take sulfadiazine." B."You should limit your fluid intake while taking sulfadiazine." C."Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight, wear protective clothing, and apply a sunscreen to exposed skin." D."You will most likely need to have an increase in the dose of warfarin while taking sulfadiazine."

C."Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight, wear protective clothing, and apply a sunscreen to exposed skin."

Which patient does the nurse identify as most likely to need treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim] for a period of 6 months? A.A female patient with acute pyelonephritis B.A male patient with acute prostatitis C.A female patient with recurring acute urinary tract infections D.A male patient with acute cystitis

C.A female patient with recurring acute urinary tract infections

A patient is prescribed metronidazole [Flagyl] to treat giardiasis. It is most important for the nurse to teach the patient that while taking this medication, which of the following should be avoided? A.Acetaminophen [Tylenol] B.Milk and dairy products C.Alcoholic beverages D.Sun exposure

C.Alcoholic beverages

Your patient has intermittent colitis. What antibiotic is contraindicated for use in this patient? A.Erythromycin B.Doxycline C.Clindamycin D.Azithromycin

C.Clindamycin

Prior to administering Vancomycin, the nurse should assess which of the following laboratory values? A) Hemoglobin & Hematocrit B) Prothrombin time C) Albumin and Glucose D) BUN & Creatinine

D) BUN & Creatinine

What is the preferred schedule for administering IV Gentamycin A) every 6 hours B) every 8 hours C) every 12 hours D) every 24 hours

D) every 24 hours

A patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin] IV for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection asks a nurse, "Why can't I take this medicine in a pill?" Which response should the nurse make? A. "The prescription could be changed, because vancomycin comes in two forms." B. "You're allergic to penicillin, and this is the only way this medication can be given." C. "It will cause too much loss of appetite and nausea if given in the oral form." D. "It is more effective by IV, because the pill form will stay in the digestive tract."

D. "It is more effective by IV, because the pill form will stay in the digestive tract."

Thirty minutes after receiving an intramuscular (IM) injection of penicillin G [Pfizerpen], a patient reports itching and redness at the injection site. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Elevate the lower legs. B. Place an ice pack on the site. C. Make sure the patient stays calm. D. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.

D. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.

It is most important for the nurse to assess a patient receiving a cephalosporin for the development of which manifestation of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (AAPMC)? A. Rigidity B. Ileus C. Ascites D. Diarrhea

D. Diarrhea

A nurse assessing a patient who is 12 years old should associate which complication with the patient's receiving tetracycline as a younger child? A. Delay in long bone growth B. Early onset of puberty C. Severe face and body acne D. Discoloration of the teeth

D. Discoloration of the teeth

Which INR result would be a reason to contact the prescriber in a patient with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin who has also been prescribed a sulfonamide? A. INR 2 B. INR 2.5 C. INR 3 D. INR 3.5

D. INR 3.5

A prescriber states that a patient will need to receive penicillin intravenously. The nurse anticipates administering which drug? A. Penicillin V B. Procaine penicillin G C. Benzathine penicillin G D. Potassium penicillin G

D. Potassium penicillin G

A patient is prescribed a tetracycline antibiotic. Which patient information is a reason for the medication to be withheld by the nurse and the prescriber consulted? A. Patient has an allergy to penicillin B. Patent is a 12-year-old child. C. Theophylline for asthma is also prescribed. D. Pregnancy status of patient is unknown.

D. Pregnancy status of patient is unknown.

An HIV-infected patient who is receiving drug therapy, including delaviridine (Rescriptor) and saquinavir, is diagnosed with an active TB infection. Because of the drug interaction that decreases the effect of these drugs for HIV infection, this patient should not be prescribed which drug? A. Ethambutol B. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide D. Rifampin

D. Rifampin

Which type of rash would most likely indicate the start of Stevens-Johnson syndrome when a patient is receiving sulfonamides? A. Amber-colored, crusty rash on the cheeks B. Papular rash on the shoulders C. Pruritic rash on the lower arms D. Vesicular rash in the mouth

D. Vesicular rash in the mouth

A patient is prescribed cefazolin. It is most important for the nurse to teach the patient to avoid which substance while taking cefazolin? A. Warfarin B. Milk products C. Digitalis D.Alcohol

D.Alcohol Rationale: Cefazolin and cefotetan can cause alcohol intolerance. A serious disulfiram-like reaction may occur if alcohol is consumed. Inform patients about alcohol intolerance and warn them not to drink alcoholic beverages.

A nursing student asks a nurse why tuberculosis resistance is so high. Which reasons are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Many regions don't have enough drug supply b. Adherence to drug regime is erratic c. Drug doses are often too low d. Some TB drugs are bacteriostatic e. Many hosts are immunocompromised

a, b, and c

A patient is receiving tobramycin 3 times daily. The provider has ordered a trough level with the 8:00 AM dose. The nurse will ensure that the level is drawn at what time? a. 0745 b. 0800 c. 0830 d. 0900

a. 0745

For a patient prescribed Bactrim, What s/s you would advise her to report? a. Rash b. edema c. hair loss d. constipation

a. Rash Rationale: Rash related to Steven's Johnson Syndrome

A patient is receiving IV furosemide (Lasix) when Vancomycin (Vanocin) is added to her medication profile. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse advise to report immediately? a. Urinary Urgency b. Tinnitus c. Diarrhea d. Chills

b. Tinnitus

Lab values that you would monitor on cephalosporins include a. blood glucose b. creatinine kinase c. INR d. AST

c. INR

A patient with HIV who takes protease inhibitors develops tuberculosis and will begin treatment. Which drug regimen will be used for this patient? a. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol b. Isoniazid + rifabutin c. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol + rifabutin d. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

c. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol + rifabutin

You are administering Ampho B over 2-3 hours as ordered. All of a sudden, your patient develops this uncontrolled shaking. What medication would you anticipate giving for this condition? a. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV b. Lorazepam (Ativan) IM c. Vecuronium (Norcuron) IV d. Dantrolene (Dantrium) IV

d. Dantrolene (Dantrium) IV

Prior to administering a Macrolide antibiotic, the provider may order a. Blood glucose monitoring b. pulse ox c. weight d. EKG

d. EKG

A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor ____ levels a. Serum drug b. Trough c. Peak d. Peak & Trough

d. Peak & Trough

Trimethoprim can lead to neural tube defects due to its MOA a. inhibit DNA synthesis b. inhibit RNA synthese c. bind to 50s ribosomal subunit d. inhibit folic acid synthesis

d. inhibit folic acid synthesis

Which statements about vancomycin [Vancocin] does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Vancomycin is the most widely used antibiotic in U.S. hospitals. B. Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of Clostridium difficile infection. C. Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of MRSA infections. D. Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin. E. The major toxicity of vancomycin therapy is liver failure.

A, B, and C

The nurse identifies which statements about penicillins as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Penicillins are the safest antibiotics available. B. The principal adverse effect of penicillins is allergic reaction. C. A patient who is allergic to penicillin always has a cross-allergy to cephalosporins. D. A patient who is allergic to penicillin is also allergic to vancomycin, erythromycin, and clindamycin. E. Penicillins are normally eliminated rapidly by the kidneys but can accumulate to harmful levels if renal function is severely impaired.

A, B, and E

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). When taking the patient's history, a nurse recognizes which information as the most important? A. Plays a contact sport and is an athlete B. Currently resides in a long-term care facility C. Did not complete the last course of antibiotics D. Had gallbladder surgery in the previous month

A. Plays a contact sport and is an athlete

A patient develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during an IV infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]. Which action should a nurse take? A. Reduce the infusion rate. B. Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. C. Change the IV tubing. D. Check the patency of the IV.

A. Reduce the infusion rate.

When ceftriaxone is administered intravenously, it is most important for the nurse to avoid mixing it with what? A. Ringer's lactate B. Normal saline C. Sterile water D. D5 0.45% NS

A. Ringer's lactate

A nurse should teach a patient to observe for which side effects when taking ampicillin? A. Skin rash and loose stools B. Reddened tongue and gums C. Digit numbness and tingling D. Bruising and petechiae

A. Skin rash and loose stools

A patient who has a vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) infection is receiving linezolid [Zyvox]. Which laboratory result indicates that the patient is having an adverse effect? A. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1200 units/L B. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 18 g/dL C. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/dL D. Glucose level of 200 mg/dL

A. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1200 units/L

Your patient has an infected pressure ulcer. The wound culture reveals a vancomycin-resistant staph. Which medication would you expect to be ordered? A.Tetracycline B.Clindamycin C.Chloramphenicol D.Linezolid (Zyvox)

D.Linezolid (Zyvox)

A patient is prescribed cefazolin. It is most important for the nurse to teach the patient to avoid which substance while taking cefazolin? A.Phenytoin B.Milk products C.Digitalis D.Alcohol

D.Alcohol Rationale: Cefazolin and cefotetan can cause alcohol intolerance. A serious disulfiram-like reaction may occur if alcohol is consumed. Inform patients about alcohol intolerance and warn them not to drink alcoholic beverages.

A patient with a history of PVD, T2DM, and latent TB is prescribed isoniazid and pyridoxine. What is the purpose of the pyridoxine? A. Improve arterial blood flow B. Prevent hypoglycemia C. Prevent peripheral neuropathy D. Treat resting mycobacteria within cells

C. Prevent peripheral neuropathy

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about isoniazid (INH) therapy? A.Tubercle bacilli cannot develop resistance to isoniazid during treatment. B.Isoniazid is administered intravenously. C.An adverse effect of isoniazid therapy is peripheral neuropathy, which can be reversed with pyridoxine. D.The dose of isoniazid should be lowered if the patient is also taking phenytoin.

C.An adverse effect of isoniazid therapy is peripheral neuropathy, which can be reversed with pyridoxine.

A nurse is caring for a patient in an acute care setting who was admitted with a cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) infection caused by a highly gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporin IV antibiotics should the nurse expect to be effective in treating this infection? A.Cefaclor (Ceclor)—2nd generation B.Cefazolin (Ancef)—1st generation C.Ceftazidime (Fortaz)—3rd generation D.Cephalexin (Keflex)—1st generation

C.Ceftazidime (Fortaz)—3rd generation

Which lab value would contraindicate the use of tetracycline to treat an infection? A.Potassium 3.4 mEq/L B.WBC 20,000 C.Creatinine 2.8 mg/dl D.Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dl

C.Creatinine 2.8 mg/dl

A patient is prescribed doxycycline [Vibramycin]. If the patient complains of gastric irritation, what should the nurse do? A.Instruct the patient to take the medication with milk B.Tell the patient to take an antacid with the medication C.Give the patient food, such as crackers or toast, with the medication D.Have the patient stop the medication immediately and contact the health care provider

C.Give the patient food, such as crackers or toast, with the medication Rationale: Tetracyclines form insoluble chelates with calcium, iron, magnesium, aluminum, and zinc; absorption is decreased. Tetracyclines should not be administered together with milk or antacids. Long-acting tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, may be taken with food; food does not affect absorption.

Fluoroquinolones should be discontinued immediately if what happens? A.Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is experienced. B.Dizziness, headache, or confusion occurs. C.Tendon pain or inflammation develops. D.Theophylline is prescribed for asthma.

C.Tendon pain or inflammation develops.

A prescriber's orders for a new admission include urine culture and sensitivity and ciprofloxacin 400mg intravenously (IV) every 12 hours. What is a priority nursing responsibility? A. Calculate the drip rate for the IV infusion. B. Flush the IV C. Mix the antibiotic in the correct IV solution D. Obtain the urine culture specimen before administering the antibiotic

D. Obtain the urine culture specimen before administering the antibiotic

A patient is prescribed vancomycin orally for antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis. The nurse will monitor the patient for what? A. Leukopenia B. "Red man" syndrome C. Liver impairment D. Ototoxicity

D. Ototoxicity Rationale: The most serious adverse effect of vancomycin is ototoxicity. "Red man" syndrome occurs only with rapid intravenous administration. Thrombocytopenia is an adverse effect of vancomycin.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous gentamicin for a severe bacterial infection. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of gentamicin therapy? A.Blurred vision B.Hand tremors C.Urinary frequency D.Tinnitus

D.Tinnitus

A patient who was taking sulfonamides develops Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Upon assessment, the nurse expects to find what? A.Hypotension B.Bronchospasm C.Temperature of 35.5º C D.Widespread skin lesions

D.Widespread skin lesions

A pregnant adolescent patient asks the nurse whether she should continue to take her prescription for tetracycline ​[Sumycin] to clear up her acne. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Tetracycline can be harmful to the baby's teeth and should be avoided." b. "Tetracycline is safe to take during pregnancy." c. "Tetracycline may cause allergic reactions in pregnant women." d. "Tetracycline will prevent asymptomatic urinary tract infections."

a. "Tetracycline can be harmful to the baby's teeth and should be avoided."

A patient is beginning treatment for active tuberculosis (TB) in a region with little drug-resistant TB. Which treatment regimen will be used initially? a. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol b. Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol c. Isoniazid and pyrazinamide d. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

a. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin ​[Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing facial flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with a. Red neck syndrome b. Steven Johnsons Syndrome c. Rhabdomyolysis d. An allergic reaction

a. Red neck syndrome

A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer." b. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation." c. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid." d. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."

b. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation."

Which of the following are true statements about Pyridium? a. You need a prescription for it b. It provides analgesia c. It is an antibiotic at high doses and kills bacteria d. It turns your urine yellow

b. It provides analgesia

This antibiotic drug class is avoid in patients taking meds that may also prolong QT. a. Serotonin Receptor Antagoinsts b. Macrolides c. Tetracyclines d. Sulonamides

b. Macrolides

A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin ​[Rifadin]. What would be an expected finding? a. Crystallluria b. Red-orange-tinged urine c. Myopathy d. Peripheral Neuropathy

b. Red-orange-tinged urine

At what point is the patient most likely to experience fever, chills, rigors, nausea, and headache when receiving amphotericin B? a. Immediately after infusion begins b. 20-30 min after infusion begins c. 1-3 hours after infusion begins d. 3-6 hours after infusion begins

c. 1-3 hours after infusion begins

How is Azithromycin (Zithromax) administered PO? a. 1 tablet daily for 5 days b. 1 tablet daily for 7 days c. 2 tablets the first day, then 1 tablet the remaining 4 days d. 3 tablets the first day, 2 tablets the second day, then 1 tablet the remaining 2 days.

c. 2 tablets the first day, then 1 tablet the remaining 4 days

A patient is receiving amphotericin B to treat a systemic fungal infection. To prevent renal damage, it is most important for the nurse to do what? a. Administer the medication through a central venous access device b. Administer potassium supplements c. Administer 1000 mL of 0.9% saline d. Administer the medication orally

c. Administer 1000 mL of 0.9% saline

An infant is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do? a. Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin b. Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload. c. Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin d. Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly

c. Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin

Which of the following medications was developed for treatment of MRSA& VRE infections and can be administered PO or IV. It is also an inhibitor of protein synthesis. a. Penicillin b. Gentamicin c. Linezolid d. Azithromycin

c. Linezolid

When administering drugs that are potentially nephrotoxic, the nurse should consult the prescriber before administering which OTC drugs? a. Antacids b. Acetaminophen c. NSAIDs d. Laxatives

c. NSAIDs

A woman complains of burning on urination and increased frequency. The patient has a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and is going out of town in 2 days. To treat the infection, the nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order a. Aztreonam ​[Azactam] b. Augmentin c. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole ​[Bactrim] d. Vancomycin ​[Vancocin].

c. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole ​[Bactrim]

A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs) work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins a. inhibit autolysins. b. inhibit host cell wall function. c. disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis d. disinhibit transpeptidases.

c. disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis

The administration of gentamicin, an aminoglycoside along with PCN may increase the patients risk of a. hepatotoxicty b. cardiac failure c. nephrotoxicity d. seizures

c. nephrotoxicity

A patient has a skin infection and the culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What is an appropriate treatment for this patient? a. Cefotaxime b. Cefazolin c. Cefaclor d. Ceftaroline

d. Ceftaroline