ORL USMF FINAL SEM 7 CM

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111. MC. Choose the correct answers. The glottis has the form of an hourglass in case of paralysis of some larynx muscles. Tick these muscles: a. Transversal muscle b. Internal thyroarytenoideus muscle c. Thyrohyoid muscle d. Omohyoid muscle e. Cricothyroid muscle

116. MC. Choose the correct answers. The floor of the nasal cavity or inferior walls of the nasal fossae is formed of: a. Palatine apophysis of the maxilla b. Horizontal portion of the palatine bone c. Inferior cone d. Vomer e. Perpendicular lamina of the palatine bone

129. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical forms of chronic pharyngitis: a. Catarrhal b. Hypertrophic c. Fibrinous d. Necrotic e. Atrophic

134. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the symptomatology of tracheobronchial foreign bodies in acute phase: a. Intense cough b. Dyspnea c. Cephalea d. Fever e. Cyanosis

152. MC. Choose the correct answers. The components of the external ear are: a. external auditory canal b. auricle c. tympanic cavity d. processus mastoideus and antrum e. Eustachian tube

154. MC. Choose the correct answers. The components of the inner ear are: a. semicircular canals b. cohlea c. external auditory canal d. auricle e. tympanic cavity

163. MC. Choose the correct answers. According to the localization periamygdaline phlegmon can be: a. Anterior- superior b. Posterior C. Inferior d. External (lateral) e. Middle

170. MC. Choose the correct answers. Acute sinusitis is treated surgically in case of: a. Orbital complications b. Endocranial complications c. High fever d. In children e. Hypoacusis

172. MC. Choose the correct answers. Sensitive innervation of the nose is accomplished by: a. Ramus I of the trigeminal nerve b. Ramus II of the trigeminal nerve c. Ramus III of the trigeminal nerve d. Facial nerve e. Vagus nerve

188. MC. Choose the correct answers. The muscles of the tympanic cavity: a. M. stapedius b. M. tensor tympani c. M. digastricus d. M. arytenoideus e. M. temporalis

193. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the forms of vasomotor rhinitis: a. Persistent and intermittent allergic b. Neurovegetative c. Hypertrophic d. Atrophic e. Catarrhal

204. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of otomycosis consists of: a. Antifungal treatment b. Aminoglycoside antibiotics c. Antihistamines d. Surgical treatment e. Warming up of the ears

216. MC. Choose the correct answers. Blood is transported from the nose to the cavernous sinus through: a. Angular vein b. Ophthalmic vein c. Palatine vein d. Facial vein e. Internal maxillary vein

295. MC. Choose the correct answers. Otoscopic and pathognomonic signs of otomastoiditis are: a. Abundant otorrhea b. Positive Gelle's test c. Pressing nystagmus d. Ptosis of the posterosuperior wall e. Absence of cerumen

51 .MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the joints of the larynx: a. Cricothyroid b. Cricoarytenoideus c. Thyroepiglottidean d. Aryepiglottidean e. Thyrohyoidal

52. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the main membranes of the larynx: a. Cricothyroid b. Thyrohyoidal c. Cricotracheal d. Transversal e. Interarytenoideus

62. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the characteristic structures of the laryngeal mucosa: a. Stratified pavement epithelium, partially keratinized b. Ciliated cylindrical epithelium C. Stratified prismatic epithelium d. Respiratory epithelium e. Unstratified cubical epithelium

91. MC. Choose the correct answers. Amygdalectomy is not performed in case of the following contraindications: a. Relative b. Absolute c. Age d. Sex e. Metatonsillar diseases

100. MC. Choose the correct answers. Benign tumors of the pharynx are: a. Angioma b. Papilloma c. Fibroma d. Sarcoma e. Epithelioma

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105. MC. Choose the correct answers. On the examination of olfaction the following substances are used: a. Vinegar b. Alcohol c. Tincture of Valerian d. Salt e. Sodium bicarbonate

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113. MC. Choose the correct answers. The frontal sinus has the following walls: a. Anterior b. Inferior- orbital c. Posterior- superior d. Lateral e. External

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115. mC. Choose the correct answers. Odynophagia is present in case of: a. Acute pharyngitis b. Acute epiglottitis c. Hypopharyngeal foreign bodies d. Hypopharyngeal cancer e. Stridulous laryngitis

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117. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick anatomic and clinical and clinical forms (according to localization) of larynx cancer: a. Vestibuloepiglottic (supraepiglottic) cancer b. Cancer of vocal cords (cancer of glottis) C. Subglottic cancer d. Pharyngo- laryngeal cancer e. Cancer of anterior commissure

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118. MC. Choose the correct answers. In the etiopathogenesis of chronic amygdalitis the main causes are: a. Reduced immunity b. Hemolytic streptococcus B(beta) of group A C. Presence of suprainfection and microbial competition d. Pharyngeal mucous membrane e. Volume of amygdale

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119. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of upper respiratory tract diphtheria includes: a. Antidiphtheric antitoxic serum b. Antibiotics C. Vitamin therapy d. Cardiotonic medicine, antihistamine medicines e. Surgical treatment

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122. MC. Choose the correct answers. The nose is composed of: a. Nasal pyramid b. Nasal cavity c. Paranasal sinuses d. Narial orifice e. Choanal orifice

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123. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the sensitive disorders of the larynx: a. Mucous membrane anesthesia b. Parasthesia c. Hyperstesia d. Paresis e. Paralysis

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127. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the strata that constitute the trachea: a. Fibrous-muscular-cartilagenous tunic b. Tunica adventitia c. Trachea mucosa d. Adipose stratum e. Lax lymphatic tissue

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128. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of nasal eczema consists in: a. Elimination of contacts with a respective allergen b. Administration of antihistamine medicines c. Ultraviolet treatment d. Nasal plasty e. Conchotomy

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129. MC. Choose the correct answers. General and local subjective symptoms of nasal trauma are multiple and diverse and they include the following syndromes: a. Algesic syndrome b. Hemorrhagic syndrome c. Syndrome of lesion of affected organ function d. Allergy e. Shiver

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130. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the diseases given below develop with the clinical signs of angina: a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Scarlet fever c. Diphtheria d. Pneumonia e. Meningococcal meningitis

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132. MC. Choose the correct answers. A clinical form of nasal hemorrhage can be: a. Mild b. Severe c. Grave d. Superior e. Inferior

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139. MC. Choose the correct answers. What is usually revealed in a child with great adenoid vegetations: a. Hypoacusis b. Nasal obstruction c. Rhinorrhea d. Dyspnea e. Dysphagia

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141. MC. Choose the correct answers. Choose the forms of chronic pharyngitis: a. Catarrhal b. Hypertrophic c. Atrophic d. Necrotic e. Hemorrhagic

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147. MC. Choose the correct answers. Respiratory disturbances of the pharynx are: a. Rhinopharyngeal obstruction b. Oropharyngeal obstruction c. Hypopharyngeal obstruction d. Open rhinolalia e. Dysphagia

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148. MC. Choose the correct answers. Subjective symptoms characteristic of vasomotor rhinitis are: a. Nasal obstruction b. Sneezing c. Rhinorrhea d. Cephalea e. Epistaxis

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158. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which clinical syndromes can be present in case of craniofacial and buccopharyngeal traumas: a. Pain shock b. Hemorrhage syndrome c. Syndrome of pharynx function disorder d. Epilepsy syndrome e. Acute abdomen syndrome

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170. MC. Choose the correct answers. Clinical pathomorphological stages of retropharyngeal phlegmon are: a. Edema b. Infiltration c. Abscess d. Metastasis e. Cicatrization

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170. MC. Choose the correct answers. Name the layers of the tympanic membrane: a. Fibrous layer b. Epidermis c. Mucous layer d. Muscle layer e. Bony layer

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183. MC. Choose the correct answers. Characteristic features of scleromatous infiltration: a. Are localized in the narrowest places of the respiratory tract b. Are not ulcerated c. Are not painful d. Resemble polyps e. Are painful

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183. MC. Choose the correct answers. The compartments of the cochlea are following: a. Columella b. Cochlear canal c. Lamina spiralis d. Utricle e. Saccule

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201. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of otomycosis are thefollowing: a. Auricular pruritus b. Increased sensibility of external auditory canal c. Otalgia d. Auricular noise e. Stuffing up of the ears

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209. MC. Choose the correct answers. Characteristic clinical signs and the basic methods of diagnostics and treatment of nasal septum deviation are: a. Nasal respiration insufficiency b. Anterior rhinoscopy c. Surgery d. Fetid smell from the nose e. Sialorrhea

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212. MC. Choose the correct answers. Medicinal treatment of acute maxillary sinusitis consists in: a. Keeping the ostium permeable b. Puncture of the sinus c. Antibiotic therapy d. Blocking of the middle meatus e. Amygdalotomy

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219. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which are the cells of olfactive mucosa: a. Olfactive sensors b. Supporting c. Basal d. Respiratory type e. Ciliar type

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253. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical forms of otogenic sepsis are: a. Sepcemia b. Septicopyemia c. Bacterial shock d. Vegetative syndrome e. General nervous syndrome

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255. MC. Choose the correct answers. Bone conduction of the sound is examined by the following tests: a. Weber b. Schwabach c. Rinne d. Voiacec e. Waldeyer

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256. MC. Choose the correct answers. The stapes consists of the: a. Head b. Arms c. Plate d. Column e. Ligaments

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259. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which are the main symptoms of vestibular analyzer diseases: a. Nystagmus b. Vertigo c. Muscular disorders d. Dysphagia e. Otalgia

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265. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of Meniere's disease is: a. Surgical b. Medicinal c. Mixed d. Radiotherapeutical e. Physiotherapeutical

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268. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the middle ear diseases result in the development of intracranial complications: a. Acute otitis media b. Chronic otitis media c. Labyrinthitis d. Meniere's disease e. Adhesive otitis

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99. MC. Choose the correct answers. The phases of development of periamygdal abscess are a. Edema b. Infiltration c. Abscess formation d. Necrotic e. Ulcerous

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270. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following are the semicircular canals a. Horizontal, lateral b. Vertical, anterior, frontal c. Vertical, posterior, sagittal d. Superior e. Inferior

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272. MC. Choose the correct answers. What parts of the auditory analyzer are affected in case of perception hearing loss: a. Spiral organ b. Ways of sound transmission towards the auditory centre c. Auditory centre d. Vestibule e. Tympanic cavity

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313. MC. Choose the correct answers. The examination of permeability of the auditory tube is performed by: a. Toybee's method b. Valsalva'smethod c. Politzer's method d. Voiacec's method e. Soldatov's method

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50. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the laryngeal cartilages that have an elastic structure: a. Epiglottidean b. Corniculate c. Cuneiform d. Thyroid e. Cricoid

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59. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the arteries that vascularize the larynx: a. Superior laryngeal b. Inferior laryngeal c. Posterior laryngeal d. Superficial laryngeal e. Anterior laryngeal

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66. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the anatomical components of the glottic area (the middle floor of the larynx): a. Vocal cords b. Ventricular bands C. Morgagni's ventricle d. Epiglottis e. Comiculate cartilages

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68. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the characteristic signs of the voice: a. 30-50 dB intensity b. Tone (pitch, frequency) Hz c. Timbre d. Accent e. Shout

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78. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the intraoperative accidents in the course of tracheotomy: a. Marked bleeding b. Cricoid ring section c. Esophagus lesion d. Lesion of the tongue root e. Epistaxis

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85. MC. Choose the correct answers. Select preferable antibiotics for a child with acute tonsillitis: a. Penicillins b. B - lactam C. Cephalosporins d. Macrolides e. Quinolones

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85. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the causative agents of larynx lesion: a. Mechanical b. Chemical c. Thermal d. Physical e. Electromagnetic

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86. MC. Choose the correct answers. The pharynx has the following portions: a. Rhinopharynx b. Buccopharynx c. Laryngopharynx d. Supreme pharynx e. Inner pharynx

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93. MC. Choose the correct answers. Foreign bodies in the larynx are classified into: a. Organic b. Inert c. Living d. Sharp e. Flat

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93. MC. Choose the correct answers. The nasal septum consists of: a. septal cartilage b. vomer c. perpendicular plate of the ethmoid d. maxillary crest e. premaxilla

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96. MC. Choose the correct answers. The differential diagnosis of chronic amygdalitis made with: a. Chronic pharyngitis b. Pharyngomycosis c. Hypertrophy of the palatine amygdalae d. Catarrhal angina e. Acute pharyngitis

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101. MC. Choose the correct answer. Amygdal palatine hypertrophy leads to: a. Respiratory disorders b. Swallowing disorders C. Alimentary disorders in breast-fed infants d. Voice disorders (rhinolalia) e. Palatine wall paralysis

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102. MC. Choose the correct answers. Adenoid vegetations of III stage must be differed from: a. Juvenile angiofibroma of the nasopharynx b. Choanal polyp C. Benign tumors of the nasopharynx d. Malignant tumors of the nasopharynx e. Common acute rhinitis

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106. MC. Choose the correct answers. Etiopathogenesis of primary angina includes: a. Infection: streptococcal, staphylococcal, viral, combined infection b. Cold, tiredness, avitaminosis c. Allergy d. Secondary immunodeficiency e. Fever

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108. MC. Choose the correct answers. Etiopathogenesis of pharyngeal foreign bodies is: a. Children playing with foreign bodies b. Leaving children unattended c. Diminished reflexes or their absence d. Abnormal physical state e. Inflammation of the rhinopharynx

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110. MC. Choose the correct answers. The presence of adenoid vegetation in III grade is manifested by: a. Nasal obstruction syndrome b. "Adenoid facies" C. Development of psychic and physical insufficiency d. Complications: otitis media, chronic amygdalitis, conjunctivitis, laryngitis e. Sialorrhea

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112. MC. Choose the correct answers. The Waldeyer's pharyngeal ring includes: a. Pharyngeal amygdala b. Tubal amygdala c. Palatine amygdala d. Lingual amygdala e. Pharyngeal mucous membrane

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112. MC. Choose the correct answers. The protective function of the nose includes: a. Air purification b. Sneeze reflex c. Immunologic factors of nasal mucosa d. Role of nasal mucosa cilia e. Nasal septum

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113. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the morphopathological forms of hypertrophic chronic laryngitis: a. Diffuse pachydermic corditis b. Verrucous pachydermic corditis c. Pseudomyxomatosis d. Verrucous pachydermia e. Crustous atrophy

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114. MC. Choose the correct answers. According to the localization periamygdal phlegmon can be: a. Antero-superior b. Inferior c. Posterior d. Lateral e. Intraamygdal

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114.MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the main therapeutic measures used in chronic laryngitis: a. Local: inhalation, aerosol, pulverization b. Laser surgery c. Improvement of chronic inflammatory process d. Rest to vocal cords e. Laryngoectomy

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122. MC. Choose the correct answers. Unilateral paralysis of n. recurens may occur in case of: a. Thyroid gland surgery b. Esophagus disease C. Adenopathy, thyroid disease d. Neuritis e. Cricoarytenoid arthritis

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125. mC. Choose the correct answers. Complications of periamygdal phlegmon can be: a. Bleeding b. Edema of larynx C. Cervical phlegmon, mediastinitis d. Septic complications e. Chronic amygdalitis in compensated form

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128. MC. Choose the correct answers. What are the anatomical structures of the pharyngeal wall: a. Mucosa b. Fibrous tunic C. Muscular stratum d. Tunica adventitia e. Glandular stratum

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134. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the given below are administered in case of nasal furuncle: a. Antibiotics b. Anti- inflammatory c. Analgesics d. Desensitizators e. Thrombin

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137. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the forms of acute rhinitis: a. Common b. Of a newly born c. Developed in case of an infectious disease d. Post- traumatic e. Hypertrophic

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138. MC. Choose the correct answers. Acute and chronic pharyngitis are treated: a. Conservatively b. Prophylactically c. With inhalation d. Balneoclimatically e. Surgically

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146. MC. Choose the correct answers. Odynophagia is present in: a. Acute or chronic inflammatory process: angina, phlegmon, pharyngitis b. Bums, wounds of the pharynx c. Nervous lesion d. Ulcerated tumors e. Scleroma of the pharynx

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149. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the tunics that form the walls of the esophagus: a. Mucous b. Submucous c. Muscular d. Adventitia e. Nervous

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150. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following clinical signs are the constituents of the clinical picture of chronic amygdalitis: a. Gize's, Zac's sign b. Preobrajenski's sign C. Purulent liquid in the lacuna d. Submandibular adenopathy e. Fever, shiver

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151. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical manifestations of chronic amygdalitis in decompensated form: a. Recurrent angina, rheumatism b. Adherences between the amygdal pillars and amygdala, pus liquid in the lacuna c. Subangulomandibular adenopathy d. Secondary immunodeficiency A, M,G e. Permanent high fever

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152. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnosis of acute maxillary sinusitis is made on the basis of: a. Anamnesis b. Anterior rhinoscopy c. Radiography d. Puncture of the maxillary sinus e. Polypotomy

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155. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the parts of the esophagus: a. Cervical b. Posterior mediastinal c. Diaphragmatic d. Abdominal e. Pelvic

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156. MC. Choose the correct answers. The etiology of chronic sinusitis includes: a. Rhinitis, nasal septum deviation b. Adenoiditis, avitaminosis c. Metabolic disorders d. State of the ostium e. Fever, cephalea

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157. MC. Choose the correct answers. Conductive hearing loss is a result of: a. otitis media b. otosclerosis c. external otitis d. cerumen plug e. ototoxic antibiotics

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159. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following statements are characteristic of nonspecific catarrhal angina: a. It is caused by streptococci, pneumococci, staphylococci b. It is caused by hypothermia c. It is a primary angina d. It is treated with medicines e. It is secondary angina

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160. CM. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following diseases can be confused with lacunar angina: a. Diphtheritic angina b. Syphilous angina c. Lymphatic angina d. Ulcero-necrotic angina in hematopathy e. Paralysis of the soft palate

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162. MC. Choose the correct answers. The stages of evolution of intracranial abscess are: a. Initial, the onset b. Latent c. Time status d. Terminal e. Edematous

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164. MC. Choose the correct answers. In the treatment of periamygdaline phlegmon it is necessary to administer such medicines as: a. Analgesics b. Antibiotics C. Anti-inflammatory drugs d. Antihistamines e. Antiacids

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167. MC. Choose the correct answers. The external auditory canal is located between the: a. Temporomandibular joint b. Mastoid cells C. Middle cranial fossa d. Space of parotid gland e. Cochlea

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173. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following investigations are necessary in case of surgical treatment of chronic amygdalitis: a. General analyses of blood and urine b. Thrombocyte count c. ECG d. Fibrinogen, prothrombin time e. Fibrogastroscopy

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174. MC. Choose the correct answers. The olfactory analyzer is composed of: a. Sensorial olfactory cells b. Olfactive bulbs c. Olfactive tract d. Olfactive trigone (triangle) e. Bacterial allergens

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176. MC. Choose the correct answers. Characteristic causes of sinusitis are: a. Nasal respiratory insufficiency b. Cephalea c. Tension in the region of the respective sinus d. Hyposmia e. Bradycardia

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179. MC. Choose the correct answers. Etiopathogenesis of chronic amygdalitis includes the presence of: a. Hemolytic streptococcus B (beta) of A group b. Immunodeficiency c. Secondary infection d. Specific anatomical topographic features of Waldayer's ring e. Avitaminosis

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183. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the given below pass through the parapharyngeal space: a. Glossopharyngian nerve b. Hypoglossus nerve c. Jugular vein d. Internal carotid artery e. Facial artery

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184. MC. Choose the correct answers. The most severe metatonsilitis complications of amygdal local infection are: a. Acute rheumatism b. Rheumocarditis c. Acute arthritis d. Poststreptococcal acute glomerulonephritis e. Stomach ulcer

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190. MC. Choose the correct answers. Diffuse otitis externa may be caused by: a. Otorrhea b. Eczema, furuncle C. Mechanical, chemical or medicinal irritation d. Foreign bodies e. Auditory tube dysfunction

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192. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of otitis externa may include: a. General antibiotic therapy b. Antifungal therapy C. External auditory canal cleaning d. Anti-allergic therapy e. Surgery

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196. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of external auditory duct furuncle includes: a. General antibiotic therapy b. Local antibiotic therapy C. External auditory canal cleaning d. Vitamin therapy e. Surgery

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199. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the ways of penetration of infection from the nasal cavity and sinuses to the skull: a. Contact b. Hematogenic c. Lymphogenic d. Perineural e. Alimentary

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206. MC. Choose the correct answers. Orbital rhinosinusogenic complications are: a. Orbital phlegmon b. Retrobulbar phlegmon c. Osteoperiostitis d. Edema of soft tissue of the orbits e. Cerebral abscess

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219. MC. Choose the correct answers. Clinical signs of acute otitis media are: a. Otalgia b. Headache c. Hearing loss d. Tinnitus e. Fever

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220. MC. Choose the correct answers. Acute otitis media is diagnosed by: a. Otomicroscopy b. Otoscopy c. Audiometry d. Impedance audiometry e. Radiography

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224. MC. Choose the correct answers. The antibiotic therapy of acute otitis media is indicated in following cases: a. Acute otitis media, preperforative phase b. Acute otitis media, perforative phase C. On dependence of the state and age of a patient d. On dependence of evolution of acute otitis media e. Not indicated

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236. MC. Choose the correct answers. The main causes of mastoiditis are: a. Decreased immunity b. Inadequate conservative treatment c. Absence of an adequate drainage d. Specific anatomical features of the mastoid process e. Surgical treatment

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250. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of recurrent otitis media consists of the following: a. Tympanotomy b. Tympanostomy (in case of need) C. Antibacterial treatment d. Cleaning of the nasopharynx e. Immunotherapy

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261. MC. Choose the correct answers. What are the causes of congenital hearing loss: a. Infection b. Intoxication c. Immune disturbance d. Genetic diseases e. Incorrect position of a fetus

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269. MC. Choose the correct answers. Otogenic intracranial complications: a. Extradural abcess b. Cerebral and cerebellar abscesses c. Subdural abscess d. Meningitis e. Labyrinthitis

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275. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which are the main clinical signs in a patient with otogenic abscess of the left temporal lobe: a. Headache b. Amnestic aphasia c. Bradycardia d. Changes in the cephalorachidian liquid e. Otoscopy without changes of the tympanic membrane

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277. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which are the main clinical signs in a patient with otogenic abscess of the left temporal lobe: a. Headache b. Anamnestic aphasia c. Bradycardia d. Changes in the cephalorachidian liquid e. Otoscopy without changes in the tympanum

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280. MC. Choose the correct answers. The affection of which sinuses does not provoke the otogenic sepsis: a. Sagittal b. Transversal c. Vertical d. Horizontal e. Sigmoid

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306. MC. Choose the correct answers. The examination of the ear includes: a. Otoscopy b. Audiological examination c. Fork tests d. X-ray examination e. Hypopharyngoscopy

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46. MC. Choose the correct answers. The epiglottis is connected with the: a. Hyoid b. Thyroid and arytenoid cartilages c. Tongue d. Pharynx e. Nose

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72. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical syndromes of the larynx: a. Vocal or dysphonic syndrome b. Syndrome of laryngeal obstruction or dyspnea c. Laryngeal pains (phonodinia, odynophagia) d. Cough e. Olfactive syndrome

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79. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the possible duration of introduction of an oral or nasotracheal probe to maintain the respiration: a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 72 hours e. Two weeks

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83. MC. Choose the correct answers. The tonsil ring includes: a. 1 nasofaryngeal tonsil b. 2 palatine tonsils c. 2 tube tonsils d. 1 lingual tonsil e. 2 hypopharyngeal tonsils

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89. MC. Choose the correct answers. In case of angina the way of infectious invasion in the organism can be: a. Alimentary b. Autoinfection c. Air d. Mixed e. Lymphogenic, hematogenic

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90. MC. Choose the correct answers. Adenoid vegetations of III stage must be different from a. Juvenile angiofibroma of the nasopharynx b. Choana polyps c. Malignant tumors of the nasopharynx d. Osteophyte of the cervical vertebrae e. Chronic pharyngitis

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95. MC. Choose the correct answers. Secondary angina develops in case of: a. Acute leukemia b. Infectious mononucleosis c. Influenza d. Diphtheria e. Pharyngitis

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95. MC. Choose the correct answers. The classification of chronic rhinitis includes: a. atrophic rhinitis b. allergic rhinitis c. vasomotor rhinitis d. hypertrophic rhinitis e. microbial rhinitis

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95. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical signs of a larynx foreign body: a. Dyspnea b. Dysphonia c. Dysphagia d. Phonodynia e. Fever, shiver

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96. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the specific morphofunctional features of the larynx that contribute to the development of subglottic laryngitis: a. Unextended cricoid cartilage b. Lax cellular tissue in the subglottic space c. Lymphoid tissue in the subglottic space d. Reduced dimension of the glottis lumen e. Defects of mechanism responsible for air inspiration

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97. MC. Choose the correct answers. Lacunar angina is differentiated from: a. Diphtheria angina b. Vincent's ulceromembranous angina c. Neutropenic angina d. Leukemic angina e. Catarrhal pharyngitis

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98. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the morphopathological forms of false croup: a. Catarrhal b. Infiltrative- edematous c. Purulent- fibrotic d. Necrotic e. Edematous

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104. MC. Choose the correct answers. Objective signs of chronic amygdalitis are: a. Gize's sign b. Zac's sign C. Preobrajenscki's sign d. Adherences and cicatrices between the amygdaline pillars and palatine amygdalae e. Pus and impacted cerumen in the lacuna

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104. MC. Choose the correct answers. Posterior rhinoscopy allows to examine: a. Vomer b. Choanae c. Vault with amygdala Luschka d. Tails of the inferior cones e. Gerlach's amygdala

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105. MC. Choose the correct answers. According to what criteria is larynx stenosis classified: a. Localization b. Clinical picture c. Origin d. Time of development e. Degree of lumen reduction

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105. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnostics of diphtheritic angina in children is based on: a. Detailed anamnesis (epidemiologic inquiry) b. Appearance of the buccopharynx c. Toxic state of a child d. Subangulomandibular adenopathy e. Bacteriologic examination

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107. MC. Choose the correct answers. Conservative treatment of chronic amygdalitis in a compensated form includes: a. Lavement of the lacunae with disinfection substances b. Treating the palatine amygdalae with Ligol' solution c. Vitamin C d. Antihistamine medicines e. Physiotherapy

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108. MC. Choose the correct answers. The lateral wall of the nasal cavity is formed of: a. Proper bones of the nose b. Lacrimal bone c. Frontal process of the maxilla d. Internal lamina of the sphenoid pterygoid process e. Ethmoid internal wall, lamina perpendicular to the palatine bone

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117. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the devices given below are necessary for anterior and posterior rhinoscopy: a. Electric lamp b. Frontal mirror c. Mirror for posterior rhinoscopy d. Lingual spatula e. Nasal speculum

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125. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the most important relations of the trachea in the cervical part: a. Lobes of the thyroid b. Inferior thyroid artery C. Vertebral artery d. Inferior thyroid veins e. Esophagus

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126. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which anatomical structures is the trachea related to in the thoracic part: a. Aortal cross b. Superior vena cava c. Brachiocephalic venous trunk d. Esophagus e. Left subclavian artery

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129. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the methods used on anatomical and clinical examination of the tracheobronchial tree: a. Rigid tracheobronchoscopy b. Tracheobroncography c. Fibrotracheobronchoscopy d. Tomography of the tracheobronchial system e. Cytological examination

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130. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the origin of dyspnea at the tracheobronchial level: a. Mechanic b. Inflammatory c. Traumatic d. Nervous e. Secretion disturbances

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131. MC. Choose the correct answers. The causes of nasal hemorrhage can be: a. Disease of Rendu- Osier b. Hypertensive disease c. Hepatic cirrhosis d. Hypovitaminosis C and P e. Endocrine and neurovegetative vasopathology

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131. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following are characteristic of disturbances of functions of the tracheobronchial apparatus: a. Cough b. Expectoration c. Haemoptysis d. Dyspnea e. Whistling

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132. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the stages of clinical evolution of a bronchial foreign body: a. Acute b. Manifestation c. Tolerant d. Terminal e. Bronchopulmonary suppuration

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134. MC. Choose the correct answers. The symptomatology of chronic amygdalitis includes: a. Odynophagia b. Caseous masses in the lacuna c. Pus in the lacuna d. Submandibular adenopathy e. Gize's symptom

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135. MC. Choose the correct answers. The etiopathogenesis of acute pharyngitis is: a. Infection: streptococcal, staphylococcal, viral b. Infectious disease C. Predisposing factors: climatic, alimentary d. Reduced local and general immunities e. Hypothermia

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137. MC. Choose the correct answers. Angina is treated with: a. Analgetics b. Desensitizing drugs c. Anti-inflammatory d. Antibiotics e. Vitamin therapy

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140. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the possible complications of rhinitis: a. Epistaxis, anosmia, parosmia b. Sinusitis, conjunctivitis, dacryocystitis c. Tracheitis, bronchitis, pneumonia d. Acute pharyngitis e. Otitis

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141. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the possible complications of rhinitis in children: a. Acute sinusitis b. Stenosed laryngotracheitis c. Otitis media d. Bronchitis (pneumonia) e. Acute pharyngitis

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142. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of chronic amygdalitis are: a. Hyperemia of the anterior pillars b. Gize's symptom c. Zac's symptom d. Preobrejenski's symptom e. Purulent liquid in the lacuna

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145. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following are the pharyngeal syndromes: a. Disturbance in deglutition b. Respiratory disturbance c. Phonation disturbance d. Auditory disturbance e. Protective function disturbance

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147. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of nasal scleroma includes: a. Antibiotic therapy b. Immunocorrection c. Bidaze, ronidaze d. Vitamins e. Corticosteroids

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148. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical signs in favor of the diagnosis of periamygdaline phlegmon: a. Marked odynophagia b. Dysphagia c. Otalgia d. Fever e. Rhinolalia

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151. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the venous plexuses that are formed at the level of the esophagus and into which venous blood flows: a. Submucous venous plexus b. Periesophgeal plexus c. Inferior thyroid veins d. Azygos veins e. Stomach veins

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152. MC. Choose the correct answers. In case of pharynx cancer the prognosis depends on: a. Early and correct diagnosis b. Administration of the treatment in time c. Degree of clinical and morphological advance of cancer d. Presence or absence of metastases e. Histological structure

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152. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the ganglia into which esophagus lymphocytes flow: a. Internal jugular b. Laterotracheal C. Intertracheobronchial d. Posterior mediastinal e. Cardiac

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154. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnosis of acute externalized ethmoiditis includes: a. Phenomena of rhinoethmoiditis b. Palpebral edema c. Edema of the nasal mucosa d. Pus in the superior or middle nasal meatus e. Data of radiography

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154. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following clinical manifestations are characteristic of scarlatinal angina: a. The palatine amygdalae are tumefied, congested b. The soft palate is congested severely c. Enanthema d. Odynophagia e. Adenopathy

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156. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the stages of evolution of scleroma lesion: a. Infiltrations with lymphocytes, plasmocytes, histocytes and neutrophils b. Transformation of histocytes in Miculicz cells c. Multiplication of Miculicz cells d. Consolidation of collagen fibers e. Development of scleroma nodules

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157. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the causes of esophagus injuries: a. Chemical agents b. Physical agents c. Mechanical agents d. During esophagoscopy e. In esophagus dilatation

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157. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following statements are correct in case of paraclinical diagnosis of chronic amygdalitis: a. Moderate hyperleukocytosis with neutrophilia b. VSH sometimes elevated c. ASLO elevated d. Reduced Ig A serum e. Increase of Ig M and Ig E indexes

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158. MC. Choose the correct answers. Hearing loss can be: a. conductive b. mixed C. sensorineural d. congenital e. acquired

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161. MC. Choose the correct answers. Differential diagnosis between cancer of the palatine amygdalae and chronic amygdalitis includes: a. Anamnesis- patient's age b. Clinical picture, objective and subjective symptoms c. Asymmetry of the palatine amygdalae d. Cytology e. Biopsy

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161. MC. Choose the correct answers. The symptomatology of rhinosinusogenic meningitis includes the following clinical signs: a. Clinical and paraclinical signs of the respective form of sinusitis b. Intoxication, marked diffuse cephalea c. Nausea, vomiting, photophobia, deteriorated general state d. Occipital muscle rigidity, positive Kerning's and Brudzinscki's symptoms e. Disturbances in the cephaloarachnoidal liquid, increased cell count

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162. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the factors contributing to hypertrophy of adenoid vegetations of II-III grade: a. Predisposition to the development of lymphatic tissue b. Allergies C. Vitamin, calcium, solar deficiency d. Frequent infections of the upper respiratory tract e. Genetic predisposition

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162. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which factors contribute to the penetration of foreign bodies into the esophagus: a. Absent-mindedness in cooking b. Incorrect mastication C. Stenosis and esophageal spasm d. Lunacy e. Leaving children unattended

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168. mC. Choose the correct answers. Clinical signs of periamygdaline abscess are: a. It develops in 5-7 days after nonspecific angina b. A patient's state is grave, fever and shiver are present C. Trismus d. Swelling, infiltration e. State of intoxication

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169. MC. Choose the correct answers. The first aid in case of retropharyngeal and peripharyngeal phlegmons consists in: a. Administration of antibiotics b. Administration of analgesics c. Administration of a deintoxication solution d. Administration of anti-inflammatory medicines e. Puncture opening and drainage of abscess

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173. MC. Choose the correct answers. A long-term nasal respiratory insufficiency in children may lead to: a. Physical and psychic retardation b. Hypoacusis c. Catarrh of the respiratory tract d. Angina e. Chronic amygdalitis

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175. MC. Choose the correct answers. Allergic rhinitis is caused by the following allergens: a. Industrial allergens b. Domestic allergens c. Chemical substances d. Pollen, spores, graminaceae e. Bacterial allergens

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175. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following clinical signs are present in patients with chronic amygdalitis: a. Sensation of a throat pain b. Stiffness in the throat c. Unpleasant smell from the throat d. Pus liquid in the amygdaline lacuna e. Regional adenopathy

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177. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the functions of the pharynx: a. Reflexogenic b. Respiratory c. Immunological d. Phonation e. Auditory

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178. MC. Choose the correct answers. Vasomotor rhinopathy is caused by the following: a. A long cooling of the feet b. Vegetative dystonia c. Deviation of the nasal septum d. Repeated acute rhinitis e. Nasal polyps, catarrh of the respiratory tract

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180. MC. Choose the correct answers. Diagnostic criteria of angina and chronic amygdalitis are: a. Anamnesis b. Onset of pain, evolution of pain c. Avitaminosis d. Presence or absence of complications e. Pharyngoscopic picture

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180. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnosis of sinusitis includes: a. Anamnesis b. Anterior rhinoscopy c. Puncture of the maxillary sinus d. Trepanopuncture of the frontal sinus e. Radiography of the paranasal sinuses, computed tomography

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182. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the organs that are connected with the pharynx: a. The middle ear system b. Esophagus c. Nasal fossae d. Buccal cavity e. Larynx

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184. MC. Choose the correct answers. The etiology of acute rhinitis and that of acute respiratory catarrh include: a. Cold b. Action of harmful factors c. Allergy d. Bacterial infection e. Viral infection

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186. MC. Choose the correct answers. To examine the appearance of the pharynx the following methods are used: a. Standard radiography b. Contrast radiography c. MRI d. Computed tomography e. Endoscopic examination

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191. MC. Choose the correct answers. The signs of otitis externa includes: a. Pruritus b. Sense of tension c. Sense of local heat d. Hearing loss e. Otalgia

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194. MC. Choose the correct answers. The pathogenic agents of external auditory canal furuncle are the following: a. Staphylococci b. Proteus C. Streptococci d. Colibacilli e. Local saprophytes

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199. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of malignant otitis externa are: a. Otalgia b. Edema C. Granulations d. Microabscesses e. Ineffective medicinal therapy

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203. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the diseases of the external ear: a. Eczema b. Otitis externa c. Malignant otitis externa d. Erysipelas e. Furuncle

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215. MC. Choose the correct answers. The factors contributing to acute otitis media are: a. Auditory tube dysfunction b. Immunity disorders c. Allergy d. Nasopharyngeal pathology e. Early age

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225. MC. Choose the correct answers. The conservative treatment of acute otitis media includes: a. Anti-inflammatory medicines b. Antihistamine medicines C. Vasoconstriction medicines d. Antibacterial medicines e. Anti-inflammatory ear droops

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228. MC. Choose the correct answers. The advantages of surgical treatment (myringotomy) of acute otitis media are: a. It improves clinical evolution of acute otitis media b. It ensures drainage of the tympanic cavity C. It prevents the cicatrices of the tympanic cavity d. It stops the development of necrosis of the tympanic cavity e. It diminishes the intensity of otalgia

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234. MC. Choose the correct answers. The predisposing factors contributing to otitis media in children are: a. The auditory tube is shorter, larger, more horizontal, open b. Infant's horizontal position c. Immature local and general immunity d. Allergic processes e. Adenoids

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237. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of mastoiditis are: a. Pain in the retroauricular area b. Skin hyperemia in the retroauricular area c. Narrowing of the external auditory canal d. Abundant otorrhea of pulsatile character e. Swelling in the mastoid region

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239. MC. Choose the correct answers. The possible complications of mastoiditis: a. Labyrinthis b. Facial nerve paralysis c. Meningitis d. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis e. Epi- and subdural abscesses

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249. MC. Choose the correct answers. Indications for the surgical treatment of suppurative chronic otitis media (epitympanitis) are: a. Presence of intracranial complications b. Insufficiency of conservative treatment c. Cholesteatoma d. Polyps, granulations e. Marked progressive hearing loss

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252. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the tests used to examine the auditory function: a. Speaking voice b. Whispering voice c. Shouting d. Examination with fork e. Audiometry

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283. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following clinical signs are not characteristic of otosclerosis: a. Hyperemia of the tympanic membrane b. Otorrhea C. Perforation of the tympanic membrane d. Complete defect of the tympanic membrane e. Punctiform perforation of the tympanic membrane

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289. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following signs are not characteristic of otosclerosis: a. Otorrhea b. Tympanum hyperemia c. Tympanum perforation d. Complete defect of the tympanum e. Punctiform perforation of the tympanum

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303. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following symptoms are not characteristic of Meniere's disease: a. Mucopurulent otorrhea b. Tympanum perforation c. Paralysis of the facial nerve d. Otalgia e. Leukocytosis

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304. MC. Choose the correct answers. In case of combined trauma of the middle and inner ear the following clinical signs can be present: a. Haemorrhage b. Otalgia C. Labyrinthine manifestations d. Cerebrospinal fluid leakage e. Paralysis of the facial nerve

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37. MC. Choose the correct answers. The causes of stridor are: a. Laryngomalacia b. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis c. Vocal fold paralysis d. Neoplastic process e. Recurrent papillomatosis

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38. MC. Choose the correct answer. Predisposing factors of laryngeal carcinoma are: a. Infection b. Foreign body C. Cigarette smoking d. Alcohol e. Improper diet

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55. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the extrinsic muscles of the larynx: a. Sternothyroid b. Thyrohyoid c. Sternohyoid d. Omohyoid e. Stylopharyngeal

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56. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the intrinsic muscles of the larynx: a. Posterior cricoarytenoideus b. Lateral cricoarytenoideus c. Cricothyroid d. Thyroepiglottidean e. Aryepiglottidean

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61 .MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following is organotopic on the left of the recurrent nerve: a. Aortal crutch b. Left pulmonary artery c. Left bronchus d. Esophagus e. Trachea, thyroid gland

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76. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the indications for tracheotomy: a. Stenosis of the larynx and trachea b. Lesion and fractures of the larynx and trachea c. Tracheobronchial foreign bodies d. As a preliminary operation preceding laryngotomy e. Disturbance of pulmonary ventilation of mechanic origin

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82. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the characteristic signs of congenital stridor: a. Chronic pathological wheeze b. The onset in the first week of life c. An excited state d. A clear voice e. Absence of cyanosis

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84. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the causes of pharyngitis: a. Cold b. Infection in the tonsils c. Nasal diseases d. Gastrointestinal reflux e. Smoking and dust

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84. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the forms of larynx lesions: a. External (hurtful or penetrative) b. Inhalation lesion c. Postintubation lesion d. Vocal lesion e. Contact ulcer

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87. MC. Choose the correct answers. Etiopathogenic factors of chronic pharyngitis are a. Alcohol, smoking b. Cold c. Decompensated form of some diseases d. Avitaminosis e. Nasal obstruction

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88. MC. Choose the correct answers. Retropharyngeal phlegmon is caused by: a. Influenza b. Acute rhinitis c. Angina d. Avitaminosis e. Acute laryngitis

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90. MC. Choose the correct answers. What does the therapy of larynx lesions caused by inhalation include: a. Humid environment b. Corticoid therapy c. Antihistamine medicines d. Mucolytic aerosols e. Vocal rest

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92. MC. Choose the correct answers. The main etiopathogenic factors of chronic pharyngitis are: a. Smoking, alcohol b. A prolonged exposure to one of the harmful factors of the environment or a product c. Cold d. Nasal obstruction e. Diseases of the digestive system

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92. MC. Choose the correct answers. What factors promote the penetration of foreign bodies into the larynx: a. Child's access to foreign bodies b. Leaving children unattended c. Delayed reflex d. Lunacy e. Physical pathology

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93. MC. Choose the correct answers. Prophylaxis of chronic amygdalitis includes: a. Appropriate treatment of angina b. Appropriate treatment of nasal and paranasal sinus diseases C. Follow-up of patients with past history of angina and those who suffer from chronic amygdalitis d. Organization and following the regimen of life, rest, rational diet, physical exercises, popularization of sanitary norms e. Subperichondromucosa resection of the nasal septum

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94. MC. Choose the correct answers. The causes of epistaxis are: a. Local: trauma, foreign bodies, from Kisselbach's plexus b. Neoplastic disorders: malignant neoplasms, juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibromas c. Hematologic disorders: leukemia, anemia, purpura, hemophylia, lymphoma, etc. d. Chronic diseases of liver, kidney e. System disorders: hypertension

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100. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of acute laryngitis in children includes the following measures: a. Oxygenotherapy b. Corticotherapy C. Antibiotic therapy d. Gargarism e. Antisensitizers

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102. MC. Choose the correct answers. Narhinoscopy allows to reveal: a. Nasal vestibule furuncle b. Crests c. Foreign bodies d. Adenoid vegetations e. Fissures

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116.MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the benign tumors of the larynx: a. Cylindroma b. Myxoma c. Fibromyoma d. Epithelioma e. Neurofibroma

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118. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the factors contributing to the development of larynx cancer: a. Smoking b. Environment pollution C. Presence of precancerous pathology d. Abuse of voice e. Alcohol abuse

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119. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the methods of treatment of larynx cancer: a. Surgery b. Cobalt therapy c. Radiotherapy d. Antibiotic therapy e. Chemotherapy

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123. MC.Choose the correct answers. Nasal respiratory insufficiency leads to: a. Conductive hypoacusis b. Pathology of the inferior respiratory ways c. Physical and mental retardation d. Epistaxis e. Sinusitis

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124. MC. Choose the correct answers. Pharynx malformations, especially congenital ones, are due to: a. Parent's disease: tuberculosis, syphilis, hypothyroidism b. Bad habits of parents: smoking, alcohol C. Harmful working conditions, environment d. Excellent life conditions e. Maternal infections, violent emotions, administration of antibiotics in the first month of pregnancy

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124. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which are anatomical correlations of the nasal fossae with sinuses: a. Ostium b. Mucous membrane c. Trigeminal nerve d. Auditory nerve e. Blood vessels

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125. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the examination methods given below are used to diagnose rhinosinusitis: a. Anterior, posterior rhinoscopy b. Oropharyngoscopy c. Laryngoscopy d. Puncture of the paranasal sinuses e. CT and standard radiography

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126. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the paranasal sinuses: a. Sigmoid b. Maxillary c. Sphenoid d. Cavernous e. Ethmoid cells

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132. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following diseases may cause the Eustachian tube dysfunction: a. Rhinitis b. Sinusitis c. Adenoiditis d. Laryngitis e. Septum deviation

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133. MC. Choose the correct answers. Bronchial foreign bodies according to the degree of bronchial lumen obstruction are divided into: a. Valve b. Obstructive c. Endogenic d. Allowing free passing of air e. Exogenic

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139. MC. Choose the correct answers. The semiology of common rhinitis includes: a. Dryness in the nose, sneezing, indisposition, cephalea, insomnia b. Serous rhinorrhea, obstruction of the nasal fossae, closed rhinolalia c. Mucopurulent rhinorrhea d. Vomiting e. Sanguine rhinorrhea

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155. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following pathologies can be revealed as a result of chronic amygdalitis in decompensated form: a. Rheumatism b. Glomerulonephritis C. Thyroiditis, thyrotoxicosis d. Atherosclerosis e. Periamygdal phlegmon

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157. MC. Choose the correct answers. Specific features of etiopathogenesis of rhinosisnusitis in children are: a. Anatomical factors: small nasal fossae, narrow nasal ostium b. Reduced local and general immunity in children c. Adenoid vegetation, adenoiditis d. Normotrophic baby e. Avitaminosis

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160. MC. Choose the correct answers. The landmarks of the eardrum are: a. handle of the malleus b. umbo C. short process of the malleus d. handle of the incus e. light reflex

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167. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the main causes of corrosive esophagus: a. An accidental ingestion of a corrosive substance b. Voluntary ingestion of a corrosive substance c. Negligence in keeping corrosive substances d. Avitaminosis e. Leaving children unattended

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169. MC.Choose the correct answers. Viral rhinitis differs from common rhinitis by: a. Fever b. Laryngotracheitis c. Conjunctivitis d. Leukocytosis e. Epidemiologic anamnesis, epidemic of influenza

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174. MC. Choose the correct answers. The landmarks of the tympanic membrane are the: a. Umbo b. Light triangle C. Manubrium of the malleus d. Stapes e. Short process of the malleus

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195. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of external auditory duct furuncle are: a. Pruritus b. Sense of tension c. Otalgia d. Sensorineural hearing loss e. Conductive hearing loss (intermittent hearing loss)

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200. MC. Choose the correct answers. The factors predisposing to the development of otomycosis are: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Antibiotic therapy c. Anti-tuberculosis drugs d. Trauma e. Reduced immunity of the human body

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202. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical signs of ozena: a. Fetid smell from the nose b. Anosmia c. Large nasal fossae d. Hypertrophy of the inferior nasal cornets e. Crusts

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207. MC. Choose the correct answers. Auditory tube dysfunction may be caused by: a. Rhino-pharyngeal infections b. Nasal septum deviation c. Adenoidal hypertrophy d. Impacted cerumen e. Rhino-pharyngeal tumors

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208. MC. Choose the correct answers. The tactics of an ORL specialist in case of a nasal trauma consist in: a. Hemostatsis b. To control pain c. Primary surgical processing of the wound d. Tracheotomy e. Administration of antitetanic serum

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211. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment methods of otitis media with effusion include: a. Drainage of the tympanic cavity (tympanopuncture, paracentesis, tympanotomy, tympanostomy) b. Politzeration C. Pneumomassage d. Mastoidectomy e. Treatment of nasopharyngeal pathology

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244. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of chronic otitis media consists of: a. Treatment of infection in the nasopharynx b. Local conservative treatment after external auditory canal cleaning c. Surgical treatment d. Anti-inflammatory, antibiotic, antipyretic therapy e. Vitamin therapy, adequate alimentation

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251. MC. Choose the correct answers. Acute otitis media is provoked by: a. Viruses b. Strept. Pneumonie c. Staph. Aureus d. Pseudomonas aeroginosa e. H. Influenza

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264. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the clinical signs are characteristic of excitation of the vestibular analyzer: a. Vertigo b. Nystagmus C. Pulse and blood tension disorders d. Fever, shiver e. Adiadocokinezia

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278. MC. Choose the correct answers. What changes are revealed in the cephalorachidian liquid in otogenic meningitis: a. Increased pressure of the liquid b. It is opaque C. Leukocytosis and neutrocytosis d. Increased level of glucose and chlorine e. Increased level of protein

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300. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the symptoms are characteristic of cerebellar abscess: a. Ataxia b. Decrease of muscle tone of the affected part c. Nystagmus of a big amplitude d. Aphasy e. Scanning speech

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308. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnostics of chronic otitis media is made on the basis of: a. Microotoscopy b. Radiological examination c. Audiologic examination d. Microbiological examination e. Computed tomography

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57. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the action of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx: a. Opening of the glottis (abduction) b. Closing of the glottis (adduction) C. Tension of the vocal cords d. Lifting of the larynx e. Descent of the epiglottis

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60. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the ganglia in which laryngeal lymphocytes flow: a. Prelaryngeal ganglia b. Recurrent ganglia c. Pretracheal ganglia d. Mesenteric ganglia e. Superiorjugulocarotis

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74. MC. Choose the correct answers. An opera singer consults a specialist in phoniatrics because of dysphonia that developed in five days after a voice strain. Which methods of examination may be used? What recommendations are necessary in this case: a. Indirect laryngoscopy b. Direct laryngoscopy c. Stroboscopy d. Rest to vocal cords e. Out-patient treatment

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81 .MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the most important factors in producing and persisting of laryngotracheomalacia: a. Occurrence of some diseases during pregnancy in mother b. Poor living conditions c. Humoral deficiency d. Consumption of dairy products in excess e. Spasmophilia

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97. MC.Choose the correct answers. Benign tumors of the nose and paranasal sinuses include: a. Squamous papilloma b. Osteoma c. Angiofibroma d. Lymphoma e. Hemangioma

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99. MC. Choose the correct answers. False croup is characterized by: a. Clinical picture of acute viral respiratory catarrh b. "Barking" cough c. Inspiratory dyspnea d. Dysphagia e. Intoxication

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102. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the anatomic and clinical forms of tuberculous laryngitis: a. Infiltrative- ulcerous form b. Miliary form C. Cavernous form d. Lupus of the larynx e. Bronchiectatic form

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107. MC. Choose the correct answers. In the middle nasal meatus open: a. Frontal sinus b. Maxillary sinus c. Sphenoid sinus d. Anterior cells of the ethmoid e. Posterior cells of the ethmoid

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136. CM. Choose the correct answers. An examination of the larynx by a specialist includes: a. Palpation of the larynx b. Indirect laryngoscopy c. Posterior laryngoscopy d. Direct laryngoscopy e. Anterior laryngoscopy

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140. MC. Choose the correct answers. Ulcero-necrotic angina of hematologic origin determined in case of: a. Agranulocytosis b. Plant-Vincent-Simanovski's angina c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Leukemia e. Follicular angina

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171. CM. Choose the correct answers. The floors of the tympanic cavity are the following: a. Mesotympanum b. Epitympanum c. Pars tensa d. Hypotympanum e. Pars flaccida

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178. MC. Choose the correct answers. The functions of the auditory tube are: a. Ventilation b. Drainage c. Phonation d. Protection e. Olfaction

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189. MC. Choose the correct answers. The functions of the auditory tube are the following: a. Ventilation b. Drainage c. Phonation d. Protection e. Respiration

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191. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of acute rhinitis is directed to: a. Restore the permeability of the nasal fossae b. Control fever c. Control bradycardia d. Prevent complications e. Resection of the nasal septum, conchotomy

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193. MC. Choose the correct answer. The etiology of otitis externa are the following: a. Streptococci b. Staphylococci c. Viruses d. Fungi e. Lefler's bacilli

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197. MC. Choose the correct answers. The complications of external auditory canal furuncle are: a. Furuncle recurrence b. Periauricular lymphadenitis c. Pyelonephritis d. Septicemia e. Diabetes mellitus

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207. MC. Choose the correct answers. Characteristic and specific signs of a nasal trauma are: a. Epistaxis b. Pains c. Sneeze d. Respiratory disorders e. Conjunctivitis

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238. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical forms of exteriorized mastoiditis are the following: a. Temporozygomatic and occipital b. Cervical (substernocleidomastoidal) C. Masked/latent/silent d. Jugodigastric and petrosit e. Labyrinthitis

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42. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the unpaired cartilages of the larynx: a. Cricoid b. Thyroid c. Arytenoideus d. Epiglottidian e. Cuneiform

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53. MC. Choose the correct answers. The superior part of the larynx is parallel to the: a. Root of the tongue b. Mouth of the esophagus c. Buccal cavity d. Hypopharynx e. Mesopharynx

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65. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the anatomical components of the larynx vestibule: a. Laryngeal face of the epiglottis b. Aryepiglottic folds, arytenoideus c. Vocal cords d. Ventricular bands e. Thyroid

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67. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the functions of the larynx: a. Formation of the voice b. Protection c. Auditory d. Respiratory e. Deglutition

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70. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the methods of examination of the larynx: a. Laryngoscopy b. Stroboscopy c. Laparoscopy d. Radiography e. Pharyngoscopy

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71 .MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the causes of functional dysphonia of laryngeal type: a. Vocal overstrain (in vocal professions) b. Endocrine disorders (viril voice in females and eunuch voice in males) C. Benign tumors (polyps, nodular papilloma) d. Psychic disorders e. Uni- or bilateral recurrent paralysis

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75. MC. Choose the correct answers. For what purpose is tracheotomy used: a. To permit pulmonary ventilation b. To feed a patient C. To reduce the volume of dead respiratory space d. To isolate the digestive tract from the respiratory one e. To improve basal respiration

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108. MC. Choose the correct answers. How are the forms of larynx stenosis divided according to the time of development: a. Fulminant b. Acute c. Allergic d. Subacute e. Chronic

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109. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the forms of larynx stenosis division according to the degree of lumen reduction: a. Asphyxia b. Decompensated c. Acquired d. Incompletely compensated e. Compensated

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109. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following sinuses constitute a part of the paranasal sinuses: a. Maxillary b. Frontal c. Sigmoid d. Sphenoid e. Ethmoid cells

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119. MC. Choose the correct answers. Physiopathological syndromes of the nose sinuses are: a. Respiratory (nasal obstruction) b. Secretory and circulatory c. Digestive d. Sensitive and reflex e. Olfactive

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121. MC. Choose the correct answers. What clinical manifestations are characteristic of recurrent papillomatosis of the larynx: a. Onset at an early age b. Recurrent character C. Malignant tumor d. Obstructive character e. Extension in the inferior respiratory tract

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128. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the functions of the tracheobronchial apparatus: a. Air circulation (respiratory) b. Secretion c. Endocrine d. Phonation e. Excretion (motility)

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133. MC. Choose the correct answers. Nasal hemorrhages are stopped by: a. General methods b. Local methods c. Physiotherapeutic methods d. Anterior nasal tamponade e. Posterior nasal tamponade

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143. MC. Choose the correct answers. Buccopharyngoscopy allows examining of: a. Oral cavity b. Mesopharynx c. Gerlach's amygdala d. Palatine amygdala e. Buccopharyngeal isthmus

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158. MC. Choose the correct answers. The ways of spreading of infection from the paranasal sinuses to the neighboring regions are: a. By contact b. Hematogenic c. Traumatic d. Perineural, perivascular, mixed e. Lymphogenic

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159. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following factors determine the clinical picture of internal injury of esophagus: a. Region of esophagus injury b. Character and form of injury object c. Cephalia d. Duration of time after the moment of injury e. Patient's general state

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163. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical symptoms of cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis caused by sinusitis are: a. Clinical symptoms of sinusitis b. Fever (39-40 *C), shiver, cephalea c. Odynophagia d. Deterioration of a patient's general state e. Exophthalmos, palpebral ptosis, peripalpebral edema, diplopia

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165. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnostics of rhinosinusogenic intracranial abscess includes: a. History data b. Rhinusogenic, neurological and oftalmological examinations c. Consultation of a physiotherapeutist d. Data of computed tomography e. Cephaloarachnoidal liquid examination

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168. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the diseases given below may cause nasal hemorrhage: a. Hematologic diseases, thrombocytopenia b. Hypertensive disease c. Stomach ulcer d. Hepatic insufficiency, hepatic cirrhosis e. Influenza

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171. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the diseases given below will produce closed rhinolalia: a. Tumors in the nasal cavity b. Large adenoid vegetation c. Ozena d. Hypertrophic chronic rhinitis e. Nasal polyps

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179. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnostics of osteoma of the nasal sinuses is based on: a. Cephalea b. Deformity of the sinus walls c. Hepatomegaly d. Radiography data e. Displacement of the eye

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190. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which is the classification of sinusitis according to the bacteriological criterion: a. Monomicrobial b. Polymicrobial c. Primary d. Viral e. Mycotic

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192. MC. Choose the correct answers. Nasal eczema may be caused by: a. Metabolic disturbances b. Action of allergens c. Nasal septum deviation d. Action of some chemical substances e. Purulent rhinorrhea

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208. MC. Choose the correct answers. Auditory tube dysfunction causes: a. Negative pressure in the tympanic cavity b. Accumulation of transudation in the tympanic cavity c. Perceptive deafness d. Conductive hearing loss e. Auricular noise

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211. MC. Choose the correct answers. The tactics of an ORL specialist in case of diverse forms of rhinosinusogenic complications are: a. Puncture or surgical drainage of the affected sinus b. Puncture or surgical drainage of the affected sinus and management of rhinosinusogenic complications c. Radiotherapy d. Anti- inflammatory, desintoxicative, sedative, antihistamine medicines e. Antibiotics

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231. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of acute otitis media in the perforative phase includes: a. Antibiotic therapy b. Anti-inflammatory therapy c. Surgical therapy d. External auditory canal cleaning e. Vasoconstriction therapy

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235. MC. Choose the correct answers. The diagnostics of antritis is based on the data of: a. Case history or anamnesis b. Otomicroscopy c. microbiological examination d. Audiological examination e. Radiological examination

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279. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which are the symptoms characteristic for otogenic meningitis: a. Signs of acute or chronic otitis media b. Difuse intense headache c. Aphasia. Adiadocokinezia d. Meningeal signs e. Characteristic changes in the cephalorachidian liquid

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290. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick nonsuppurative diseases of the ear: a. Tympanosclerosis b. Adhesive otitis media c. Otitis externa d. Otitis media with effusion e. Perceptive hearing loss

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88. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the therapeutic measures necessary in case of external larynx lesions: a. Provision of respiration (tracheotomy, assisted respiration) b. Shock state control c. Laser therapy d. Arrest of bleeding e. Reduction of edema

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94. MC. Choose the correct answers. What complications may develop in case of late diagnosis of a larynx foreign body: a. Laryngeal stenosis b. Chondroperichondritis c. Chronic pharyngitis d. Tracheobronchitis e. Pneumonia

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121. MC. Choose the correct answers. Lymph of the nasal cavity are drained in: a. Submandibular ganglia b. Deep ganglia of the cervical region c. Internal j ugular vein d. Subarachnoidal space e. Retropharyngeal ganglia

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133. MC. Choose the correct answers. A 8-year-old girl who had had a spoon of concentrated acetic acid was hospitalized urgently to the ORL clinic. In which organs can changes develop: a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Esophagus d. Lungs e. Stomach

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144. MC. Choose the correct answers. The affection of the pharynx occurs in the following diseases: a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Diphtheria C. Meningococcal meningitis d. Pneumonia e. Scarlet fever

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146. MC. Choose the correct answers. Nasal scleroma is caused by diplococcus and it discovered by: a. Frish b. Vascovisci c. Pirogov d. Waldayer e. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

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159. MC. Choose the correct answers. The tympanic membrane consists of the following layers: a. Epithelial b. Fibrous c. Bony d. Muscle e. Mucous

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169. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of corrosive esophagitis includes the following stages: a. Urgent first aid b. Intensive care unit and department of toxicology c. Balneary d. Radiotherapy department e. Otorhinolaryngology department

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196. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the causes of nasal furuncle: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Nasal vestibule trauma c. Chronic amygdalitis d. Adenoid vegetation e. Excoriation of the nasal vestibule skin

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206. MC. Choose the correct answers. Acute otitis media on the base of infectious disease is characterized by: a. Hematogenic transmission b. Specific otoscopic picture c. Lymphogenic transmission d. Outspreading around e. Necrotic process

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217. MC. Choose the correct answers. Cancer of the cavum may be revealed due to: a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Laterocervical adenopathy c. Epistaxis d. Dysphagia e. Unilateral transmissive hypoacusis

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241. MC. Choose the correct answers. The classification of suppurative chronic otitis media includes: a. Simple chronic otitis media (mesotympanitis), benign form b. Proper chronic otitis media (epitympanitis), malignant form c. Silent chronic otitis media d. Adhesive chronic otitis media e. Mesoepitympanitis

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267. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which anatomical structures of the inner ear serve as a direct way of infection penetration into the cranial cavity: a. Vestibular aqueduct b. Cochlear aqueduct C. Lateral semicircular canal d. Horizontal semicircular canal e. Internal auditory duct

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291. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the signs characteristic of otosclerosis: a. Negative Rinne's test b. Wellisii's paraacusis c. Shortened Schwabah's test d. Positive Gelle's test e. Negative Gelle's test

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311. MC. Choose the correct answers. The examination of auditory function includes: a. Acumetric examination b. Impedance audiometry c. Sonography d. Vestibulometry e. Audiometry

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312. MC. Choose the correct answers. On the examination of auditory tube permeability a number of methods are used: a. Valsava's method b. Toynbe's method c. Weber's method d. Gelle's method e. Politzer's method

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54. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the components of the superior limit of the larynx: a. Free edge of the epiglottis b. Aryepiglottic superposition c. Vocal chords d. Free edge of the cricoid e. Interarytenoideus space

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106. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the possible origin of larynx stenosis: a. Congenital b. Occupational C. Acquired d. Social e. Communication

116. MC. Choose the correct answers. Can angina be revealed in the hypopharynx? How is it called: a. Yes b. Tubal angina c. Lingual angina d. Palatine angina e. Catarrhal angina

136. MC. Choose the correct answers. The levator muscle of the pharynx is: a. Stylopharyngeal b. Palatoglossus c. Palatopharyngeal d. Constrictor of the pharynx e. Muscle veli palatini

146. MC. Choose the correct answers. At what level and where is the superior extremity of the "mouth of the esophagus" located and projected: a. Posterior cricoids cartilage b. Anterior thyroid cartilage c. To the right of the vertebra C6 d. To the right of the vertebra C4 e. Posterior trachea

161. MC Choose the correct answers. Esophageal foreign bodies are divided into: a. Tolerant b. Obstruent c. Intolerant d. Valvular e. Floating

162. MC. Choose the correct answers. The important structures of the promontory do not include the: a. Eustachian tube b. Round window c. Mastoid process d. Oval window e. Facial nerve

170. mC. Choose the correct answers. The dilatation of esophagus is performed with: a. Plastic probe b. Rhinoendoscopy c. Tubal probe made of bovine peritoneum d. Fibroscope e. Bronchoscope

187. MC. Choose the correct answers. The function of the middle ear is to: a. Transmit sound vibrations b. Reduce sound pressure c. Increase sound pressure d. Transmit vibrations of middle ear ossicles e. Transmit muscular vibrations

202. MC. Choose the correct answers. The differential diagnostics of otitis externa is made by: a. Otoscopy b. Radiography c. Microbiologic examination d. Audiologic examination e. Palpation

222. MC. Choose the correct answers. The objective signs of acute otitis media in preperforative phase are: a. Hyperemia of the tympanum b. Perforation of the tympanum c. Swelling of the tympanum d. Purulent elimination in the external auditory canal e. Intact tympanic membrane

298. MC. Choose the correct answers. What is characteristic of otogenic septicemia: a. Hectic fever b. Intermittent fever c. Shiver d. Continued fever e. Critical fall of temperature

305. MC. Choose the correct answers. According to the origin foreign bodies of the auditory canal may be: a. Organic b. Exogenic c. Inorganic d. Endogenic e. Mixed

309. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which is the most informative method of diagnostics in case of triggering some otogenic intracranial complications: a. NMR b. Standard radiography c. Computer tomography d. Ultrasonography e. Arteriography

98. MC. Choose the correct answers. Ethmoid air cells are divided into the following anatomical groups: a. Anterior b. Superior c. Posterior d. Medium e. Inferior

99. MC. Choose the correct answers. Paranasal sinuses are divided into the following anatomical groups: a. Anterior b. Superior c. Posterior d. Medium e. Inferior

110. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the pathologies in which inspiratory dyspnea is the main clinical symptom: a. False croup b. Bronchial asthma (atrophic laryngitis) C. Laryngeal foreign bodies d. Bilateral recurrent paralysis e. Catarrhal laryngitis

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112. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical forms of chronic laryngitis: a. Catarrhal b. Occupational c. Hypertrophic d. Atrophic e. Subglottic

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155. MC. Choose correct answers. The treatment of acute sphenoiditis is: a. Medicinal b. Physiotherapy c. General d. Local e. Surgical

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163. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the phases of the development of symptoms in case of presence of a foreign body in the esophagus: a. Onset b. Terminal C. Complication d. Tolerance e. Asphyxia

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164. MC. Choose the correct answers. Rhinosinusogenic complications of the respiratory tract include the following diseases: a. Acute and chronic laryngotracheitis b. Hypertensive disease c. Pneumonia d. Bronchial asthma e. Ulcers of the gastro- intestinal tract

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168. MC. Choose the correct answers. Lesions produced by corrosive substances vary according to: a. Nature of caustic substance b. Patient's age C. Quantity of swallowed liquid d. Concentration of caustic e. Sex of a patient

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172. MC. Choose the correct answers. The ossicles of the tympanic cavity are the following: a. Malleus b. Manubrium c. Incus d. Stapes e. Head of the malleus

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175. MC. Choose the correct answers. The types of the mastoid are following: a. Pneumatic b. Calcified c. Diploid d. Sclerotic e. Pneumatodiploid

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176. MC. Choose the correct answers. Ulceronecrotic angina can be present and revealed in the following diseases: a. Agranulocytosis b. Simanovski's angina c. Monocytic angina d. Leukemic angina e. Follicular angina

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178. MC. Choose the correct answers. Leukemic angina is characterized by the following hematologic indexes: a. Leukocytosis b. Leukopenia c. Anemia d. Thrombocytopenia e. Lymphopenia

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182. MC. Choose the correct answers. The semicircular canals are: a. Horizontal (lateral) b. Vertical (medial) C. Superior (frontal) d. Posterior (sagittal) e. Posterior (vertical)

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186. MC. Choose the correct answers. The sections of the acoustic analyzer are the following: a. Peripheral section b. Lateral section c. Conductive ways d. Cortical section e. Vestibule

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205. MC. Choose the correct answers. In what direction do the cilia move and involve the mucus from the maxillary sinus and what are the most frequent causes of maxillary sinusitis: a. To the sinus ostium b. To the maxillary sinus c. Infection d. Functional state of the orifice connecting maxillary sinus with the nasal cavity e. Rhinorrhea

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210. MC. Choose the correct answers. For diagnostics of otitis media with effusion it is necessary: a. Otomicroscopy b. Otoscopy c. Audiometry d. Impedance audiometry e. Radiography

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213. MC. Choose the correct answers. Characteristic symptoms of acute ethmoiditis are: a. Pains in the region of ethmoid cells projection b. Expiratory dyspnea c. Nasal obstruction d. Rhinorrhea e. Otodynia

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217. MC. Choose the correct answers. The phases of acute otitis media are the following: a. Pre-perforative phase b. Phase of simple tubal obstruction c. Phase of regeneration d. Phase of perforation e. Phase of hearing loss

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218. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of cancer of the cavum consists in: a. Surgical excision b. Ultrasonography c. Telecobaltotherapy d. Chemotherapy e. Cryotherapy

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227. MC. Choose the correct answers. Indications for the surgical treatment of acute otitis media are: a. Local indications: swelling of the tympanum, mastoid pain b. Local indications: tympanic membrane retraction, tinitus c. General indications: nausea, vertigo, headache, fever d. General indications: meningeal signs, vomiting e. Perforation of the tympanic membrane, purulent elimination in the external auditory canal

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310. MC. Choose the correct answers. In otology the following views are used for a radiological examination: a. Mayer view b. Fastovschi view c. Stenwers view d. Schiiller view e. Undrit view

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47. MC. Choose the correct answers. How many apophyses have the arytenoid cartilages and what are they: a. Two b. Three c. Anterior (vocal) d. External (muscular) e. Internal (mucous)

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63. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the portions of the larynx that are lined with stratified pavement epithelium, partially keratinized: a. Epiglottis, larynx space b. Subglottic space c. Ventricular bands d. Vocal cords e. Epiglottic tongue space

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86. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the actions that larynx lesions may produce: a. Road accidents b. Inhalation of vapor c. Acts of violence d. Attempts of strangulation e. Inhalation of chemical products (toxic gases, smoke)

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103. MC. Choose the correct answers. Anterior rhinoscopy allows to examine: a. Nasal pituitary cavity b. Rhinopharynx, adenoid vegetations c. Head and inferior part of the middle nasal turbinate d. Inferior nasal meatus and the anterior part of the nasal septum e. Inferior nasal turbinate

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107. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the forms of larynx stenosis if it is divided according to the criterion of localization: a. Supraglottic b. Infaraglottic c. Glottic d. Subglottic e. Combined

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136. MC. Choose the correct answers. Olfactive disorders may be in the form of: a. Hyposmia b. Rhinorrhea c. Cacosmia d. Hyperosmia e. Anosmia

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153. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of acute maxillary sinusitis includes: a. Physiotherapy b. Conchotomy c. Anti- inflammatory d. Puncture of the maxillary sinus with therapeutic purpose e. Hyposensitizing medicine

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166. MC. Choose the correct answers. In case of which pathology does open rhinolalia occur: a. Soft palate paralysis b. Nasal polyps c. Soft palate trauma d. Velopalatine insufficiency e. Soft palate malformation

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189. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the tactics of a general practitioner in case of rhinosinusogenic complications: a. Consultation of an ORL specialist b. Treatment in an out-patients clinic (department) c. Consultation of an oftalmologist d. Hospitalization of a patient e. Consultation of a neurologist

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198. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the diagnosis and tactics of an ORL doctor in case of a 34-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus that causes pains in the nose, cephalea, fever, shiver, infiltration with edema of the external nose. The objective examination reveals hyperemia and infiltration of the nasal vestibule skin: a. Nasal vestibule furuncle b. Acute rhinitis c. Hospitalization of the patient d. Blood examination, coagulogram e. Antibiotics, analgetics, desensitizing medicines, anti-inflammatory

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205. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of scarlet otitis media consists of: a. Antibiotic therapy b. Surgical treatment C. Antihistaminic treatment d. Treatment of nasopharyngeal pathology e. Anti-inflammatory treatment

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220. MC. Choose the correct answers. The examination of the nose and sinuses includes: a. Anterior rhinoscopy b. Otoscopy c. Posterior rhinoscopy d. X-ray examination e. Olfactometry

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229. MC. Choose the correct answers. Possible accidents in the course of myringotomy are: a. Lesion of the skin of the external auditory canal b. Lesion of the lateral sinus c. Luxation of the stapes d. Lesion of the promontory and round window e. Opening of the jugular bulb

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263. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the medicines are ototoxic: a. Streptomicine b. Penicillin c. Kanamycin d. Furosemide e. Gentamicin

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41. MC. Choose the correct answers. The larynx is composed of the following cartilages: a. Cricoid b. Tragal c. Thyroid d. Comiculate e. Cuneiform

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80. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the congenital abnormalities of the larynx: a. Laryngomalacia b. Choanal atresia c. Hemangioma d. Subglottic stenosis e. Laryngocele

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83. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the main principles in the treatment of congenital stridor: a. Hygienic conditions b. Therapy with antibiotics of large spectrum C. Avoiding carriers of infections of the inferior respiratory tract d. breast-feeding e. Administration of calcium and vitamin D preparations

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87. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the characteristic symptoms of an external larynx lesion: a. Laryngeal obstruction (dyspnea) b. Nasal obstruction c. Bleeding d. Dysphonia e. Dysphasia

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89. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the characteristic symptoms of larynx lesions caused by inhalation: a. Attack of acute dyspnea b. Hematoma of vocal cords c. Feeling of burn d. Epiphora e. Asphyxia (cough)

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96. MC. Choose the correct answers. Acute sinusitis in an uncomplicated form is treated by: a. antibiotics b. radical operation on the maxillary sinus c. vasoconstrictors d. anti-inflammatory drugs e. nose rinsing

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97. MC. Choose the correct answers. What does laryngoscopic examination show in case of false croup: a. Reduced subglottic space b. Immobile vocal cords c. Edema of areolar tissue in the subglottic region d. False folds in the subglottic space e. Reduction of subglottic edema in case of the use of vasoconstrictive medicines

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100. MC. Choose the correct answers. Select the paranasal sinuses which are included in the anterior group: a. Frontal b. Sphenoid c. Maxillary d. Posterior ethmoid cells e. Anterior ethmoid cells

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103. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the ways of inoculation of Koch's bacillus in the larynx: a. Sputogenic b. Perineural C. Lymphogenic d. Through emissarium e. Hematogenic

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111. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which are the functions of the nose: a. Respiratory b. Hematopoietic c. Protective d. Endocrine e. Olfactory

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118. MC. Choose the correct answers. Nasal malformations are: a. Nose aplasia b. Rhinopharyngeal angiofibroma c. Median fissures d. Nasal polyps e. Nasal fossae atresia

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135. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the main objectives in the treatment of edematous laryngitis: a. Restoration or improvement of respiration b. Laser surgery C. Control of infection d. Laryngectomy e. Stimulation of body defenses

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137. MC. Choose the correct answers. An examination of the bronchi by a specialist includes: a. Auscultation b. Anterior bronchoscopy c. Bronchoscopy d. Posterior bronchoscopy e. X-ray examination

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143. MC. Choose the correct answers. In what group of population does supermaxillary osteomyelitis occur more frequently? What is the pathogenic agent of supermaxillary osteomyelitis and how is it treated: a. In children b. In adults c. Staphylococcus d. Streptococcus e. Antibiotics, desintoxication, drainage of pus, removal of sequesters

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149. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following statements of retropharyngeal phlegmon are correct: a. Purulent inflammation of areolar tissue and Gillette's ganglia of the retropharyngeal space b. Purulent inflammation of periamygdal tissues c. It occurs in children d. It occurs in adults e. It is caused by acute respiratory catarrh, angina

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154. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which congenital malformations can be revealed at the level of the esophagus: a. Esophagus atresia with esophagorespiratory fistulizations b. Corrosion of esophagus c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Umbilical hernia e. Diverticulum

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165. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the given below are pathomorphological phases in the evolution of periamygdaline phlegmon (abscess): a. Edema phase b. Initial phase c. Abscess phase d. Healing phase e. Infiltration phase

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210. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick rhinosinusogenic endocranial complications: a. Extra- and subdural abscess in the frontal region b. Edema of facial soft tissues c. Rhinosinusogenic meningitis d. Periostitis e. Abscess of the frontal lobe

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215. MC. Choose the correct answers. Insufficiency of nasal respiration leads to: a. Disturbance of auditory function b. Vomiting c. Physical and mental retardation d. Epistaxis e. Bronchopulmonary pathology

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230. MC. Choose the correct answers. The perforative phase in acute otitis media is characterized by: a. Improvement of the general state b. Worsening of the general state C. Presence of otorrhea in the external auditory canal d. Development of hearing loss e. Development of perforation of the tympanic membrane

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232. MC. Choose the correct answers. Specific features of otoscopy in children under the age of 12 months are: a. The auditory canal is narrower b. The auditory canal is longer c. The tympanic membrane is situated in a more horizontal position d. The tympanic membrane is located in a more vertical position e. The tympanic membrane has good vascularity

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276. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following anatomical structures form the apparatus of sound transmission: a. Pavilion of the ear b. Spiral organ c. Middle ear d. Upper respiratory tract e. External auditory duct

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281. MC. Choose the correct answers. The exteriorized forms of mastoiditis: a. Zygomatitis b. Labyrinthitis c. Squamitis d. Tympanitis e. Petrositis

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286. MC.Choose the correct answers. Tick the exteriorized forms of mastoiditis: a. Zygomatitis b. Labyrinthitis c. Squamitis d. Tympanitis e. Petrositis

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292. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical forms of labyrinthitis are: a. Tympanogenic b. Otogenic C. Meningogenic d. Sinusogenic e. Hematogenic

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293. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick nonsuppurative diseases of the middle ear: a. Otosclerosis b. Acute otitis media C. Adhesive otitis media d. Otomycosis e. Tympanosclerosis

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40. MC. Choose the correct answers. The parts of the larynx include: a. Supraglottis b. Infraglottis c. Glottis d. Superior part e. Subglottis

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43. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the paired cartilages of the larynx walls: a. Corniculate b. Thyroid C. Cuneiform d. Cricoid e. Arytenoideus

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69. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the given bellow are the theories of the formation of voice: a. Myoelastic theory b. Telephone theory C. Neuromuscular theory d. Hydrodynamic theory e. Muco- undulatory theory

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117. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the lymphoid formations are in the rhinopharynx: a. Gerlach's amygdalae b. Palatine amygdalae c. Gillette's ganglia d. Luscha's amygdalae e. Lingual amygdalae

127. MC. Choose the correct answers. Is it possible to make a puncture of the maxillary sinus in an out- patient department: a. Yes b. No c. Superior nasal meatus d. Inferior nasal meatus e. Middle nasal meatus

171. MC. Choose the correct answers. What are the contraindications of an early esophagus dilatation: a. Perforation of ulcerated wall b. Formation of false buccopharyngeal membrane c. Fetid halitosis d. Hard dilatation of stenosis e. Stomach ulcer

203. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical signs and localization of a bleeding nasal polyp: a. Cartilaginous part of the nasal septum b. Vomer c. Lamina perpendicularis to the ethmoid bone d. Frequent epistaxis e. Cephalea

258. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following are the components of the vestibular analyzer: a. Vestibule b. Organ of Corti c. Spiral organ d. Semicircular canals e. Tympanic cavity

266. MC. Choose the correct answers. The otolithic apparatus is situated in the: a. Utricle b. Cupula terminalis c. Crista ampullaris d. Saccule e. Round window

299. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the local symptoms are characteristic of abscess of the temporal lobe: a. Amnestic aphasia b. Disorders of equilibrium function c. Conductive hearing loss d. Sensory aphasia e. Foss' symptom

39. MC. Choose the correct answers. The vocal cords are attached to: a. Arythenoid b. Epiglottitis c. Corniculate d. Thyroid e. Cricoid

120. MC. Choose the correct answers. The most frequent cause of upper respiratory insufficiency in children is due to: a. Adenoid vegetations b. Nasal polyps c. Ozena d. Acute and chronic rhinitis e. Deviation of the nasal septum (choanal atresia)

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150. MC. Choose the correct answers. From the histological point of view is nasopharyngeal angiofibroma in the male puberty a benign or a malignant tumor? In what groups of persons does it occur more frequently and what is the method of its treatment? a. Benign b. Malignant c. In elderly persons d. Surgically e. In boys (15-25 years)

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155. MC. Choose the correct answers. Conclusions which made on the base of audiogram could be: a. Conductive hearing loss b. Chronic otitis media c. Acute otitis media d. Mixed hearing loss e. Sensorineural hearing loss

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161. MC. Choose the correct answers. The middle ear parts are the following: a. Epitympanum b. Hypertympanum c. Posttympanum d. Mezotympanum e. Hypotympanum

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167. MC. Choose the correct answers. The similarities between amygdalitis in compensated form and chronic amygdalitis in decompensated form are: a. Sensation of pain in the throat b. Repeated cases of angina in a patient who suffers from rheumatism c. Repeated periamygdaline phlegmon d. Pus liquid in the amygdaline lacuna e. Regional adenopathy

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177. MC. Choose the correct answers. The auditory tube in infants is: a. Open b. Closed c. Long d. Short e. Horizontal

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201. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the types of rhinitis: a. Acute b. Mixed c. Exudative d. Chronic e. Specific

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282. MC. Choose the correct answers. Clinical forms of otosclerosis are: a. Cochlear b. Latent C. Manifestative d. Mixed e. Tympanal

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284. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following surgical interventions are used in the treatment of Meniere's disease: a. Cordotomy b. Tympanoplasty c. Tympanoplasty d. Labyrinth shunting e. Endolymphatic saccule shunting

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287. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical form of otosclerosis are: a. Cochlear b. Latent c. Manifestative d. Mixed e. Tympanal

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297. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the factors are known as " Virchow's triad": a. Erythremic blood disturbance due to hypercoagulation b. Leukocytosis c. Thrombocytopenia d. Slowing down of blood circulation e. Changes of vascular wall

ade

64. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the endolaryngeal floors: a. Supraglottic b. Infraglottic c. Transglottic d. Glottic e. Subglottic

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77. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the names of tracheotomy according to the location where the opening of the trachea is performed: a. Superior tracheotomy b. Posterior tracheotomy c. Lateral tracheotomy d. Middle tracheotomy e. Inferior tracheotomy

ade

165. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the given methods are used in treatment of a foreign body in the esophagus: a. Medicines b. Radiotherapy c. Physiotherapy d. Chemotherapy e. Instruments

214. MC. Choose the correct answers.Venous blood from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses flows into: a. Facial vein b. Subclavian vein c. Occipital vein d. Descending palatine vein e. Oftalmic vein

216. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following is necessary for diagnostics of acute otitis media: a. Otoscopy, otomicroscopy b. Laboratory examination c. Microbiological examination d. Radiological examination e. Audiological examination

245. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of suppurative chronic otitis media malignant form (epitympanitis) are: a. Purulent otorrhea with fetid smell b. Purulent otorrhea without smell, conductive hearing loss c. Perceptive hearing loss d. Perforation in the pars tensa e. Perforation in the pars flaccida

301. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick pathomorphological changes characteristic of Meniere's disease: a. Cochlear canal dilatation b. Festering in the endolymphatic space c. Atrophy of stria vascularis d. Formation of adherences in the tympanum box e. Dilatation of the saccule and utricule

120. MC. Choose the correct answers. Nonspecific angina is treated: a. Surgically b. With antibiotics C. With anti-inflammatory medicines, analgesics, vitamins d. Topically: treating with disinfectant substances, lavage of palatine amygdalae e. Cryptotomy

124. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the portions of the trachea: a. Abdominal b. Thoracic C. Cervical d. Pharyngeal e. Lumbar

138. MC. Choose the correct answers. The presence of a bronchus foreign body is the indication for: a. Flexible bronchoscopy b. Rigid bronchoscopy c. X-ray d. Indirect bronchoscopy e. Direct bronchoscopy

173. MC. Choose the correct answers. The layers of the tympanic membrane in the pars flaccida are the following: a. Fibrous layer b. Epidermal layer c. Mucous layer d. Cartilaginous layer e. Osteal layer

204. MC. Choose the correct answers. The main causes of the nasal septum deviation are: a. Acute rhinitis b. Nasal trauma c. Hereditary predisposition d. Vasomotor rhinitis e. Rhinorrhea

226. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of acute otitis media includes: a. Surgical treatment in all cases b. Surgical treatment in complicated cases c. Conservative treatment in all cases d. Conservative treatment in complicated cases e. A and C

254. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which tests are characteristic of otosclerosis: a. Hyperemia of the tympanum b. Negative Rinne's test c. Negative Gille's test d. Otorrhea e. Willissi's paraacusis

94. MC. Choose the correct answers. The forms of primary angina are: a. Catarrhal, fibrinogenous b. Catarrhal, follicular c. Lacunar, ulceromembranous d. Phlegmonous e. Necrotic

103. MC. Choose the correct answers. The symptomatology of adenoid vegetations in stages II-III includes the following signs: a. Fever, shiver, intoxication b. Facies adenoideum c. Nasal obstruction d. Presence of some soft, pink tumor formations in the rhinopharynx e. Tachycardia

bcd

109. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the given below types of angina belong to the group of secondary angina: a. Lacunar angina b. Diphtheritic angina c. Leukemic angina d. Neutropenic angina e. Follicular angina

bcd

115.MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the benign tumors of the larynx: a. Epithelioma b. Adenoma C. Angioma d. Fibroma e. Fibrosarcoma

bcd

121. MC. Choose the correct answers. The pharynx is connected with the: a. Rhinopharynx- with the nose, middle ear, posterior mediastinum, larynx b. Buccopharynx- buccal cavity c. Laryngopharynx, esophagus, larynx d. Rhinopharynx- nose, middle ear, mesopharynx e. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx- stomach, digestive system

bcd

122. MC. Choose the correct answers. How many amygdaline pillars are there? Where do they originate from and terminate in: a. Four, two, three b. Four: two on either part (anterior and posterior) c. The anterior pillars extend from the anterior base of the soft palate on one side and to the uvula on the other and then descend towards the base of the tongue d. The posterior pillars extend from the posterior face of the soft palate and terminate in the lateral face of the pharynx e. Six: three anterior amygdaline pillars and three posterior ones

bcd

123. MC. Choose the correct answers. The most frequent foreign bodies of the pharynx are localized in the: a. Rhinopharynx b. Buccopharynx c. Laryngopharynx d. Palatine amygdalae e. Vocal cords

bcd

126. MC. Choose the correct answers. The nasopharynx is examined by the following methods: a. Anterior rhinoscopy b. Posterior rhinoscopy c. Endoscopic examination of the rhinopharynx d. Digital examination, radiography, epipharyngoscopy e. Indirect laryngoscopy

bcd

138. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of acute rhinitis is: a. Surgical b. Medicinal c. With administration of vasoconstrictors d. Desensitizing e. Conchotomy

bcd

142. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the etiology, symptomatology and treatment of diphteric rhinitis: a. Conchotomy b. Loefler's bacillus c. Fibrous membrane depositions in the nasal pituitary d. Serotherapy e. Hemolytic streptococcus

bcd

156. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tympanogram is necessary in case of: a. acute purulent otitis media b. acute aperforative otitis media in children c. acute aperforative otitis media in adults d. otitis media with effusion e. chronic suppurative otitis media

bcd

168. MC. Choose the correct answers. Name the parts of the middle ear: a. External auditory canal b. Eustachian tube c. Tympanic cavity d. Antrum and mastoid cells e. Vestibule

bcd

176. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the characteristic features of the auditory tube in children in difference with adult one: a. longer b. larger c. shorter d. horizontal e. semi vertical

bcd

181. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following diseases of the ORL organs may cause acute sinusitis: a. Labyrinthitis b. Acute pharyngitis c. Angina d. Acute otitis media e. Perceptive deafness

bcd

185. MC. Choose the correct answers. The examination of the rhinopharynx is performed using the following methods: a. Anterior rhinoscopy b. Posterior rhinoscopy c. Rhinopharyngeal radiography d. Digital palpation of the nasopharynx e. Pharyngoscopy

bcd

187. MC. Choose the correct answers. Nasal septum perforation may be caused by: a. Nasal polyps b. Trauma c. Trophic disturbances d. Infection, tuberculosis, syphilis e. Chronic amygdalitis

bcd

187. MC. Choose the correct answers. The examination of the rhinopharynx is performed using the following methods: a. Anterior rhinoscopy b. Posterior rhinoscopy C. Rhinopharyngeal radiography d. Digital palpation of the nasopharynx e. Pharyngoscopy

bcd

188. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following clinical signs are characteristic of vasomotor rhinitis: a. Fever b. Sneezing c. Aquatic/ water rhinorrhea d. Insufficiency of nasal respiration e. Cephalea

bcd

200. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the urgent measures taken in case of severe epistaxis with the origin in the posterior portion of the nasal fossae: a. Vascular wall cauterization b. Tamponage of the anterior and posterior nasal zones c. Fluid rebalancing d. Hemostatic general treatment e. Conchotomy

bcd

248. MC. Choose the correct answers. The conservative treatment of suppurative otitis media (epitympanitis) includes: a. General antibiotic therapy b. Local antibiotic therapy c. Washing of the middle ear d. Removal of polyps and granulations e. Pneumomassage

bcd

45. MC. Choose the correct answers. How many corns has the thyroid cartilage and what are they: a. Three b. Four c. Superior d. Inferior e. Five

bcd

58. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the muscles that ensure the closure of the glottis or adduction: a. Posterior cricoarytenoideus b. Lateral sternohyoidal c. Interarytenoideus d. Thyroarytenoideus (external fascicle) e. Cricothyroid

bcd

113. MC. Choose the correct answers. In a patient with periamygdal phlegmon the following clinical signs are present: a. Nasal obstruction b. Otalgy C. Fiver, shiver d. Trismus e. Dysphagia

bcde

114. MC. Choose the correct answers. On the external wall of sphenoid sinus are: a. Hypophisis b. Cavernous sinus c. Internal carotid artery d. First branch of trigeminal nerve e. Oculomotor nerve

bcde

130. MC. Choose the correct answers. Nasal hemorrhages can be: a. Lymphatic b. Venous c. Capillary d. Mixed e. Arterial

bcde

150. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the arteries that feed the esophagus: a. Superior thyroid artery b. Bronchial arteries c. Frenic arteries d. Left gastric artery e. Esophagus arteries (originating from the aorta)

bcde

151. MC. Choose the correct answers. Benign tumors of the nose are: a. Rhinolith b. Dermoid in dorsi nasi c. Bleeding polyp in the nasal septum d. Chondroma, papillomatosis of the nasal fossae e. Angioma

bcde

156. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which changes in the pharyngoscope view picture do not refer to acute pharyngitis: a. The presence of inflammation in the pharyngeal mucosa b. The presence of inflammation in alveolar tissue in the retropharyngeal space c. The presence of inflammation in tissue of the periamygdal space d. The presence of inflammation of lymphoid tissue e. The presence of epiglottis abscess

bcde

182. MC. Choose the correct answers. Recurrent chronic and acute sinusitis may cause the following orbital complications: a. Glaucoma, cataract b. Subperiostal abscess c. Periostitis d. Phlegmon of the orbit e. Retrobulbar abscess

bcde

194. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the diagnostic criteria of acute sphenoiditis: a. Hypothermia, bradycardia b. Subjective, objective, paraclinical ORL signs c. Fever, shiver d. Cephalea e. Radiological examination

bcde

260. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the tests mentioned below are used on the examination of a patient with vestibulopathy: a. Chemical b. Galvanic c. Rotational d. Caloric/heating e. Pressure

bcde

294. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical forms of exteriorized otomastoiditis are: a. Labyrinthitis b. Zygomatitis c. Squamitis d. Petrositis e. Betzold's form

bcde

307. MC. Choose the correct answers. The differential diagnosis between conducted and sensorineural hearing loss includes: a. Otoscopy b. Conventional audiometry c. Fork tests d. Evoked response audiometry e. Tympanometry

bcde

73. MC. Choose the correct answers. In which clinical forms do alterations of voice intensity occur: a. Phonastenia b. Rezastenia C. Hoarseness d. Aphonia e. Diplophonia

bcde

91 .MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the factors that provoke post-intubation lesions: a. Voice strain in case of vocal overworking b. Prolonged intubation C. Rude, incorrect probe maneuvering d. Quality of a probe e. Size of a probe

bcde

106. MC. Choose the correct answers. The nasal septum is formed of: a. Triangular cartilages b. Lamina perpendicular to the ethmoid c. Vomer d. Proper bones of the nose e. Quadrilateral cartilage

bce

158. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the given below causes lead to injuries of esophagus: a. Phonation b. Endoscopic maneuvers c. Uncontrolled work with esophagoscope d. Deglutition e. Embedding a sharp or cutting foreign body

bce

160. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the main salivary glands: a. Hypophysis b. Submaxillary gland c. Parotid gland d. Thyroid gland e. Sublingual gland

bce

164. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the principles for the diagnosis of a foreign body in the esophagus: a. Nasal obstruction b. Symptomatology c. Radiography d. Rhinorrhea e. Anamnesis

bce

172. MC. Choose the correct answers. The main clinical signs of adenoid vegetations are: a. Leukocytosis, neutrophilia b. Adenoid facies C. Revealing of adenoid vegetations by posterior rhinoscopy or by epipharyngeal tissue d. Accelerated salivation e. Nasal obstruction syndrome

bce

177. MC. Choose the correct answers. Sinusitis is mainly caused by the following pathogenic agents: a. Koch's bacillus b. Pneumococcus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Gonococcus e. Streptococcus pyogenis

bce

195. MC. Choose the correct answers. Scleroma process is located mainly in: a. Nasal vestibule b. Choana c. Rhinopharynx d. Buccopharynx e. Trachea bifurcation

bce

198. MC. Choose the correct answers. The treatment of erysipelas includes: a. Gentamicin b. Penicillin c. Antihistamines d. Vasoconstrictive drugs e. Anti-inflammatory drugs

bce

209. MC. Choose the correct answers. Bezold's triad in otitis media with effusion means: a. Positive Rinne's test b. Negative Rinne's test C. Prolonged Shwabach's test d. Shortened Shwabach's test e. Weber's test lateralized in the affected ear

bce

221. MC. Choose the correct answers. Bezold's triad in acute otitis media is revealed by a. Positive Rinne's test b. Negative Rinne's test c. Prolonged Shwabach's test d. Shortened Shwabach's test e. Weber's test lateralized in the affected ear

bce

262. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following are the receptors of hearing and vestibular analyzer: a. Crista ampularis b. Otolithic membrane c. Cupula terminalis d. Secondary membrane e. Spiral organ

bce

271. MC. Choose the correct answers. Balance disorders are examined by: a. Rinnes's, Weber's, Schwabach's tests b. Romberg's test, index test C. Walking on the straight line , on the right and on the left d. Gelle's test e. Adiadochokinesia test

bce

273. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of following symptoms are not characteristic of mastoiditis: a. Purulent otorrhea b. Autophony c. Tympanic membrane without pathological changes d. Swartze's symptom-pains on pressing the mastoid, radiology- opacity of Mastoid cells e. Normal hearing

bce

285. MC.Choose the correct answers. Tick the clinical forms of otosclerosis: a. Latent b. Tympanal c. Cochlear d. manifestative e. mixed

bce

101. MC. Choose the correct answers. Select the paranasal sinuses which are included in the posterior group: a. Frontal b. Sphenoid c. Maxillary d. Posterior ethmoid cells e. Anterior ethmoid cells

110. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the types of the nasal mucosa: a. Conjunctive b. Olfactory, sensory c. Vascular d. Respiratory e. Glandular

111. MC. Choose the correct answers. Clinical forms of nonspecific chronic amygdalitis (according to the I. Soldatov's classification) are: a. Atrophic b. Compensated C. Cryptal, caseous d. Decompensated e. Infectious

135. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following are clinical forms of rhinophyma: a. Infiltrative b. Telangiestasic c. Scleroses d. Glandular e. Suppurative

145. MC. Choose the correct answers. Atrophied rhinitis are: a. Chronic rhinitis b. Ozena c. Chronic catarrhal rhinitis d. Common (simple) atrophied rhinitis e. Diffuse chronic rhinitis

147. MC. Choose the correct answers. At what level and where is the inferior extremity of the esophagus cardia located: a. Vertebra T8 level b. Epigastric space of the abdominal cavity c. Pelvic space d. Vertebra LI0-LI 1 level e. Retroperitoneal space

153. MC. Choose the correct answers. What are the functions of the esophagus: a. Olfaction b. Sensation c. Gustatory d. Deglutition e. Expectoration

159. MC. Choose the correct answers. Rhinosinusogenic complications are: a. Cysts b. Intracranial c. Respiratory d. Orbital e. Mixed

165. MC. Choose the correct answers. Name the parts of the external ear: a. Cochlea b. External auditory canal c. Tympanic cavity d. Pavilion e. Mastoid

166. MC. Choose the correct answers. Name the parts of the external auditory canal: a. Anterior b. Fibrocartilaginous c. Posterior d. Osteal e. Mucous

169. MC. Choose the correct answers. Name the parts of the tympanic membrane: a. Pars anterior b. Pars flaccida c. Pars posterior d. Pars tensa e. Pars medial

181. MC. Choose the correct answers. The labyrinth is connected to the tympanic cavity through the: a. Anterior window b. Oval window C. Posterior window d. Round window e. Central window

185. MC. Choose the correct answers. The linear movement receptors are situated in the: a. Membranous cochlea b. Utricule c. Osseous cochlea d. Saccule e. Semicircular canals

223. MC. Choose the correct answers. The objective signs of acute otitis media in perforative phase are: a. Hyperemia of the tympanum b. Perforation of the tympanum c. Swelling of the tympanum d. Purulent elimination in the external auditory canal e. Intact tympanic membrane

242. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of simple suppurative chronic otitis media (mesotympanitis) are: a. Purulent otorrhea with fetid smell b. Purulent otorrhea without smell, conductive hearing loss c. Perceptive hearing loss d. Perforation in the pars tensa e. Perforation in pars flaccida

148. mC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the isthmuses of the esophagus: a. Cervical b. Cricopharyngeal or mouth of the esophagus c. Abdominal d. Aortobronchial e. Diaphragmatic

bde

164.MC.Choose the correct answer. Choose the parts of the ear: a. Anterior ear b. Inner ear c. Posterior ear d. middle ear e.External ear

bde

166. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the correct options for periamygdalitis: a. Antero- superior periamygdalitis, edema phase, surgical treatment b. Antero-superior periamygdalitis, edema phase, medicinal treatment c. Antero-superior periamygdalitis, abscess phase, medicinal treatment d. Antero-superior periamygdalitis, abscess phase, surgical treatment e. Antero-superior periamygdalitis, infiltration phase, medicinal treatment

bde

179. MC. Choose the correct answers. The parts of the labyrinth are the: a. Auditory tube b. Vestibule c. External auditory canal d. Semicircular canals e. Cochlea

bde

240. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of suppurative chronic otitis media are: a. Fever b. Perforation of the tympanic membrane c. Headache d. Purulent discharge e. Hearing loss

bde

274. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following anatomical structures do not belong to the apparatus of sound transmission: a. Pavilion of the ear b. Spiral organ c. Middle ear d. Upper respiratory tract e. Semicircular canals

bde

44. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the unpaired cartilages of the larynx: a. Arythenoid b. Epiglottitis c. Comiculate d. Thyroid e. Cricoid

bde

197. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following symptoms suppose the presence of an endonasal foreign body: a. Dysphagia b. Unilateral purulent rhinorrhea c. Dyspnea d. Anosmia e. Unilateral nasal obstruction

104. MC. Choose the correct answers. Who discovered and who cultivated Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis: a. Mikulicz b. Waldayer- Pirogov c. Koch d. Fritsch- Volcovich e. Loeffler

160. MC. Choose the correct answers. Orbital complications include: a. Cerebral abscess b. Cerebellar abscess c. Edema of soft tissue of the orbits and eyelids d. Retrobulbar and orbital phlegmon e. Purulent meningitis

166. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the character that an esophageal disease may have: a. Inflammatory b. Prophylactic c. Corrosive d. Traumatic e. Digestive

171. MC. Choose the correct answers. HIV infection is transmitted the following ways with the exception of: a. Vertically, from mother to a child b. Instruments sterilized insufficiently c. Hematophagous insects d. Bath, swimming pools e. Blood transfusion

186. MC. Choose the correct answers. A patient does not breathe through the nose. Vasoconstrictors do not improve the respiration. Anterior rhinoscopy showed hypertrophic nasal comets. What are the diagnosis and method of treatment: a. Catarrhal rhinitis b. False hypertrophic chronic rhinitis c. Veritable hypertrophic chronic rhinitis d. Medicinal treatment e. Surgical treatment

233. MC. Choose the correct answers. Clinical signs of otitis media in children at the age up to 12 months are: a. Hearing loss b. Tinnitus c. Insomnia, irritability d. Loss of appetite, diarrhea e. Otalgia

243. MC. Choose the correct answers. Suppurative chronic otitis media is caused by: a. Viruses b. Strept. Pneumonia c. Staph. Aureus d. Pseudomonas aeroginoza e. H. Influenza

296. MC. Choose the correct answers. In case of otogenic intracranial complications the following interventions are performed: a. Antromastoidotomy b. Tympanoplasty c. Enlarged antromastoidotomy d. Carotympanotomy e. Radical petromastoid extirpation

48. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the pharyngeal cartilages are the smallest, changebale in shape, size and location: a. Epiglottidean b. Thyroid c. Cuneiform d. Corniculate e. Cricoid

92. MC. Choose the correct answers. The most common sinus involved in an inflammatory sinus disease is the: a. sphenoid sinus b. frontal sinus c. ethmoid sinus d. maxillary sinus e. sphenoid and frontal sinus

101.MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following are specific forms of laryngitis: a. mycosis of the larynx b. Streptococcus of the larynx c. Tuberculosis of the larynx d. Syphilis of the larynx e. Scleroma of the larynx

cde

115. MC. Choose the correct answers. The roots of which teeth are in contact with the maxillary sinuses: a. Incisors b. Canine c. The second premolar d. The first molar e. The second molar

cde

120. MC. Choose the correct answers. A patient aged 54, complains of dysphonia lasting for six years. Laryngoscopy shows the infiltration of the left vocal fold and its mobility is reduced. What is the diagnosis and what examinations are necessary: a. Hypertrophic chronic laryngitis b. Scleroma of the larynx c. Larynx cancer d. Histological examination e. Tomography

cde

127. MC. Choose the correct answers. What is the tactics of an ORL doctor in case of periamygdaline abscess: a. Medicinal treatment b. Prophylaxis treatment C. Puncture, opening, drainage of abscess d. Analgesics e. Antihistamines

cde

131. mC. Choose the correct answers. The pharynx is connected with the: a. Orbits b. Paranasal sinuses c. Larynx d. Nose e. Buccal cavity

cde

144. MC. Choose the correct answers. Chronic rhinitis is divided into: a. Influenzal b. Staphylococcus c. Catarrhal d. Hypertrophic e. Atrophied

cde

149. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the main clinical signs of nasal papilloma: a. Crusts b. Pediculate implantation c. Sessile implantation d. Pink- reddish coloration e. Blackberry- form aspect and elastic consistence

cde

153. MC. Choose the correct answers. The components of the middle ear are: a. external auditory canal b. auricle C. tympanic cavity d. processus mastoideus and antrum e. Eustachian tube

cde

163. MC. Choose the correct answers. Indications for hearing aids are: a. Acute otitis media b. Chronic otitis media c. Adults and teenagers with sensorineural hearing loss d. Inoperable conductive hearing loss e. Infants with sensorineural hearing loss

cde

167. MC. Choose the correct answers. Chronic rhinosinusitis may generate: a. Otosclerosis b. Sensory(sensorineural) deafness c. Chronic pharyngitis d. Chronic amygdalitis e. Otitis media

cde

288. MC. Choose the correct answers. What is characteristic of suppurate chronic epitympanitis: a. Hyperemia and swelling of the tympanic membrane b. Perforation in the pars tensa c. Perforation in the pars flaccida or marginal perforation d. Granulations and cholesteatoma e. Purulent otorrhea with fetid smell

cde

302. MC. Choose the correct answers. Meniere's disease is characterized by: a. Otalgia b. Mucopurulent secretions c. Vertigo d. Deafness e. Tinnitus

cde

98. MC. Choose the correct answers. Retropharyngeal phlegmon develops in case of: a. Pneumonia b. Alimentary intoxication c. Angina d. Acute rhinitis e. Acute pharyngitis

cde

153. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the following antibiotics are mainly administered to patients with nonspecific angina: a. Tetracycline b. Streptomycin c. Amoxacillin d. Gentamicin e. Cefazolin

180. MC. Choose the correct answers. The labyrinth is connected to: a. External auditory canal b. Mastoid C. Posterior cranial fossa d. Middle cranial fossa e. Tympanic cavity

185. MC. Choose the correct answers. Which of the causes given bellow may produce epistaxis: a. Duodenal ulcer b. Varication of the esophagus veins c. Haemophilia d. Bronchiectasis e. Arterial hypertension

246. MC. Choose the correct answers. Cholesteatoma is revealed in the majority of cases of: a. Acute otitis media b. Mesotympanitis c. Mesoepitympanitis d. Recurrent otitis media e. Epitympanitis

247. MC. Choose the correct answers. Intracranial complications develop more often in patients with: a. Acute otitis media b. Mesotympanitis c. Mesoepitympanitis d. Recurrent otitis media e. Epitympanitis

257. MC. Choose the correct answers. In the tympanic cavity of a newborn there is: a. Epithelial tissue b. Squamous tissue c. Mixoid tissue d. Glandular tissue e. Amniotic liquid

49. MC. Choose the correct answers. Tick the cartilages that have a hyaline structure: a. Corniculate b. Epiglottidean c. Cricoid d. Cuneiform e. Thyroid

174. mC. Choose the correct answers. Contraindications for amygdalectomy are: a. Cholecystitis b. Stomach ulcer c. Vascular dystonia d. Hemophilia e. Pulmonary tuberculosis in exacerbation (destructive form)

181. MC. Choose the correct answers. The clinical signs of chronic amygdalitis are: a. Otodynia b. Fever (39-40 *C) C. Dyspnea, sialorrhea d. Purulent contents in the lacuna e. Signs of Gize, Zac and Preobrajenski

184. MC. Choose the correct answers. The nerves that pass through the inner auditory canal are following: a. Oculomotor nerve b. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve d. Vestibulocochlear nerve e. Intermediary nerve

ORL USMF FINAL SEM 7 CM

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