OTKE/NBCOT prep

An OT is working w/ a pre-school aged child and notices his aggression towards peers and the adult language he uses in anger when another child wants to play w/ the same toy. They suspect this child may be enduring which form of child abuse? A. neglect B. emotional abuse C. physical abuse D. sexual abuse

emotional abuse emotional abuse refers to verbal assualt toward a child. The child may repeat this behavior w/ aggression towards peers when playing, or may use strong language w/ peers when argued with. Imitation of adult behavior is common , but a child may also react by displaying a hypersensitive and vulnerable demeanor.

an OT is providing basic life support for an adult patient who is unresponsive. What is the correct sequencing for CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation)? 1. Airway, breathing, compressions 2. compressions, airway, breathing 3. breathing, airway, compressions 4. airway, compressions, breathing

2. compressions, airway, breathing this is true EXCEPT for newborns (neonates) they are airway, breathing, compressions

Regarding development of self-feeding; at what age does an infant begin to eat baby food from a spoon? A. 6-8 months B. 9-13 months C. 5-7 months D. 12-14 months

5-7 months At 5-7 months, infants begin to eat baby food from a spoon. At 6-8 months, the infant begins to grasp a bottle. At 9-13 months, the infant begins to feed himself finger foods. At 12-14 months, the infant attempts to use a spoon more independently, but often spills as he tends to turn the spoon over before placing it in his mouth.

What is the earliest age a child could cut out a complicated picture? A. 6-7 years B. 4-6 years C. 8-9 years D. 2-3 years

6-7 years old at 6-7 years old, children are typically first able to cut out more complicated shapes than simple circles, squares, or triangles.

Which of the following is NOT considered a normal vital sign value? A. 70 year old male with resting respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute B. 58 yr old male w/ resting heart rate of 78 bpm C. Newborn infant w/ heart rate of 120 bpm D. 20 yr old female w/ blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg

A. 70 yr old male w/ resting respiratory rate of 24 breaths per min The normal respiratory rate for an adult is 12-20 breath per min; 24 breaths per min is outside th enormal range at rest. The normal heart reate for an adult is 60-100 bpm; 78 bpm is win a normal range. The normal blood pressure of an adult is less than 120/80 mmGh; 118/76 is w/in normal limits. The normal heart rate for a newborn is 120bpm and 70-170bpm for infants

An OT is working on scissor skills in an early preschool classroom setting. The 2.5 year old child should demonstrate which skill with scissors? A. Makes snips on the edge of the paper B. Cuts along a line C. Cuts a circle D. Moves the scissors forward when cutting the paper

A. Makes snips on the edge of the paper Snipping the edges of the paper is the most typical skill present in a 2.5 year old. Moving the scissors forward and cutting alone a line are both demonstrated at 3-4 years old and cutting a circle is for 3.5-4.5 years old.

When performing a house assessment for an OT evaluation, the therapist notices the house has a ramp for wheelchair access. The ramp is 10 feet long from the front door, over the stairs. The stairs have 4 steps, each with a 7 inch rise. Is this an appropriate ramp? A. No. the ramp should be 28 feet long B. Yes. This is an appropriate length for the situation C. yes. the Length doesn't mater, as long as it covers the stairs D. No. The ramp should be feet long.

A. No. The ramp should be 28 feet long. A ramp should provide 1 foot of slope for every inch of rise. In this situation, there are 4 stair steps, each with a 7 inch rise (4x7=28 inches). Therefore, the ramp should be 28 feet long. The existing ramp is not as safe as a longer ramp would be.

What is an appropriate intervention for an immobilized distal radius due to fracture? A. Strengthening of forearm musculature B. AROM of the fingers and elbow C. TENS use D. Contrast baths

AROM of the fingers and elbow A fracture requires immobilization to heal. The only appropriate intervention during this period is AROM of the fingers and elbow to maintain their mobility. The other choices are all interventions for the mobilization phase to improve strength, decrease swelling, or decrease pain.

Which of the following muscles does not contribute to elbow flexion motion? A. Brachioradialis B. Brachialis C. Biceps D. Anconeus

Anconeus The anconeus is a muscle that assists in elbow extension. Its origin is the lateral epicondyle and capsule of the elbow joint, and it inserts at the olecranon and upper 1/4 of the dorsal ulna. The biceps, brachialis and brachioradialis are all muscles that perform elbow flexion. The biceps performs elbow flexion in supination, the brachialis performs elbow flexion in pronation, and the brachioradialis performs elbow flexion w/ a neutral forearm position.

Which Occupational Therapy Code of Ethics principle requires a clinician to allow a patient to make their own decisions regarding their care? A. Fidelity B. Veracity C. Autonomy D. Justice

Autonomy Autonomy refers to a clinician allowing a patient to make their own decisions regarding their care. Justice, in essence, requires the clinician to be an advocate for the field of OT. Veracity refers to honesty in depicting the services and purpose of OT. Fidelity refers to the manner in which you approach any relevant persons when acting as a healthcare provider. This principle includes the attributes of compassion, respect, good judgement and honesty.

A therapist is looking to promote extensor control for an infant and wants to use reflexive properties to do so. The infant is 7 months old. The therapist suspends the infant in a horizontal prone position. Which reflex is being incorporated into treatment? A. Tonic labyrinthine-prone B. Landau C. Symmetric tonic neck D. Asymmetric tonic neck

B. Landau The Landau reflex encourages full body extension in a prone position. This can assist w/ decreasing flexor control in order to better promote extensor control in an infant. The landau reflex has an onset age of 3-4 months and integrates by 12-24 months, so it would be appropriate for a 7 month old infant.

A patient demonstrates weakness in elbow flexion when the forearm is positioned in pronation. Which is the primary muscle responsible for this motion?

Brachialis The brachialis performs elbow flexion in pronation.

Which is NOT an appropriate treatment modification when working with a patient with impaired vision? A. Stand at an individual's midline when addressing them B. use worksheets w/ large print and low contrast between lettering and paper C. use a desk lamp to increase the light in the room D. Provide ample time for accurate scanning.

B. use worksheets w/ large print and LOW contrast between lettering and paper The therapist should use worksheets w/ large print and HIGH contrast between lettering and paper to aid in ability to discriminate between the text and the background. Providing ample time for scanning and using a desk lamp to increase the light source are appropriate mods. If an individual has a peripheral field deficit, standing at their midline would be most appropriate when addressing them.

A patient s/p CVA presents w/ difficulty performing dressing tasks, using only the unaffected upper extremity. When cued, she does not attempt to use her affected upper extremity. The evaluating therapist suspects unilateral neglect. Which standardized assessment tool would be best indicated to evaluate for neglect in this patient? A. Rivermead Behavioral Memory Test B. Allen Cognitive Level Test C. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) D. Behavioral Inattention test

Behavioral Inattention Test Compromised of 9 simple tasks and 6 paper assessments and evaluate unilateral neglect. Paper tests such as letter cancellation, star cancellation and line bisection are commonly used assessments. Performance tests include reading a menu, map or article. For this patient, it would help to identify the extent of neglect and how it impacts functional performance.

Short and long-term goals should be written in a "SMART" manner. What does this stand for? A. S: Specific M: meaningful A: attainable R: realistic T: time-related B. S: Specific M: meaningful A: achievable R: reimbursable T: time-limited C. S: specific M: measurable A: attainable R: relevant T:time-limited D. S: short M: measurable A: achievable R: relevant T: teachable

C. S: specific M: measurable A: attainable R: relevant T: time-limited

Which of the following assessment tools use observation of behavior to rate the presence and severity of autism in children 2 years old and older? A. Toddler and Infant Motor Evaluation (TIME) B. Childhood Autism Rating Scale (CARS) C. Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (RKPPS) D. Early Coping Inventory

Childhood Autism Rating Scale (CARS) The CARS uses observation of behavior to rate the presence and severity of autism in children 2 years and older. Levels of severity are rated w/ scores to determine "no autism", "mild to moderate autism", and "severe autism". The Early Coping Inventory is a questionnaire that measures coping abilities in regard to sensorimotor organization, reactive behavior, and self-initiated behavior. The inventory assesses children aged 4-36 months and may be used to determine if therapy is appropriate for a specific child in regard to the coping skills measured. The Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (RKPPS) involves observing a child's ability to play w/ others in both inside and outside environments. The assessment measures play in the contexts of space management, material management, pretense/symbolism and participation and is used for children aged 0-6. The Toddler and Infant Motor Evaluation (TIME) assesses motor skills and identifies areas of delay. The 5 subtests include mobility, stability, motor organization, social and emotional skills, and functional performance. The assessment is used with children aged 0-3.5.

Which of the following scenarios suggests that a patient would benefit more from an individual occupational therapy setting than from a group-based intervention session? A. Completion of a difficult problem-solving task B. Generalized exercise program determined by diagnosis C. Basic financial training in a mental health facility D. Desire to interact w/ others experiencing aphasia

Completion of a difficult problem-solving task Completion of a difficult problem-solving task would best be addressed during individual OT, as it may be difficult to process and maintain attention in a group setting. Difficult tasks that require greater concentration are best completed individually The other scenarios would all be appropriate for a group setting.

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) is used therapeutically for many individuals w/ neurological conditions; it focuses on using movement patterns to improve motor skills for functional tasks. Which upper extremity pattern is used when the therapist is trying to promote improved function in reaching low and behind the body, like when placing an arm in a jacket sleeve? A. D1 extension B. D2 flexion C. D1 flexion D. D2 extension

D1 extension D1 extension involves extension of the shoulder that progresses toward the same side of the moving arm w/ an ending position of shoulder extension, abduction and internal rotation. This pattern imitates the movement of the affected arm reaching downward to the side to place an arm into a sleeve.

Best practice in documentation includes wording to justify skilled intervention and need for services. Which of the following terms is the best choice to justify continued skilled occupational therapy? A. demonstrated recall B. requires repitition C. chronic impairment D. minimal change

Demonstrated recall (pt showed they remembered) Documenting that a patient demonstrates a skill, especially one that is associated w/ a goal, shows potential for improvement and is best choice to help justify the need for continued services. The other options allude to slow progress and decreased ability to improve and meet goals, which may impact a clinician's ability to justify continuing treatment.

Regarding trustworthiness of qualitative research, which criterion is defined as the assurance that all relevant information is documented and included in the study's findings?

Dependability confirmability is the accuracy of the findings in relation to the info received through the study. transferability is the ability of a study's results to correlate w/ related studies credibility is the study's ability to provide an accurate overview of info received, regardless of whether it supports the theory or purpose of the study.

Which of the following statements is false regarding the obtaining and use of assistive technology devices and electronic aids to daily living? A. Stability of positioning and seating must be assessed as it will affect ability to use the device B. Devices are typically paid for out- of -pocket C. Devices may have specific instructions involving charging time and modalities D. Multiple devices should be tried to determine what best serves the individual's needs

Devices are typically paid for out-of-pocket Reimbursement of devices is available through private insurance as well as Medicare and Medicaid. Each state's Vocational and Educational Services or Vocational Rehabilitation departments will also assist w/ cost for devices if using one is integral to returning to work or school. The other statements are all true.

Which term related to payment for OT services describes the groups determined by Medicare/Medicaid by which quantity of payment for services is determined? A. Diagnostic related groups (DRGs) B. Prospective payment system (PPS) C. Preferred provider organization(PPO) D. Health maintenance organization (HMO)

Diagnostic related groups (DRGs) DRGs are the diagnosis groups determined by Medicare/Medicaid by which quantity of payment for services is determined. A PPO is a healthcare plan that offers members more choices of potential healthcare providers than an HMO. A PPS is related to DRGs and refers to the amount of quantity of payment provided for specific DRGs. An HMO is a healthcare plan that offers members a smaller group of healthcare providers and requires referrals for specialists.

Which is an appropriate task to assign to an OTA? A. Direct patient in therapeutic strengthening exercises for the hand in order to improve grip strength B. Determine long-term goals for a set plan of care C. Design a functional strengthening protocol for a patient recovering from a CVA D. Administrate and interpret the Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Inventory

Direct patient in therapeutic strengthening exercises for the hand in order to improve grip strength The OTA can perform treatment w/ patients but is not able to assess or interpret evaluation, design a specific treatment plan or develop goals.

Which of the following is not considered a form of child abuse? A. physical B. emotional C. discipline D. sexual

Discipline Child abuse is characterize by physical, emotional, or sexual abuse or neglect. Discipline itself is not child abuse. However, if the discipline is in the form of physical or mental abuse, then it may cross the line into child abuse. OTs are madated reporters of child abuse.

Which of the following hand and wrist disorders has poor success w/ conservative treatment? A. de Quervain's tenosynovitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. trigger finger D. Dupuytren's disease

Dupuytren's disease Dupuytren's disease (thickening of palmar fascia and digit flexion contractures) does not respond well to conservative treatment and generally is best treated with surgery. De Quervain's tenosynovitis, carpal tunnel syndrome, and trigger finger are all inflammatory repetitive use conditions that are successfully treated through therapy intervention.

Which type of computer adaptation would be appropriate for an individual w/ impaired visual-motor integration who would like to use a computer for leisure or work activities? A. Eye gaze access mode B. Delayed touch keyboard activation system C. Tongue-touch keypad D. Enlarged keyboard with large keys

Enlarged keyboard with large keys An enlarged keyboard with large keys is the best recommendation and would improve the accuracy of key strike, as the surface area of each key is enlarged. Tonge-touch and eye gaze aids wouldn't be indicated w/ the described impairments, as upper body function is present, though targeted touch is difficult. A delayed touch keyboard, though it would allow for use of the upper body to depress keys, wouldn't be the best choice since the individual described does not experience impaired motor control.

A hospital volunteer requests transfer training from the overseeing OT, so that he may assist in performing safe transfers for patients in the hospital. What is the most appropriate response? A. Explain to the volunteer that this is not appropriate or allowed B. Delegate this task to an OTA to maintain productivity C. Teach the volunteer on the next available pt D. Set up a transferring training session with all interested volunteers.

Explain to the volunteer that this is not appropriate or allowed Volunteers are not trained healthcare professionals or staff at the hospital. Therefore, its not appropriate for them to be performing hands-on transfers w/ patients. This would place the hospital at risk for liability and the patients and volunteers at risk for injury.

Which Pediatric developmental assessment is not standardized and identifies developmental ability in regard to cognition, language, gross and fine motor skills, social-emotional skills, and self-help for children from birth through 3 years old? A. Neurological Assessment of Pre-term and Full-term newborn infant (NAPFI) B. Bayley Scales of Infant Development, 3rd edition (BSID-III) C. Hawaii Early Learning Profile, (HELP) D. Denver Developmental Screening Test II

Hawaii Early Learning Profile, Revised (HELP)

Which type of qualitative research is described when a researcher stays 30 days at a prison to live w/ other inmates in order to obtain a firsthand account of their experiences? A. phenomenological research B. Heuristic research C. Ethnographic research D. True experimental research

Heuristic research

Which cognitive-perceptual intervention approach uses verbal cues and focuses on the individual's ability to organize and sequence a task? A. Quadraphonic Approach B. Information Procession Approach C. Dynamic Interacitonal Approach D. Compensatory/Adaptive/Functional Approach

Information Procession Approach -focuses on an individual's ability to organize and sequence tasks. Clinicians provide verbal cues to help the individual process instructions and sequence a task correctly.

Which is not true of the Individuals w/ Disabilities Education Act? A. It included services for children under 2 years old B. It developed IEP guidelines C. It required OTs to serve as child abuse reporters D. It required schools to provide testing accommodations as necessary for children with disabilities

It required OTs to serve as child abuse reporters The child abuse prevention and treatment act required healthcare and educational workers to report incidences of child abuse, not the Individuals w/ Disabilities Education Act. The other statements are true regarding the Individuals w/ Disabilities Education Act.

Which principle of the Occupational Therapy Code of Ethics requires the clinician to be the advocate for a patient to receive services? A. Beneficence B. Justice C. Veracity D. Autonomy

Justice Justice in essence requires the clinician to be an advocate for a pt as well as an advocate for the field of OT. Beneficence requires clinicians to provide, maintain, and ensure best-practice standards for all pts receiving OT services. Autonomy refers to a clinician allowing a pt to make their own decisions regarding their care. Veracity refers to honesty in depicting the services and purpose of OT.

One interventional role of an OT is to provide consultation for universal design setup. What principle of universal design includes the end product's ability to decrease the potential for muscular or postural strain with use? A. Tolerance of error B. Low physical effort C. Size and space for approach and use D. Perceptible information

Low physical effort Low physical effort refers to the end product's ability to decrease potential for physical (including muscular, postural, etc.) strain and hardships, or excessive fatigue with use. Size and space for approach and use refers to the design of the product accommodating size and space requirements for all individuals, regardless of size or means of mobility. Tolerance for error refers to the design being safe for all users and therefore decreasing the risk of hazards due to error in use. Perceptible information refers to the end product providing essential information through a variety of means to accommodate all who use it.

A patient is 48 hours status post MI. He is still in the acute setting of the hospital but is medically stable. At what metabolic equivalent level should his activities be? A. MET level 4-5 B. MET level 1-2 C. MET level 6-7 D. MET level 2-3

MET level 1-2 Initial activities following an MI, while the patient is still on acute cardiac floor of the hospital, should remain between 1 and 2 MET levels. Examples of activities at this level include standing, ambulation at 1mph, or playing a card game. Activity MET levels will continue to increase as the patient progresses through the stage of cardiac rehab.

In regard to statistical analysis, which term describes the middle score of all the reported scores from the study? A. Range B. Mean C. Median D. Mode

Median

Which legislation concerns residents of skilled nursing facilities? A. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 B. Age Discrimination in Employment Act C. No Child Left Behind Act D. Freedom to Work Act

Ombinus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 the OBRA concerns, among other things, residents of skilled nursing facilities and outlines elements to improve their individual rights and quality of life.

In regard to visual impairments that may occur in children with cerebral palsy, which condition is characterized by misalignment of the eyes? A. Nystagmus B. Myopia C. Strabismus D. Presbyopia

Strabismus Strabismus is a misalignment of the eyes. Nystagmus is a reflexive rapid movement of the eyeballs, often in response to turning the head. Myopia is decreased ability to see far distances. Presbyopia is difficulty w/ accommodation (the ability to see something at a far distance and then quickly focus on something in close range and vice versa.)

What major construct of Jean Piaget's process of cognitive development is described as the ability to process experiences in order to provide a response? A. mental schemes B. adaptation C. assimilation D. operations

Operations Major constructs of Jean Piaget's cognitive development theory include: Adaptation: adjusting to changes in the environment. Mental schemes: beliefs developed by a child's experiences. Operations: the ability to process experiences in order to provide a response. Adapted Intelligence: cognitive ability to adapt. Equilibrium: the balance between environmental changes and the child's response. Assimilation: making a change to assimilate to existing schemes. Accommodation: making a change to accommodate to new schemes.

In regard to pre-writing skills, which postures/grasps include full arm movement when writing? A. Digital-pronate grasp only B. Palmar-supinate grasp only C. Palmar-supinate grasp, digital-pronate grasp, and static tripod posture D. Palmar-supinate grasp and digital pronate grasp

Palmar-Supinate grasp and digital-pronate grasp

Which area of the brain includes the primary sensory cortex? A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. occipital lobe

Parietal lobe The parietal lobe is responsible for sensation (touch, pain, hot/cold and proprioception) and houses the primary sensory cortex. The occipital lobe primarily controls understanding of visual info and houses the primary visual cortex, which controls a variety of cognitive and executive skills. It also houses the premotor cortex, which organizes and sequences motor movements. Broca's area is included in this segment and determines the motor movements for speech production. The temporal lobe controls understanding of auditory info as it houses the primary auditory complex. Wernicke's area in particular is responsible for understanding language.

Regarding quality improvement, which term includes strategies to enhance the effectiveness of a program?. A. Performance Assessment and Improvement (PAI) B. Total quality management (TQM) C. Goal attainment scaling (GAS) D. Professional review organization (PRO)

Performance Assessment and Improvement (PAI) Performance assessment and improvement (PAI) concerns assessing the current effectiveness of a program and determining strategies to improve its quality/performance. Total quality management (TQM) encourages cooperation between all coworkers to increase the efficiency, effectiveness and quality of a program. Goal attainment scaling (GAS) refers to using objective measures to show that patients are justified in receiving services through documentation that they are meeting goals. Professional review Organization (PRO) refers to a group that reviews documentation of services in a specific profession in order to determine if the services are justified.

What form of grasp is displayed when a 4 month old holds a small toy block but doesn't use the thumb? A. primitive squeeze grasp B. radial-digital grasp C. palmar grasp D. radial palmar grasp

Primitive squeeze grasp according to the Erhardt Prehension Development levels, at 4 months of age an infant shows a primitive squeeze grasp when holding a cube. The infant grasps the cube w/ wrist flexed and doesn't use the thumb to assist, instead attempting to stabilize the cube against the other hand or another body part. The radial palmar grasp uses the thumb and is present at 6 months of age. The palmar grasp decreases wrist flexion and stabilization against the other hand. Instead, the infant uses the fingers to press the cube into the palm. This grasp is present at 5 moths of age. The radial-digital grasp is present at 8 months of age when the infant grasps the cube effectively between the thumb and fingertips.

An OT works w/ a wide array of healthcare professionals. Which professional works with a patient following a below-knee amputation to ensure a proper fit for the prosthesis? A. Orthotist B. Prosthetist C. Chiropractor D. Biomedical engineer

Prosthetist A prosthetist works to fit individuals w/ appropriate prostheses and makes adjustments as necessary. An orthotist is responsible for the fabrication of orthoses, such as AFO (ankle foot orthosis). A biomedical engineer has an engineering degree that equips them w/ abilities to be involved w/ product development. This expert understands how things work and how to make an idea come to life. A chiropractor focuses particulary on spinal health to provide pain relief and improve function.

Regarding research design, which sampling method is described when the researcher uses a computer program to obtain a sample from a large list of potential participants? A. Purposive Sampling B. Stratified Sampling C. Systematic Sampling D. Random sampling

Random sampling random sampling is when the researcher obtains participants by random selection. Stratified sampling is when the researcher obtains participants based on a certain trait, such as diagnosis. Purposive sampling refers to the researcher choosing specific participants for a study. Systematic sampling is when the researcher obtains participants through a particular systematic method, such as choosing every fifth name in a list.

According to Jean Piaget, there is a hierarchical development of cognition. During the concrete operations period (aged 7-11) which term describes greater understanding of the conservative of objects? A. Seriation B. Empirical-inductive thinking C. Reversibility D. Classification

Reversibility Reversibility is the child's understanding of conservation (an object's properties stay the same even when it changes) grows and expands from what it was in the preoperational period, and the child gains spatial skills. Empirical-inductive thinking involves improving problem-solving skills when presented w/ simple info. Classification and seriation are both elements of the preoperational period (2-7 yrs old).

When observing attention, multiple components must be evaluated. Which component of attention is impaired when an individual is unable to study for an exam in the presence of background noises at a busy library? A. Divided attention B. Selective attention C. Attentional switching D. Sustained attention

Selective attention Impaired selective attention is characterized by a difficulty in maintaining focus on a task when environmental distractions are present. Sustained attention is the ability to focus on a desired task for a prolonged period of time. Divided attention involves the ability to focus on multiple tasks at the same time, such as talking on the phone while making breakfast. Attentional switching involves the ability to transfer attention between unrelated tasks in order to complete them efficiently and correctly.

According to Dunn's model of sensory processing, which type of behavior is characterized by a low threshold to environmental stimuli and an active reaction? A. Poor regulation B. Sensory sensitivity C. Sensory seeking D. Sensory avoiding

Sensory avoiding

A patient presents with radial nerve injury. Which of the following motions would not be impaired? A. Shoulder flexion B. Forearm supination C. wrist extension D. elbow extension

Shoulder flexion Shoulder flexion is performed by anterior deltoid muscle action, which is innervated by the axillary nerve. An injury to the radial nerve may result in the other impairments listed. The radial nerve is responsible for muscle innervation to perform forearm supination and elbow extension. Additionally, the radial nerve innervates the extensor carpi radialus longus, and extensor carpi ulnaris, which are all responsible for wrist extension.

An OT is providing instruction on proper positioning to a patient post below-knee amputation. Which of the following is not appropriate in regard to long-term positioning? A. Sitting upright in wheelchair w/ knee flexed B. Lying supine w/ lower aspect of residual limb elevated on pillow C. Lying prone D. Long sitting w/ knee in extension

Sitting upright in wheelchair w/ knee flexed The therapist must protect against development of contracture in the knee of the amputated limb. Prolonged witting w/ the knee flexed and the residual lower limb in a dependent position will not only promote knee flexion contracture, but may also promote lower limb edema. The leg should be positioned in knee extension to combat development of knee flexion contracture. Additionally, elevation will reduce edema. The other choices are all appropriate for preventing these issues.

Which type of wrist fracture is characterized by the fractured segment being pushed forward toward to volar side of the wrist?

Smith's fracture smith's fracture is a bone fracture in the distal portion of the radius in which the fractured segment is pushed forward toward the volar side of the wrist. colles' fracture is the opposite-fracture is backwards towards dorsal side boxer's fracture-injury to the 5th metacarpal in the hand schaphoid fracture-injury to scaphoid carpal bone

Which form of cerebral palsy is characterized by hypertonia and is caused by a motor cortex lesion? A. Ataxic cerebral palsy B. Spastic cerebral palsy C. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy D. There is no difference in CP presentation

Spastic Cerebral Palsy Spastic CP is characterized by spasticity and hypertonia and is caused by a motor cortex lesion. Dyskinetic CP is characterized by dystonia (fluctuating tone) and is caused by a basal ganglian lesion. The child may also display involuntary movements such as athetosis and chorea. Ataxic CP is characterized by hypotonia and ataxia and is caused by a cerebellar lesion.

Which is an appropriate driver adaptation for a person who has limited use of their left arm? A. Hand control steering ring B. Standard round spinning knob C. hand controls D. pedal extensions

Standard round spinning knob A spinning knob is the most appropriate recommendation for the driver who uses one hand to complete tasks. A steering ring is more appropriate for an individual w/ an upper extremity prosthesis. Hand controls would not be appropriate, as these are intended to replace accelerators and brake foot pedals for people w/ impaired use of legs. Pedal extensions are indicated if feet dont reach the standard foot pedals. These arent appropriate as the patients limitation is in the upper body.

Regarding research design, which type of sampling method is being used when a researcher obtains participants based on a certain trait, such as a CVA(stroke) diagnosis? A. Purposive sampling B. Systematic Sampling C. Random sampling D. Stratified sampling

Stratified sampling Stratified sampling is when the researcher obtains participants based on a certain trait, such as a diagnosis. Random sampling is when the researcher obtains participants by random selection. Purposive sampling refers to the researcher choosing specific participants for a study. Systematic sampling is when the researcher obtains participants through a particular systematic method, such as choosing every fifth name in a list.

A patient presents with a weakness of shoulder internal rotation, and the evaluating OT suspects weakness in the rotator cuff. Which of the following rotator cuff muscles is responsible for internal rotation of the shoulder? A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis

Subscapularis The subscapularis muscle sits on the anterior side of the scapula and assists w/ internally rotating the shoulder. The supraspinatus muscle assists w/ shoulder abduction and flexion. The infraspinatus and teres minor muscles assist w/ external rotation. All 3 of these muscles are positioned on the posterior side of the scapula.

Which of the follwing rotator cuff muscles is innervated by the subscapular nerve? A. Subscapularis muscle B. Supraspinatus muscle C. Infraspinatus muscle D. Teres minor muscle

Subscapularis muscle The muscles of the rotator cuff include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor and subscapularis muscles. The subscapularis muscle sits on the anterior surface of the scapula and is innervated by the subscapular nerve. It assists w/ internally rotating the shoulder. Both the supraspinatus (Shoulder abduction and flexion) and infraspinatus (shoulder external rotation) muscles are innervated by the suprascapular nerve and sit on the posterior side of the scapula. The teres minor muscle is innervated by the axillary nerve and also assists with external rotation and is located posterior to the scapula.

Which evaluation tool assesses play in the contexts of space management, material management, pretense/symbolic and participation? A. Childhood Autism Rating Scale (CARS) B. Toddler and Infant Motor Evaluation (TIME) C. Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (RKPPS) D. Early Coping Inventory

The Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (RKPPS) involves observing a child's ability to play w/ others in both inside and outside environments. The assessment measures play in the contexts of space management, material management, pretense/symbolic, and participation and is used for children aged 0-6.

An OT is providing consultation on proper wheelchair selection for an obese patient who has impaired mobility. She is selecting a bariatric wheelchair. Which statement about features of bariatric wheelchairs is false? A. Hard tires are recommended for long-term use B. A reclining backrest feature may be appropriate to ensure seating comfort C. The rear axle placement in a bariatric chair is identical to that of a standard wheelchair D. The position of the rear axle allows for greater ease in manual propulsion

The rear axle placement in a bariatric chair is identical to that of a standard wheelchair The rear axle is positioned more toward the front of a bariatric chair in comparison to a standard wheelchair. This positioning allows better ease in manual propulsion by the user. Hard tires and a reclining backrest are also appropriate recommendations and features available for a bariatric chair.

An OT is promoting the field of OT w/ informational handouts at a village community event. She is not looking to promote her own practice, but to raise awareness of the profession. Which type of marketing is she using? A. Differentiated marketing B. Concentrated marketing C. Unethical marketing D. Undifferentiated marketing

Undifferentiated marketing Undifferentiated marketing refers to global marketing strategies not targeted to a specific population. Concentrated marketing is marketing focused on one particular population. In this example, the OT is marketing to the elderly population. Differentiated marketing refers to using different marketing methods depending on which population is being targeted. Unethical marketing would be not maintaining truth in advertising. This should never be practiced.

At 9 months of age, which form of reaching is observed? A. Batting at toys w/ fingers flexed B. Unilateral reaching w/ fingers extended and minimal shoulder abduction and internal rotation C.Reaching with bilateral arms D. Unilateral reaching w/ the shoulder flexed and externally rotated and the forearm supinated

Unilateral reaching w/ the shoulder flexed and externally rotated and the forearm supinated a 9 month old shows improving trunk strength and can demonstrate the ability to reach an open hand toward a toy. Compared to the 6 month old, the 9 month's skill involves more shoulder external rotation as well as supination and wrist extension, improving the effectiveness of the reach. A 6 month old infant demonstrates unilateral reaching, but w/ the shoulder more in abduction and internal rotation. Reaching w/ bilateral arms is a skill demonstrated at 4 months. Batting a toy is a skill demonstrated by a newborn.

Which principle of the Occupational Therapy Code of Ethics refers to honesty in depicting the services and purpose of occupational therapy? A. Beneficence B. Justice C. Veracity D. Fidelity

Veracity Veracity refers to honesty in depicting the services and purpose of OT. Fidelity refers to the manner in which you approach any relevant persons when acting as healthcare provider. This principle includes the attributes of compassion, respect, good judgement and honesty. Beneficence requires clinicians to provide, maintain and ensure best-practice standards for all patients receiving OT services. Justice, in essence, requires the clinician to be the advocate for a patient as well as an advocate for the field of OT.

An OT is educating her client on health strategies to prevent a stroke. Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor?

age smoking, alcohol abuse and hypertension are all modifiable risk factors for a stroke

Which form of cerebral palsy is characterized by hypotonia? A. all forms of CP are characterized by hypotonia B. Dyskinetic CP C. Spastic CP D. Ataxic CP

ataxic CP ataxic CP is characterized by hypotonia and ataxia and is caused by a cerebellar lesion. Spastic CP is characterized by spasticity and hypertonia and is caused by a motor cortex lesion. Dyskinetic CP is characterized by dystonia (fluctuating tone) and is caused by a basal ganglia lesion.

An OT must provide CPR to an unresponsive adult. What is the recommended compression rate? A. Atleast 60/min B. Atleast 20/min C. Atleast 30/min D. Atleast 100/min

atleast 100/min The compression rate for CPR is atleast 100 compressions per min for adults, children and infants. Adults require a compression depth of 2 inches.

The OT works w/ a wide range of professional healthcare workers. Which professional would work to design a new e-stim device to be used therapeutically? A. Biomedical engineer B. Chiropractor C. Prosthetist D. Creative Arts Therapist

biomedical engineer A biomedical engineer has an engineering degree that equips him or her w/ the abilities to be involved in product development. This expert understands how things work and how to make an idea come to life. Engineers have design many of the technical devices used in therapy departments.

What is the leading cause of death in individuals over 65 years of age? A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease B. Coronary heart disease C. Cerebrovascular disease D. Cancer

coronary heart disease coronary heart disease (CHD) accounts for 31% of the deaths in individuals over age 65.

Which payment system is used when each type of healthcare provider is paid the same amount for specific services? A. Private payment B. capitation C. deductible D. fee for service

fee for service fee for service describes payment of services in whcih each type of healthcare provider is paid the same amount for specific services. For instance, all OTs are paid the same amount for therapeutic activity per unit (time increment) provided. Private payment involves the pt/caregiver paying for skilled OT directly and out of pocket. Capitation refers to the specific payment amount provided to a healthcare provider via a set schedule, no matter if services are received. Deductible is a predetermined dollar amount that must be paid out of pocket by a pt prior to the healthcare plan providing payment.

A patient has endured a burn around the foot and ankle. What contracture is she most at risk for developing? A. inversion contracture B. knee flexion contracture C. foot drop D. dorsiflexion contracture

foot drop a burn to the foot and ankle complex puts one most at risk for developing foot drop. The ankle should be positioned at 90 degrees to minimize the risk of developing foot drop (difficulty raising the front part of foot).

A patient presents w/ a burn that affected the fat, muscle and bone tissue following the injury. What burn classification is described? A. Fourth degree burn B. Third degree burn C. First degree burn D. Second degree burn

fourth degree burns 4th degree burn affects all layers of tissue (the epidermis, dermis, fat, muscle, and bone). 1st degree burn affects the epidermis, 2nd degree affects the epidermis and dermis. 3rd degree affects the epidermis and dermis as well as hair follicles, sweat glands and nerve endings.

A patient presents with an acute injury of a wrist sprain with pain and swelling. What is the MOST appropriate modality?

icepack ice (cryotherapy) is the only appropriate modality. Any heating agent will continue to aggravate edema and inflammation and is not recommended in the acute stage of injury.

According to Erhardt Prehension Developmental Levels for grasp of a pellet, which type of grasp is expected at 7 months of age? A. Visual attention but no voluntary grasp B. Raking C. Inferior-scissors grasp D. Fine pincer grasp

inferior-scissors grasp The inferior-scissors grasp is typically characterized by the infant attempting to rake the pellet w/ the fingers and thumb all fully flexed, or w/ two fingers slightly extended. The thumb also maintains full adduction. Grasping skills according to Erhardt Prehension Developmental Levels: Natal- no voluntary grasp or visual attention to object. 3 months- no attempt to grasp, but visually attends to object. 7 months- inferior-scissors grasp. 8 months- scissors grasp. 9 months-inferior pincer grasp. 10 months- pincer grasp. 12 months-fine pincer grasp

In order to ensure best practice, the advanced-level OT should be provided with what level of supervision? A. close B. Routine C. minimal D. general

minimal minimal supervision is provided only on as needed bases, possibly less than months. General supervision occurs face to face each month, w/ phone or written communication as needed between meetings. close supervision is face to face supervision that occurs throughout each day. Routine supervision occurs face to face atleast bi-weekly w/ phone or written communication as needed between meetings.

Which of the following patients would be placed on droplet precautions? A. Patient with chickenpox B. Patient with measles C. Patient with pertussis D. Patient with tuberculosis

patient with pertussis Pertussis is spread through sputum droplets as the patient sneezes, coughs, etc. Patients diagnosed w/ tuberculosis, measles, and chickenpox are all required to be on airborne precautions.

Best practice in documentation includes wording to justify skilled intervention and need for services. Which of the following words/terms is the most appropriate to include in documentation in order to reflect the potential for improvement? A. Maintenance B. Progressing C. Required repetitive instruction D. Decreased participation

progressing The term "progressing" shows skilled intervention by the OT and helps to justify continued treatment, as it implies that the patient is meeting goals. The other terms allude to slow progression toward goals or inability to improve further and may impact an OT's justification to continue services.

In regard to joint protection, which piece of patient education is not correct? A. Pulling causes less joint stress than pushing B. lift with the legs C. maintain neutral wrist positioning D. use a large muscle group to complete a task rather than a small muscle group

pulling causes less joint stress than pushing Pulling stresses the joints more than pushing an object and is not recommended for joint protection. Using a larger muscle group, such as the elbows, to carry an item may reduce the strain placed on smaller muscle groups and joints, such as the fingers. Maintaining neutral wrist positioning when carrying an item is also recommended to reduce strain and pain. Lifting with the legs when picking up heavier items is a common recommendation to prevent injury in the back.

OT evaluations often assess attention skills. Which form of attention is used when an individual works as an editor and is required to focus on reading and editing passages for a prolonged period of time? A. attentional switching B. selective attention C. sustained attention D. divided attention

sustained attention sustained attention is the ability to focus on a desired task for a prolonged period of time. Selective attention is the ability to maintain focus on a task when environmental distractions are present. Divided attention involves the ability to focus on multiple tasks at the same time, such as talking on the phone while making breakfast. Attentional switching involves the ability to transfer attention between unrelated tasks in order to complete them efficiently and correctly.

Which classification of amputation describes when a patient's entire hand is amputated? A. Wrist Disarticulation B. Forequarter amputation C. Below-elbow amputation D. Elbow disarticulation

wrist disarticulation A wrist disarticulation is an amputation orignating at the wrist.