patho eaq

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

Which pathophysiological rationale explains why a client who is four days post abdominal surgery has not passed flatulence it has hypo active bowel sounds and why a paralytic ileus it is suspected of developing? A. decreased blood supply B. impaired neuron functioning C. Perforation of the bowel wall D. obstruction of the bowel lumen

B Paralytic ileus occurs when neurological impulses diminish and as a result of anesthesia, infection, or surgery. Interference and blood supply will result in the necrosis of the bowel. Perforation of bowel will result in pain and peritonitis. Obstruction of the bowel initially will cause increase peristalsis and bowel sounds.

which patho changes in the lungs occur with emphysema? A. collapse of alveolar walls B. trapping of air in distal lung structures C. increases in pulmonary artery pressures D. increase in surface area for gas exchange E. movement of fluid from capillaries into alveoli

A,B,C destruction of alveolar walls in emphysema leads to alveolar wall collapse and trapping of air in distal lung structures, leading to poor gas exchange. chronic hypoxemia causes pulmonary hypertension. as alveolar walls collapse, less surface area is available for gas exchange. the alveoli do not become filled with fluid in emphysema. left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion with fluid-filled alveoli.

Which clinical findings with the nurse anticipate when assessing a child with newly diagnosed acute lymphoblastic leukemia? A. pallor B. fatigue C. jaundice D. multiple bruises E. generalized edema

A,B,D Pallor is the result of anemia associated with leukemia. Fatigue as a result of an email associated with leukemia. Multiple bruises are the result of thrombocytopenia associated with leukemia. Jaundice is usually indicated with liver damage or excessive hemolysis and is not an early sign of leukemia. Edema is not a manifestation of the disease because of the pathophysiology.

which is the most appropriate assessment to detect the development of complications associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in a child? A. assessing the joints for stiffness daily B. measuring the pH of each urine specimen C. checking BP Q4 hour D. testing the urine from each voiding for glucose

C one characteristic of AGN is hypertension.

which are the pathophysiological factors of acne? SATA A. comedogenesis B. alteration in follicular growth C. production of excessive sebum D. consumption of dairy products E. colonization of propionibacterium acnes

A,B,C,E pathophysiologic factors of acne include comedogenesis (formation of comedones) the production of excessive sebum, an alteration in follicular growth, and the proliferation of propionibacterium acnes. consuming dairy products may potentiate acne, but it is not a pathophysiological factor.

A client who sustained burn injuries due to a fire and explosion has a carbon monoxide level 14%. Which pathophysiological risk is increased in this client? A. stupor B. vertigo C. convulsions D. slight breathlessness

D Light breathlessness may occur when the carbon monoxide levels 14%. Stupor and vertigo may result when the carbon monoxide level is between 21% and 40%. When the level of carbon monoxide reaches between 41% and 60%, coma or convulsions may occur.

Pathophysiological abnormally is present in cystic fibrosis? A. Dysfunction of sweat glands. B. Inactivity of respiratory tract cilia. C. Dysfunction of mucus-secreting glands. D. Overproduction of endocrine gland activity.

C Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting all mucus secreting/exocrine glands. A sweat gland abnormally is not involved in cystic fibrosis; children's cystic fibrosis lose excessive amount of sodium through perspiration caused by exocrine gland dysfunction. cilia be influenced by secretions but are not affected by CF.

Which explanation best describes what is known about the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer's type? A. there is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters B. the dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain causes tissue damage D. the presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction

D When an older person's brain atrophy is, some unusual deposits of iron or scattered on nerve cells. Throughout the brain, areas of deeply staining Emma Lloyd, called senile plaques, can be found in; these plaques represent the inside of destruction of brain tissue. Genetic predisposition, dysregulation of neurotransmitters, and social and environmental factors are associated with depression. Delirium is transient and can't because my mini physical disorders, such as an electrolyte imbalance, sepsis, or adverse medication effects. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of selected areas of brain tissue are typical of vascular dementia.

While assessing a client skin the nurse notices a skin condition. The nurse realizes the pathophysiology involves increase visibility of oxyhemoglobin caused by an increased blood flow to the capillary dilation. Which condition is associated with this client? A. pallor B. vitiligo C. cyanosis D. erythema

D Erythema occurs due to an increase visibility of oxyhemoglobin, which is caused by an increase blood flow. Power is caused by reduce amount of OXY hemoglobin or reduce feasibility of OXY hemoglobin. Vitiligo is a pigmentation disorder is caused by an autoimmune disease. Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin around the lips; this occurs due to an increase amount of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood.

Pathophysiology of celiac disease is characterized by which description? A. inability to metabolize gluten B. absence of enzyme phenylalanine C. Excessive amount of salt in the sweat glands D. increase in the viscosity of mucus secretions

A Children with celiac disease are unable to digest the gliadin component of gluten, resulting in fatty, foul smelling diarrheal stools. Phenylketonuria is caused by the absence of phenylalanine; it is not related to celiacs disease. Excessive salt in the sweat gland is a manifestation of cystic fibrosis. Increase viscosity of secretions from mucus gland is also related cystic fibrosis.

Place the pathophysiologic process of a TB infection in the correct order. OPTIONS - TB bacillus in the lungs create a granulomatous infection. - Collagen, fibroblast, and lymphocytes, surround the granulomatous inflammation. - Caseation necrosis occurs in the center of the lesion. - Areas of caseation undergo reabsorption, degeneration, and fibrosis. - Necrotic areas calcify or liquefy.

- TB bacillus in the lungs create a granulomatous infection. - Collagen, fibroblast, and lymphocytes, surround the granulomatous inflammation. - Caseation necrosis occurs in the center of the lesion. - Areas of caseation undergo reabsorption, degeneration, and fibrosis. - Necrotic areas calcify or liquefy.

arrange the pathophysiological events of acne in the correct sequence. OPTIONS: - excessive sebum production - colonization of propionibacterium acnes - alterations in follicular growth and differentiation - immune response and inflammation

- excessive sebum production - alterations in follicular growth and differentiation - colonization of propionibacterium acnes - immune response and inflammation

which clinical manifestations of acute myelogenous (nonlymphoid) leukemia (AML) would the nurse expect when assessing a child? SATA A. anorexia B. petechiae C. irritability D. skin redness E. listlessness F. neuropathic pain

A,B,C,E anorexia and vague abdominal discomfort occur because of areas of intestinal inflammation. bleeding tendencies (petechiae and bleeding gums) occur because of decreased platelets. irritability results because of the stress of the pathophysiological changes that occur with the disease. Pallor rather than redness results bc of decreased erythrocytes (anemia). listlessness and lethargy result because of decreased erythrocytes (anemia). neuropathic pain is not a common clinical manifestation of AML.

Which findings with the nurse expect when taking a health history in assessing a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis? Select all that apply A. fever B. dry cough C. night sweats D. frothy sputum E. engorged neck veins F. blood tinged sputum

A,C,F Tuberculosis it is an infectious disease in which recurrent fevers are present, usually in the late afternoon. Profuse diaphoresis at night is a classical sign of tuberculosis. Blood tinged sputum (hemoptysis) results from pathophysiological trauma mucous membranes. The cough is productive, not dry, because the inflammatory process causes purchase let me guess. Frothy sputum is present with PE, not TB. Gorge neck veins are symptomatic of heart failure or fluid overload.

Which pathophysiological process would the nurse recognize as leading to the clinical manifestations commonly seen in cystic fibrosis? A. airway irritability causes spasms B. Lung parenchyma becomes inflamed C. Excessively thick mucus obstructs airways D. endocrine glands secrete surplus hormones

C Dysfunction of exocrine glands leads to the secretion of mucus that is thicker and more tenacious than normal. The characteristics of this mucus cause it to pool in the lungs and make expectoration difficult. In addition to airway obstruction children with cystic fibrosis are more likely to have respiratory infections. Airway irritability is associated with hyperactive airway disease. Inflamed lung parenchyma is associated with pneumonia; this is a secondary complication related to the status of secretions. The endocrine glands are not directly affected in cystic fibrosis.

an older client presents with tremors, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. in which order do the pathophysiological events involved in this condition occurs? OPTIONS: - imbalance between excitatory and inhibitory neuronal activity - degeneration of substantia nigra - decreased dopamine production - decreased ability to refine voluntary movements

parkinson's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that is one of the most common neurological disorders of older adults. dopamine produced in the substant nigra and adrenal gland is transmitted to the basal ganglia for secretion when needed. widespread degeneration of the substantia nigra of basal ganglia leads to a decrease in the amount of dopamine in the brain. this results in a decreased ability to refine voluntary movement. the large numbers of excitatory acetylcholine-secreting neurons now are not countered by the inhibitory action of dopamine, which creates an imbalance between excitatory and inhibitory neuronal activity.

A client reports of severe throbbing unilateral headache, nausea, and intolerance to light and sound. Arrange the pathophysiologic events in chronological order. OPTIONS Stimulation of hyperexcitability neuronal pathway Activation of trigeminal nerve. Activation of nociceptors. release of prostaglandins extravasation if intravascular molecules throbbing pain

Stimulation of hyperexcitability neuronal pathway Activation of trigeminal nerve. Activation of nociceptors. release of prostaglandins extravasation if intravascular molecules throbbing pain

Nurse assesses bilateral plus for peripheral edema while assessing a client with heart failure and peripheral vascular disease. Which is the pathophysiological reason for the excessive edema? A. shift of fluid into the interstitial spaces B. weakening of the cell wall C. Increased intravascular compliance D. increased intracellular fluid volume

A Edema is defined as the accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces. When the heart is unable to maintain adequate blood flow throughout the circulatory system, the excess fluid pressure within the blood vessels can cause shifts into the interstitial spaces. Weakening of a cell wall may cause leakage of fluid, but this is not the pathological reason related to heart failure. Increase intravascular compliance would prevent fluid from shifting into the tissue. Intracellular volume is maintained within the cell and not within the tissue.

Which is the most important nursing action involved in caring for a client receiving medication? A. administering the meds B. teaching about the meds C. ensuring adherence D. evaluating the clients ability to self administer meds

A It's important part of the nursing practice regarding medication and is administering the medication's. Administering medication safety requires an understanding of the legal aspects of healthcare, pharmacology, pathophysiology, human anatomy, and mathematics. Teaching about the medication, ensuring adherence to the medication, and evaluating the clients ability to self administer medication or responsibilities of a nurse performed before or after the administration of meds.

Which explanation with the nurse provide a client who asked what a cataract is? A. an opacity of the lens B. thin film over the cornea C. a crystalization of the pupil D. an increase in the density of the conjunctiva

A A cataract is a clouding of the crystalline lens or its capsule.

Which pathophysiological process with the nurse recognize as associated with cerebral astrocytoma brain tumor? A. fast growing and malignant B. benign and associated with a high rate of cure C. Close to vital centers, with only a partial excision possible D. associated with pituitary and hypothalamic malfunction later in life

B Cerebral astrocytoma, unlike those in the surgery room, or slow growing and benign, with a cure rate of 70 to 90% after surgery. Other infratentorial tumors, such as medulloblastomas, grow rapidly and are highly malignant. A cerebellar astrocytoma can be completely excised. The pituitary gland and hypothalamus are not affected by this tumor.

The parents of a four-year-old child with newly diagnosed acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) blames themselves for not taking care of sooner after noticing changes in their child's behavior in the black and blue marks. Which response by the nurse provide based on the pathophysiology of leukemia and the typical diagnostic process? A. a diagnosis can't be certain only after a blood smear is analyzed B. if leukemias diagnose a child's prognosis is probably guarded C. Early signs and symptoms of leukemia are similar to those of other mild illnesses of childhood D. the description of the clinical findings indicates that the child has been ill for longer than a single week

C To allay parental guilt and anxiety it is important to acknowledge how difficult it is to recognize severe illness on the basis of changes in the child's behavior and ecchymoses that can result when a child bangs into an object, a common occurrence in small children. A bone marrow aspiration and biopsy is required for a definitive diagnosis. ALL in children has a favorable prognosis depending on several factors including the child's age your diagnosis, the white blood cell count, and the types of cells involved. Even if the parents miss the fact that their child was so ill, mentioning this may cause more anxiety and guilt interfere with the development of nurse to client rapport.

which education would the nurse provide the parents of an infant with phenylketonuria (PKU) about the etiology of the condition? A. it is contracted during the birth process B. it is a lifelong disorder of unknown origin C. this congenital disorder was caused by an intrauterine infection. D. this autosomal recessive disorder was inherited from parents who are carriers

D PKU is an inherited metabolic disorder; the parents do not have the disorder (autosomal recessive) because two copies of the gene (one from each parent) are necessary for expression of the disorder. PKU is not contracted during birth or as an infection; it is inherited. the origin, pathophysiology treatment, and outcomes are known.

which character uniquely associated with psychophysiological disorders would differentiate them from somatic symptom disorders? A. emotional cause B. feeling of illness C. restriction of activity D. underlying pathophysiology

D psychophysiological disorders have an underlying pathophysiology or actual physical cause, whereas somatic symptom disorders usually do not. the psychophysiological response produces actual tissue changes. somatic symptom disorders are unrelated to organic changes.

Which parent education will the nurse provide the parents of an infant recently diagnosed with communicating hydrocephalus? A. too much spinal fluid is being produced within the spaces/ventricles of the brain B. the flow of spinal fluid to the brain cells does not empty effectively into the spinal cord C. The spinal fluid is prevented from being adequately absorbed by a blockage in the spaces/ventricles of the brain D. there is a part of the brain surface that usually absorb spinal fluid after its production that is not functioning adequately

D And communicating hydrocephalus a part of the brain service that usually absorb spinal fluid after his production does not function adequately. Too much spinal fluid is often a result of the choroid plexus tumor. It does not interfere with the flow of cerebral spinal fluid through the ventricles. Saying that the flow of spinal fluid to the brain cells is not empty effectively into the spinal cord is an accurate; brain cells and spinal cord are not involved. Sitting at the spinal fluid is prevent it from being adequately absorbed by a blockage in spaces/ventricles on the brain reflexive pathophysiological process of not communicating hydrocephalus.

which statement made by the nursing student indicates effective learning about the pathophysiology of submersion injury in victims of freshwater drowning and victims of saltwater drowning? A. fresh water is hypertonic whereas salt water is hypotonic B. both types of water are drawn from the vascular space into the alveoli C. destruction of surfactant and alveolar-capillary membrane occurs inly in case of saltwater aspiration D. the osmotic gradient caused by the aspirated fluid causes fluid imbalances in case of submersion in both types of water

D destruction of surfactant and alveolar-capillary membrane occurs in cases of both saltwater and freshwater aspiration. when either saltwater or freshwater is aspirated by the submerged victim, the osmotic gradient caused by the aspirated fluid causes fluid imbalances in the body. freshwater is hypotonic and saltwater is hypertonic. only HYPERTONIC saltwater draws fluid from the vascular space into the alveoli.

Rain is the order of pathophysiology involved with the development of pressure ulcers on the sacrum, hips, and ankles for a client with quadriplegia. OPTIONS: - local tissue compression - restriction of BF - reduced perfusion - local cell death - development of pressure ulcer

- local tissue compression - restriction of BF - reduced perfusion - local cell death - development of pressure ulcer

based on pathophysiology of submersion injury, the events that take place in the body of a near drowning victim in freshwater submersion occur in which order? options: - water is aspirated - water rapidly leaks to cap bed and circulation - acute respiratory distress syndrome develops - destruction of surfactant and alveolar- cap membrane occurs - noncardiogenic pulmonary edema occurs

- water is aspirated - water rapidly leaks to capillary bed and circulation - destruction of surfactant and alveolar-cap membrane occurs -noncardiogenic pulmonary occurs - acute respiratory distress syndrome develops

Which pathophysiological process with the nurse expect to account for growth failure in a four-year-old child with newly diagnosed cystic fibrosis? A. impaired digestion and absorption because of the lack of pancreatic enzymes B. dyspnea and shortness of breath which causes anorexia and disinterest in food C. Increased bowel motility and diarrhea which lead to an adequate absorption of nutrients D. Pulmonary obstruction which causes an oxygen deficient in inadequate tissue nourishment

A Obstruction of the pancreatic duct an absence of enzymes to aid fat digestion and absorption lead to wasting of tissues and failure to thrive. Currently it is recommended that children with cystic fibrosis consume 150% to 200% of the calories recommended for their body weight. Despite dyspnea and shortness of breath these children's have voracious appetite when feeling well; the difficulty involves poor digestion in malabsorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins. Increased by motility and diarrhea are not associated with cystic fibrosis. The pulmonary disease process leads to localized respiratory dysfunction not to retarded physical growth

Client who is in the advanced stages of illness ask the nurse to contact pastoral services for support. According to the Macmillan model which is a correct nursing intervention in this situation? A. immediately involve pastoral services while caring for the client. B. involve the family member and the clients care instead of pastoral support. C. Listen to the clients request for support and then carry on with the clinical work. D. falsely promised that pastoral services had been contacted and plan to see the client.

A The Macmillan nurse usually has a knowledge of advanced practice and possesses specialty training. The practice enhances the nurse to gain an in-depth knowledge about spiritual, social, and psychological needs in the pathophysiology of clients living with advanced diseases. The nurse involves pastoral services while caring for the client. Involving a family member may decrease anxiety in the client but may not fulfill the wishes of a client. Just listen to the client request without implementation on giving false promises can cause loss of trust by the client.

The client with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin for seizure control. Which instruction about phenytoin will the nurse provide during discharge teaching? A. antiseizure medications will probably be continued for life B. phenytoin prevents any further occurrences of seizures C. this medication needs to be taken during periods of emotional stress D. your antiseizure meds usually can be stopped after a years absence of seizure

A Who's your disorders usually are associated with Marc changes in the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex, requiring prolonged or lifelong therapy. Seizures may occur despite medication therapy; the dosage may need to be adjusted. A therapeutic blood level must be maintained through consistent administration of medication irrespective of emotional stress. Absence of seizures will probably result from medication effectiveness rather than from correction of the path of physiological condition.

The nurse is caring for a nine month old infant with gluten induced enteropathy. Which common term for this is order with the nurse use when discussing the infants diagnosis with the parents? A. megacolon B. celiacs C. cystic fibrosis D. intussusception

B Celiac's disease , celiac sprue, and gluten sensitive enteropathy of the are terms used interchangeably for the same pathophysiologic process. Aganglionic megacolon also referred to as Hirschsprung disease is characterized by chronic constipation; it is not a gluten induced enteropathy. Although similar to celiac's disease in many of its clinical manifestation, cystic fibrosis is an inherited disorder characterized by increased viscosity of mucus gland secretions throughout the body, not a gluten induced enteropathy. Intussusception is an intestinal anomaly that causes invagination or telescoping of one portion of the intestine into another; it is an acute problem rather than a chronic disorder and is not gluten induced enteropathy.

Which pathophysiological statement reflects understanding of a clients diagnosis of good pasture syndrome? A. antigen specific immunoglobulin E binds to the surface of basophils and mast cells B. autoantibodies attack the glomerular basement membrane of the kidneys C. Rapid and systemic reactions of the organs within seconds after exposure to an allergen D. Autoimmune destruction of the lacrimal and salivary mucus producing glands

B Good pasture syndrome is an auto immune disorder in which autoantibodies attack the glomerular basement membrane in the kidneys in the collagen proteins in the lungs. A client may have allergies when an antigen specific IGE binds to the surface of basophils and mast cells, which stimulates the production of vasoactive Amines. Rapid and systemic reactions of the organs within seconds after exposure to an allergen may lead to anaphylactic shock. A client with Sjogren may have autoimmune destruction of a lacrimal and salivary mucus/moisture producing glands.

during a chest assessment of a client with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, the nurse hears bilateral short, discontinuous, high-pitched sounds in the lower lung lobes. the sounds are similar to hair rolled between the fingers just behind the ear. which respiratory disorders may also manifest these sounds as pathophysiological signs? SATA A. croup B. atelectasis C. cystic fibrosis D. bronchospam E. pulmonary edema

B, E the short, discontinuous, high-pitched sounds that sound like hair being rolled between fingers just behind the ear in the bilateral lower lobes indicate fine crackles. DISORDERS: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, atelectasis, and pulmonary edema. CROUP: characterized by continuous musical or a crowing sound of a constant pitch CF: characterized by continuous rumbling, snoring, and rattling sounds from secretions obstructing large airways. BRONCHO: characterized by continuous high pitched, squeaking, or musical sounds caused by rapid vibration of bronchial walls.

an adolescent child with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the pediatric unit during a vasoocclusive crisis. which patho is correct? A. severe depression of the circulating thrombocytes B. diminished RBC production by the bone marrow C. pooling of blood in the spleen with splenomegaly as a consequence D. blockage of small blood vessels as a result of clumping of RBCs

D the RBC in sickle cell anemia are fragile. when hypoxia or dehydration occurs, the cells take on a crescent shape; they then clump together and occlude blood vessels. the platelet count is not severely depressed in vasoocclusive crisis. diminished RBC production by the bone marrow is an aplastic crisis resulting in severe anemia. pooling of blood in the spleen that results in splenomegaly is known as a splenic sequestration crisis.

why are children with HIV more prone to infection than adults with HIV? A. the immune systems of children produce insufficient antibodies B. children are exposed to more pathogens each day than are adults C. the AIDS virus attacks children's immune systems through different mechanisms D. adults have had more exposure to pathogens over time and produce more antibodies

D the production of antibodies is directly related to the number of pathogens to which an individual is exposed. bc adults have lived longer than children they have been exposed to more antigens and produced more antibodies.


Related study sets

Unit 2: Wars of Catholic Spain-The Netherlands and England

View Set

Convection Currents, Plate Tectonics

View Set

Chapter 7: Annotating, Summarizing, Responding

View Set

Principles of Marketing Chapter 7

View Set