Pathocombo

Curshmann disease

"Curschmann's disease", also known as hyaloserositis of the liver; the coating of an organ with a fibrous hyaline resulting from inflammation of the serous membrane (serositis) covering the organ

Takayasu arteritis

(large vessels) granulomatous inflammation, usually <50y.o. Can cause blindness. Lack of pulse

Cancer is a malignant tumor based on: a. Connective tissue cells b. Epithelial cells c. Lymphocytes d. Mesenchyme e. Neurons

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What is Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

- Absence of UGT (Uridine glucuronyl transferase) - UGT conjugates bilirubin in hepatocytes - Result: Kernicterus, usually fatal

Whar is Sjogren-Syndrome?

- Autosomal destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands - "Cant chew a cracker, dirt in my eyes"

Whar is Sjogren-Syndrome?

- Autosomal destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands - "Cant chew a cracker, dirt in my eyes" - Common in patients with other autoimmune diseases - Women

What is Wilsons disease?

- Autosomal recessive disease - copper accumulates in tissue - Increased risk of formation of free-radicals - Kayser Fleischer ring!!

What is Wilsons disease?

- Autosomal recessive disease, mutation in "wilson disease protein" - Copper accumulates in tissue - Increased risk of formation of free-radicals (hepatolenticular degeneration) - Formation of a ring around the eye - Kaiser Fleischer Ring - Neuropsychatric symptoms

What is Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

- B-cell lymphoma with monoclonal IgM production

What is carbon tetrachloride?

- CCl4 -Organic solvent used in dry cleaning industry - CCl4 is converted to CCl3 radical by p450 system in heptaocytes - Decreased apolipoprotein leads to fatty changes in the liver

Varicella-Zoster irus - Acute infection? - Reactivation?

- Causes chickenpox the first acute infeciton - Causes shingles/herpes zoster during reactivation (helvetesild) Chickenpox are more severe in adults. The shingles affect keratinocytes. - infects mucous membranes, skin, neurons| - they can also cause interstitial pneumonia, encephalitis ++

Explain deep fibromatosis?

- Deep grow in locally aggressive manner, include desmoid tumors that arise in abdominal wall of trunk and extremities and within abdomen (mesentery and pelvic walls). Can be isolated lesions, or a component of Gardner syndrome which includes CAP (col.aden.polyp) and osteomas.

What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

- Deficiency of bilirubin canalicular transport protein - Autosomal recessive - Liver is dark; otherwise, not clinically significant - Rotor syndrome is simialar to Dubin-Johnson, but lacks liver discoloration

What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

- Deficiency of bilirubin canalicular transport protein - Autosomal recessive - Liver is dark; otherwise, not clinically significant - Rotor syndrome is simialar to Dubin-Johnson, but lacks liver discoloration - Increase in conjugated bilirubin - (no ALT and AST elevation) - The conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a result of defective endogenous and exogenous transfer of anionic conjugates from hepatocytes into the bile.

What is Digeorge syndrome?

- Developmental failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches - Due to 22q11 microdeletion - Lack of thymus and parathyroids

What is Digeorge syndrome?

- Developmental failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches - Due to 22q11 microdeletion - Lack of thymus and parathyroids Cardiac abnormality (especially tetralogy of Fallot) Abnormal facies Thymic aplasia Cleft palate Hypocalcemia/Hypoparathyroidism

What is Paget disease of vulva?

- Extramammary Paget disease - Characterized by malignant epithelial cells in the epidermis of the vulva - Carcinoma in situ

What is Gilbert Syndrome?

- Genetic liver defect - Normally no jaundice, but during stress it develops - Mildly low UGT activity (conjugation of bilirubin) - Autosomal recessive - high levels of unconjugate bilirubin

What is Paget disease of bone?

- Imbalance between osteoclast and osteoblast function. - Usually seen in late adulthood - Result -thick bone that fractures easily - Biopsy: mosaic pattern of lamellar bone - Complication include osteosarcoma

Epstein-Barr virus - Disease? - Which cells does it infect? - Associated with cancer formation?

- Infectious mononucleosis fever, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, sore throat, atypical activated T-cells in blood " mononucelosis cells" / some get hepatitis, meningoencephalitis and pneumonitis/ - It infects the B-cells - Associated with many neoplasms Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Lymphomas - burkitts lymphoma - Hodgkins lymphoma (lymphocyte rich, lymphocyte depletion, mixed cellularity)

What is Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

- Involves bilirubin mtb - Absence of UGT (Uridine glucuronyl transferase) - UGT conjugates bilirubin in hepatocytes - Result: Kernicterus, usually fatal - nonhemolytic jaundice - increased Unconjugate bilirubin in blood --> brain damage in newborns

What is myositis ossificans?

- It is an example of mesenchymal tissue undergoing metaplasia. - Muscle tissue changes to bone

What is Li-Freumeni syndrome?

- Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an extremely rare autosomal dominant hereditary disorder. - Li-Fraumeni syndrome greatly increases susceptibility to cancer. This syndrome is also known as the Sarcoma, breast, leukaemia and adrenal gland (SBLA) syndrome. -The syndrome is linked to germline mutations of the TP53 tumor suppressor gene.

What is Kaposi sarcoma?

- Malignant disease - HHV 8 - Bluish-brown plaques or nodules in the dermis. - Intradermal haemorrhage with haemosiderin deposition occurs within the nodules

What is Kaposi sarcoma?

- Malignant disease (tumor) - HumanHerpesVirus 8 - Bluish-brown plaques or nodules in the dermis. - Intradermal haemorrhage with haemosiderin deposition occurs within the nodules (typical for AIDS patients)

What is Gilbert Syndrome?

- Mildly low UGT activity (conjugation of bilirubin) - Autosomal recessive - Jaundice during stress

Cytomegalovirus - Symptoms in a healthy person ? - Which cells does in infect? - What happens if a patient gets immunocompromised with a latent infection? - What does the infection do?

- Mononucleosis like infection in healthy - It infects monocytes - Reactivation will occur - Infected cell - Owls eye (inclusion with surrounded halo) - The infection depresses the immune function, this can be fatal. (impair function of dendritic cells) - can also invade neurons, epithelial and endothelial cells - Transplacental transmission, neonatal transmission, saliva.

What is Wegeners granulomatosis?

- Necrotizing granulomatous vascultits - Involving nasopharynx, lungs and kidneys - c-ANCA - Small vessel vasculitis - Middle-aged male

What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia?

- Neoplastic accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow - TdT+ -Most commonly arises in children: associated with Down syndrome - Subclassified into B-ALL and T-ALL based on surface markers. - B-ALL CD10, CD19, CD20 - T-ALL CD2-CD8

What is Acute Myeloid Leukemia?

- Neoplastic accumulation of myeloblasts in the bone marrow - Auer rod - Most commonly arise in older adults - Subclassifies: Acute promyelolytic leukemia, Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (no auer-rods), Acute monocytic leukemia( no auer-rods.

What is Burkitt lymphoma?

- Neoplastic proliferation of intermediate B-cells - Associated with EBV - Classically presents as an extranodular mass in child or young adult -8:14 C-myc

What is diffuse large B-cell lymphoma?

- Neoplastic proliferation of large B-cells that grow diffusely in sheets - CD20+ - Most common form of NHL - High grade - Late adulthood

What is Hairy-cell Leukemia?

- Neoplastic proliferation of mature B cells - Cells are positive for TRAP (tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase) - Accumulation of hairy cells in red pulp (Normally in chronic leukemia there will be splenomegaly, but this is usually due to expansion of the white pulp, but in hairy cell leukemia it is due to red pulp expantion)

What is adult- T-cell leukemia/lymphoma?

- Neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells - HTLV-1 -Lytic bone lesions

What is Mycosis Fungoides?

- Neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T-cells - patitrier microabscesses - Cells can spreads to involve the blood, producing Sezary syndrome (Sezary cells)

What is Polycytemia Vera?

- Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially RBC´s - Associated with JAK2 kinase mutation

What is Chonic Myeloid Leukemia?

- Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially granulocytes and their precursors, basophils are characteristically increased. - 9:22 BCR-ABL - Can transform to AML or ALL since mutation is in a pluripotent stem cell

What is Myelofibrosis?

- Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially megakaryocytes - Associated with JAK2 kinase mutation - Megakaryocytes produce excess platelet-derived growth factor causing marrow fibrosis

What is Essential thrombycythemia?

- Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially platelets - Associated with JAK2 kinase mutation

What is Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?

- Neoplastic proliferation of naive B cells that Co-express CD5 and CD20 - This is the most commen leukemia overall - Smudge cells

What is follicular lymphoma?

- Neoplastic proliferation of small B-cells - CD10+, CD20+, CD79-A - Late adulthood - 14:18 - Progression to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is an important complication - Lack of tingible body marcrophages

What is marginal zone lymphoma?

- Neoplastic proliferation of small B-cells - CD20+, CD10+ - Associated with chronic inflammatory states such as Hashimoto Thyroiditis, Sjogren syndrome, and H. pylory gastritis -MALToma is marginal zone lymphoma in mucosal sites

What is Mantle Cell lymphoma?

- Neoplastic proliferation of small B-cells - CD20+, (CD10+) -11:14 - Cyclin D1

What types of Hodgkin lymphoma do we have?

- Nodular sclerosis (lacunar cells, RS) - Lymphocyte-rich (best prognosis) - Mixed cellularity (abundant eosinophils, RS -IL5) - Lymphocyte-depleted (most aggressive)

What is Paget disease?

- Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans) --> a chronic disorder that can result in enlarged and misshapen bones Paget's is caused by the excessive breakdown and formation of bone, followed by disorganized bone remodelling. - Paget disease vulva --> rare, slow-growing, usually noninvasive intraepithelial (in the skin) adenocarcinoma outside of the mammary gland and includes Paget's disease of the vulva and the extremely rare Paget's disease of the penis - Paget disease breast --> a malignant condition that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast

What is Paget disease?

- Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans) = a chronic disorder that can result in enlarged and misshapen bones. Paget's is caused by the excessive breakdown and formation of bone, followed by disorganized bone remodelling - Paget disease vulva - Paget disease breast = a malignant condition that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast

What is Wegeners granulomatosis?

- Polyangiitis(inflammation of multipl vessels) + granulomatosis (collection of immune cells - granulocytes) - Necrotizing granulomatous vascultits (group of disorders) - Involving nasopharynx, lungs and kidneys - c-ANCA / cytoplasmic-antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies) - Small vessel and medium sized vessels involved - Middle-aged male --> glomeruolnephritis --> chronic kidney failure

What is Tsutsugamushi fever?

- Scrub typhus, Mites - O. tsutsugamushi - intracellular bacteria, Gram negative, Ricketisacae family - fever, headache, muscle pain, cough GIT symptoms - More virulent strain: Hemorrhagig and intravascular coagulation - Morbiliform rash, eschar, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathies - Leukopenia, abnormal liver function - Late phase: pneumonitis, encephalitis, myocarditis

Name 2 superficial fibromatosis?

- Superficial arise in superficial fascia, less harmful, include o Palmar fibromatosis (Dupuytren contracture) o Penile fibromatosis ( Peyronie disease)

elastic membrane stainig

- Van Gieson - Orcein - Gomori/Grocott - Resorcin - Fuschsin

What is Virchow node, Virchow triade and Virchow reaction?

- Virchow node - lymphnode in left supraclavicular fossa - Virchow triade - hypercoagulability, stasis of blood, endothelial injury - Virchow reaction - used to detect amyloid

At autopsy the heart was bulging in a patient that died from acute myocardial infarction. There was found a blood clot that appeared macroscopically with alternating light yellow and dark red stripes. This description corresponds to - a) Mixed (coral) thrombus - b) White thrombus - c) Thrombus containing fragments of atherosclerotic plaque - d) Embolus from lower extremity veins - e) Emboli emerged in relation to trauma, accompanied by multiple bone fractures

- a) Mixed (coral) thrombus Thrombus formed by erythrocytes and fibrin Makes lines of zahn

Hepatite B virus - Acute or Chronic liver disease? - Long term disease? - increased risk of hepatocelllular carcinoma ?

- acute and chronic liver disease - percutaneusly, perinatally, sexually transmitted - infects hepatocytes, and cellular injury is due to the immune response to the infected liver cells, not because of the virus itself - CTLs effectiveness is a major determinant to whether the virus gets cleared - Chronic infection if the rate of hepatocyte infection outpaces the rate of infected hepatocyte killing by CTLs - Chronic: 5% of adults, 90% of children - Long term: cirrhosis and incr risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. - Apoptosis of cells, lymphocytic infiltration, Cirrhosis --> increased risk of HCC.

Ten-year boy has experienced repeated episodes of swollen upper lip and abdominal pain along with a family history of angioneurotic edema. What is causing the defect states? - a) Hypersensitivity to histamine - b) C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency - c) Excessive mast cell degranulation by C5a - d) Hypersensitivity to kinin - e) Lytic membrane damage system by complement C5-9

- b) C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency Although rare, hereditary angioedema (HAE) can have catastrophic consequences. Laryngeal edema can result in asphyxiation; abdominal attacks can lead to unnecessary surgery and delay in diagnosis, as well as to narcotic dependence due to severe pain; and cutaneous attacks are disfiguring and disabling

. Which type of shock is most likely to develop several hours after severe burns? - a) Cardiogenic shock - b) Hypovolemic shock - c) Septic shock - d) Neurogenic shock - e) Anaphylactic shock

- b) Hypovolemic shock Loss of blood volume :)

Which of the following is true of bleeding? - a) Hemarthrosis of hemophiliacs is due to a congenital disorder of collagen - b) In internal bleeding iron may be reutilized - C) Hemorrhagic diathesis indicates bleeding by a congenital disorder - D) Ecchymoses indicate bleeding in the brain - E) Petechiae are extensive bleeding into skin surfaces

- b) In internal bleeding iron may be reutilized Hemophiliacs does not have a failure of collagen, it is due to failure of some of the clotting factors Hemorrhagic diathesis indicates an increased risk of bleeding, due to hypocoagulability Ecchymoses - a subcutaneous purpura (extravasation of blood) larger than 1 centimeter or a hematoma (not necesarily caused by trauma)

What can cause a pronounced lymphedema? - a) Recurrent attacks of erysipelas - b) Infection of Wuchereria bancrofti (filiariasis) - c) Venostasis - d) Obstruction of thoracic duct - e) Heart failure

- b) Infection of Wuchereria bancrofti (filiariasis) - d) Obstruction of thoracic duct not sure though..

Fresh blood in the stool is called - a) Epistaxis - b) Hematemesis - c) Hematochezia (enteroragie) - d) Hemoptysis - e) Melena

- c) Hematochezia (enteroragie)

In which of the following places is there typically hemorrhagic infarct? - a) Kidneys - b) Liver - c) Lungs - d) Myocardium - e) Skeletal muscle

- c) Lungs

Type 1 Gaucher disease, also called:

- chronic non-neuronopathic form

Papanicolau

- cytology staining (gynecology)

May Grünwald Giemsa

- cytology staining - bluish - can be used for bacteria and mycosis

What is the alternative designation of ascites? - a) Anasarka - b) Transudate - c) Hydropericardium - d) Hydroperitoneum - e) Hydrothorax

- d) Hydroperitoneum

Which of the following statements describes the state of shock best? - a) Low volume of circulating blood - b) Decrease in venous hydrostatic pressure - c) Decrease in hydrostatic blood pressure - d) Inadequate tissue perfusion - e) Low cardiac output

- d) Inadequate tissue perfusion

What is true for thrombosis? - a) Arises only in arteries and veins - b) Has only local consequences - c) Thrombus can be any object that is trapped in the blood stream - d) Thrombi always contain platelets - e) Venous thrombi only affects lower extremities

- d) Thrombi always contain platelets

Perinatal-lethal form of Gaucher disease?

- hepatosplenomegaly, skin lesions, non-immune hydrops Hydrops fetalis is a condition in the fetus characterized by an accumulation of fluid, or edema, in at least two fetal compartments

What is Rotor syndrome?

- hyperbilirubinemia - Increase in conjugated bilirubin - No dicoloration of liver --> (different from Dubin-Johnson syndrome) - Autosomal recessive

What is Rotor syndrome?

- hyperbilirubinemia - No dicoloration of liver - Autosomal recessive

Cardiovascular form of Gaucher disease?

- involvement and calcification of mitral and aortic valves

What is Hemochromatosis?

- is too much iron in the body - increased risk of formation of free-radicals

What is Hemochromatosis?

- is too much iron in the body - increased risk of formation of free-radicals - Often in liver, heart, endocrine glands

What is Lesch Nyhan syndrome?

- juvenile gout - deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase - The HGPRT deficiency causes a build-up of uric acid in all body fluids. This results in both hyperuricemia and hyperuricosuria, associated with severe gout and kidney problems. Neurological signs include poor muscle control and moderate intellectual disability

Where does the herpes simplex virus attack? Where do we find them latent? Is it type 1 or type 2 that can cause corneal blindness and fatal sporadic encephalitits?

- skin and mucous membranes - causes vesciular lesions of epidermis - In the bodies of sensory nerves - HSV-1 can cause corneal blindness and fatal sporadic encephalitis

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?

-Block of hepatic vein (thrombosis) - Many patients have Budd-Chiari syndrome as complication of polycytemia vera - Gives abdominal pain, hepatomegaly and ascites

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?

-Block of hepatic vein (thrombosis, compression) - Many patients have Budd-Chiari syndrome as complication of polycytemia vera - Triad: abdominal pain, ascites and hepatomegaly.

What is chronic granulomatous disease?

-Characterized by poor oxygen-dependent killing. - Due to NADPH oxidase defect (X-linked or autosomal recessive) - Leads to recurrent infections and granuloma formation with catalse-positive organisms.

What is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

-Characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent infections (defective humoral and cellular immunity) - Due to mutation in the WASP gene - X-linked

What is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

-Characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent infections (defective humoral and cellular immunity) - Due to mutation in the WASP gene - X-linked - Blood diarrhea - Males - low IgM, high IgA and IgE

What is Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

-Is a protein trafficking defect - autosomal recessive - Characterized by impaired phagolysosome formation. - Clinical features: Albinism, peripheral neuropathy, increased risk of pyogenic infection, neutropenia, giant granules in leukocytes and defect of primary hemostasia.

What are tingible body marcophages?

-Is a type of macrophages found predominantly in germinal centers, containing many phagocytized apoptotic cells in various states of degradation. -Tingible body macrophages are present in follicular hyperplasia, but not in follicular lymphoma

What types of Langerhans cell Histiocytosis do we have?

-Letter-Siwe disease - Eosinophilic granuloma - Hand-Schuller-Chrisitna disease

What is Paget disease of breast?

-Paget disease of breast is ductal carcinoma in situ that extends up the ducts to involve the skin of the nippel. - Almost always associated with an underlying carcinoma

What is Libman-Sacks endocarditis?

-SLE - classic finding in SLE and is characterized by small, sterile deposits on both sides of the mitral valve

How is NHL classified?

-Small B-cell: Follicular lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, marginal zone - Intermediate-sized B-cells: Burkitt lymphoma - Large B-cells: diffuse B-cell lymphoma

acute inflammation morphologic patterns

-alterative -exudative -proliferative -acute inflammations, up to 6 weeks

exudate?

-inflammatroy, extravascular fluid with high protein conc. -specific gravity more than 1.020 -significant changes in capillary permeability lead to exudation of big cells and proteins

Chronic Inflammation

-is of prolonged duration (from 6 weeks to months), associated with the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages, proliferation of blood vessels and tissue necroses. -Develops when acute inflammation is incompletely healed, -It is not natural defense mechanism, -it is always pathologic. -Mostly lyphoplasmocellular infiltrate.

pus?

-purulent inflammatory exudate -rich in leukocytes (mostly neutrophiles) -debris of dead cells and microbes

transudate?

-ultrafiltrate of plasma due to high hydrostatic pressure in vessels. -specific gravity less than 1.012 -little proteins (some albumin) -no increase in vascular permeability

Sturge-Weber syndrome

...

Type I Von Gierke Disease Type II Pompe Disease. Type III Cori Disease Type IV Andersen disease. Type V McArdle disease. Type VI Hers disease.

...

Von Hippel Lindau disease

...

What is the resolution of the light microscope?

0,2-0,5 um

Type 1 Type 2 type 3 type 4 type 5

1 - allergy 2 - Cytotoxic, antibody dependent (attacking the human cells) 3- immune complex disease (depositing here and there in the body - kidneys f.eks.. causing problems) 4 - Delayed type hypersensitivity 5- autoimmune disease, receptor mediated

25. Which of the following is/are true of medullary tumors: 1) Are formed by numerous tumor cells and small number of stromal cells. 2) Are formed by in-numerous tumor cells and a large number of stromal cells. 3) They arise in the bone marrow. 4) Never metastasizes.

1) Are formed by numerous tumor cells and small number of stromal cells - Medullary carcinomas: epithelial tumor cells predominate- breast, thyroid gland (vernerova lecture) -Mostly found in breast and thyroid gland -Often metastasis -Medullary tumors are always with little or no stroma! Stromal cells: CT cells

44. Which of the following is/are true for mesothelioma? 1) Can arise in connection with asbestos exposure. 2) It is a highly malignant neoplasm. 3) Usually affects the pleural surface. 4) It is a benign tumor.

1) Can arise in connection with asbestos exposure 2) It is a highly malignant neoplasm. 3) Usually affects the pleural surface. -Mesothelioma: a rare form of cancer that develops from cells of the mesothelium, the protective lining that covers many of the internal organs of the body. Mesothelioma is most commonly caused by exposure to asbestos. It says that they can be beningn as well, although it is rare...!?

73. Which of the following tumor/s is/are most commonly found in bones: 1) Ewing`s sarcoma 2) Squamous cell carcinoma 3) Yolk sac tumor 4) medullary carcinoma

1) Ewing`s sarcoma Ewing's sarcoma or Ewing sarcoma is a malignant small, round, blue cell tumour. It is a rare disease in which cancer cells are found in the bone or in soft tissue. The most common areas in which it occurs are the pelvis, the femur, the humerus, the ribs and clavicle (collar bone). Endodermal sinus tumor (EST), also known as yolk sac tumor (YST), is a member of the germ cell tumor group of cancers.

80. Hepatic metabolism impairment is typically associated with: 1) Gilbert syndrome 2) Dubbin Jonson syndrome 3) Down syndrome. 4) Rotor Syndrome.

1) Gilbert syndrome 2) Dubbin Jonson syndrome 4) Rotor Syndrome. Tonje´s quizlet said it was nr 3., but james´document had 1, 2 and 4 so I changed it!

1. Epitheloid cells in TB granulomas arise from? 1) Histiocytes and monocytes. 2) Epithelial cells and lymphocytes. 3) Endothelial cells and epithelial cells. 4) Lymphocytes and plasmocytes.

1) Histiocytes and monocytes.

62. Bowen`s disease is a term for: 1) In situ squamous cell carcinoma of the skin 2) in situ skin basiloma 3) in situ melanoma of the skin 4) in situ primary cutaneous lymphoma

1) In situ squamous cell carcinoma of the skin skin basiloma = a basal cell carcinoma.

43. Alcian blue stains: 1) Intracytoplasmic vacuoles in signet ring cell adenocarcinoma 2) Goblet cells in Barret esophagus 3) Mucinous lakes in cystic medionecrosis of the aorta 4) Extracellular mucin in gelatinous adenocarcinoma

1) Intracytoplasmic vacuoles in signet ring cell adenocarcinoma 2) Goblet cells in Barret esophagus 3) Mucinous lakes in cystic medionecrosis of the aorta 4) Extracellular mucin in gelatinous adenocarcinoma

14. Which of the following is/are true of dilatation of the heart: 1) may be a consequence of myocarditis 2) right heart dilatation can be associated with left heart failure 3) typically occurs in Down`s syndrome 4) other options are NOT true

1) May be a consequence of myocarditis 2) Right heart dilatation can be associated with left heart failure -DS: mostly septal defects in these people

91. In which of these infections do not involve invasion of the causative agent into host tissues? 1) cholera 2) skarlatina 3) typhus exanthematicus 4) typhus abdominalis

1) cholera cholera: Transmission occurs primarily by drinking water or eating food that has been contaminated by the feces (waste product) of an infected person, including one with no apparent symptoms.

66. Which of the following is/are true for neuroblastoma 1) it is a tumor formed of small blue cells 2) its presence in retroperitoneum is rare 3) never metastasize 4) its occurrence in childhood is rare

1) it is a tumor formed of small blue cells most common extracranial solid cancer in childhood and the most common cancer in infancy. It most frequently originates in one of the adrenal glands, but can also develop in nerve tissues in the neck, chest, abdomen, or pelvis.

95. Which of the following is/are true of pulmonary embolism: 1) its source is a deep vein thrombosis 2) its complication is always pulmonary thrombosis 3) if untreated, it always leads to patient death 4) it occurs frequently in obstructive jaundice

1) its source is a deep vein thrombosis

90) Which of the following is/are primary skin tumors? 1) malignant melanoma 2) squamous cell carcinoma 3) carcinoid (neuroendocrine) tumors 4) basiloma

1) malignant melanoma 2) squamous cell carcinoma 4) basiloma On Jame´s document it says that only #3 should be correct.. While on pubmed it says: "Primary malignancies of the skin are uncommon in childhood. A low index of suspicion may lead to a delay in diagnosis. This paper reviews the most common pediatric primary skin tumors: melanoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and basal cell carcinoma."

97. Which of the following valves is the most frequently affected in rheumatic fever? 1) mitral 2) tricuspid 3) aortic 4) other options are NOT true

1) mitral

67. Cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas is found in a 50 years old chronic alcoholic with acites exam for epigastric intermittent pain. Which of the following is most likely to be found on a microscopic examination of the mass? 1) post necrotic pseudocyst 2) acute pancreatitis 3) insulinoma 4) adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

1) post necrotic pseudocyst

types of exudative inflammation (S C P F G)

1) serous 2) catarrhal 3) purulent (subtypes: abscess,phlegmon) 4) fibrinous 5) Gangrenous

89. Which of the following is/are NOT the microscopic criteria of malignancy? 1) the shift in nucleo/cytoplasmic ratio towards cytoplasma 2) polymorphism of nuclei 3) Anizocytosis 4) Anisokaryosis

1) the shift in nucleo/cytoplasmic ratio towards cytoplasma Anisocytosis is a medical term meaning that a patient's red blood cells are of unequal size. anisokaryosis = Variation in the size of the nuclei of cells.

79. which of the following is true of gangrene 1) wet gangrene is caused by putrefactive bacteria 2) never occurs in children 3) it not associated with necrosis 4) never affects internal organs

1) wet gangrene is caused by putrefactive bacteria the act or process of putrefying; the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter by bacteria and fungi that results in obnoxiously odorous products; rotting. Dry gangrene is actually a form of coagulative necrosis

Arrange the vascular changes originating during acute inflammation. 1. Temporary vasoconstriction 2. Margination of leukocytes 3. Vasodilation 4. Hemostasis a. 3-1-4-2 b. 4-3-2-1 c. 1-2-3-4 d. 2-1-3-4 e. 1-3-4-2

1-3-4-2

What is the speed of permeation of formaldehyde to tissue

1mm/hour

74. Which of the following is/are true for adenocarcinomas: 1) adenocarcinomas arise mainly from surface epithelium 2) they include signet ring cell carcinomas 3) gelatinous carcinoma is NOT characterized by a significant production of mucous 4) they never arise through malignant transformation of adenomas

2) they include signet ring cell carcinomas Epithelial tissue sometimes includes, but is not limited to, the surface layer of skin, glands, and a variety of other tissue that lines the cavities and organs of the body.

63. Which of the following is/are true of inflammatory cell infiltrate: 1) other options are NOT true 2) viral infections show mainly lymphoplasmocytic infiltrate 3) lymphocytes are mainly involved in acute inflammation 4) red blood cells presence represents a manifestation of infectious inflammation

2) viral infections show mainly lymphoplasmocytic infiltrate lymphocytic infiltrate = relating to, or consisting of lymphocytes and plasma cells. Lymphocytes are often involved in chronic inflam.

87. Which of the following is/are true for hamartoma? 1) It is a bleeding into joints 2)tumor derived from erroneously involved tissue/s 3) there is a bleeding into abdominal cavity 4) there are a subperiosteal hematomas of the skull bones after birth

2)tumor derived from erroneously(feilaktig) involved tissue/s A hamartoma is a benign, focal malformation that resembles a neoplasm in the tissue of its origin. This is not a malignant tumor, and it grows at the same rate as the surrounding tissues.

In the healing process the synthesis of collagen starts a) right away b) in 24 hours c) 2-3 days d) 7-14 days e) after 21 days

2-3days

What is the correct amount of fixative liquid for the tissue samples?

10-30 times fluid as removed tissue.

Name two chemical fixatives that is colorless?

100% neutral formaldehyde Susa The name "SuSa" is a contraction of the German words "sublimat" and "saure". Sublimat is a reference to an older name for mercuric chloride of "corrosive sublimate", given because of its ability to corrode mucosa when used as a treatment in medicine in the past and its ability to sublime when heated. Saure is a reference to the trichloracetic acid content, a strong protein precipitant.

36. Which of the following disorders do not belong among congenital liver disorders associated with impaired metabolism of bilirubin? 1) Rotor syndrome. 2) Crigler-Najjar syndrome. 3) Dubin-johnson syndrome. 4) Recklinghausen disease.

4) Recklinghausen disease. -Recklinghusen: also called Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1). A tumor disorder caused by mutation of a gene on chromosome 17 responsible for control of cell division. Causes tumors along the nervous system!

19. Which of the following is/are true for dystrophic calcification: 1) results from hypercalcemia 2) an example is stone formation 3) is typical of fibrinoid necrosis 4) storing of calcium precedes tissue damage

4) Storing of calcium precedes tissue damage -Occurs in degenerated or necrotic tissue

28. The presence of in situ germinoma in testicular tissue is associated with: 1) Contralateral testicular torsion. 2) Testicular leukemic infiltration. 3) Gonococcal infections. 4) The failure of testicular descent.

4) The failure of testicular descent.

99. Mucous content in carcinomas can be specifically illustrated using: 1) blue tricrome 2) congo red 3) berlin blue 4) alcian blue

4) alcian blue

75. Pulmonary embolism: 1) its source is surface thrombophlebitis 2) hyaline thrombi are evident macroscopically 3) does not arise in the postoperative period 4) can be causes by a thrombus

4) can be causes by a thrombus blockage of the main artery of the lung or one of its branches by a substance that has travelled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream (embolism).

55. Which of the following is/are true for varicella: 1) is a bullous disease, which usually heals with scars 2) polyradiculoneuritis is frequrntly a serious complication 3) is often accompanied by giant cell pneumonia 4) herpes zoster represents an adult reactivation of the viral infection

4) herpes zoster represents an adult reactivation of the viral infection Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease caused by primary infection with varicella zoster virus. mostly heal without scarring. can get: complications, such as varicella pneumonia.

84. Which of the following is/are true for dysgerminoma: 1) it is another name for a mature teratoma 2) this is another name for an immature teratoma 3) this is another name for a mature teratoma with malignant progression 4) it is an ovarian seminoma

4) it is an ovarian seminoma A dysgerminoma is a type of germ cell tumor;it usually is malignant and usually occurs in the ovary. Seminoma (also known as pure seminoma or classical seminoma) is a germ cell tumor of the testis or, more rarely, the mediastinum or other extra-gonadal locations. A teratoma is a tumor with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer.

93. Which of the following is/are true of cor pulmonale: 1) it is a major cause of pulmonary sclerosis 2) right heart hypertrophy and cor pulmonale are synonyms 3) other options are NOT true 4) it is right heart hypertrophy- induced by changes in lungs

4) it is right heart hypertrophy- induced by changes in lungs Pulmonary heart disease, also known as Cor pulmonale is the enlargement and failure of the right ventricle of the heart as a response to increased vascular resistance or high blood pressure in the lungs (pulmonary hypertension).

68. Which of the following is/are true of Barret`s esophagus: 1) a pre-cancerosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus 2) microscopic image of squamous metaplasia is found in columnar epithelium 3) a pre-cancer of gastric adenocarcinoma 4) it is the pre-cancerosis of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus

4) it is the pre-cancerosis of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus abnormal change (metaplasia) in the cells of the lower portion of the esophagus. characterized by the replacement of the normal stratified squamous epithelium lining of the esophagus by simple columnar epithelium with goblet cells. Adenocarcinoma = It is defined as neoplasia of epithelial tissue that has glandular origin, glandular characteristics, or both.

54. Which of the following brain tumor/s is/are most common in children: 1) neurilemmoma 2) Glioblastoma 3) meningoma 4) medulloblastoma

4) medulloblastoma A schwannoma = "neurilemoma,"->is a benign nerve sheath tumor composed of Schwann cells

72. Which of the following is/are included among organ autoimmune diseases: 1) lupus erythematosus 2) other options are NOT true 3) acute rheumatic fever 4) myasthenia gravis

4) myasthenia gravis Lupus erythematosus may manifest as a systemic disease or in a purely cutaneous form. Myasthenia gravis er en alvorlig autoimmun muskelsykdom. Sykdommen karakteriseres av antistoffdannelse mot muskelendeplatenes nikotinerge acetylcholinreseptorer i den postsynaptiske delen av den nevromuskulære synapse. Denne antistoffdannelsen fører til en gradvis destruksjon av acetylcholinreseptorene, noe som resulterer i defekt nevromuskulær transmisjon. Symptomene er økt trettbarhet i muskulaturen

83. Kongophillic angiopathy: 1) develops in purulent inflammations 2) occurs in viral encephalitis 3) occurs in Parkinson`s disease 4) regulary occurs in Alzheimer`s disease

4) regulary occurs in Alzheimer`s disease = Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) is a form of angiopathy in which amyloid deposits form in the walls of the blood vessels of the central nervous system. Named kongophilic because amyoid is stained by congo red.

What is the normal thickness of paraffin sections in histopathology?

4-8 micrometer (um)

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) genetic translocation?

9;22 Philadelphia chromosome BCR-ABL fusion gene

Which of the following is/are not true of pancreatic adenocarcinoma? a) often affects the cauda/head of pancreas b) the prognosis is very poor c) jaundice is frequent d) tumors cells produce mucous

?

Zenker degeneration/Wax degeneration is a variant of ... necroses occurring in .... During ... which is correct? :) a. Coagulation - Skeletal muscle - Infectious processes (For example typhoid fever) b. Caseous - Skeletal muscle - Infectious processes (For example typhoid fever) c. Coagulation - Brain - Acute pancreatitis d. Liquefactive - Brain - Pancreatitis e. Fibrinoid - Heart - Anaphylactic shock

A Zenker degeneration is a variant of coagulative necrosis ocurring in the skeletal muscle during infectious processes /typhoid fever

How does apoptosis differ from necrosis a. Morphologically necrotic cells b. Nuclei of apoptotic cells exhibit karyorrhectic disintegration c. The causes of apoptosis are mainly external factors d. Apoptotic cells show pyknotic nuclei e. Apoptosis occurs only in the prenatal period

A & D Morphologically necrotic cells Apoptotic cells show pyknotic nuclei I though that necrotic cells also had pyknotic nuclei?? hmmm

What is Zahn infarction?

A Zahn infarct is a pseudo-infarction of the liver, consisting of an area of congestion with parenchymal atrophy but no necrosis, and usually due to obstruction of a branch of the portal vein

What is sarcoidosis?

A disease involving abnormal collections of inflammatory cells (granulomas) that can form as nodules in multiple organs. The granulomas are most often located in the lungs or its associated lymph nodes, but any organ can be affected. Sarcoidosis seems to be caused by an immune reaction to an infection or some other trigger (called an antigen, which may be from one's environment) that continues even after the initial infection or other antigen is cleared from the body

What is melanosis coli?

A disorder of pigmentation of the colonic wall due to lipofuscin in macrophages (NOT melanin) Benign change, probably has no relation to disease

Ghon complex is a term which describes a. A primary complex b. Early generalized TBC c. Generalized TBC in an immunecompromised host d. Phtysis e. Late generalized TBC

A primary TB complex

Info about Krabbes disease

A rare, often fatal degenerative disorder that affects the myelin sheath of the nervous system. It is a form of sphingolipidosis, as it involves dysfunctional metabolism of sphingolipids. This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.

What is the amyloid produced in alzheimers ?

APP - amyloid precursor protein --> A-beta-amyloid

Why is there increased risk of DIC in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia?

Abnormal promyelocytes contain numerous numerous primary granules that increase the risk of DIC

What is pompe disease?

Accumulation of glycogen in lysosymes due to deficiency of alpha glucosidase enzyme Only glycogen storage disease with a defect in lysosomal metabolism Damages muscles and nerves

What are mucopolysaccharidoses, and how many types do we have?

Accumulation of mucopolysaccharides (GAG) produced by fibroblasts 7 clinical variants of MPS according to deficient enzyme - accumulation of MPS (dermatan sulfate, heparan s, keratan s, chondroitin s) - involvement of many organs: liver, spleen, heart, blood vessels - coarse facial features, cornea clouding, joint stiffness, mental retardation - incr urinary excretion of GAGs - all are AR except Hunter syndrome which is X-linked R

Which of the following associations are correct a. Chronic inflammation - AL amyloidosis b. Aggregations of intermediate filaments in hepatocytes - Alcoholic hyaline c. Hyaline - Russel bodies in plasma cells d. Lipofuscin - Berlin blue dye e. Calcium deposits in necrotic tissue - Metastatic calcification

Aggregations of intermediate filaments in hepatocytes - Alcoholic hyaline

307. Congenital defect of melanin synthesis in the skin is known as a. Cafe-au-alit b. Xeroderma c. Albinism d. Lentigo e. Amelanoderma

Albinism

Which of the following diseases don`t belong among lysosomal storage disorders a. Alcaptonuria b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Gaucher disease d. Niemann-Pick disease e. Mucopolysaccharidoses

Alcaptonuria A rare inherited genetic disorder in which the body cannot process the amino acids phenylalanine and tyrosine.

mucus

Alcian Blue, mucicarmin

Which of these statements about liquefactive necrosis are true? 1. It originates in tissue with low protein content 2. During its healing pseudocysts are often formed 3. It`s a `substrate`/base for encephalomalacia

All 3 of them

In which of the following organs are aging associated with atrophic changes a. Bone b. Kidneys c. Bone marrow d. Brain

All are correct

33.Which of the following is/are sources of tuberculosis? 1) Infected cows milk. 2) Open pulmonary TB. 3) Transplacental transmission. 4) Droplet infection.

All of them are correct!

Transparent connective tissue is characteristic for a. Ganglion b. Myxedema c. Cornea d. Corpus albicans e. Stroma of the renal papillary

Cornea

Corona virus?

Corona virus. • Common cold.

Hyaline transformation of connective tissue are found physiologically in a. Ganglions b. Corpus albicans c. Fibrinoid necrosis d. Cornea e. Corpora amylacea

Corpus albicans

41. Which of the following tumor/s is/are most commonly found in ovaries? 1) Brenner tumor. 2) Choriocarcinoma. 3) Immature teratoma. 4) Yolk sac tumors.

All of them! -Brenner tumor:part of the surface epithelial-stromal tumor group of ovarian neoplasms -Choriocarcinoma: a malignant, trophoblastic cancer, usually of placenta. Also classified as a germ cell tumor and can arise in the testis or ovary. -Immature teratoma: a rare malignant (cancerous) germ cell tumor (type of tumor that begins in the cells that give rise to sperm or eggs). -Yolk sac tumors: also known as Endodermal sinus tumor (EST), a germ cell tumor group of cancers. Most common testicular tumor in children under 3 (infantile embryonal carcinoma). EST of the ovary are particularly aggressive

What is Fabry disease?

Alpha galactosidase A deficiency Sphingolipidosis disease

Which enzyme is defective in Fabry disease a. Alpha-galactosidase b. Hexosaminidase A and B c. Fructokinase d. Beta-galactosidase e. Acid lipase

Alpha-galactosidase

What is councilman bodies?

Also known as Councilman hyaline body, is an eosinophilic globule often surrounded by normal parenchyma found in the liver of individuals suffering from viral hepatitis, yellow fever, or other viral syndrome. [1] It represents a hepatocyte that is undergoing apoptosis.

What is corpora amylacea?

Also known as prostatic concretions, are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland, neuroglia, and pulmonary alveoli. They are derived from degenerate cells or thickened secretions and occur more frequently with advancing age. While their significance is unknown, they can be used to identify these organs microscopically.

113. Which of the following organs are the least resistant to hypoxia a. Liver b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Spleen e. Tendon

Alwys brain, but if brain is not present it's always heart!

What amelanosis?

Amelanism (also known as amelanosis) is a pigmentation abnormality characterized by the lack of pigments called melanins, commonly associated with a genetic loss of tyrosinase function.

Eosinophilic substance present in the extracellular space, made of fibrillary material structured like beta-pleated sheets from beta-2-microglobulin is a. Basal lamina b. Lipofuscin c. Amyloid d. Collagen e. Keloid

Amyloid

Which of the following substances accumulates exclusively extracellularly a. Amyloid b. Glycogen c. Lipofuscin d. Fat e. Melanin

Amyloid

What is the origin of amyloid deposits in senile amyloidosis of the heart a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

Amyloid derived from transthyretin

Which type of amyloid deposits inside neurons in familial amyloid polyneuropathy a. AA amyloid b. Beta-2-microglobulin c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

Amyloid derived from transthyretin

Which of the following substances don't originate from phospholipids in the plasma membrane a. Anaphylotoxins b. Platelet activating factor c. Thromboxane A2 d. PGE2 e. Leukotriene B4

Anaphylotoxins

Does not increase the risk for thrombosis: a) Dehydration b) Thrombocytosis c) Anemia d) Diabetes e) Venostasis

Anemia

Vinyl chloride - associated caner?

Angiosarcoma of liver

A 65-year-old man dies from a myocardial infarct. A histopathological exam of the lungs reveals numerous dark-colored regions and there are similarly pigmented intrathoracic lymph nodes. The pleura show similar discoloration, but in the ribs the pigmentation is weaker. What is the correct diagnosis a. Hemosiderosis b. Sarcoidosis c. Silicosis d. Anthracosis e. Asbestosis

Anthracosis

Which of the following substances primarily activate the complement system a. Kallikrein b. Antigen-antibody complexes c. Free oxygen radicals d. Leukotrienes e. IL-1

Antigen-antibody complexes (direct pathway)

Under persistent stress, metaplasia can progress to dysplasia and eventually into cancer. What is the exception to this rule?

Apocrine metaplasia of breast, which carries no increased risk of cancer

In which of the following processes does the bax gene become expressed a. Apoptosis b. Proliferation c. Cell division d. Inhibition of Ras/Ras inhibition e. Angiogenesis

Apoptosis

What is DNA laddering on agar gel, by electrophoresis typical for ?

Apoptosis

Which process is connected with increase in caspase activity?

Apoptosis

What is splendore-Hoeppli bodies?

Are radiating or anular eosinophilic deposits of host-derived materials, and possibly of parasite antigens, which form around fungi, helminths, or bacterial colonies in tissue. Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon (asteroid bodies) is the in vivo formation of intensely eosinophilic material (radiate, star-like, asteroid or club-shaped configurations) around microorganisms (fungi, bacteria and parasites) or biologically inert substances.

which of the following manifestations don`t belong to certain/sure death signs a. Postmortem spots (Livores) b. Postmortem stiffness (Rigor mortis) c. Cold (Algor mortis) d. Areflexia e. Brain death

Areflexia is not s certain sign of death

Viral hemorrhagic fever - which viruses? - Symptoms? - prevention?

Arenavirus, filovirus, bunyavirus, flavivirus - from mild fever, headache, myalgia and rash to severe, life-threatening disease with sudden hemodynamic deterioration and shock (due to thrombocytopenia or endothelial damage) - no vaccine, potential biologic weapons

West Nile virus

Arthropod borne (arbovirus) (insects..) Mosquito and tick transmission Asympt, rarely reach CNS 20% get a short lived febrile disease + headache + myalgia

Virchow cells

Associated with Lepromatous mycobacterium Foamy cells

Mikulicz cells

Associated with Rhinoscleroma Groups of large vacuolated histiocytes containing Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis (Mikulicz cells).

In which of the following conditions do we find large numbers of eosinophilic granulocytes in the exudate a. Asthma bronchiale b. Viral infection c. Leprosy d. Coccidioidomycosis (fungus) e. TBC

Asthma bronchiale

Overexpression of platelet-derived growth factor is assosiated with...

Astrocytoma

A 28 year-old lady is confined to bedrest after a fracture of the tibia. When the cast is taken of after 6 weeks, her leg is weak and the patient notices that in comparison with the other the circumference is reduced. Which of the following terms best describes the change that has taken place in the affected musculature a. Metaplasia b. Ischemic necrosis c. Hyperplasia d. Irreversible cellular injury e. Atrophy

Atrophy

A 56-year-old obese lady (BMI = 32 kg/m2) comes in with the development of stenosis of the ureter. Which adaptive changes from chronic ischemia will be displayed by the affected kidney a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Neoplasia d. Atrophy e. Dysplasia

Atrophy

Which of the following changes can be observed in kidneys during longstanding ureteral obstruction a. Atrophy b. Dysplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy e. Metaplasia

Atrophy

During autopsy it`s found marked reduction in the size of the kidney with numerous 1-3 mm large scars on the surface. What will be the most likely histological morphology with this finding a. Edema and neutrophilic granulocytosis b. Edema and fibrin c. Atrophy and hyaline d. Lymphocytes and fibrin e. Macrophages and edema

Atrophy and hyaline

What is gelatinous atrophy?

Atrophy of fat, caused by disappearance of fat cells and the multiplication of the amorphous component of extracellular matrix (GAG)

Auer-rods:

Auer-rods: red-staining rodlike structures, only found in neoplastic myeloblasts and more differentiated cells

Goodpasture syndrome

AutoAb against BM of alveoli and glomeruli.

Which of the following changes characterizes the most severe lethal cellular damage a. Autolysis b. Autophagy c. Drop of calcium levels d. Intracellular glycogen accumulation e. Intracellular protein accumulation

Autolysis

Which of the following statements applies to hemochromatosis a. It can originate after ingestion of a large amount of iron b. It's a congenital metabolic defect of iron storage c. Its accompanied by icterus d. Patients have an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma e. Its accompanied by Kayser-Fleischer rings of the cornea

B - congenital metabolic defect of iron storage D - increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

Which of the following characteristics applies to amyloid a. Without structure ultramicroscopically b. Fibrillary structure ultramicroscopically c. It`s stored intracellularly d. It`s stored extracellularly e. It`s made up of beta-pleated sheets

B - fibrillary structure ultramicroscopically D - store extracellularly E - made of Beta-pleated sheets

Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1,4-glucosidase cause a. Cori disease b. Pompe disease c. Hurler syndrome d. McArdle syndrome e. Gaucher disease

B - pompe disease

Regeneration. A) Replacement by other mature tissue B) Compensation with morphologically and functionally equivalent tissue C) Reparation can be a part of the process D) Regeneration and reparation are mutually exclusive E) in mammals applies only to tissues and cells but not organs or limbs

B) Compensation with morphologically and functionally equivalent tissue C) Reparation can be a part of the process E) in mammals applies only to tissues and cells but not organs or limbs

Which of the following statements are true for metaplasia? A) Occur only in permanent cell populations B) Occur after a genetic reprogramation of a stem cell C) Can occur without evidence of cell proliferation D) Includes differentiation of mesenchymal cells into epithelial cells E) Can occur in epithelial-, but not in mesenchymal, cell populations

B) Occur after a genetic reprogramation of a stem cell

*Which of the following statements do not correspond with a reparative process? A) Formation of a post-necrotic pseudocyst B) Progression of a chronic peptic ulcer C) A primitive osseous callus D) Armored heart (Constrictive pericarditis) E) Decay/putrefaction

B) Progression of a chronic peptic ulcer --> progression means continuing/worsening E) Decay/putrefaction --> Putrefaction is one of seven stages in the decomposition of the body of a dead animal or human

Hypertrophy is associated with: A) A noticeable increase in the number of mitoses B) Proliferation with increased volume of the tissue C) Poroliferation with multiplication of the number of cells in tissue or organ. D) Absolute decrease of interstitial tissue E) Proliferation with increased functional capacity

B) Proliferation with increased volume of the tissue E) Proliferation with increased functional capacity

What is true for hyperplasia and hypertrophy? A) They are due to different causes B) Their formation depend on the type of tissue (probably meant to mean that tissue determines if there will be hypertrophy or hyperplasia) C) Both processes can not exist in the same tissue simultaneously D) Hyperplasia only affect epithelial tissue E) The terms are synonymous

B) Their formation depend on the type of tissue (probably the statements tries to say that: the tissue determines if there will be hypertrophy or hyperplasia)

What is typical following cellular ischemia a. Increased oxidative phosphorylation b. Increased levels of intracellular calcium c. Decreased amount of intracellular water d. Increased amount of intracellular potassium e. Increased proteosynthesis

B, increased levels of intracellular calcium increased amount of water, decrease in proteosynthesis, less oxidative phosphorylation (ATP production)

Zahn infarct a. Acute myocardial infarct b. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the intrahepatic branches of the portal vein c. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the hepatic artery d. Splenic infarct e. Combined infarct of the liver and spleen due to portal hypertension

B, infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the intrahepatic branches of the portal vein

Choose which of the following statements about apoptosis are incorrect a. It affect single cells or groups b. Its evoked by activating the gene BCL-2 c. We can encounter it during viral hepatitis d. It occurs by fragmentation of nuclear chromatin e. It can be physiologic or pathologic

B, it is not eveoked by activating the BCL-2 gene, this is more likely to lead to tumor than apoptosis

Which types of hepatitis becomes chronic?

B,C,D

Why is the brain particularly affected in Tay Sachs?

Because the brain has alot of gangliosides, and neurons are very susceptible to any change. So when they can't break down the gangliosides the cells swells.

What is the cause of amyloid deposits in the brain of patients with trisomy 21 a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

Beta amyloid (same amyloid as in Alzheimers disease, therefor the downs syndrome kids have a greater chance of getting alzheimers)

Which of the following cause amyloid deposits in the brain of patients with Alzheimer`s disease a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid protein c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

Beta amyloid protein

Which type of amyloid deposits in patients on hemodialysis a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

Beta-2-microglobulin

Neurofibromatosis 2

Bilateral acoustic neruomas (schwannomas), multiple meningiomas, ependymomas of spinal cord.

A 3-week old boy arrives to the doctor with jaundice. The mom says the child has been having dark urine, and the symptoms have lasted around 2 weeks. The boy has hepatomegaly, fluid ashen-gray, acholic stools. Blood tests show elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin. What is the most likely cause of his hyperbilirubinemia a. Defect in cholesterol synthesis b. Deficiency of UDP-Glucuronyltransferase c. Hemolysis d. Inflammation of the terminal ileum e. Biliary obstruction

Biliary obstruction is the most likely cause b - he is able to conjugate, so it can't be this one c - would lead to increase in both conjugated and unconjugated

Which of the following substances cause so-called kernicterus (nuclear icterus) a. Melanin b. Bilirubin c. Lipofuscin d. Hemosiderin e. Hematin

Bilirubin (damage of nervous tissue in children, especially basal ganglia)

How does calcium stain with von Kossa ?

Black

Which color does Hematoxylin stain?

Blue

How does trichrome stain collagen and bone?

Blue/green

Symptoms of type 1 Gaucher disease?

Bone involvement - lytic lesions, osteonecrosis, osteopenia Hepatosplenomegaly Gaucher cells (200um in size) No CNS involvement long life of patient Akashaki jews

During porphyria porphyrins accumulate in a. Bones b. Brain c. Lungs d. Gut e. Stomach

Bones

Liquefactive necrosis can occur during inflammation Caseous necrosis can occur with mycotic infections

Both are true

The main factors causing pain in the area of acute inflammation are a. Bradykinin b. Components of the complement system c. Histamine d. Hydrogen peroxide e. Superoxide radicals

Bradykinin

Which of the following substances are involved in acute inflammation to increase the vascular permeability and cause pain a. Endotoxin b. Complement c. Histamin d. Bradykinin e. Interleukin 6

Bradykinin (they want the only one that does BOTH increased permeability and pain)

Which organ(s) is affected in Tay-Sachs disease? a. Endothelia b. Liver c. Brain d. Spleen e. Kidneys

Brain

Epidermal growth factor receptor amplification is associated with...

Breast carcinoma

Squamous metaplasia typically occurs in: a) bronchi of chronic smoker b) sun exposed skin c) callus d) Barreth's oesophagus e) chronic gastritis

Bronchi of chronic smoker

what is brown atrophy?

Brown atrophy is commonly found in the elderly.It is described as brown because fibers become pigmented by intracellular lipofuscin deposits (mostly around the cell nucleus) a type of lipochrome granule. It has no known effect on function, and is described as being expected or normal in ageing. Brown atrophy of the heart is atrophy of the heart muscle (or myocardium) Other types of brown atrophy include brown atrophy of neuronia and brown atrophy of the liver.

c-MYC (transcription factor) translocation 8:14 involving IgH is associated with...

Burkitt lymphoma

Which of the following statements about Wilson's disease are correct a. It's induced by aggregation of lead b. It damages neurons of the frontal lobe c. Kayser-Fleischer rings can be found in the cornea d. In the liver there is increased content of copper e. In the liver there is increased conent of iron

C - (learned it from Dr. House) D - remember the copper colored Kayser-Fleischer ring around the eye

What is the typical complications of diphtheria a. Peritonitis b. Meningitis c. Myocarditis d. Hepatitis e. Nephritis

C - myocarditis

Which of the statements about gout don`t apply a. It`s caused by increased levels of uric acid b. The afflicted suffers from repeated attacks of acute arthritis c. In chronic gout more joints are normally affected d. The characteristic lesion are gouty tophi e. Precipitated urate crystals breach the lysosomal membranes

C is wrong, it's usually just one joint.

Deficiency of vitamin C results in: A) A decrease in the number of collagen fibres B) An increase in the ratio of elastin/collagen C) A defect in formation of collagen fibres D) A necrosis of fibroblasts E) Insufficient amount of ground substance

C) A defect in formation of collagen fibres

The earliest process of healing of cut-wounds in skin is: A) Wound contraction B) Epidermal proliferation C) Inflammatory reaction D) Angiogenesis E) Collagen synthesis

C) Inflammatory reaction

Which of the following are examples of lipomatosis a. Aggregations of cholesterol in macrophages b. Aggregations of neutral fat in hepatocytes during alcoholic hepatitis c. Presence of adipocytes between cardiomyocytes of the right ventricle d. Digestion of peritoneal adipose tissue during acute necrosis of the pancreas e. Fat accumulation in 'granule cells' of encephalomalacia

C, presence of adipocytes between cardiomyocytes of right ventricle

Which of the following statements about atrophy are correct a. Its only detectable microscopically b. Its only detectable macroscopically c. Its usually evident both macro- and microscopically d. Atrophy can occur physiologically e. It cause a decrease in cell size

C,D,E It is visible macro + micro, it can be physiologically and it decreases cell size

A patient is suffering from repeated infections. Leukocyte function tests reveal an inability of the neutrophils to recognize bacteria. To which components of the immune system is this defect related a. C3a b. Leukotriene A4 c. C3b d. Leukotriene B4 e. C5a

C3b

Phagocytosis is amplified by the action of a. C1 b. C3a c. Lysozyme d. C3b e. C5a

C3b

Free radicals injures cells by chemical alterations to all of the following structures except a. Cell membranes b. Nucleotides c. Glycogen droplets/supply d. Phospholipids e. Disulfide-bridged proteins

C: Glycogen droplets/supply

Which of the following organs or tissues has got the greatest regenerative ability? A) Skeletal muscle B) Brain C) Liver D) Lungs E) Pancreas

C: liver

Hypoplasia originates during a. Cells lost secondary to injury in puberty b. Atrophy as a consequence of hormonal failure c. Inadequate in utero development d. Disuse of biological structures e. Ischemia

C; Inadequate in utero development

What is the CD marker for Muliple myeloma?

CD138+

Leukemia with philadelphia chromosome?

CML - chronic myelogenous leukemia

ABL (Tyrosine kinase) translocation 9:22 with BCR is associated with...

CML and some types of ALL

In which of the following organ/tissue can we usually NOT see metaplasia? a) connective tissue elements b) GIT c) CNS d) biliary tract e) urothelium

CNS

What is CREST?

CREST syndrome; calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia.

Neurofibromatosis 1 - von Recklinghausen disease

Cafe au lait spots Neurofibromas Hamartomas of iris (lisch nodules) Gliomas of optic nerve

What is Cafe-au-lait?

Café au lait spots or café au lait macules are pigmented birthmarks.

Examples of dystrophic calcification are a. Calcification damaging the aortic valve b. Bone ossification in the process of skeletal growth c. Deposits of calcium in the kidneys during hyperparathyroidism d. Renal concrements e. Saponification in necrosis

Calcification damaging the aortic valve E should also be marked as correct!

What is metastatic calcifications?

Calcifications due to an abnormally high calcium.

What cation would you expect to find in higher amount in cells who are undergoind necrosis?

Calcium

Patients with Pompe disease will most likely have a. Cells with cytoplasmic brightening or vacuolization b. Accumulation of hyaline c. Cells with abnormal staining with Prussian blue d. Accumulation of pigment e. Metaplastic cells in some organ

Cells with cytoplasmic brightening or vacuolization (accumulation of glycogen, which does not stain in HEstain)

What is hydropic degeneration?

Cellular swelling - still reversible phase of cellular damage

Which of the following substances accumulates in the intestine in melanosis coli a. Hemosiderin b. Melanin c. Lipochrome d. Ceroid e. Hematoidin

Ceroid (type of lipofuscin)

What is Ulcus molle?

Chancroid (also known as soft chancre and ulcus molle) is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection characterized by painful sores on the genitalia.

What is Ulcus molle?

Chancroid (also known as soft chancre and ulcus molle) is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection characterized by painful sores on the genitalia. Haemophilus ducreyi

The amount of exudate in acute inflammation depends on a. Changes in the endothelia of capillaries and venules b. Activation of lymphocytes c. Oncotic pressure of plasma proteins d. Plasma levels of Ca2+ e. Plasma levels of K+

Changes in endothelia of capillaries and venules Oncotic pressure of plasma proteins

What is keloid?

Characterized by excess type 3 collagen

Emigration and accumulation of polymorphonuclear cells in the area of acute inflammation are due to a. Active hyperemia b. Hydrostatic pressure c. Increased microvascular permeability d. Chemotaxis e. None of the answers are correct

Chemotaxis

The process by which inflammatory cells are attracted to the site of injured tissue is known as a. Anaphylaxis b. Chemotaxis c. Complement fixation d. Migration e. Phagocytosis

Chemotaxis

Reye syndrome

Children with viral disease, who are given aspirin! (NOT GOOD)! Affects brain and liver, severe hypoglycemia, fatty liver, swelling of the brain

What does the affected cells acumulate in Niemann Pick disease type C ?

Cholesterole and gangliosides

What is the most common cause of deficiency of thiamine (Vitamin B1) in the developed world a. Chronic alcoholism b. Malabsorption c. Gastroenteritis d. Parenteral nutrition e. Chronic dialysis

Chronic Alcoholism

Which of the following don`t belong to simple atrophy a. So-called brown atrophy b. Senile atrophy of the skin c. Chronic atrophic cholecystitis d. Muscular atrophy during denervation e. Muscular atrophy during inactivity

Chronic atrophic cholecystitis

Metaplasia is mainly caused by a) accumulation of lipofucin b) acute bacterial infection c) chronic irritation induced by exogenous injury d) sudden interruptions of blood supplie e) gentler decline in blood supply

Chronic irritation induced by exogenous injury

What is Richter transformation?

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia --> Large B-cell lymphoma Small B-cell lymphoma --> Large B-cell lymphoma

What is Richter transformation?

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia --> Large B-cell lymphoma Small B-cell lymphoma --> Large B-cell lymphoma a transformation which occurs in about 5-10% of B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and hairy cell leukemia into a fast-growing diffuse large B cell lymphoma, a variety of non-Hodgkin lymphoma which is refractory to treatment and carries a bad prognosis

We currently use electron microscopy to diagnose all of the following diseases except 1. Identification of immune complexes in glomerulonephritides 2. Identification of viruses in tissue 3. Classification of non-Hodgkins lymphomas to T and B 4. Diagnosis of Whipple`s disease 5. classification of vesicular skin conditions

Classification of non-Hodgkins lymphomas to T and B

Which of the following statements applies to congenital mitochondrial defects a. Clinical triad - Neuropathy, Myopathy, Cardiomyopathy b. Hypoglycemia c. AD heredity d. AR heredity e. Decreased levels of lactate

Clinical triad - Neuropathy, Myopathy, Cardiomyopathy X-linked heredity Increased lactate levels hyperglycemia

117. Which of the following types of necroses are characteristic for myocardial infarcts a. Coagulation necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Zenker degeneration/Wax degeneration/Zenker wax necrosis

Coagulation necrosis

What type of necrosis preserves the tissue structure?

Coagulative necrosis

Which type of necrosis is Zenker Wax necrosis a subgroup of?

Coagulative necrosis is a severe glassy or waxy hyaline degeneration or necrosis of skeletal muscles in acute infectious diseases. It is a hyaline degeneration of skeletal muscles as rectus abdominis and diaphragm, and occurs in severe toxaemia as typhoid fever. Grossly the muscles appear pale and friable; microscopically, the muscle fibres are swollen, have a loss of cross striations, and show a hyaline appearance. Rupture and small hemorrhage may complicate the lesion. Coagulative necrosis occurs here.

Which of the following substances are involved in strengthening the wound in the first week of healing? A) Collagen type I B) Fibrin C) Collagen type III D) Collagen type IV E) Fibronectin

Collagen type III

Where does AA amyloid like to deposit?

Colon, kidney

What is the usual finding in the liver in a patient with chronic right-sided heart failure? - a) Acute inflammation - b) Congestion - c) Edema - d) Hemorrhage - e) Infarct

Congestion

When do we have nutmeg liver?

Congestive hepatopathy (chronic passive congestion of liver) - right heart failure

Which of the following stains stain amyloid a. Congo red b. Thioflavin-T c. Methyl violet d. Alcian blue e. Prussian blue

Congo red

All of the following statements about the monocyte-macrophage system are correct, except a. They work as the main line of defense during liquidation of Histoplasma capsulatum b. They phagocytose old or impaired host cells c. Conjugate bilirubin d. Produce mediators facilitating cell growth e. Store iron

Conjugate bilirubin

What is the Hutschinson triad?

Consists of Hutchinson's teeth (notched incisors), keratitis and deafness and occurs in 63% of cases

What is fibroplasia?

Constitutional secretion of EC components.

What causes bleeding in DIC? - a) Intracapillary increased pressure due to slow circulation - b) Toxic hypoxic damage to the capillaries - c) Erythrocyte hemolysis - d) Consumed clotting factors - e) Inhibition of fibrinolysis

Consumed clotting factors

Langenhans cells

Does not exist.. Langerhans cells do exist, but they are something else.. (dendritic cells of skin)

Mumps - kusma

Droplet transmission Replicate in T-cells Spread to glands, CNS, testis, ovary, pancreas Salivary gland pain + swelling Mumps orcihits --> may give infertility pancreatitis + Fat necrosis Encephalitis may occur

Types of gangrene?

Dry gangrene, wet gangrene, gas gangrene, internal gangrene and necrotizing fasciitis.

Which of the following congenital defects of bilirubin metabolism are characterized by increased levels of conjugated or unconjugated bilirubin in serum and black or gray discoloration of the liver a. Rotor syndrome b. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type 1 c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome d. Gilbert syndrome e. Reye syndrome

Dubin Johnson syndrome

Which of the following statements about necrosis are true a. The cell membranes stay intact b. The organelles remain intact c. The nuclear membrane stays intact d. Necrosis don`t induce any inflammatory reaction e. Between two basic types belongs coagulative and liquefactive necroses

E : two basic types are coagulative and liquefactive necrosis. The last type vernerova thinks is a basic type is: fibrinoid

The most important local cause of delayed wound healing is: A) Arterosclerosis B) Lack of vitamin C C) Lack of copper D) Diabetes E) Infection

E) Infection

Which of the statements about dry gangrene are correct a. It always develops secondary to venous thrombosis/On the base of venous thrombosis b. It affects predominantly the upper extremities c. Its caused by saprophytic bacteria d. It spreads rapidly and uncontrollably to healthy tissue e. It most often originates secondary to trauma

E: it most often originates secondary to trauma - Vernerova: Combination of slow vascular occlusion + trauma

How do we detect and quantify antibodies?

ELISA

Type 1 mucopolysaccharidoses:

Enzyme deficient: Alpha-L-iduronidase Three disorders 1. Hurler syndrome - life expectancy 6-10 years - cardiac complications : deposits in coronary aa + valves - heparan and dermatan sulphate acc. in phagocytes, fibroblasts, endothelium, smooth m cells of vessels - --> swollen cells, clear cytoplasm, vacuolated lysosomes - mental retardation 2. Scheie syndrome 3. Hurler-Scheie syndrome

What is the best description of hyaline a. Eosinophilic amorphous material present intra- or extracellularly b. Eosinophilic amorphous material present only extracellularly c. Refractive material with Sudan black d. Granular material connected with necrotic tissue e. Light-colored cells as a result of increased content of water

Eosinophilic amorphous material present intra- or extracellularly

Which cell type are not involved in granulomatous inflammation a. Eosinophilic granulocytes b. Epithelioid cells c. Fibroblasts d. Lymphocytes e. Multinuclear giant cells

Eosinophils

Granule from which of the following cell types contains refractory material that can produce Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum of asthmatics a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages c. Eosinophils d. Mast cells e. Plasma cells

Eosinophils Charcot-Leyden crystals are microscopic crystals found in people who have allergic diseases such as asthma or parasitic infections such as parasitic pneumonia or ascariasis.

The presence of which of the following findings characterizes a completely developed granuloma a. Epithelioid macrophages b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Fibrinous exudate d. Suppurative inflammation e. Mass of mast cells

Epithelioid macrophages

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Failure of phagolysosome formation

Calcium are stained brown in Hematoxylin-eosin

False

For perioperational examination it`s necessary to send tissue in fixative liquid, the best is formaldehyde

False

It`s imposible to visualize calcium in tissue

False

Statement: Calcium in tissue demonstrates direct bonds of silver nitrate

False

The calcium visible in tissue represents the free form

False

100% solution of formalin equals to 4% aqueous solution of formaldehyde True or false ?

False!

What do we use Sudan stian for ?

Fat

Enzymatic digestion of tissue with formation of chalky soap are characteristic of a. Coagulation necrosis b. Caseous necrosis c. Fat necrosis d. Liquefactive necrosis e. Fibrinoid necrosis

Fat necrosis

Which type of necrosis is expressed like opaque, chalky nodules ?

Fat necrosis

Starvation is associated with a decrease in size of the a. Fat stores b. Heart c. CNS d. Liver e. Bones

Fat stores Heart Liver

So-called hyaline membrane in the lungs during ARDS are caused by aggregates of a. Aymloid b. Collagen c. Fibrin d. Material of the basal membrane e. Intermediate filaments

Fibrin

Amyloid precusors in the serum don't include a. SAA b. Beta-2-microglobulin c. Light-chain immunoglobulins d. Fibrinogen e. Prealbumin

Fibrinogen

The least common cause of foreign-body granuloma is a. Mucus b. Splinter c. Cholesterol d. Fibrinogen e. Urate crystals

Fibrinogen

A congested pericardium without glossiness, but with rough areas on the surface are most likely caused by a. Lymphangitis b. Pseudomembranous inflammation c. Fibrinous inflammation d. Fibrosis e. Granuloma formation

Fibrinous inflammation

Which of the following events are part of hydropic cellular changes a. Enzymatic digestion of cellular proteins b. Glycogen accumulation c. Plasma membrane rupture d. Early progression to apoptosis e. Filling of ER with water

Filling the ER with water

In which histological techinques do we us UV light?

Fluorescent microscopy

Deficiency of which vitamin can cause megaloblastic anemia during administration of antineoplastic drugs or antiepileptic drugs a. B1/Thiamine b. B12 c. B2/Riboflavin d. Pyridoxine e. Folic acid

Folic acid - lack of it prevents normal cell divison, so there is few and big cells B12 will also cause megaloblastic anemia, but it has no relation to antineoplastic drugs!

To visualize melanin we use a. Von Kossa stain b. Cajal stain c. Fontana-Masson stain d. Melanin can't be stained in tissue e. Sulfátem nilské modře

Fontana-Masson stain

Intravascular fat particles transmitted to a remote place from their place of origin are linked to a) ascites b) decompression sickness c) lupus anticoagulant d) fracture of long bones e) deep vein thrombosis

Fracture of long bones

What is Karyorrhexis

Fragmentation of nucleus

In which of the following inflammatory disorders does one find regular necrosis without exudate a. Phlegmon b. Furuncle c. Erysipelas d. Serous inflammation e. Empyema

Furuncle (A boil, also called a furuncle, is a deep folliculitis, infection of the hair follicle. It is most commonly caused by infection by the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus, resulting in a painful swollen area on the skin caused by an accumulation of pus and dead tissue)

Foreign-body type multinuclear cells originates from a. Nuclear division of granulocytes b. Atypical regeneration of epithelia c. Megakaryocytes d. Fusion or division of the nuclei of macrophages e. Multiplication of the nuclei of surrounding fibroblasts

Fusio or division of the nuclei of macrophages

What is Krabbe disease?

Galactycylceramidase deficiency affects myeline sheats of nerves type of sphingolipidoses "leukodystrophies"

Russel bodies are represented like a. Inclusions in Rabies-infected ganglion cells b. Intranuclear inclusions in epidermal cells in Varicella c. Intracytoplasmic bodies in Variola d. Gammaglobulins in plasma cells e. Inclusions of products from the ubiquitination process in old people

Gammaglobulins in plasma cells|

c-KIT (stem cell growth factor receptor) point mutaion is associated with...

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

In which tumor is expression of CD117/c-kit common?

Gastrointestinal stromal tumors

Which of the following diseases are connected with defects in the degradation of cerebrosides a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Niemann-Pick disease c. Gaucher disease d. Wolman disease e. Tangier disease

Gaucher disease

Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases are caused by deficiency of beta-glucocerebrosidase a. Pompe disease b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Gaucher disease d. Niemann-Pick disease e. Fucosidosis

Gaucher disease

What is Gauchers disease?

Gaucher's disease or Gaucher disease is a genetic disease in which fatty substances (sphingolipids) accumulate in cells and certain organs.

Which of the following are examples of simple atrophy a. Attenuation of the bone marrow b. Aplastic anemia c. Gelatinous atrophy d. Lipomatous atrophy e. Atrophy due to irradiation

Gelatinous atrophy

Which of the following diseases are not usually transmitted by bites of arthropods or other insect vectors a. Cutaneous leishmaniasis b. Infection of Plasmodium falciparum c. African trypanosomiasis d. American trypanosomiasis e. Giardiasis

Giardiasis

Which substances accumulates in organs in Gaucher disease a. Glucocerebrosides b. Galactocerebrosides c. Gangliosides d. Sphingomyelin e. Unknown lipopigment

Glucocerebrosides (No (lady) GaGa, but (lady) GaGlu)

Congenital metabolic disease of saccharide metabolism that is characterized by abnormal increase in concentration of hepatic glycogen of normal structure and failure of increase of serum glucose after peroral intake of fructose. Based on the information given determine which enzyme is affected in this disease a. Fructokinase b. Glucokinase c. Glucose-6-phosphatase d. Phosphoglucomutase e. UDPG-glycogen transglucosylase

Glucose-6-phosphatase Hydrolyses Glucose-6P --> glucose (neede for both the breakdown of glycogen and the transformation of fructose into glucose)

What does PAS stain?

Glycogen Mucin Mucoprotein Glycoprotein Fungi

94. Which of the following cellular changes are reversible a. Glycogen depletion b. Karyorrhexis c. Autolysis d. Defect plasma membrane e. High density of mitochondrial matrix

Glycogen depletion

What is the most common glycogen storage disease?

Glycogen storage disease type I (GSD I) or von Gierke's disease, is the most common of the glycogen storage diseases. This genetic disease results from deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase

What is Anderson disease?

Glycogen storage disease type IV Glycogen Branching Enzyme Deficiency

Histochemical verification of bile dyes can be performed with a. Masson-Fontana stain b. Pearls reaction c. PAS d. Gmelin stain e. Mowry method (Alcian blue and PAS)

Gmelin stain

Gout info

Gout may also present as tophi, kidney stones, or urate nephropathy. It is caused by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. The uric acid crystallizes, and the crystals deposit in joints, tendons, and surrounding tissues.

When do we use Gleason classification?

Grading of prostate cancer.

When do we use Gleason classification?

Grading of prostate cancer. Looks at the normal structure of the glands of the prostate Pattern 1-5

Which of the following factors are involved in closure of the wound in healing "per secundam intentionem"? A) Fibrinous exudate B) Suppurative exudate C) Neutrophils D) Granulation tissue E) Formation of granuloma

Granulation tissue (remember granuloma and granulation tissue has nothing to do with eachother! :) )

How is dystrophic calcifications stained in H&E ?

Gray-purple It will stain it the same as it would for metastatic calcification

How does bilirubin stain with van Gieson?

Green

During which phase of lobar pneumonia do we find pulmonary alveoli filled with fibrin and exudate rich in granulocytes a. Grey hepatization b. Brown hepatization c. Inflammatory edema d. Red heaptization e. Carnification

Grey hepatization

Which of the following findings don't belong to the clinical picture of congenital syphilis a. Pneumonia alba b. ''Flint stone'' liver c. Osteochondritis d. Hutschinson triad e. Gumma

Gumma (part of tertiary syphilis in non-congenital form) (the babies often "skip" the symptoms of primary stage syphilis)

amyloid

H&E, congo red (birefringence - green) , Thioflavin T (yellow-green in UV light), Masson Trichrom (light green)

What stains TRAP+ ?

Hairy cell leukemia cells

Which of the following diseases are autoimmune a. Asthma bronchiale b. Hashimoto thyroiditis c. Histoplasmosis d. AIDS e. Hepatitis B

Hashimoto thyroiditis Hashimoto's thyroiditis or chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland is attacked by a variety of cell- and antibody-mediated immune processes.

Which of the following statements about Malaria pigment are correct a. Originates from the cell wall of plasmodia b. Originating from globin defects c. Have tightly bound iron d. Can be visualized by the Pearls reaction e. Correspond with anthracotic pigments from impurities of the remains of plasmodia

Have tightly bound iron Hemozoin = Malaria pigment Crystallized formed of heme

Where does transthyretin amyloid like to deposit?

Heart mostly, appear in older people also in neurons

After lethal cellular damage, which of the following tissues restores its functional capacity by hypertrophy of the remaining cells? a) liver b) periferal nerves c) heart muscle d) intestinal mucosa e) adrenal cortex

Heart muscle

Miliary tuberculosis originates from a. Spreading by seeding b. The change of tuberculous processes on the meninges c. Only in childhood d. Hematogenous dissemination e. Lymphogenous dissemination

Hematogenous dissemination

Renal TBC in the form of organizing TB originates from a. Ascending TBC infection due to sexual intercourse b. Lymphocytic spread from the intestine c. Hematogenous spread d. Cavitary infections of the vertebral bodies spreading to the nearby renal tissue e. None of the described mechanisms are correct

Hematogenous spread

Miliary TB is directly caused by a. Hematogenous spread of TBC b. Endobronchial spread of TBC c. Respiratory primary infection of TBC in a host with decreased immunity d. Respiratory reinfection of TBC in a host with decreased immunity e. Miliary scrofulosis

Hematogenous spread of TBC Scrofulosis is lymphatic involvement in TB that leads to lymphadenopathy of the cervical lymph nodes.

During resorption of large hematomas we can find red-yellow crystals in the tissue, composed of a. Hemochrome b. Hematin c. Hemofuscin d. Hematoidin e. Hemosiderin

Hematoidin = identical to bilirubin

Which of the following pigments are stained by Preussian blue a. Hemosiderin b. Melanin c. Bilirubin d. Lipofuscin e. Anthracotic pigments

Hemosiderin

Yellowish-brown granules, which stains blue with Berlin blue were found in hepatocytes and Kuppfer cells in a man with hemochromatosis. Which substance does the granules contain a. Transferrin b. Hemosiderin c. Hemoglobin d. Bilirubin e. Biliverdin

Hemosiderin

In which of the following pigments can we histochemically demonstrate iron a. Hemosiderin b. Hemofuscin c. Bilirubin d. Hematin e. Hematoidin

Hemosiderin Why not hematin? Has Fe3+, whic don't react with pearls!

A 45-year-old man with abdominal discomfort discovers a yellow discoloration of his sclera and skin. Physical exam reveals hepatomegaly and icterus. Pearls stain of a liver biopsy is clearly positive. Which substance are stored in the hepatocytes a. Haptoglobin b. Hematin c. Hemosiderin d. Bilirubin e. Transferrin

Hemosiderin (iron --> blue color in pearls)

Hepatic type of glycogen storage disease?

Hepatic type: deficiency of hepatic enzymes - major clinical effects: 1) hepatomegaly, 2) hypoglycemia - e.g. Von Gierke disease = type 1 glycogenosis. --> Lack of Glc-6-phosphatase --> hypoglycemia

Chronic productive infections

Hepatit B Epstein Barr virus HIV

63. Which of the following is/are NOT a cause of hepatic steatosis: a) mushroom poisoning b) anemia c) hepatitis B infection d) hyperlipidemia

Hepatitis B was correct in one course test, but the statement was deleted.. Because HepB CAN actually cause steaotsis. - Hepatic steatosis: also known as fatty liver disease (FLD), is a reversible condition wherein large vacuoles of triglyceride fat accumulate in liver cells via the process of steatosis (i.e., abnormal retention of lipids within a cell). Despite having multiple causes, fatty liver can be considered a single disease that occurs worldwide in those with excessive alcohol intake and the obese (with or without effects of insulin resistance.

Rubin icterus is the designation for a. Hemolytic icterus b. Nuclear icterus c. Obstructive icterus d. Hepatocellular icterus e. It don't exist

Hepatocellular icterus

Another name for Wilsons disease? +symtpoms

Hepatolenticular degeneration It manifests as neurological or psychiatric symptoms and liver disease. (AR)

Aflatoxin - associated cancer?

Heptaocellular carcinoma. Aflatoxin is derived from Aspergillus

Chronic latent infections

Herpes simplex virus Varicella Zoster virus Cytomegalovirus

Which enzyme is deficient in Tay Sachs disease:

Hexosaminidase A deficiency

What is Sandhoff disease?

Hexosaminidase Beta subunit is defiecient Lipid storage disorder characterized by a progressive deterioration of the central nervous system. The clinical symptoms of Sandhoff disease are identical to Tay-Sachs disease.

Which of the following substances are released from the granules of leukocytes a. Bradykinin b. C3a c. Leukotriene B4 d. C5a e. Histamine

Histamine

During which of the following conditions can metastatic calcification arise a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Vitamin D deficiency c. Tissue necrosis d. Acute renal disease e. Calcified atheromatous emboli

Hyperparathyroidism Metastatitc-high calicum leves

32 year old woman with badly controlled diabetes gave birth to a boy in the 38th week of gestation. Which morphological picture will appear in the child's islets of Langerhans due to the mother's hyperglycaemia during the pregnancy? A) Atrophy B) Metaplasia C) Hyperplasia D) Necrosis E) Dysplasia

Hyperplasia

Where do we find fibrinoid necrosis?

Hypertensive damage

52 year old lady suffered a car accident damaging her right kidney. CT scan preformed two years after the accident revealed a drastic enlargement of the left kidney. The enlargement is an example of what adaptation reaction? A) Atrophy B) Hyperplasia C) Metaplasia D) Dysplasia E) Hypertrophy

Hypertrophy

Which of the following processes is an example of cellular, tissue or organs adaptation? a) myocardial infarkt b) accumulation of lipofucin in cardiomyocytes c) lipomatous atrophy of myocaridum d) amyloidosis of myocard e) hypertrophy of myocard

Hypertrophy of myocardium

In which of the following conditions can one see hydropic degeneration of the epithelia of the renal tubules a. Chronic alcoholism b. Tetrachlormethane/CCl4 poisoning c. Excessive renal loss of sodium d. Hypokalemia e. Lead poisoning

Hypokalemia

Which of the following substances participates in the process of neutrophils adhering to epithelia a. C5a b. C3a c. ICAM-1 d. Hagemann factor e. Nitric oxide

ICAM-1

What is fibrinoid bodies?

If it's the same as aschoff bodies it is this: In medicine, Aschoff bodies are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with rheumatic fever. They result from inflammation in the heart muscle and are characteristic of rheumatic heart disease. Fully developed Aschoff bodies are granulomatous structures consisting of fibrinoid change, lymphocytic infiltration, occasional plasma cells, and characteristically abnormal macrophages surrounding necrotic centres.

What is chromogranin, synaptophysin ?

Immunohistochemical markers for neuroendocrine cells.

How are the chalky soaps formed in fat necrosis?

In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids then complex with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits

The pigment hematin is found a. In gangrenous tissue changes b. During intracellular hemolysis c. In Wilsons disease d. In the pancreas in so-called bronze diabetes e. During hemosiderosis

In gangrenous tissue changes Oxidzed Hemoglobin --> Hematin Fe2+ --> Fe3+

Melanocytes are normally found in a. Epidermis and dermis b. Only in the dermis in hair follicles c. In all the layers of the epidermis d. In stratum basalis of epidermis e. In all mucosa

In stratum basalis of epidermis, inbetween the stem cells

During porphyria porphyrins don't accumulate a. In the liver b. In the teeth c. In the intestine d. In cartilage e. In erythrocytes

In the intestine

Deposits of amyloid with beta-2-microglobulins we typically find a. In the heart b. In the synovia and tendons c. In skeletal muscle d. In parenchymal organs e. In the leptomeninges

In the synovia and tendons (complication of patients on long term dialysis, can not be filtered by the dialysis machine)

What is characteristic for hypertrophic cells? A) Poroliferation with multiplication of the number of cells B) Increas in the size of the cells C) Decrease in the number of cells D) The change is irreversible E) Is always associated with metaplasia

Increase in the size of the cell

Which of the following findings are the most typical for reactions of the acute inflammatory phase a. Increased levels of serum fibrinogen b. Hypertension c. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Decreased degradation of skeletal muscle protein e. Decreased release of PGE2 in hypothalamus

Increased levels of serum fibrinogen

Which of the following causes does not cause edema a)increased vascular permeability b)increased plasma oncotic pressure c)heart failure d)lymphatic obstruction e) vein obstruction

Increased plasma oncotic pressure

Histamine mediates a. Leukocytosis in the acute phase of the inflammatory response b. Emigration and chromatosis c. Phagocytosis d. Increased vascular permeability e. Increased secretion during bacterial infection

Increased vascular permeability

Tissue swelling in association with inflammation are caused primarily by a. Lymphatic obstruction b. Increased hydrostatic pressure c. Fluid transudation d. Increased amount of intracellular liquid e. Increased vascular permeability

Increased vascular permeability

What is this? : Untagged rabbit AB against the Ag we want to check, then tagget goat AB against the rabbit AB (Now working as an Ag) ?

Indirect immunohistochemistry

Amyloid have all of the following components except a. Amorphic eosinophilic appearance in histological specimens stained with H and E b. Yellow-green birefringence after staining with Congo red c. Fibrillary structure in electron microscopy d. Stains similarly as starch with Lugol solution e. Induces an inflammatory reaction in the surroundings

Induces an inflammatory reaction in the surroundings

Erythema nodosum

Inflamed fat cells under the skin

What is Pompe disease?

Inherited disorder with buildup of glycogen in tissue cells

What is Pompe disease?

Inherited disorder with buildup of glycogen in tissue cells Glycogen storages disease type II acid maltase deficiency causes myopathy

Differences between hunters and hurlers disease

Inhertitance: Hurler's: autosomal recessive Hunter's: X-linked recessive (see MindMap) Clinical findings: Hurler's: corneal clouding (see MindMap) Hunter's: non-corneal clouding Deficient enzyme: Hurler's: a-L-irunidase Hunter's: iduronate sulfatase Accumulated substarte: heparan and dermatan sulfate (both)

Chose from the following options what best explains the anti-inflammatory effect of corticosteroids a. Increase leukocyte adhesion to endothelia b. Inhibit phospholipase A2 c. Destroy eosinophils d. Inhibit COX e. Inhibit lipoxygenase

Inhibit phosophoplipase A2 (the enzyme that cleaves arachidonic acid from the cell membrane) (Which makes the formation of LE, PG, TX impossible)

Bacteria can from the infectious focus spread or disseminate/propagate by all of the following means, except a. Production of hyaluronidase b. Phagocytosis c. integration to host DNA d. Invasion to blood vessels e. Invasion to lymphatic vessels

Integration to host DNA

Which of the following substances are not produced by activated macrophages a. Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) b. PDGF c. Nitric oxide d. Interferon gamma e. Arachidonic acid metabolites

Interferon gamma

A 62-year-old desoriented man is brought to the hospital. During physical exam there is obvious jaundice, splenomegaly, and ascites. Serum levels of ALT, AST, ALP, and GMT are increased. Liver biopsy reveals alcoholic hepatitis and Mallory hyaline/bodies. This substance is produced from aggregation of which of the following proteins a. Alpha-1-antitrypsin b. Beta-amyloid c. Alpha-synuclein d. Intermediate filaments e. Prion-related protein (PrP)

Intermediate filaments

What is true of bleeding? - a) External bleeding must always be seen externally - b) Internal bleeding may be accompanied by jaundice - c) Only external bleeding leads to jaundice after hemorrhagia - d) Always presume there is a disorder of coagulation factors - E) Manifested with blood loss greater than 5 liters

Internal bleeding may be accompanied by jaundice

What is stained by Berlin blue? (Prussian blue)

Iron

What does Pearls reaction stain?

Iron in hemosiderin

What is Tabes dorsalis?

Is also known as syphilitic myelopathy, is a slow degeneration (specifically, demyelination) of the nerves primarily in the dorsal columns (posterior columns) of the spinal cord (the portion closest to the back of the body). They help maintain a person's sense of position (proprioception), vibration, and discriminative touch.

Amyloid a. Is always localized extracellularly b. Is bound to epithelial structures c. Is commonly a component of cells of parenchymal organs d. Usually don`t injure organs e. Induce inflammatory changes in its surroundings

Is always localized extracellularly

livores (theory)

Is one of the signs of death. Livor mortis is a settling of the blood in the lower (dependent) portion of the body, causing a purplish red discoloration of the skin. When the heart stops functioning and is no longer agitating the blood, heavy red blood cells sink through the serum by action of gravity. Livor mortis starts twenty minutes to three hours after death and is congealed in the capillaries in four to five hours. Maximum lividity occurs within 6-12 hours. The blood pools into the interstitial tissues of the body.

What is the correct term for amyloidosis of the heart based on atrial natriuretic polypeptide a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. Isolated atrial amyloidosis

Isolated atrial amyloidosis

Which of the following statements about TBC are incorrect a. The most common mode of transmission is respiratory b. In patients with AIDS, TBC can manifest like sepsis tuberculosa acutissima (Landouzy sepsis) c. Miliary TBC can also develop into tuberculous meningitis d. We can find cavitations in the lung e. It affects peripheral nerves

It affects peripheral nerves

Which of the following statements about steatosis are correct a. It can lead to injury of the mitochondria, ER, and lysosomes b. HDL ensures transport of lipids to cells c. Steatosis of the liver usually (obvykle -> ''most frequently?'') originates from defect of lipoprotein synthesis d. Steatosis based on lysosomal dysfunction is always due to congenital defects e. Steatosis originates from accumulations of triglycerides and/or fatty acids

It can lead to injury of the mitochondria, ER, and lysosomes Steatosis of the liver usually (obvykle -> ''most frequently?'') originates from defect of lipoprotein synthesis

Which of the following applies to acute gout a. It can occur after a large ingestion of chicken meat in a short period b. It can be caused by taking ASA in hypersensitive individuals c. It`s a primary metabolic defect d. It can occur after therapy for hematologic malignancies e. Cholesterol ester crystals can be demonstrated

It can occur after therapy for hematologic malignancies

Why is this false? HDL ensures transport of lipids to cells

It does quite the oposite, it ensures transport of lipid from the cells (of the body) to the liver for excretion.

Which of the following characteristics are not typical for amyloid a. It has an amorphous eosinophilic appearance in histologic preparations b. It shows yellow-green birefringence after being stained with Congo red c. In electron microscopy it has a fibrillary structure d. Its caused by inflammatory reactions e. It stains similarly to starch with Lugol solution

It is NOT caused by inflammatory reactions

What is acinonodular TBC?

It is a macroscopic term used to described TB..

What is Schistomatosis?

It is a parasitic disease caused by Paracitic Flatworms

What is Schistomatosis?

It is a parasitic disease caused by Paracitic Flatworms (Commonly spread by contaminated fresh water)

Pathogenesis of Anderson disease?

It is a result of the absence of the glycogen branching enzyme amylo-1,4-1,6 transglucosidase, which is critical in the production of glycogen. This leads to very long unbranched glucose chains being stored in glycogen. The long unbranched molecules have a low solubility which leads to glycogen precipitation in the liver.

Which of the following statements about fusca atrophy (atrophy with lipofuscin deposition) are correct a. It is a type of numerical atrophy b. It is a type of simple atrophy c. It`s characteristic for CNS d. It occurs during hemosiderin accumulation in tissue e. None of the answers are correct

It is a type of simple atrophy

Hepatocytes undergoing apoptosis from viral disease are represented like a. Barr bodies b. Fibrinoid bodies c. Apoptosomes d. Councilman bodies e. Corpora amylacea

Councilman bodies

During normal histological preparation, what comes after embedding tissue in paraffin?

Cutting

mucoviscidosis is the same as Cystic Fibrosis! :)

Cystic fibrosis (CF), also known as mucoviscidosis, is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects mostly the lungs but also the pancreas, liver, and intestine. Difficulty breathing is the most serious symptom and results from frequent lung infections. Other symptoms—including sinus infections, poor growth, and infertility—affect other parts of the body.

Which if the following statements are true about hypertrophy and hyperplasia? A) Hypertrophy is only a macroscopical concept B) Hyperplasia is a macro- and microscopical concept C) Hyperplasia occur in permanent tissues D) Hyperplasia and hypertrophy can be combined E) Number and size of cells are decreasing in both processes

D a- the enlargement of cells can also be seen microscopically b- hyperplasia can only be seen macroscopically, as the cells are normal size (no change in the microscope) c- hyperplasia can occur not only in the permanent tissue e- increasing nr and size

Which of the following changes can be observed in the muscles of urinary bladder after long lasting urethral obstruction based on enlargement of the prostate? A) Atrophy B) Dysplasia C) Hyperplasia D) Hypertrophy E) Metaplasia

D - Hypertrophy (need more muscle forse to push against the narrowed urethra, and muscle do not undergo hyperplasia, only hypetrophy)

Which of the following terms are not connected with progressive lysosomal dysfunction a. Granulocytes in the CNS b. Sphingomyelinosis c. Strawberry gallbladder d. Tigered effect on heart e. Post-inflammatory pseudoxanthoma

D - tiger effect on heart

Gangrene is a. The designation for the decay of dead tissue due to putrefactive organisms b. Modified necrosis by changing temperatures c. Synonym for wet gangrene, i.e. necrosis modified by wet conditions d. Modified necrosis, for example due to drying e. Necrosis whose appearance is modified by autoimmune mechanisms

D : Modified necrosis, for example by drying

Compared to healing "per secundam intentionem" healing "per primam intentionem" is characterised by: A) Greater amount of exudate B) Greater amount of granulation tissue C) Contraction of wound D) More rapid coverage of the defect E) Greater amount of angiogenesis

D) More rapid coverage of the defect

Human Papilloma virus

DNA virus Establish productive infections only in keratinocytes of the skin or mucous membranes. May cause benign papillomas (such as warts [verrucae] or squamous cell papilloma), or cancers of the cervix, vulva, vagina, penis, oropharynx and anus. High risk subtypes : 16,18,30,31 (45)

How would hepatocytes stain in hematoxylin eosin?

Dark blue - blue/black Litt uenig her, mer rosa/lilla på histoslides.. men, men!

How does calcium stian in H&E ?

Dark blue/purple

Which of the following phenomena don`t belong along the uncertain markers of death a. Death spots (Livores) b. Cessation of breathing c. Cessation of cardiac activity d. Areflexia e. Fall in body temperature

Death spots - livores

What is the reason for the loss of basophilia in cytoplasm during cellular changes?

Decline in amount of RNA

What is numerical atrophy?

Decrease in number of cells (necrosis, apoptosis) Not the same as hypoplasia (as far as I can tell from internet) Ask teacher

Cells exposed to hypoxia can have all of the following consequences except a. Damaged oxidative phosphorylation b. Decrease in ATP reserve c. Release of enzymes to the blood d. Decrease of glycolysis e. Decrease of cell volume

Decrease of glycolysis

What applies to glycogenosis type 1 a. Block of conversion of glycogen to maltose b. Defect of glycolysis in the muscle c. Defect of release of glucose from glycogen in the liver d. Accumulation of proteoglycans e. None of the answers are correct

Defect of release of glucose from glycogen in the liver

Which step comes after staining of tisse during a normal preparation of histological slides?

Dehydration

Which of the following assertions are true about choristomas? (really sorry for the translation, but see wikipedia for definition of choristomas): a) terms of normal tissue to isolate territorial place b) example of the pancreas is woven in the stomach wall c) This is a local of the tissue but incorrect wiring d) is an example of adenocarcinoma of the colon e) choristom is a synonym for chodrohamartoma of lung

a) terms of normal tissue to isolate territorial place c) This is a local of the tissue but incorrect wiring

Which of the following statements/s is/are true of radiation? a) the bone marrow and lymphoid system are the most radiosensitive tissues in the body b) a dose of 1000 rad of total body radiation would kill all members of the exposed population c) post-radiation sarcomas may develop after a 20 years interval d) cartilaginous and muscle tissue are relatively radiosensitive

a) the bone marrow and lymphoid system are the most radiosensitive tissues in the body b) a dose of 1000 rad of total body radiation would kill all members of the exposed population c) post-radiation sarcomas may develop after a 20 years interval

Which of the following is/are true of tumor differentiation? a) the degree tumor to which tissue resembles normal tissue b) is high in anaplastic tumors c) differentiated tumors are immature d) more differentiated tumors generally have a worse prognosis than less differentiated tumors

a) the degree tumor to which tissue resembles normal tissue b - low c - mature d -better prognosis

24. Mantle cell lymphoma is characterized by: (BCELL) a) the expression of cyclin D1 in tumor elements b) infiltration of the digestive tract in the form of Lyme disease c) impairment of the skin in the form of mycosis fungoides (TCELL NHL) d) is a T-cell lymphoma

a) the expression of cyclin D1 in tumor elements Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is one of the rarest of the non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (NHLs). MCL is difficult to treat and seldom considered cured. MCL is a subtype of B-cell lymphoma, due to CD5 positive antigen-naive pregerminal center B-cell within the mantle zone that surrounds normal germinal center follicles. MCL cells generally over-express cyclin D1 due to a chromosomal translocation in the DNA.

Which of the following is/are true of primary TB? a) the first reaction to TB mycobacteria is the accumulation of macrophages b) the first reaction is the formation of TB nodules c) the formation of a primary Ghon complex d) the site of primary infection is most commonly seen in the intestines

a) the first reaction to TB mycobacteria is the accumulation of macrophages c) the formation of a primary Ghon complex

Which pair are correctly associated: a) the papilloma virus and cervical carcinomas b) EBV and Burkitt c) asbestos and small cell lung carcinoma d) ionizing radiation and colon carcinoma

a) the papilloma virus and cervical carcinomas b) EBV and Burkitt Lymphoma

59. Which pair contains a true statement: a) the papilloma virus and cervical carcinomas b) EBV and Burkitt lymphoma malignant c) asbestos and small cell lung carcinoma d) ionizing radiation and colon

a) the papilloma virus and cervical carcinomas b) EBV and Burkitt lymphoma malignant

26. Sezary syndrome is characterized by: a) the presence of neoplastic T lymphocytes b) the presence of neoplastic B lymphocytes c) lymphadenopathy d) no previous

a) the presence of neoplastic T lymphocytes c) lymphadenopathy A type of cutaneous lymphoma that was first described by Albert Sézary. The affected cells are T-cells that have pathological quantities of mucopolysaccharides. Sézary's disease is sometimes considered a late stage of mycosis fungoides with lymphadenopathy.

Which of the following statements is/are correct: a) the stagnation of blood can cause the formation of a red thrombus b) pancreatic cancer cannot cause a mesenteric veins thrombosis c) DIC can case organ ischemic changes d) other options are not true

a) the stagnation of blood can cause the formation of a red thrombus c) DIC can case organ ischemic changes

30. The Gleason system is: a) the system used for grading of prostate adenocarcinoma b) the system used in the grading of renal cell carcinoma c) the depth of invasion of squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix d) the grading system used in CNS tumors

a) the system used for grading of prostate adenocarcinoma

Marfan syndrome is a. Autosomal-dominant defect of the glycoprotein fibrillin b. Genetic determined defect of collagen type III c. Defect of maturation of collagen type I d. Hyalinosis of the wall of coronary vessels e. One of the glycogenoses

a. Autosomal-dominant defect of the glycoprotein fibrillin

Deficiency of which vitamin manifests itself as heart failure a. B1/Thiamine b. B12 c. Folic acid d. Niacin e. Vitamin E

a. B1/Thiamine

Deficiency of which vitamin manifests itself as heart failure: a. B1/Thiamine b. B12 c. Folic acid d. Niacin e. Vitamin E

a. B1/Thiamine In mammals, deficiency results in Korsakoff's syndrome, optic neuropathy, and a disease called beriberi that affects the peripheral nervous system (polyneuritis) and/or the cardiovascular system

84. Which of the following diseases are not caused by exotoxins a. Brucellosis b. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome c. Pertussis d. Scarlet fever e. Diphtheria

a. Brucellosis

Which of the following diseases are not caused by exotoxins a. Brucellosis b. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome c. Pertussis d. Scarlet fever e. Diphtheria

a. Brucellosis - Highly contagious zoonosis caused by ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals or close contact with their secretions - Brucella species are small, Gram-negative, nonmotile, nonspore-forming, rod-shaped (coccobacilli) bacteria. They function as facultative intracellular parasites, causing chronic disease, which usually persists for life -

C5a is produced by activation of the complement system, which exerts its most important role in the acute inflammatory reaction. Which of the following statements about C5a are not correct a. C5a is the main component of the final membrane attack complex, which cause bacterial lysis b. C5a is produced during activation of the complement system by the classic pathway c. C5a is produced during activation of the alternative complement pathway d. C5a is the main agent causing chemotaxis for neutrophils during acute inflammation e. C5a don't participate in cell adhesion to endothelia

a. C5a is the main component of the final membrane attack complex, which cause bacterial lysis.... I dont agree with this!, p.12pathoma states that membrane attack complex is formed by c5b+c6-c9... C5b is chemotaxic for neutrophils, but donno if main (C5b is the cleaved part of C5,) (all pathways classical, alternative and mannose-binding, leads to production of C3 convertase-->

What is the most common cause of deficiency of thiamine (Vitamin B1) in the developed world: a. Chronic alcoholism b. Malabsorption c. Gastroenteritis d. Parenteral nutrition e. Chronic dialysis

a. Chronic alcoholism Thiamine deficiency commonly presents subacutely and can lead to metabolic coma and death. A lack of thiamine can be caused by malnutrition, a diet high in thiaminase-rich foods (raw freshwater fish, raw shellfish, ferns) and/or foods high in anti-thiamine factors (tea, coffee, betel nuts) and by grossly impaired nutritional status associated with chronic diseases, such as alcoholism, gastrointestinal diseases, HIV-AIDS, and persistent vomiting

Which of the following diseases don't have a viral etiology a. Condylomata lata b. Condylomata accuminata c. Molluscum contagiosum d. Common cold (Rhinitis) e. Rabies

a. Condylomata lata Condylomata lata is a cutaneous condition characterized by wart like lesions on the genitals. They are generally symptoms of the secondary phase of syphilis, caused by the spirochete, Treponema pallidum

Which of the following diseases don't have a viral etiology a. Condylomata lata b. Condylomata accuminata c. Molluscum contagiosum d. Common cold (Rhinitis) e. Rabies

a. Condylomata lata Bacterial infection -> wart like lesions on the genitals. They are generally symptoms of the secondary phase of syphilis, caused by the spirochete, Treponema pallidum.

114. Which of the following agents cause Q fever a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

a. Coxiella burnetti

Which of the following agents cause Q fever a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

a. Coxiella burnetti

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome belongs to a. Defects of nucleoprotein metabolism b. Defects of protein metabolism c. Defects of polysaccharide metabolism d. Defects of beta-oxidation of fatty acids e. Defects of lipid metabolism

a. Defects of nucleoprotein metabolism

89. Niacin deficit manifests like a. Dementia b. Hemorrhagic diathesis c. Diarrhea d. Dermatitis e. Night blindness

a. Dementia c. Diarrhea d. Dermatitis

Niacin deficit manifests like a. Dementia b. Hemorrhagic diathesis c. Diarrhea d. Dermatitis e. Night blindness

a. Dementia c. Diarrhea d. Dermatitis (Disease of 3 D's!)

Which of the following infectious agents cause liver abscesses a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Trichinella spiralis d. Schistosoma hematobium e. Trichophyton

a. Entamoeba histolytica

Which of the following infectious agents cause liver abscesses a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Trichinella spiralis d. Schistosoma hematobium e. Trichophyton

a. Entamoeba histolytica

Which of the following infectious agents cause ulcerations of the large intestine a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Trichinella spiralis d. Schistosoma hematobium e. Mycobacterium leprae

a. Entamoeba histolytica

Which of the following infectious agents cause ulcerations of the large intestine a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Trichinella spiralis d. Schistosoma hematobium e. Mycobacterium leprae

a. Entamoeba histolytica (huskeregel: "Ent" er begynnelsen på ordet enteritis, som er inflammation of intestines" Histolytic - ødeleggelse av celler )

104. K onemocněním způsobeným druhem Haemophilus patří a. Epiglottitis in children b. Otitis media c. Flu d. Pertussis e. Moniliasis

a. Epiglottitis in children b. Otitis media

The disease caused by Haemophilus species include: a. Epiglottitis in children b. Otitis media c. The Flu d. Pertussis e. Moniliasis

a. Epiglottitis in children b. Otitis media The flu - caused by the inFLUenza virus

Adenocarcinoma's origin is: a. Epithelial b. Of lymphoid tissue c. Mesenchymal d. Of nerve bundles e. Endothelial

a. Epithelial

The histologic image of sarcoidosis include a. Epithelioid cells b. Caseous necrosis c. Polymorphonuclear cells d. Langhans giant multinuclear cells e. Schaumann inclusions

a. Epithelioid cells d. Langhans giant multinuclear cells e. Schaumann inclusions

Chronic low-grade chemical damage is important in the genesis of: a. Esophageal cancer b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Malignant melanoma e. Prostate cancer

a. Esophageal cancer

Deficiency of folic acid is most often seen in patients with which of the following infections: a. Giardia lamblia b. Escherichia coli c. Treponema pallidum d. Neisseria gonorrhea e. Staphylococcus aureus

a. Giardia lamblia

Deficiency of folic acid is most often seen in patients with which of the following infections a. Giardia lamblia b. Escherichia coli c. Treponema pallidum d. Neisseria gonorrhea e. Staphylococcus aureus

a. Giardia lamblia Giardia lamblia er en flagellert protozoo som hos mennesker kan infisere mage-tarm kanalen. Infeksjon fører til giardiase, en type gastroenteritt med symptomer som diaré, oppkast, rap med smak av råtne egg og magekramper.

For which of the following diseases are Donovan bodies pathognomonic a. Granuloma inguinale (klebsiella granulomatis) b. Syphilis c. Chancroid d. Gonorrhea e. Lymphogranuloma venereum

a. Granuloma inguinale (klebsiella granulomatis) Granuloma inguinale is a bacterial disease caused by Klebsiella granulomatis characterized by ulcerative genital lesions Donovan Bodies: Donovan bodies are rod-shaped, oval organisms that can be seen in the cytoplasm of mononuclear phagocytes or histiocytes in tissue samples from patients with granuloma inguinale.

For which of the following diseases are Donovan bodies pathognomonic: a. Granuloma inguinale (klebsiella granulomatis) b. Syphilis c. Chancroid d. Gonorrhea e. Lymphogranuloma venereum

a. Granuloma inguinale (klebsiella granulomatis) Granuloma inguinale is a bacterial disease caused by Klebsiella granulomatis characterized by ulcerative genital lesions. It is endemic in many less developed regions. It is also known as donovanosis. They appear deep purple when stained with Wright's stain. These intracellular inclusions are the encapsulated Gram-negative rods of the causative organisms

The hepatocytes contain cytoplasmic brown granular pigments. Which pigments can it be a. Hemosiderin, Lipofuscin, or bilirubin b. Lipofuscin, Hematin, Mallory hyaline c. Mallory hyaline, Lipofuscin, Hemosiderin d. Anthracotic pigment, Amyloid, Lipofuscin e. Bilirubin, Neutral lipids, Hemosiderin, Melanin

a. Hemosiderin, Lipofuscin, or bilirubin

Which of the following types of cells have a connection with infectious processes: a. Mikulicz cells (klebsiella rhinoscleroderma) b. Warthin-Finkeldey cells c. Virchow cells (leprosy) d. Orthovy cells e. Kultschitský cells

a. Mikulicz cells (klebsiella rhinoscleroderma) b. Warthin-Finkeldey cells c. Virchow cells (leprosy) d. Orthovy cells A = (Rhino)Scleroma, is a chronic granulomatous bacterial disease of the nose that can sometimes infect the upper respiratory tract B = A type of giant multinucleate cell found in hyperplastic lymph nodes early in the course of measles and also in HIV-infected individuals C = The cavities in osseous tissue containing bone cells?? D = ? Kultschitský cells - can´t find anything online.....

Which type of cell serve as a reservoir for HIV: a. Monocytes b. Fibroblasts c. T-lymphocytes d. Epithelial cells e. B-lymphocytes

a. Monocytes

Which type of cell serve as a reservoir for HIV a. Monocytes b. Fibroblasts c. T-lymphocytes d. Epithelial cells e. B-lymphocytes

a. Monocytes They express the CD4 receptor and chemokine co-receptors for HIV-1 entry, and hence are targets for HIV-1 infection. 7 Following infection with HIV-1, monocyte/macrophages are resistant to cytopathic effects and persist throughout the course of infection as long-term stable reservoirs for HIV-1 capable of disseminating the virus to tissues.

iron

Pearls Prussian Blue

Hunter and Hurler`s disease belongs to a. Mucopolysaccharidoses b. Mucoviscidoses c. Gangliosidoses d. Glycogenoses e. A and B are correct

a. Mucopolysaccharidoses (lysosomal storage diseases) Hurler syndrome: mucopolysaccharidosis type I Hunter syndrome: mucopolysaccharidosis type II

In which of the following locations can we most often find purely fibrosing inflammation a. Leptomeninges b. Cerebral ventricles c. Pericardium d. Bones of the lower extremity e. Skin

Pericardium

Tuberculous leprosy predominantly involves the a. Liver b. Lymph nodes c. Face d. Nose e. Peripheral nerves

Peripheral nerves

Which color would this stain cause: Diaminobenzidine And what kind of histological method do we use it in?

Peroxidase immunohistochemistry , brown color

Fat necrosis is associated with all of the following conditions except a. Trauma of the mammary glands b. Acute pancreatitis c. Peroxidation of triglyceride esters d. Hydrolysis of triglycerides to glycerol e. Inflammatory reaction

Peroxidation of TAGesters

Which of the following infections/infectious agents don't cause granulomatous inflammation a. Berylliosis b. Reaction around foreign material c. Mycotic infections d. Leprosy e. Pertussis

Pertussis (whopping cough)

Which of the following are examples of a ganglion a. Myxoid modulation of connective tissue b. Transparent modulation of connective tissue c. Fibrinoid modulation of connective tissue d. Hyaline modulation of connective tissue e. Proliferative changes

a. Myxoid modulation of connective tissue

97. Which of the following pathogens have fimbriae as a virulence factor, allowing them to adhere to the mucosal surface of the host organism a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Vibrio cholera c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Yersinia enterocolitica e. Bacillus anthracis

a. Neisseria gonorrhea

Which of the following pathogens have fimbriae as a virulence factor, allowing them to adhere to the mucosal surface of the host organism a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Vibrio cholera c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Yersinia enterocolitica e. Bacillus anthracis

a. Neisseria gonorrhea

Which of the following processes are affected in Chediak-Higashi syndrome a. Margination b. Recognition c. Antibody production d. Phagosome-lysosome fusion e. Apoptosis of autoimmune clones of lymphocytes

Phagosome lysosome fusion - AR - disorder of lysosomal trafficking protein - decreases phagocytosis - Unable to form phagolysosomes - resulting in pyogenic infections, partial albinism and partial neuropathy (staph aurerus is a common infection in these patients)

85. Cholera cause a. Serous inflammation b. Fibrinous inflammation c. Phlegmon d. Suppurative inflammation e. Catarrhal inflammation

a. Serous inflammation

What is pompe disease?

Pompe disease is an inherited disorder caused by the buildup of glycogen in the body's cells. The accumulation of glycogen in certain organs and tissues, especially muscles, impairs their ability to function normally. (heart, skeletal muscle, liver, nervous system) "Glycogen storage disease - lysosomal type"

Chronic granulomatous disease

Poor O2 dependent killing of microbes, 1. defect in NADPH oxidase --> pyogenic bacterias 2. Defect in MPO --> Candida infections

What is another term for caseous necrosis.. (Funny...)

Poprašková necrosis (ofcourse, it's in czech) Refers to histological appearance - ''necrosis dusted over with chromatin grains''

Which of the following accumulations belongs to lysosomal dysfunction a. Osmotic nephrosis b. Nutmeg liver c. Strawberry gallbladder d. Tiger effect on the myocardium e. Post-inflammatory pesudoxanthoma

Post-inflammatory pesudoxanthoma

Colitis caused by antibiotic therapy cause which type of inflammation a. Ulcerous-necrotizing b. Pseudomembranous c. Exudate-hemorrhagic d. Serous-catarrhal e. Gangrenous

Postantibiotic Pseudomembranous ulcerative colitis b - pseudomembranous

Which part of the vascular bed are involved in changing permeability and producing exudation in acute inflammation a. Small arteries b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Postcapillary venules e. Veins

Postcapillary venules (why not capillary bed?) (we learned capillaries in pathophysiology !)

Cholera cause a. Serous inflammation b. Fibrinous inflammation c. Phlegmon d. Suppurative inflammation e. Catarrhal inflammation

a. Serous inflammation (Mr. M said catarrhal enteritis during the lecture.. I don't know what is correct?)

111. Which of the following infectious agents often exhibit acute suppurative inflammation, and abscess production a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Blastomyces dermatitidis d. Coccidioides immitis e. Cryptococus neoformans

a. Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following infectious agents often exhibit acute suppurative inflammation, and abscess production a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Blastomyces dermatitidis d. Coccidioides immitis e. Cryptococus neoformans

a. Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following applies for staphylococcal infections a. They often have a phlegmonous character b. They often cause abscesses c. They originate endogenously as opportunistic infections d. They are often seen as secondary infections e. They typically cause lobar pneumonia when affecting the lung

a. Streptococcus + phlegmone(WRONG) b. Staphlyococcus + abscesses (CORRECT) d. They are often seen as secondary infections (CORRECT) e. lobar pneumonia + streptococcus (WRONG)

Which of the following infectious agents cause scarlet fever a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Burkholderia mallei c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Klebsiella pneumonia

a. Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following statements about phlegmon are correct a. It's caused predominantly by streptococci b. On the skin it can manifests like erysipelas c. It spreads diffusely in the interstitium d. The formation is facilitated by hyaluronidase produced by the microorganism e. It don't occur in the mediastinum

a. It's caused predominantly by streptococci b. On the skin it can manifests like erysipelas c. It spreads diffusely in the interstitium d. The formation is facilitated by hyaluronidase produced by the microorganism

86. What is the most common finding of patients with trypanosomiasis during autopsy a. Meningoencephalitis b. Massive hepatic necrosis c. Lung abscesses d. Cardiac abscesses e. Endocarditis

a. Meningoencephalitis

Atrophy is least likely caused by a. Deinnervation b. Reduced arterial blood supply c. Aging d. Progressive hyperplasia e. Reduction of hormonal stimulation

Progressive hyperplasia

What does silver stain in microbiology?

Pseudomonas Legionella Leptospira H. pylori Fungi: Pneumocystis and Candida

Which of the mentioned changes is (not) present in the early phase of shock a) pulmonary collapse b) anuria c) pulmonary edema d) acidosis in the peripheral bloodstream e) caused by insufficient flow in the terminal venules

Pulmonary collapse The question sheet has "not" in it.. and the answer sheet does not have "not" in the statement..

Q fever

Q fever is a disease caused by infection with Coxiella burnetii, a bacterium that affects humans and other animals. Tick borne Drinking contaminated milk

Hepatitis C virus

RNA virus

Polivirus

RNA virus Fecal-oral route Replicate in intestinal mucosa + LN 1% invades CNS - replicate in motorneurons - spinal poliomyelitis Virus can be transported via axons Flaccid paralysis - damage of motor neurons in anterior horn of spinal cord.

A 60-year-old man is transported to the hospital with acute liver failure. He undergoes successful orthotopic liver transplantation, but the donated liver in the first 3 days produces only a little amount of bile. Dysfunction of the graft in the are ascribed to reperfusion injury. Which of the following substances are the most probable cause of reperfusion injury of the graft a. Cationic proteins b. Lysosomal acid hydrolases c. Reactive oxygen species d. Free ionic iron e. Hydrochloric acid

ROS

What are the most dangerous substances formed during reperfusion injury?

ROS

What is the dangerous substance produced after reperfusion injury?

ROS

Which of the following diseases are not caused by bacteria a. Tularemia b. Tetanus c. Plague d. Rabies e. Bacillary dysentery

Rabies Rhabdoviridae - Rabies virus Tularemia - Francisella Tularensis Tetanus - Clostridium Tetani Plague - Yersinia pestis Bacillary dysentery - Shigella

What is Ranula?

Ranula is rare benign acquired cystic lesion that occurs at the floor of mouth. It results from obstruction of a sublingual gland or adjacent minor salivary gland with resultant formation of a mucous retention cyst 1,5. A ranula can be classified based on its extent: 1. simple ranula: these ranulas are confined to the sublingual space 2. plunging ranula also known as diving ranula or cervical ranula as a simple ranula enlarges it dissects along facial planes beyond the confines of the sublingual space, either: --> around the posterior edge of the mylohyoid muscle, or --> directly thought a deficiency of the mylohyoid muscle

How does collagen stain with van Gieson?

Red

How does fibrin stain in green trichrome stain?

Red

How does trichrome stain keratin and muscle fibers?

Red

lipids staining

Red Oil, Sudan Black

Which will be the most likely finding on m. gastrocnemius of a 35 year-old lady after removal of the cast from the leg after 6 weeks of immobilization a. Conversion of the muscle to fast muscle fibers b. Reduction in the number of muscle fibers c. Reduction in the number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber d. Increase of mitochondria in muscle fibers e. Increased numbers of satellite cells

Reduction in the number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber

Dystrophic calcification is most commonly associated with a. Hypercalcemia due to pathology of the parathyroid glands b. Regional healing after previous cell necrosis c. Increasing accumulations of pigment d. Injury of the renal tubules and stomach e. Increase of the working load of injured tissue as a result of successful adaptation

Regional healing after previous cell necrosis

When to we use Furhman classification?

Renal cell carcinoma. Nuclear grading.

When to we use Furhman classification?

Renal cell carcinoma. Nuclear grading. grade 1-->4

Hemosiderosis is associated with a. Decreased levels of iron transport proteins b. Increased intestinal absorption of iron c. Excessive iron supply in food d. CNS involvement e. Repeated hemolysis

Repeated hemolysis B+C --> Hemochromatosis

Returning architecture and function of tissues to the normal after a previous inflammatory attack is called a) angiogenesis b) organization c) resolution d) necrosis e) exudation

Resolution

What is Reyes syndrome?

Reye's syndrome is a potentially fatal syndrome that has numerous detrimental effects to many organs, especially the brain and liver, as well as causing a lower than usual level of blood sugar (hypoglycemia). The classic features are a rash, vomiting, and liver damage. The exact cause is unknown and, while it has been associated with aspirin consumption by children with viral illness, it also occurs in the absence of aspirin use. The disease causes fatty liver with minimal inflammation and severe encephalopathy (with swelling of the brain)

Ertyhema marginatum

Rheumatic fever

Murine (endemic) typhus (Flea)

Rickettsia Typhi Fleas (rats) Murine typhus is an under-recognized entity, as it is often confused with viral illnesses. Most people who are infected do not realize that they have been bitten by fleas.

Which of the following signs don't belong among the cardinal signs of inflammation a. Calor b. Rubor c. Rigor d. Tumor e. Dolor

Rigor ( stiffnesss)

What is ganglion?

It is myxoid transformation after trauma

When do we see follicular hyperplasia (B-cell region) of lymph node?

It is seen with rheumatoid arthritis and early stages of HIV

What applies to secondary amyloidosis a. AL is a precursor b. It occurs mainly in the liver, spleen, kidneys, thyroid gland and intestine c. It can lead to kidney failure and death of the patient d. It's commonly connected with Alzheimer`s dementia e. One of the protein precursors is transthyretin

It occurs mainly in the liver, spleen, kidneys, thyroid gland and intestine It can lead to kidney failure and death of the patient

Which of the following statements about lipofuscin are incorrect a. Its located in residual lysosomal bodies b. Its commonly found in organs of the elderly c. Its soluble in organic solvents d. It can occur in the cytoplasm of neurons e. It stains like fat (neutral lipids)

It stains like fat (neutral lipids)

Which of the following statements about granulation tissue are not correct a. It produces proliferating capillaries and fibroblasts b. It plays the most important role in healing by secondary intention c. It's a form of hyaline deposit d. Myofibroblasts are typically present e. It's an integrated part of the inflammation process

It's a form of hyaline deposit

Which cells are responsible for fibroplastic change during cirrhosis ?

Ito cells

Genetic mutation of: o 2) Polycythemia Vera o 3) Primary Myelofibrosis o 4) Essential Thrombocythemia

JAK2 kinase mutation

Job syndrome?

Job syndrome is characterized by abnormally high levels of an immune system protein called immunoglobulin E (IgE) in the blood, which is why this condition is also known as hyper-IgE syndrome. IgE triggers an immune response against foreign invaders in the body, particularly parasitic worms, and plays a role in allergies. It is unclear why people with Job syndrome have such high levels of IgE. Job syndrome is a condition that affects several body systems, particularly the immune system. Recurrent infections are common in people with this condition. Affected individuals tend to have frequent bouts of pneumonia, which are caused by certain kinds of bacteria that infect the lungs and cause inflammation. Recurrent skin infections and an inflammatory skin disorder called eczema are also very common in Job syndrome. These skin problems cause rashes, blisters, collections of pus (abscesses), open sores, and scaling. This condition also affects other parts of the body, including the bones and teeth. Many people with Job syndrome have skeletal abnormalities such as an unusually large range of joint movement (hyperextensibility), an abnormal curvature of the spine (scoliosis), reduced bone density (osteopenia), and a tendency for bones to fracture easily. Dental abnormalities are also characteristic of this condition.

Human Herpes virus 8

Kaposi sarcoma Systemic disease that can present with cutaneous lesions with or without internal involvement. The erythematous to violaceous cutaneous lesions seen in KS have several morphologies: macular, patch, plaque, nodular, and exophytic. The cutaneous lesions can be solitary, localized or disseminated. KS can involve the oral cavity, lymph nodes, and viscera

Which of the following manifestations are the most reliable indicators of cell death a. Eosinophilic cytoplasm b. Granular cytoplasm c. Karyolysis d. Cell swelling e. Lipofuscin aggregates

Karyolysis Remember: cell swelling is reverisble, lipofuscin aggregates is normal in older cells,

What are hypertrophic scars formed by excessive collagen called? A) Callus B) Cicatrix C) Keloid D) Amyloid E) Stitch (suture) granuloma

Keloid

What is the most common cause of death in systemic AA amyloidosis a. Kidney failure b. Liver failure c. Intractable diarrhea with metabolic disorders d. Respiratory failure e. None of the answers are correct

Kidney failure

Phagocytosing cells in an individual with myeloperoxidase defect will be less effective in a. Killing bacteria b. Recognizing bacteria c. The process of marginating to vessels d. Chemotaxis e. Ingesting bacteria

Killing the bacteria (it produced hypochloric acid from H2O2, which is the main component for killing the micro.org)

In which of the following diseases are the injury mainly to glial cells a. Marfan's disease b. Fabry's disease c. Niemann-Pick disease d. Krabbe disease e. Anderson disease

Krabbes disease

In tuberculous leprosy we can find a. Mikulicz cells b. Facies leontina c. Virchow cells d. Langhans cells e. Granulomas with caseous necrosis and multiple mycobacteria

Langhans cells (I believe it should be Facies Leontina and Virchow cells)

Which of the following metals cause the formation of metaphysic lines in growing bones a. Arsenic b. Barium c. Lead d. Nickel e. Zinc

Lead

Weils disease

Leptospirosis of liver - jaundice - Kidney failure - bleeding (may be severely from lungs)

Alkylating agents - associated caner?

Leukemia/lymphoma. Side effect of chemotherapy

A peripheral leukocyte count of 17 000/ml is regarded as a. Normal b. Left-shift c. Leukocytosis d. Leukemoid reaction e. Leukopenia

Leukocytosis (above normal range) ( "left shift" means the ratio of immature to mature neutrophils. ) Often it accompanies the leukocytosis

Spotty depigmentation after inflammation or burns are known as a. Vitiligo b. Leukoderma c. Café-au-lait d. Lentigo e. Amelanosis

Leukoderma

what is leukodystrophy really?

Leukodystrophy is group of disorders characterized by degeneration of the white matter in the brain The leukodystrophies are caused by imperfect growth or development of the myelin sheath (an example is Krabbes disease)

Which of the following substances are most important for chemotaxis a. Histamine b. Leukotriene B4 c. Leukotriene C4 d. Prostaglandin D2 e. Hagemann factor

Leukotriene B4

Which of the following types of cells have a connection with infectious processes a. Mikulicz cells b. Warthin-Finkeldey cells c. Virchow cells d. Orthovy cells e. Kultschitský cells

Riktig: a. Mikulicz cells (klebsiella rhinoscleroderma) b Warthin-Finkeldey cells ( found in hyperplastic lymph nodes early in the course of measles and also in HIV-infected individuals, as well as in Kimura disease) c. Virchow cells (leprosy) d. Orthovy cells (Bacillary tuberculous meningitis) Feil: e. Kultschitský cells

What is Rocky Mountain Spotted fever?

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is the most lethal and most frequently reported rickettsial illness in the United States. The disease is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a species of bacterium that is spread to humans by Dermacentor ticks. Initial signs and symptoms of the disease include sudden onset of fever, headache, and muscle pain, followed by development of rash.

Measles

Rubeola virus, droplet transmission Replicate in upper resp. tract Red skin rash (face, trunk, extrm) Koplik spots - mucosal ulcerations Follicular hyperplasia in lymph nodes Whartin Finkeldey - giant cells in lymph nodes Sensitive to light Complications; subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. (Dawson encephalitis) Prevented by MMR vaccine

Cause of Russel bodies formation?

Russell bodies are eosinophilic, large, homogenous immunoglobulin-containing inclusions usually found in a plasma cell undergoing excessive synthesis of immunoglobulin; the Russell body is characteristic of the distended endoplasmic reticulum. (Not hyaline in other words)

in which cell cycle phase does DNA synthesis happen?

S phase

Amyloidosis arising from chronic inflammatory conditions are responsible for the increase in serum levels of which of the following proteins a. Immunoglobulins b. SAA protein (Serum amyloid A) c. Transthyretin d. Beta-2-microglobulin e. Calcitonin

SAA protein (Serum amyloid A)

Which autoimmune disease is characterized by immune deposits in the skin, lungs, and kidneys a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Sjogren syndrome c. Systemic scleroderma d. Graft-versus-host reaction e. Calcinosis cuti

SLE Antibodies directed towards our normal healthy tissue SLE affects many internal organs in the body. SLE most often harms the heart, joints, skin, lungs, blood vessels, liver, kidneys, and nervous system. Scleroderma - overproduction of collagen due to an autoimmune dysfunction.

Which of the following diseases are typically associated with antiphospholipid antibodies a. Polymyositis b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. SLE d. CREST syndrome e. Sjogren syndrome

SLE Crest - centromere Ab Sjogren syndrome - antinuclear Ab Polymyositis - ? Ankylosing spondylitis - (ANCA)

Hypertrophy is never: a) vascular b) hormonal c) senile d) compensatory e) nerve conditioned

Senile (things only regress with age.. hehe )

Which of the following types of inflammation is typical for acute rhinitis a. Serous b. Pablan c. Fibrinous d. Purulent e. Interstitial

Serous inflammation

Cystic dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum is associated with a. Lipid accumulation b. Hypertrophic cells c. Intracellular dehydration d. Apoptosis e. Severe, but reversible ischemic damage

Severe, but reversible ischemic damage

Shigellosis

Shigella bacteria

Shigellosis

Shigella bacteria "Bacillary dysentery or Marlow Syndrome" Fecal oral contamination GIT symptoms(diarrhea, cramps) blood, pus, mucus in stool

How can reticulin fibers be stained?

Silver impregnation PAS

Neurogenic atrophy can occur in a. Skeletal muscle b. The brain c. The spinal cord d. Diencephalon e. Myocardium

Skeletal muscle

Which of the following organs typically undergoes simple necrosis a. Skin b. Heart c. Liver d. Brain e. Kidneys

Skin I think simple necrosis is a undergroup of coagulative, but I'm not sure!

The basophilic cytoplasm is due to which organelles?

Smooth ER Granular ER High polysome concentration precipitated pigments of peroxisomes NOT - proteins of cytoskeletone!

Which group of diseases does Tay Sachs belong under?

Sphingolipidoses The disease occurs when harmful quantities of cell membrane components known as gangliosides accumulate in the brain's nerve cells, eventually leading to the premature death of the cells. A ganglioside is a form of sphingolipid, which makes Tay-Sachs disease a member of the sphingolipidoses.

Arsenic - associated caner?

Squamous cell carcinoma of skin Lung cancer Angiosarcoma of liver

Alcohol - associated caner?

Squamous cell carinoma of oropharynx and upper esophagus Pancreatic carcinoma Hepatocellular carcinoma

What is Orzein stain?

Stain for elastic membranes

A skin biopsy is taken at the site of infection in a patient with recurrent infections. The biopsy shows marked decreased numbers of neutrophils in the inflammatory foci. Which of the following chemical mediators are the patient most likely to be deficient in a. C3a b. Leukotriene B4 c. C3b d. Histamine e. Leukotriene E4

Leukotriene B4 Leukotriene B4 is a leukotriene involved in inflammation. It is produced from leukocytes in response to inflammatory mediators and is able to induce the adhesion and activation of leukocytes on the endothelium, allowing them to bind to and cross it into the tissue. In neutrophils, it is also a potent chemoattractant, and is able to induce the formation of reactive oxygen species and the release of lysosome enzymes by these cells.

Pus contains a. Lipids b. Fibrin c. Collagen d. Plasma cells e. Polymorphonuclear cells

Lipids, Fibrin, PMN cells

Which of the following pigments are associated with brown atrophy a. Melanin b. Lipofuscin c. Bilirubin d. Hemosiderin e. Anthracotic pigment

Lipofuscin

All the following items are markers for necrosis except a. Lipofuscin b. Pyknosis c. Karyolysis d. Karyorrhexis e. Rupture of cell membranes

Lipofuscin normal pigment, present in any old cell

Which of the following agents can cause an acute inflammatory reaction in unsensitized individuals a. Lipopolysaccharide b. Albumin c. UV radiation d. Insulin e. Carbon particles

Lipopolysaccharides and UV radiation

Symptoms of Tay Sachs?

Starts at the age of 3-6 months The baby is normal at birth o Rapidly declining development o Muscle weakness o Loss of motor skills o Increased startle reflex o Blindness, deafness o Inability to chew/swallow o Mental retardation o Paralysis, dementia Cherry red spots on the macula of retina.

What is synovial sarcoma?

Synovial sarcoma Do NOT arise from synoviocytes (were thought to be), origin is unclear. <10% are intra-articular, but often in soft tissue near joints - 60-70% around knee. 10% of soft tissue tumors. Common metastasis: lung, bone, regional LNs. Quite rapid growth. Two morphological types: 1) Biphasic: two structures can be clearly distinguished; epithelial part and spindle shaped cells 2) Monophasic: composed only of spindle shaped cells (resemble fibrosarcoma)

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Systemic syndrome involving : the skin (purpuric rash), GIT (pain), joints (arthritis) kidneys - bleeding into skin and GIT Manifestation in kidneys: IgA Nephropathy (Berger disease) o IgA deposition in mesangium --> hematuria

What is Sezary syndrome?

Sézary's disease (often called Sézary syndrome) is a type of cutaneous lymphoma that was first described by Albert Sézary. The affected cells are T-cells that have pathological quantities of mucopolysaccharides. Sézary's disease is sometimes considered a late stage of mycosis fungoides with lymphadenopathy. - Sezary syndrome: Leukemic form of mycosis fungoides, tumor cells in blood

What is Sezary syndrome?

Sézary's disease (often called Sézary syndrome) is a type of cutaneous lymphoma that was first described by Albert Sézary. The affected cells are T-cells that have pathological quantities of mucopolysaccharides. Sézary's disease is sometimes considered a late stage of mycosis fungoides with lymphadenopathy. Originating from CD4+ cells "sezary cells" are abnormal T-cells Generalized erythroderma Lymphadenopathy Atypical T-cells ("Sézary cells") in the peripheral blood Hepatosplenomegaly

Which of the following types of cells are present in the highest amount a. Basophils b. B lymphocytes c. T lymphocytes d. Plasma cells e. Mast cells

T-cells

In which form are lipids accumulated in hepatocytes in hepatic steatosis a. Cholesterol ester b. Fatty acids c. Lipoproteins d. Phospholipids e. Triglycerides

TAG

All the following substances mediate increased vascular permeability except a. Histamine b. C5a c. TGF-beta d. Bradykinin e. Leukotriene C4

TGF beta

What is the origin of fever in inflammation a. Free oxygen radicals produced by macrophages b. Degraded proteins from necrotic tissue c. TNF-alpha d. Proteases from neutrophil granules e. Integrins

TNF alpha

Charcot joint (Degenerative joint disease of 3rd stage of syphilis) is due to a. Production of immune complexes b. Central paresis c. Production of gummae in the syonviae d. Severe vasculitis of the synovial membrane e. Tabes dorsalis

Tabes dorsalis

Defect of hexosaminidase A is the cause of which disease a. Von Gierke disease b. Pompe disease c. McArdle disease d. Tay-Sachs disease e. Wilson`s disease

Tay Sachs disease

What is the lethal lysosomal disease termed which manifests itself in infancy with mental retardation and blindness a. Phenylketonuria b. Spina bifida c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Osteogenesis imperfecta e. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Tay-Sachs disease

In which of the following diseases does hepatosplenomegaly not occur a. Leukemia b. Lysosomal enzymopathy c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Gierke disease e. Gaucher disease

Tay-Sachs disease (disease of white matter of brain) Tay Sachs- Hexosaminidase (sex - sex)

Tay sachs disease, also known as:

Tay-Sachs disease (also known as GM2 gangliosidosis or hexosaminidase A deficiency ) (AR)

What is simple necrosis?

Term not used anymore! :) A stage of coagulation necrosis; the occurrence of a coarsely granular or hyaline change in the cytoplasm, and the lack of a recognizable nucleus, with the general configuration of the dead cells being relatively unchanged.

After stainin with congo red: With which of the following characteristics of proteins are the presence of birefringence connected a. The ability to bind to acid b. Tertiary structure of beta-pleated sheets c. Electrophoretic mobility d. Content of hydroxyproline in the protein e. Molecular weight of the protein

Tertiary structure of beta-pleated sheets

- Elston-Ellis is for grading of invasive ductal breast cancer.

The Nottingham (also called Elston-Ellis) modification[8] of the Scarff-Bloom-Richardson grading system,[9][10] is recommended,[11] which grades breast carcinomas by adding up scores for tubule formation, nuclear pleomorphism, and mitotic count, each of which is given 1 to 3 points. The scores for each of these three criteria are then added together to give an overall final score and corresponding grade as follows.

What is apoptosomes?

The apoptosome is a large quaternary protein structure formed in the process of apoptosis. Its formation is triggered by the release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria in response to an internal (intrinsic) or external (extrinsic) cell death stimulus. Once formed, the apoptosome can then recruit and activate the inactive pro-caspase-9. Once activated, this initiator caspase can then activate effector caspases and trigger a cascade of events leading to apoptosis.

Epidemic typhus (louse)

The causative organism is Rickettsia prowazekii, transmitted by the human body louse Symptoms include severe headache, a sustained high fever, cough, rash, severe muscle pain, chills, falling blood pressure, stupor, sensitivity to light, delirium and death. A rash begins on the chest about five days after the fever appears, and spreads to the trunk and extremities. A symptom common to all forms of typhus is a fever which may reach 39 °C (102 °F).

When do we have tiger effect of myocardium?

a fatty degenerated heart in which the fat is disposed in the form of broken stripes in the subendocardial myocardium.

Marfan syndrome

a genetic disorder of human connective tissue. The most serious complications are defects of the heart valves and aorta, which often lead to early death. The syndrome also may affect the lungs, eyes, dural sac surrounding the spinal cord, the skeleton, and the hard palate. People with Marfan tend to be unusually tall, with long limbs and long, thin fingers and toes. The syndrome is caused by the misfolding of the protein fibrillin-1, which is encoded by the gene FBN1.

What is lipomatous atrophy?

Loss of parenchymal cells in the numerical atrophy may be masked multiplication of adipose tissue in the interstitium (the organ is then normal size or enlarged, the pseudohypertrophy) occurs in skeletal muscle, myocardium, pancreas, salivary glands

Asbestos - associated caner?

Lung carcinoma Mesothelioma

l-MYC (transcription factor) amplification is associated with...

Lung carcinoma (small cell)

Most common complication of thrombosis of lower extremities is a) brain infarct b) kidney infarct c) myocardial infarct d) lung infarct e) intestinal infarct

Lung infarct

In which of the following organs does sarcoidosis most often manifest a. Liver b. Spleen c. Lungs d. Heart e. Brain

Lungs

Erythema migrans

Lyme disease

In the process of digesting foreign material neutrophils or macrophages primarily use a. Components of the complement system b. Hydrogen peroxide c. Kinins d. Lysosomal enzymes e. Thrombin

Lysosomal enzymes

Hepatosplenomegaly is discovered in a 3-year-old body with mental retardation. Analysis of the tissue specimen obtained by biopsy shows unusually large amounts of glcuocerebrosides. This disease reflect a deficiency in which of the following enzymes a. Hormone-sensitive lipase b. Lipoprotein-lipase c. Lysosomal hydrolases d. Sphingolipid synthase e. Tissue phospholipases

Lysosomal hydrolase

What is Tay Sachs disease?

Lysosomal storage disease where a patient lacks enzyme (hexosaminidase) to break down gangliosides. It is a "gangliosidosis" - the most common one

Microorganisms which are phagocytosed are killed by a. Lecithinase b. Lysozyme c. Lysosomal enzymes d. Lymphokines e. Hydrogen peroxide

Lysozyme, lysosomal enzymes and hydrogen peroxide

Multiple endocrine neoplasias 2 MEN2a MEN2b

MEN2A associates medullary thyroid carcinoma with pheochromocytoma in about 20-50% of cases and with primary hyperparathyroidism in 5-20% of cases. MEN2B associates medullary thyroid carcinoma with pheochromocytoma in 50% of cases, with marfanoid habitus and with mucosal and digestive neurofibromatosis.

RET (neural growth factor receptor) point mutation is associated with...

MEN2a and MEN2b and sporadic medullary carinoma of thyroid

Which cell gives rise to epithelioid cells and multinuclear giant cells found in granulomatous inflammation a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages c. Eosinophils d. Mast cells e. Plasma cells

Macrophages

Which of the following cell types are most significant in the process of wound healing? A) Mast cells B) Neutrophils C) Macrophages D) Epithelial cells E) Basophils

Macrophages

Which of the following cell types are involved in the healing of wounds? a) macrophages b) myofibroblasts c) Virchow cells d) endothelial cells e) apocrine cells

Macrophages Myofibroblasts Endothelial cells Feil : Virchow cells - Cell of leprosy 1) Lepra cell. 2) The lacunae in osseous tissue containing the bone cells; also the bone cells themselves. 3) Connective tissue cells between the laminae of fibrous tissue in the cornea. These are also known as corneal corpuscles. Apocrine cells : a cell secreting a "working substance" which affects the surrounding cells

In which of the following locations are there normally found hemosiderin a. Hepatocytes b. Macrophages of the bone marrow c. Mucosa of the small intestine d. Alveolar macrophages e. Basal layer of keratinocytes

Macrophages of the bone marrow

Mallory bodies:

Made of hyaline

CCND1(cyclin D1) translocation 11:14 involving IgH is associated with...

Mantle cell lymphoma

melanin

Masson Fontanta

C3a and C5a activates a. Eosinophilic granules b. Polymorphonuclear granulocytes c. Mast cells d. Macrophages e. Plasma cells

Mast cells

Which type of icterus accompanies pruritus a. Mechanical b. Hepatotoxic c. Hemolytic d. Nuclear e. None

Mechanical

306. Which of the following pigments are derived from tyrosine a. Melanin b. Bilirubin c. Lipofuscin d. Hemosiderin e. Anthracotic pigment

Melanin

Which of the following statements about melanin are correct a. Melanin is produced by melanophages in the skin b. Melanocytes are only found in the epidermis c. Melanocytes are normally found in the basal layer of the epidermis d. Melanin can be decolorized by hydrogen peroxide e. Melanin originates from tyrosine kinase

Melanocytes are normally found in basal layer of epidermis Melanin can be decolorized by hydrogen peroxide It comes via enzymes "tyrosinase" not tyrosine kinaste Melanin is produced by melanocytes, not melanophages

CDK4 (cyclin dependent kinase) amplification is associated with...

Melanoma

What does the presence of actin and desmin tell us about tissue origin of the tumor?

Mesenchymal origin (muscular) of the tumor

What is phenylketonuria, and how does that present in infants?

Metabolic genetic disorder Nonfunctional enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase --> phenylalanine accumulates and is converted into phenylpyruvate (also known as phenylketone) and no tyrosine is formed Screened in almost all newborns, but if not: present clinically with seizures, albinism (excessively fair hair and skin), and a "musty odor" to the baby's sweat and urine (due to phenylacetate, a carboxylic acid produced by the oxidation of phenylketone).

A 5-year-old boy got a dull injury to a limb in a car crash. 6 months later, at the site of tissue damage in the skeletal muscle, osseous trabeculae was formed. This pathological condition is an example of the following morphological adaptation to injury: a) atrophy b) metastatic calcification c) dysplasia d) metaplasia e) dystrophic calcification

Metaplasia

A cell differentiation, which leads to modification of one mature tissue into another, is called: A) Dysplasia B) Metaplasia C) Hypoplasia D) Transplasia E) Hyperplasia

Metaplasia

Transformation of one differentiated type of epithelium in to another differentiated epithelium is called: a) atrophy b) dysplasia c) hyperplasia d) hypertrophy e) metaplasia

Metaplasia

Which of the following conditions are least likely to be seen in an area of acute inflammation a. Congested vessels b. Polymorphonuclear cells c. Edema d. Necrosis e. Metaplasia

Metaplasia

A 57 year old patient with a history of 30 years of smoking cigarettes, underwent bronchoscopical investigations. Biopsy reveals replacement of multilayered cylindrical bronchial ciliary epithelium with stratified layered epithelium. What is the change called? a) dysplasia b) hyperplasia c) malignant transformation d) metaplasia e) necrosis and reparative process

Metaplasia (The lining changes from one differentiated cell type to another differentiated cell type)

Calcinosis - Examples a. Dystrophic calcification b. Metastatic calcification c. Calciphylaxis d. Disease arising always during hypercalcemia e. It`s synononymous with spurs (calcification) of the Achilles tendon

Metastatic calcification calcinosis: formation of calcium deposits in any soft tissue Wikipedia says dystrophic calcification as well..

Miscellaneous type of glycogen storage disease?

Miscellaneous type Pompe disease = type 2 glycogenosis o Accumulation of glycogen in the lysozome. The buildup of glycogen causes progressive muscle weakness (myopathy) o Lysosomal acid maltase deficiency --> Lysosomal storage disease! o Glycogen depositions in all organs, cardiomegaly most prominent o Cardiomegaly (!), Muscle hypotonia --> heart failure Brancher glycogenosis = type 4 glycogenosis o Deposition of abnormal form of glycogen, harming liver, heart and muscles

What is lentigo?

a small pigmented spot on the skin with a clearly defined edge, surrounded by normal-appearing skin. It is a harmless (benign) hyperplasia of melanocytes which is linear in its spread.

8. Nothing to do with osteoporosis has: a) Addisons disease b) bone fractures c) low levels of estrogen d) immobilization

a) Addisons disease - low cortisol (and aldosterone) Osteoporosis is a progressive bone disease that is characterized by a decrease in bone mass and density which can lead to an increased risk of fracture

The genetic material of the EBV virus can be found in cells of: a) African Burkitts lymphoma type b) urothelial bladder cancer c) squamous cell carcinoma of uterine cervix d) squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus

a) African Burkitts lymphoma type

41. Which cell product or cell function pairing is most accurate? a) Basophils - histamine b) Extravascular erythrocytes - Hemosiderin c) Neutrophils - suppurative inflammation d) Eosinophils - fungal infection

a) Basophils - histamine b) Extravascular erythrocytes - Hemosiderin c) Neutrophils - suppurative inflammation -Eosinophils: parasites (worms) and allergy?

Which of the following is true about bleeding? a) Blood output outside the blood vessel b) External bleeding is not bleeding from a gastric ulcer c) Petechiae are extensive bleeding into the skin surface d) Hematoma indicates only bleeding into internal organs e) Hematemesis means blood in the stool

a) Blood output outside the blood vessel b - to bleed into GI tract is kind of "outside" the body c - petechiae are small bleedings, not extensive d - hematomas can form anywhere e - vomiting blood

A 65-year-old patient lost 15 pounds in the past two months, and feels tired. There is high suspicion of a malignant neoplasm. Which of the following sequences, according to the most common incidence of malignant neoplasms in women, is correct? a) Breast - Lung - Large intestine and rectum b) Brest - Uterus - Lung c) Large intestine and rectum - Lung - Ovarian d) Lung - Breast - Ovarian e) Ovarian - Uterus - Lung

a) Breast - Lung - Large intestine and rectum

75. Which malignant lymphomas are NOT accompanied by amyloidosis: a) Burkitts lymphoma b) DLBCL c) multiple myeloma d) plasmocytoma

a) Burkitts lymphoma b) DLBCL - Burkitts lymphoma: a cancer of the lymphatic system, particularly B lymphocytes found in the germinal center -DLBCL: diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is a cancer of B cells, a type of white blood cell responsible for producing antibodies. It is the most common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma among adults -Multiple myeloma: also known as plasma cell myeloma or Kahler's disease, is a cancer of plasma cells, a type of white blood cell normally responsible for producing antibodies. Amyloidosis is a distant third in the causation -Plasmocytoma: a malignant plasma cell tumor growing within soft tissue or within the axial skeleton

RS cells in Hodgkin lymphoma usually express: a) CD 30 b) CD 117 c) CD 15 d) CD 20 e) they cannot be detected immunohistochemically

a) CD 30 c) CD 15 d) CD 20

Philadelphia chromosome is present in: a) CML b) Hodgkins disease c) Burkitts lymphoma d) Down`s disease e) Apoptoticky zanikajících monocytû

a) CML

53. Which is true of inflammation of the mucous membranes: a) Catarrhal inflammation is a common type of inflammation b) Catarrhal inflammation never becomes chronic c) Often forms abscesses d) Chronic inflammation can lead to hypertrophy or atrophy of the mucosa

a) Catarrhal inflammation is a common type of inflammation d) Chronic inflammation can lead to hypertrophy or atrophy of the mucosa -Catarrhal inflammation can become chronic (tydligvis:p) -Does not often form abscesses, but it may probably happen..

Which of the following claims about the nuclear characteristics of the tumor obtained during the flow cytometry examination is valid? a) Diploid lesions may be malignant or benign b) Aneuploid tumors are always malignant c) Malignant tumors can be diploid d) Reactive lesions are usually aneuploid e) Malignant tumors are never diploid

a) Diploid lesions may be malignant or benign c) Malignant tumors can be diploid

Burkitt lymphoma is associated with: a) EBV infection b) Mycobacterium avium infection c) CMV infection d) osteomyelitis of jaw caused by pyogenic cocci e) JC virus infection

a) EBV infection

19. Risk factors of atherosclerosis is not: a) HDL b) diabetes mellitus c) smoking d) hypertension

a) HDL

What does monoclonal mean? How can we determind clonality?

Monoclonal means that the neoplastic cells are derived from a single mother cell. Clonality can be determind by glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. Clonality of B-lymphocytes is determined by immunoglobulin light chain phenotype

2) catarrhal infl.

More pronounced mucinous secretion superimposed on low grade inflammatory reaction. Usually on mucous membranes. Examples: rhinitis, nasopharyngitis, bronchitis

Gilbert syndrome

Most common hereditary cause of increased bilirubin A major characteristic is jaundice, caused by elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the bloodstream

Blue tricrhome

Most recipes produce 1. red keratin and muscle fibers, 2. blue or green collagen and bone, 3. light red or pink cytoplasm, 4. dark brown to black cell nuclei.

What is mucosal melanoma?

Mucosal melanoma is a rare form of melanoma, making up less than 5% of melanoma cases. As with other areas of the skin, melanocytes, the pigment producing cells of the body, are also present in the mucosal surfaces of the body, lining the sinuses, nasal passages, oral cavity, vagina, anus and other areas. Just like melanocytes in other parts of the body, these can transform into cancerous cells, resulting in mucosal melanoma.

Where does AL amyloid like to deposit?

Muscles, adipose tissue

Li fraumeni syndrome

Mutated p53 gene, various tumors

What is the genetic background for Niemann Pick disease type C ?

Mutation in NPC1 or NPC2

What is Gaucher disease?

Mutation in glucocerebrosidase. Leading to an accumulation of glucocerebrosides.

Which of the following organisms are obligate intracellular parasites a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium leprae d. Histoplasma capsulatum e. Legionella pneumophila

Mycobacterium leprae the rest are facultative intracellular

72. What malignant lymphoma is derived from T lymphocytes? a) Burkitt malignant lymphoma b) multiple myeloma c) mycosis fungiodes d) malignant lymphogranuloma (Hodgkin disease????)

Mycosis fungoides -Burkitt malignant lymphoma: a cancer of the lymphatic system, particularly B lymphocytes found in the germinal center - Multiple myeloma: is a cancer of plasma cells, a type of white blood cell normally responsible for producing antibodies - Mycosis fungiodes: the most common form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma --> a class of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, which is a type of cancer of the immune system. Unlike most non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (which are generally B-cell related), CTCL is caused by a mutation of T cells. The malignant T cells in the body initially migrate to the skin, causing various lesions to appear. -Malignant lymphogranuloma:

Sezary syndrome

Mycosis fungoides (T-cell neoplasm) spreading to blood

Working hypertrophy is typical for: a) gastric mucosa b) lung parenchyma c) myocardium d) bone e) peripheral nerves

Myocardium

Myopathic type of glycogen storage disease?

Myopathic type: deficiency of glycolysis enzymes - inability to Break down glycogen in muscle cells. A lack of glycogen breakdown interferes with the function of muscle cells. - Prolonged or intense exercise can cause muscle damage. About half of people with GSDV experience breakdown of muscle tissue (rhabdomyolysis). In severe episodes, the destruction of muscle tissue releases a protein called myoglobin, which is filtered through the kidneys and released in the urine (myoglobinuria). - e.g. McArdle disease = type 5 glycogenosis. Deficiency in muscle phosphorylase. (myophosphorylase)

n-MYC (transcription factor) amplification is associated with...

Neruoblastoma

Neuroblastoma can become...

Neuroblastoma --> Ganglioneuroblastoma --> Ganglioneuroma

Type 2 and 3 Gaucher disease symptoms?

Neurological involvement Liver and spleen are also involved TYpe 2 - symptoms before 2 years of age TYpe 3 - symtpoms later in life

Which cell types are the most susceptible to necrosis in the case of complete ischemia

Neurons

In which cells does sphingomyelin accumulate?

Neurons - neurologic symptoms due to neuronal death - TYPE A Phagocytic cells - hepatosplenomegaly (enlargments of organs with alot of these cells) - TYPE A & TYPE B

A newborn arrives with failure of segregation of the umbilical cord. Histologic section taken surgically from the umbilical cord reveals a lack of marginalization and diapedesis of leukocytes. These clinical and histologic features are most likely associated with a defect of a. Complement activation b. Microtubule polymerization c. Respiratory burst d. Neutrophil adhesion molecules e. Myeloperoxidase production

Neutrophil adhesion molecules

Which of the following cells are characteristic for suppurative inflammations a. Lymphocytes b. Fibroblasts c. Plasma cells d. Neutrophilic granulocytes e. Macrophages

Neutrophilic granulocytes

Which of the following don't belong among congenital defects of T cell immunity a. DiGeorge syndrome b. Nezelof syndrome c. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis d. Changes associated with defects of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches e. Chronic granulomatous disease

Nezelof syndrome & Chronic granulomatous disease --> Nezelof syndrome (also known as "Thymic dysplasia with normal immunoglobulins) is an autosomal recessive congenital immunodeficiency condition due to underdevelopment of the thymus. Defect of "purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency, with inactive phosphorylase" --> accumulation of deoxyGTP, which inhibits the ribonucleotide reductase. The defect is a type of purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency with inactive phosphorylase. This results in an accumulation of deoxy-GTP which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase. Ribonucleotide reductase catalyzes the formation of deoxyribonucleotides from ribonucleotides. Thus, DNA replication is inhibited and cells cannot replicate.

In which of the following diseases is there a characteristic accumulation in macrophages a. Niemann-Pick disease b. Fabry disease c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Cereoidlipofuschinosis e. Pompe disease

Niemann-Pick disease #he has "picked" macrophages#

What is Niemann - Pick disease?

Niemann-Pick disease refers to a group of inherited severe metabolic disorders that allow sphingomyelin to accumulate in lysosomes of macrophages(!!!)

Simon focus in the apex of the lung indicates (i believe we are talking about TBC here?) a. Primary complex b. Early spread (Early generalization) c. Generalization during areactivity d. Phthysis e. Late generalization

No answers are marked as correct in the document.. A Simon focus is a tuberculosis (TB) nodule that can form in the apex of the lung when a primary TB infection elsewhere in the body spreads to the lung apex via the bloodstream. Simon focus nodules are often calcified. • The initial lesion is usually a small focus of consolidation, less than 2cm in diameter and located within 1 to 2 cm of the apical pleura. • In adolescence, Simon foci may get reactivated to become Assmann foci. Such foci are sharply circumscribed, firm, gray-white to yellow areas that have a variable amount of central caseation & peripheral fibrosis.

Does liquefactive necrosis only happen in the brain?

No, also in acute pancreatitis

Does Balser's fat necrosis develops with the effects of enzymes in striated muscle

No, don't understand the statement here..

Is dry gangrene caused by saprophytic bacteria?

No. Bacterias that lives and feeds on dead material, but they do not cause a primary infection. (even though their toxins can be dangerous)

Crigler Najjar syndrome

Non-hemolytic jaundice Increase in unconjugate bilirubin, often leads to brain damage in infants

Which of the following pigments have a toxic effect on neurons a. Melanin b. Ceroid c. Hematin d. Nonconjugated bilirubin e. Conjugated bilirubin

Nonconjugated bilirubin (is lipid soluble, and can therefor cross the BBB, whereas conjugated bilirubin cannot)

What is not affected in Niemann-Pick disease a. Endothelia b. Liver c. Lymph nodes d. Lungs e. None of the answers above is correct

None of the answers are correct

Chronic infl. Morphological patterns:

Nonspecific chronic inflammation: -chronic glomerulonephritis Granulomatous inflammation: -distinctive pattern of chronic inflammatory reaction characterized by focal accumulation of activated macrophages which often develop an epithelial - like (epitheloid) appearance. 5 subtypes

What is Pyknosis

Nuclear Condensation

What is Karyolysis

Nuclear dissolution and chromatin lysis from the action of hydrolytic enzymes

Which of the following conditions can best capture the concept of passive hyperemia? - a) Reddening of the face in cold - b) Cutaneous vasodilation in a warm day - c) Congestion as a result of muscle exercise - d) Inflammation - e) Nutmeg liver

Nutmeg liver (congested due to right heart failure)

Hepatitis B virus, type of genome?

Only hepatitis virus with DNA genome.. A,C,D,E --> ssRNA viruses

In green trichroma stain, erythrocytes are stained which color?

Orange

48. Which of the following does NOT apply to Lyme borelliosis: a) Is caused by rickettsia b) Affects joints c) A typical symptom is skin erythema migrans d) Is transmitted by ticks

a) Is caused by rickettsia - Lyme borreliosis: Borrelia burgdorferi, Borrelia afzelii and Borrelia garinii. Transmitted via the bite of an infected tick. Symptoms may include fever, headache, and fatigue. A rash occurs in 70-80%, may or may not appear as the well-publicized bull's-eye (erythema migrans). Left untreated, later symptoms may involve the joints, heart, and central nervous system -Rickettsia: causes e.g typhus

49. What is characteristic of a measles infection: a) Koplik spots are present b) Microscopic granulomas are present c) Infection in pregnant women frequently induces fetal malformations d) The exanthema has vesiculopostulous pattern

a) Koplik spots are present -Measles: rubeola is an infection of the respiratory system, immune system and skin caused by a virus, specifically a paramyxovirus. -Koplik spots: characterized as clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa (on the buccal mucosa opposite the lower 1st & 2nd molars) and are pathognomonic for measles -No blisters, but a spot-like rash - Pregnanty women : is this wrong because it says "frequently?", because it is very dangerous for pregnant womens and their baby

Feature of carcinoma in situ is: a) Limited basement membrane lesions b) potential of metastasis c) invasion into blood vessels d) lack of genetic mutations e) low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio

a) Limited basement membrane lesions

In which of the following conditions plays cyclin D1(PRAD-1) an important role? a) Lymphoma cells from the plastic zone b) CLL/SLL c) Mycosis fungoides d) Hodgkins disease e) Uterine leiomyoma

a) Lymphoma cells from the plastic zone

54. Which is true of dysplasia: a) May progress to malignant tumor b) Is seen only premalignant lesions c) Is irreversible d) Is stationary

a) May progress to malignant tumor

Which of the following statements about hyperplasia are true? a) may result in organ enlargement b) results in multiplication of the number of cells c) occurs in corneal epithelium d) occurs in retinal epithelium e) occurs in myocardium

a) May result in organ enlargement b) results in multiplication of the number of cells d) occurs in retinal epithelium - on the question sheet d) occurs in epithelium shielding - on the correct answer sheet ??? c and e are wrong

For which variant of Hodgkin lymphoma is the characteristic of lacunar variant cell? a) Nodular sclerosis b) mixed cellularity c) lymphocyte depleted d) Lymphocyte rich e) eosinophilic granuloma

a) Nodular sclerosis

Most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma is: a) Nodular sclerosis b) Mixed cellularity c) Lymphocyte depleted d) Lymphocyte rich e) myelosarcoma

a) Nodular sclerosis

52. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia: a) Occurs in massive hemolysis b) The cause of neonatal jaundice c) Is accompanied by increased levels of bile acids in the blood d) Is a consequence of liver disease

a) Occurs in massive hemolysis b) The cause of neonatal jaundice d) Is a consequence of liver disease - Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia: can result from increased production, impaired conjugation, or impaired hepatic uptake of bilirubin, a yellow bile pigment produced from hemoglobin during erythrocyte destruction.

What is the most common finding of patients with trypanosomiasis during autopsy a. Meningoencephalitis b. Massive hepatic necrosis c. Lung abscesses d. Cardiac abscesses e. Endocarditis

a. Meningoencephalitis Trypanosomiasis is the name of several diseases in vertebrates caused by parasitic protozoan trypanosomes of the genus Trypanosoma. The other human form of trypanosomiasis, called Chagas disease, causes 21,000 deaths per year In humans, the tsetse fly bite erupts into a red sore and within a few weeks, the person can experience fever, swollen lymph glands, aching muscles and joints, headaches and irritability.

Which of the following mechanism is/are basic mechanism of steatosis? a) disorder of lipoprotein synthesis b) disorder of beta oxidation in mitochondria c) increased permeability of cellular membrane

a) disorder of lipoprotein synthesis b) disorder of beta oxidation in mitochondria d) lysosomal dysfunction

Which of the following tumors is the women's equivalent of testicular seminoma in men: a) dysgerminoma of ovary b) dermoid cyst of ovary c) choriocarcinoma d) yolk sac tumor e) malignant teratoma

a) dysgerminoma of ovary

6. Which of the following is typical of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency? a) emphysema panlobular b) centrolobular emphysema c) paraseptal emphysema d) is absent from emphysema

a) emphysema panlobular A genetic disorder that causes defective production of alpha 1-antitrypsin (A1AT), leading to decreased A1AT activity in the blood and lungs, and deposition of excessive abnormal A1AT protein in liver cells. In absence of A1AT, neutrophil elastase is free to break down elastin, which contributes to the elasticity of the lungs, resulting in respiratory complications such as emphysema, or COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) in adults and cirrhosis in adults or children

71. An example of hypertrophy is: a) enlargement of the heart in hypertension b) changes of the endomterium in increased levels of estrogen c) nodular enlargement of the thyroid gland d) an inflammatory tumor

a) enlargement of the heart in hypertension

Which of the following statements best describes the role of fibrin in the process of wound healing? a) facilitates influx of macrophages b) mediates local rise in temprature c) act as a growth factor d) creates a spatial network for Langhans cells e) degrade existing collagen

a) facilitates influx of macrophages

Which of the following tumors show the presence of hematogenous metastasis? a) follicular thyroid carcinoma b) follicular adenoma of the thyroid gland c) medullary thyroid carcinoma d) papillary thyroid carcinoma

a) follicular thyroid carcinoma together with clear cell renal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma and choriocarcinoma. (and sarcomas ofcourse)

77. Which is true of prostate cancer: a) forms osteplastic metastasis in bones b) forms predominantly ostelytic metastasis c) arises on the basis of adenomyomatous hyperplasia d) starts from the inner part of the prostate

a) forms osteplastic metastasis in bones

35. For the diagnosis of papillary thyroid carcinoma is required finding: a) ground glass nuclei b) follicles c) metastasis d) papillae

a) ground glass nuclei

Which of following symptoms of hyaline thrombi is correct a) has microscopic dimensions b) emboli in pulmonary artery often leads to death c) arises from stagnation of blood in varicose veins d) is a synonym for so-called hyaline droplets e) arises on atherosclerotic plaques in the aorta

a) has microscopic dimensions Color atlas: homogeneous eosinophilic red thrombus in minor vessels such as capillaries, arterioles and venules. Composed of disintegrated thrombocytes and fibrin. These thrombi are hyaline-micro thrombi.

Which of the following processes of tissue repair results in complete recovery? a) healing per primuam intentionem b) healing per secundam intentionem c) apoptosis d) atrophy e) healing after myocardial infarkt

a) healing per primuam intentionem

The clinical manifestations of patients with Niemann-Pick disease don`t include a. Mental retardation b. Lung involvement c. Liver involvement d. Renal involvement e. Muscle defects

a. Mental retardation

Blood in the sputum is called: a) hemoptysis b) hematemesis c) hematomyelie d) melena

a) hemoptysis What is hematomyelie ? hematomyelie - acute bleeding in the spinal cord due to trauma blow compressed air in the blast, falls from heights, car accident. Predisposing factor is pathologically altered blood vessel from any cause. H. often ends lethally, in other cases, the clinical picture corresponds spinal shock; obv. is part of polytrauma

Which of the following pigments stains with Prussian blue? a) hemosiderin b) hematin c) bilirubin d) hematoidin

a) hemosiderin Hematin - oxidized heme, ferric state does not bind the stain Bilirubin + hematoidin is the same, and they are both non-ferrous

Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with: a) infection of EBV b) infections of Mycobacterium avium c) infections of CMV d) JC virus infection

a) infection of EBV

7. Which of the following diseases are associated with exposure to asbestos? a) interstitial pulmonary fibrosis b) mesothelioma c) hepatocellular carcinoma d) asthma

a) interstitial pulmonary fibrosis b) mesothelioma Mesothelioma: a rare form of cancer that develops from cells of the mesothelium, the protective lining that covers many of the internal organs of the body. Mesothelioma is most commonly caused by exposure to asbestos. The most common anatomical site for mesothelioma is the pleura (the outer lining of the lungs and internal chest wall), but it can also arise in the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity), the pericardium (the sac that surrounds the heart), or the tunica vaginalis (a sac that surrounds the testis).

60. Cellular embolism a) Is a prerequisite for tumor metastasis b) may arise as a result of comminuted bone fractures c) can occur after traumatic fragmentation of the liver d) occurs after blunt trauma of the heart

a) is a prerequisite for tumor metastasis b) may arise as a result of comminuted bone fractures c) can occur after traumatic fragmentation of the liver -Cellular embolism: embolism due to a mass of cells transported from disintegrating tissue

67. Cellular embolism a) is a prerequisite for tumor metastasis b) may arise as a result of comminuted bone fractures c) can occur after traumatic liver fragmentation d) occurs after blunt cardiac trauma

a) is a prerequisite for tumor metastasis b) may arise as a result of comminuted bone fractures c) can occur after traumatic liver fragmentation

74. What is true of metastasis: a) is a subsidiary focus of malignant tumor b) there is blood and lymph spreading c) the tumor infiltration into surrounding tissues d) attachment of tumor cells occurs on the surface of serous membranes (ovary metastasize by surface linings)

a) is a subsidiary focus of malignant tumor b) there is blood and lymph spreading d) attachment of tumor cells occurs on the surface of serous membranes (ovary metastasize by surface linings)

Which of the following is/are not true of gout? a) is not caused by increased levels of uric acid b) affected patients suffer from recurrent attacks of acute arthritis c) the characteristic lesions are gouty tophi d) precipitated urate crystals damage the lysosomal membrane

a) is not caused by increased levels of uric acid Meaning Not not --> It is caused by increased levels of uric acid! ;)

31. For Krukenberg tumor of the ovary does not apply: (primary tumor somewhere else!!) Malignant tumor in ovary from another place! a) it is a primary ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma b) it is usually bilateral c) tumor cells are mucin-producing d) in most cases it is a metastasis of gastric caner

a) it is a primary ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma A Krukenberg tumor refers to a malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a primary site, classically the gastrointestinal tract, although it can arise in other tissues such as the breast. Gastric adenocarcinoma, especially at the pylorus, is the most common source. Krukenberg tumors are often (over 80%) found in both ovaries, consistent with its metastatic nature

32. For choriocarcinoma apply: (2 types, in connection with pregnancy and germ cells) a) it is highly malignant b) it origins in connection with pregnancy c) it affects only females d) it produced hCG

a) it is highly malignant b) it origins in connection with pregnancy d) it produced hCG

69. What is true of gangrene: a) it is modified secondary necrosis b) never occur physiologically c) does not endanger young individuals d) is always of an ischemic origin

a) it is modified secondary necrosis b) never occur physiologically

which of the following assertion is valid for hamartoma: a) it is usually present from birth b) contains cells from all three germ layers c) predisposes its bearer, malignant (predisposes to malignancy) d) contains metaplastic cell types e) is an example of sebaceous adenoma in tuberous sclerosis

a) it is usually present from birth c) predisposes its bearer, malignant (predisposes to malignancy) e) is an example of sebaceous adenoma in tuberous sclerosis

39. For paget disease of the breast nipple is typical: a) it occurs simultaneously with invasive ductal carcinoma or with ductal carcinoma in situ b) large light cells with hyperchromatic nuclei in the epidermis c) it early metastasizes to bones and lungs d) it is histologically similar to malignant melanoma

a) it occurs simultaneously with invasive ductal carcinoma or with ductal carcinoma in situ b) large light cells with hyperchromatic nuclei in the epidermis d) it is histologically similar to malignant melanoma Paget disease of the breast (also known as Paget disease of the nipple and mammary Paget disease) is a rare type of cancer involving the skin of the nipple and, usually, the darker circle of skin around it, which is called the areola. Most people with Paget disease of the breast also have one or more tumors inside the same breast. These breast tumors are either ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive breast cancer (1-3).

84. Meningococal infection cause: a) leptomeningitis b) encephalitiss c) Waldestrom macroglobulinemia d) chronic sepsis

a) leptomeningitis

76. Which of the following is/are true of types of Hodgkin's malignant lymphoma: a) lymphocyte rich and mixed b) small cell and large cell type c) nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte depleted d) Hodgkin's lymphoma with RS cells and Hodgkin's lymphoma with Hodgkin's cells

a) lymphocyte rich and mixed c) nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte depleted 1. Lymphocyte rich 2. Lymphocyte depleted 3. Mixed cellularity 4. Nodular sclerosis

55. Which pair is correct: a) lymphocytes - chronic inflammation b) bleeding - hemosiderin c) neutrophils - suppurative inflammation d) eosinophils - fungal infection

a) lymphocytes - chronic inflammation b) bleeding - hemosiderin c) neutrophils - suppurative inflammation

Immunohistochemical markers HMB-45 and Melan A are used in diagnosis of: a) malignant melanoma b) squamous cell carcinoma of the lip c) hodgkins lymphoma d) fibrosarcoma e) breast cancer

a) malignant melanoma

30. Which statement about the leiomyoma of the uterus is not true? a) malignant transformation is very often b) there is regression in postmenopausal women c) there is abnormal bleeding d) they are often multiple

a) malignant transformation is very often

Which of the following is/are true of choriocarcinoma? a) malignant tumor of trophoblastic structures b) does not affect males c) typical signet ring cells are present d) it is a tumor of the remnants of the dorsal root

a) malignant tumor of trophoblastic structures

63. Dilatation of the heart: a) may be a consequence of myocarditis b) occurs decompensed arterial hypertension c) occurs at amyloidosis d) occurs at Bowen disease

a) may be a consequence of myocarditis b) occurs decompensed arterial hypertension

54. Autoimmune diseases: a) may be caused by different types of pathological immune responses b) circulating antibodies against its own tissue antigens indicate disease always c) atrophic corporal gastritis is a typical example d) myasthenia gravis is caused by antibodies against actin muscle fiber

a) may be caused by different types of pathological immune responses c) atrophic corporal gastritis is a typical example

13. The main features of Cushing's syndrome include: a) moon face b) buffalo hump c) hypotension d) striae

a) moon face b) buffalo hump d) striae (from the weight gain, stretching of skin) Cushing's syndrome describes the signs and symptoms associated with prolonged exposure to inappropriately high levels of the hormone cortisol. This can be caused by taking glucocorticoid drugs, or diseases that result in excess cortisol, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), or CRH levels.

Which of the following changes are examples of hyperplasia a) multiplication of the number of goblet cells in the main bronchus of a smoker b) squamous epithelium in the bronchi of a smoker c) proliferative endometrial glands in patients on estrogen therapy d) hyperkeratotis skin in patient with psoriasis e) huge multinucleated cells with granulomatous inflammation

a) multiplication of the number of goblet cells in the main bronchus of a smoker c) proliferative endometrial glands in patients on estrogen therapy d) hyperkeratotis skin in patient with psoriasis

For which of the following tumors is characteristics of "arrayed" cores: a) neurilemom (schwannoma) b) neuroblastoma c) ganglioneuroma d) neurofibroma e) neurofibrosarcoma

a) neurilemom (schwannoma)

Which pair of answers are correct: a) neutrophils - chemotaxis b) erythrocytes - active penetration of the vascular wall c) eosinophils - drug reactions d) macrophages - mast cells arise from macrophages

a) neutrophils - chemotaxis c) eosinophils - drug reactions

Which of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma? a) nodular sclerosis b) mixed cellularity c) the form with the depletion of lymphocytes d) the lymphocyte-rich form

a) nodular sclerosis

33. Schwannoma and *: a) nuclear palisading b) location in the cerebrellopontine angle c) infiltrative growth d) tumor of the peripheral nerve

a) nuclear palisading b) location in the cerebrellopontine angle d) tumor of the peripheral nerve

Which of the following factor does NOT affect the selection process for the most appropriate location for the founding of tumor cell metastasis: a) ploidy of tumor cells b) compatibility of the tumor and tissue where tumor metastasizes c) lymphatic drainage from the places of primary tumor d) venous drainage of the places of primary tumor e) vascular anatomy of the organ where metastases are secondary post

a) ploidy of tumor cells

Which of the following predicated on viral oncogenesis invoke oncoviruses NOT: a) responsible for most human cancers b) some virus proteins being structurally similar growth factors c) Viruses represent some proteins structurally similar to receptors for growth factors d) all homologous oncogenes onkornaviru correspond (structural relatives) gene in normal cells e) some oncogenes are mutated versions onkornaviru structurally related gene normal cells

a) responsible for most human cancers

85. Gonococcal infections causes a) septic inflammation b) non-infected inflammation c) only affects the urogenital tract d) may affect joints, meninges and heart valves

a) septic inflammation d) may affect joints, meninges and heart valves

All of the following statements about macrophages are correct except a. They contain azurophilic granules b. They stimulate fibroblast proliferation c. They stimulate endothelial proliferation d. They release lytic enzymes to their surrounding environment e. They present antigen

They contain azurophilic granules (nooo, they do not) Known as "primary granules" Neutrophils in particular are known for containing azurophils loaded with a wide variety of anti-microbial defensins that fuse with phagocytic vacuoles. Azurophils may contain myeloperoxidase, phospholipase A2, Acid Hydrolases, Elastase, defensins, neutral serine proteases, bactericidal/permeability-increasing protein, lysozyme, cathepsin G, proteinase 3, and proteoglycans.

Info about niemann pick :

This disease involves dysfunctional metabolism of sphingolipids, which are fats found in cell membranes, so it is a kind of sphingolipidosis. Sphingolipidoses, in turn, are included in the larger family of lysosomal storage diseases.

Cause of glycogensosis type 1?

This genetic disease results from deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase

What is enterobius?

Threadworm Roundworm Causes itching in anal area Called the human pinworm

Fibrin production are connected to the actions of a. The complement system b. Activated macrophages c. Thrombins d. Fibroblasts e. Plasma cells

Thrombins

Buerger disease ?

Thromboangitis obliterans Affect smokers(!!!) , autoimmune (hypersens to tobacco products). Thrombosing acute and chronic inflammation, esp radial and tibial aa. Can extend to veins and nerves. Impaired vasodilation. Ischemia. Amputation of extremities.

All of the following symptoms are main signs of inflammation except a. Pain b. Swelling c. Reddening d. Increased temperature e. Thrombosis

Thrombosis

Which of the following infectious agents can cause thrush in children a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Clonorchis sinensis d. Candida albicans e. Giardia lamblia

Thrush is an infection of the mouth caused by the candida fungus, also known as yeast. white, cottage cheese like lesions in your mouth. More common at certain areas

Macrophages produce all of the following mediators except a. Growth factors b. Cytokines c. Metalloproteinases d. Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMPs) e. Free radicals

Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases

When would we want to use von Kossa stain?

To color the calcium deposits!

For which of the following purposes are immunohistochemistry inappropriate a. To identify histogenetic causes of neoplasms b. To identify enzyme activity c. Identification of tissue-specific markers of neoplasms d. Detection of hormones and their receptors e. Detection of auto-antibodies

To identify enzyme activity

During degradation of hemoglobin, iron is transported a. To the liver b. To the spleen c. To the bone marrow d. To the kidneys e. None of the answers are correct

To the liver On the course test both Spleen and Bone marrow were correct answers as well.

Richter transformation/syndrome

Transformation from CLL/SLL --> Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

What is the defect in Niemann Pick disease type C ?

Transport of lipids

During autopsy of a 80-year-old man without known genetic disease, there were found subtle deposits of amyloid in the heart. There were not found amyloid deposits in any of the other organs and the patient did not have a history of any chronic inflammatory conditions. What will be the most likely composition of the amyloid a. Amyloid-associated protein (AAP) b. Light-chain immunoglobulins c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. Transthyretin e. Beta-2-amyloid

Transthyretin (it has a normal structure, it's just deposited due to old age) (senile systemic amyloidosis)

Wharton Starry

Treponema Pallidum, H. Pylori, Campylobacter

What is Treponema pallidum?

Treponema pallidum is a spirochaete bacterium with subspecies that cause treponemal diseases such as syphilis, bejel, pinta and yaws.

- Grocott stain is used for detection of yeast.

True

- Metaplasia is a change in cell differentiation.

True

- PAS stain is used for yeast.

True

- Smooth muscle is stained yellow in van Gieson.

True

Calcium in tissue indirectly visualize ionic bonds of silver to phosphate

True

Fixation of testicular tissue is best performed with Bouin fixative

True

For FACS (Fluorescent activated cell sorting) it`s necessary to have tissue that is not fixated/native

True

For fixation of urate crystals the best option is alcohol fixation

True

Pleomorphic adenomas are common in salicary glands

True

Pleomorphic adenomas are common in salivary glands

True

Statement: Dystrophic calcification is frequently present in oligodendroglioma.

True

The speed of permeation of formaldehyde to tissue is about 1 mm/hour

True :)

116. For which of the following diseases are caseous necrosis typical a. Acute myocardial infarct b. TBC c. Acute pancreatitis d. Cerebral infarct e. Pulmonary pneumoconiosis

Tuberculosis

Which adencarcinoma microscopic form is most common?

Tubular type

If one identifies numerous eosinophilic granulocytes and mast cells in an inflammatory infiltrate, which type of inflammatory (hypersensitivity reaction) is this most likely a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV e. Type V

Type 1 - is an allergic reaction provoked by reexposure to a specific type of antigen referred to as an allergen

What can we use silver stain for?

Type III collagen and reticulin

The essence of ochronosis is a metabolic defect of a. Tyrosine b. Phenylalanine c. Melanin d. Alanine e. Purines

Tyrosine (blue black discolorisation - macroscopically yellow - microscopically)

Which of the following factors does not result in delayed or completely missing wound healing? A) Ionizing radiation B) Lack of protein C) UV-radiation D) Lack of vitamin C E) Lack of zinc

UV-radiation

Schloffer tumor a. Variant of granuloma from foreign bodies b. Metastasis of mucin-producing adenocarcinoma to ovary c. Renal clear cell carcinoma d. Diffuse adenocarcinoma of the stomach e. Ulcus rodens (basal cell carcinoma) localized in the temporal region

Variant of granuloma from foreign bodies Is described as an uncommon pseudo-tumor of the abdominal wall that usually appears several years after abdominal surgery. Schloffer tumor is a granulomatous connective tissue tumor, caused by a chronic inflammatory response. The tumor may occur after, for example, appendicitis to the abdominal wall. Usually it is a so-called Talkumgranulom or a reaction to surgical sutures left ("Nahtgranulom"). (from german wiki)

Which of the following features/phenomena are associated with acute inflammation a. Vasoconstriction b. Vasodilation c. Infarct d. Hemolysis e. Edema

Vasodilation and vasoconstriction Edema

Norwalk and rota virus. - Disease? - Norwal - children or adults - Rota virus - children or adults?

Viral gastroenteritis. o Diarrhea without blood or pus. o Fever, vomiting. o Rotavirus is in infants. o Norwalk are in adults.

For which of the following diseases is apoptosis the main mechanism of injury a. Brown atrophy of the liver b. Alcoholic injury of the liver c. Overdose of barbiturates d. Acute pancreatitis e. Viral hepatitis

Viral hepatitis

Info: Lipomatosis:

Virchow's metamorphosis, lipomatosis in the heart and salivary glands Accumulation of fat in ADIPOCYTES!!! Different from steatosis, which is fat accumulation in other cells (like hepatocytes)

Which of the following clinically associated manifestations and increased deposits of pigment or other compound are incorrectly matched a. CCl4 poisoning - Fat b. Hemolytic anemia - Bilirubin c. Hereditary hemochromatosis - Hemosiderin d. Atrophy of hepatocytes and myocytes - Lipofuscin e. Vitiligo - Melanin

Vitiligo - melanin (decrease, not increase)

What is the common name for glycogenosis type I ?

Von Gierkes disease most common glycogen storage disease

Which of the following statements about lipofuscin are correct a. We can detect it in atrophied organs b. Its amount declines with age c. Its toxic for cells. Its high levels cause cell death d. Usually it originates in the process of coagulation necrosis e. It can be stained by Preussian blue

We can detect it in atrophic organs Not toxic, no iron(prussian blue), increases with age

Which statements are correct about glycogenosis type I a. It's an acquired defect of metabolism b. It manifests until the 3rd decade of life c. We find atrophy of the brain d. We find amyloid in the cells of Langerhans e. We find marked enlargement of the liver and brain

We find marked enlargement of the liver and brain ---> Vernerova - Not correct ?? :)

Which of the following is/are true of B and T lymphocytes? a) the ratio of B:T cells = 65:35 b) T lymphocytes produce IgE c) a small lymphocyte is a final stage cell, which cannot transform d) B lymphocytes provide humoral and T lymphocytes cellular immunity

d) B lymphocytes provide humoral and T lymphocytes cellular immunity

Which claim is true of retrovirus (oncogenic RNA virus) who are in no oncogene: a) Cells can not go transform b) Cells transform faster than its counterparts bearing oncogenes c) transformations is necessary for co-infection with oncogenic DNA virus d) Cells can transform, while it is advertising to its proximity to important cellular gene e) They include EBV virus

d) Cells can transform, while it is advertising to its proximity to important cellular gene

Which of the following statements is/are not true of plasmacytoma? a) it is often accompanied by amyloid deposition b) it is often accompanied by paraproteinuria c) belongs among B-NHL d) Creates osteplastic metastasis

d) Creates osteplastic metastasis

Which of the following cytoskeletal protein is present in malignant epithelial tumors in different sites of the human body? a) Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) b) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) c) Desmins d) Cytokeratin e) Vimentin

d) Cytokeratin

Which of the following causes of edema is associated with the nephrotic syndrome? a) Reduced hydrostatic pressure b) Increased oncotic pressure c) Water and sodium retention d) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure e) Increased hydrostatic pressure

d) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

Under what circumstances occur air embolism? a) In the state of weighnessless b) Carbon monoxide poisoning c) During rapid descend under the surface d) During rapid ascend to the surface e) With fast release of oxygen from blood in the form of bubbles

d) During rapid ascend to the surface

Extensive edema of the whole body is most common seen in a) Lymphatic obstruction b) Damaged capillaries c) Inflammation d) Hypoalbuminemia e) Angiogenesis

d) Hypoalbuminemia

Which of the following is a transcription factor mediator: a) Rb b) WT-1 c) Abl d) Myc e) Ras

d) Myc

Characteristics of neurogenic, septic, and cardiogenic shock: a) Excellent prognosis if treated b) Need blood transfusion c) Peripheral vasodilation in early stages d) Normal circulatory blood volume in early stages e) Increased urine output

d) Normal circulatory blood volume in early stages

61. What disease is not caused by exotoxin action: a) diphtheria b) tetanus c) botulism d) Pseudomonas sepsis

d) Pseudomonas sepsis Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common bacterium that can cause disease in animals, including humans. It is citrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. It is found in soil, water, skin flora, and most man-made environments throughout the world. It thrives not only in normal atmospheres, but also in hypoxic atmospheres, and has, thus, colonized many natural and artificial environments. It uses a wide range of organic material for food; in animals, its versatility enables the organism to infect damaged tissues or those with reduced immunity. The symptoms of such infections are generalized inflammation and sepsis. If such colonizations occur in critical body organs, such as the lungs, the urinary tract, and kidneys, the results can be fata

Which of the following protein(s) is/are affected in the tumor transformation caused by HPV? a) Src b) Ras c) Bcl-2 d) Rb e) Desmin

d) Rb

Growth factor produced by certain tumor cells that has the same receptor as epidermal growth factor (EGF) is called: a) PDGF (platelet derived growth factor) b) TGF beta (tumor growth factor beta) c) IGF (insulin-like growth factor) d) TGF alpha (Transforming growth factor) e) TNF (tumor necrosis factor)

d) TGF alpha (Transforming growth factor)

In wound healing the initial source of growth factors is/are: a) blood plasma b) granulation tissue c) fibroblasts d) activated macrophages e) activated neutrophils

d) activated macrophages

71. What is true of germinal tumors? a) occur only in the gonads b) are always malignant c) includes hamartomas d) are derived from germ cells

d) are derived form germ cells - Germinal tumors: a germ cell tumor (GCT) is a neoplasm derived from germ cells. - Germ cell tumors can be cancerous or non-cancerous tumors. Germ cells normally occur inside the gonads (ovary and testis). - Despite their name, germ cell tumors occur both within and outside the ovary and testis - Hamartomas: a benign, focal malformation that resembles a neoplasm in the tissue of its origin. This is not a malignant tumor, and it grows at the same rate as the surrounding tissues. They result from an abnormal formation of normal tissue.

Which of the following direction of embolism is/are least likely to appear? a) artery - artery b) vein - vein c) heart - artery d) artery - vein

d) artery - vein

Which of the following ways of metastasis DOES NOT exist: a) porogenni b) hematogenous c) lymphogenous d) autogenous e) implantation metastasis

d) autogenous

9. Dermatitis herpetiformis can be associated with: a) herpes simplex labialis b) primary sclerosing cholangitis c) Crohn's disease d) celiac sprue (disease of small intestine causing malabsorbtion of food in particular)

d) celiac sprue (disease of small intestine causing malabsorbtion of food in particular) It is a chronic blistering skin condition, characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, DH is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes

86. Salmonella typhi abdominalis causes a) dysentery b) cholera nostras c) spotted typhus d) changes in lymphoid tissue of the small intestine

d) changes in lymphoid tissue of the small intestine

Chorionic gonadotropin is used for monitoring: a) Wilms tumor b) endometrial cancer c) seminoma d) choriocarcinoma e) embryonal carcinoma

d) choriocarcinoma

Great splenomegaly is a prominent feature, especially in? a) acute lymphoblastic leukemia b) acute myeloid leukemia c) acute myelomonocytic leukemia d) chronic myeloid leukemia

d) chronic myeloid leukemia

Which statement most accurately defines mechanism of shock a) result from bleeding b) it is an insufficiency of the circulatory system, with insufficient supply of the periphery c) circulatory insufficiency caused by heart failure d) circulatory insufficiency caused by mismatch between cardiac output and peripheral requirements e) it is a consequence of peripheral acidosis

d) circulatory insufficiency caused by mismatch between cardiac output and peripheral requirements

Which of the following changes is related to the presence of components in invasive malignant tumors: a) dysplasia b) metaplasia c) hperplasia d) desmoplasia e) anaplasia

d) desmoplasia

Which of the following statements applies to the process of regeneration? a) regeneration is limited to tissue with a permanent cell population b) regeneration includes the activation of receptors, but not of transcription factors c) regeneration indicates the proliferation of healing through stromal element d) regeneration occurs in the tissues formed of labile and stable cell populations e) regeneration is assosiated with scarring

d) regeneration occurs in the tissues formed of labile and stable cell populations labile: Open to change

3. Which of the following risk factors is not a risk factor of atherosclerosis? a) smoking cigarettes b) hypertension c) hypercholesterolemia d) renal disease in the family history

d) renal disease in the family history

Which of the following factor do NOT have relationship to the process of invasion and metastasis of malignant tumors: a) tumor cell surface receptors for laminin b) properties of tumor cells to bind to platelets c) production of proteolytic enzyme d) serum lactate dehydrogenase e) angiogenesis

d) serum lactate dehydrogenase

18. Which of the following is/are true of brown atrophy? a) numerical atrophy secondary to connective tissue proliferation b) accumulation of hemosiderin in the cells, leading to their atrophy c) the accumulation of lipofuscin in atrophic interstitium of damaged organs d) the intracellular accumulation of lipofuscin

d) the intracellular accumulation of lipofuscin A brownish tissue discolouration caused by lipofuscin ("ageing" pigment) deposition in certain organs—e.g., heart, liver, and others—which may occur in older individuals. Organs affected by brown atrophy are small and flabby

Which of the following is/are true of pathological immune reactions I. type? a) local contact symptoms include dermatitis b) IgE binds to eosinophils and cause their degranulation c) causes only local symptoms such as hay fever d) the main change is histamine released from mast cells

d) the main change is histamine released from mast cells

17. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is characterized by: a) the proliferation of mature peripheral lymphocytes b) the proliferation of neoplastic histiocytes c) to proliferation of myeloblasts d) the proliferation of tumor elements with the phenotype of progenitor cells

d) the proliferation of tumor elements with the phenotype of progenitor cells Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or acute lymphoid leukemia is an acute form of leukemia, or cancer of the white blood cells, characterized by the overproduction of cancerous, immature white blood cells—known as lymphoblasts. In persons with ALL, lymphoblasts are overproduced in the bone marrow and continuously multiply, causing damage and death by inhibiting the production of normal cells—such as red and white blood cells and platelets—in the bone marrow and by spreading (infiltrating) to other organs. ALL is most common in childhood.

11. For pulmonary embolism does not apply: a) it is usually clinically silent b) the result is cor pulmonale c) it affects women using hormonal contraception d) the pulmonary infarction results in every time

d) the pulmonary infarction results in every time Pulmonary heart disease, also known as Cor pulmonale (Latin cor, heart + of the lungs) is the enlargement and failure of the right ventricle of the heart as a response to increased vascular resistance or high blood pressure in the lungs (pulmonary hypertension)

70. What is true of metaplasia: a) a change in cell differentiation (Not change in differenciation, only in the epithelium) b) it is merely a change of cell proliferation c) it is a change in epithelial cell differentiation only d) the result is the formation of differentiated cells of another type than the original type

d) the result is the formation of differentiated cells of another type than the original type

Early metastasis in lymph nodes are found in: a) the hilum b) the central sinuses c) the follicles d) the subcapsular sinuses e) pouzdru

d) the subcapsular sinuses

73. The fragmentative bone fractures: a) there is no fat embolism b) there is no cellular embolism c) there can be a thrombotic embolism d) there can be a cellular and thrombotic embolism

d) there can be a cellular and thrombotic embolism

Known as intravital blood clot formation in the arteries or veins a) congestion b) emboli c) hemorrhage d) thrombosis e) infarct

d) thrombosis

Example of retrograde emboli is a) thombus travelled from femoral artery to cerebral artery b) loss of autonomous control of heart activity c) released from left atrium sweeping into hepatic vein d) thrombus from IVC sweeping into hepatic vein e) thrombus from femoral vein sweeping into the pulmonary artery

d) thrombus from IVC sweeping into hepatic vein In retrograde embolism, however, the emboli move in opposition to the blood flow direction; this is usually significant only in blood vessels with low pressure (veins) or with emboli of high weight

Which of the following polyps are most likely to transform into a malignant tumor? a) hyperplastic polyp b) juvenile polyp c) Peutz-Jeghers polyp d) villous adenoma

d) villous adenoma

25. In which polyp is the malignant transformation most often? a) tubular adenoma b) juvenile polyp c) hyperplastic polyp d) villous adenoma

d) villous adenoma Juvenile polyposis syndrome is a syndrome characterized by the appearance of multiple juvenile polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. Polyps are abnormal growths arising from a mucous membrane.

61. Metastasis always occurs: a) when a pathological process penetrates into blood vessels b) when a pathological process penetrates into lymph vessels c) when a pathological process spread into surrounding tissues d) when a pathological process secondarily settles in locations remote from the original site

d) when a pathological process secondarily settles in locations remote from the original site -Metastasis: is the spread of a cancer or disease from one organ or part to another not directly connected with it.

Schiller-Duvall bodies are found in: a) embryonal carcinoma b) embryonal rhabdomyesarcoma c) medulloblastoma d) yolk sac tumor e) nephroblastoma

d) yolk sac tumor

The secondary stage of syphilis is not characterized by a. Fever b. Lymphadenopathy c. Skin rashes d. Aortitis e. Spirochetes on dark-field microscopy

d- Aortitis

Which of the following are the main factors causing an increase in the size of chronic abscesses a. Multiplication of the causative bacteria b. Formation of semipermeable membranes on its periphery c. Continued tissue necrosis d. Absorption of fluid from newly formed capillaries in its periphery e. Gas from anaerobic microorganisms

d. Absorption of fluid from newly formed capillaries in its periphery

Which of the following characteristics are not typical for catarrhal inflammations a. Hyperproduction of mucus b. Little alterating part of inflammation c. Presence of sporadic granulocytes in the exudate d. Accumulation of macrophages in the tissue e. Mucosal edema

d. Accumulation of macrophages in the tissue

We find chrysocyanosis a. After tissue injury from tattoos b. In chronic lead or antimony poisoning c. After longer administration of silver d. After administration of colloid gold e. In industrial workers exposed to tin

d. After administration of colloid gold

Which of the following infectious agents cause tetanus: a. S. pyogenes b. C. perfringens c. C. botulinum d. C. tetani e. C. difficile

d. C. tetani

Which of the following cell types are capable of killing, induced by Fas-Fas ligand interactions a. Basophils b. Macrophages c. Neutrophils d. CD8+ T-lymphocytes e. CD4+ T-lymphocytes

d. CD8+ T-lymphocytes

Which of the following metal`s vapour cause acute pulmonary edema a. Arsenic b. Nickel c. Lead d. Cadmium e. Mercury

d. Cadmium

Which of the following metal`s vapour cause acute pulmonary edema: a. Arsenic b. Nickel c. Lead d. Cadmium e. Mercury

d. Cadmium

107. Which of the following infectious agents can cause thrush in children a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Clonorchis sinensis d. Candida albicans e. Giardia lamblia

d. Candida albicans

Which of the following infectious agents cause blindness a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia ricketsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

d. Chlamydia trachomatis

Which of the following infectious agents cause blindness a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia ricketsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

d. Chlamydia trachomatis Via Pannus formation

Which of the following susbstances typically produce hlatě nonpainful brouskovité krystaly (Vernerova couldn't give a english translation as they apparently didn't use this description in english litterature anymore a. Urate sodium b. Calcium oxalate c. Cysteine d. Cholesterol e. Oxalate

d. Cholesterol

In the active invasion and bacteremic phases of typhus we can find Salmonella typhi in all of the following organs except a. Terminal ileum b. Lymph nodes in the mesentery c. Liver d. Esophagus e. Blood

d. Esophagus

In the active invasion and bacteremic phases of typhus we can find Salmonella typhi in all of the following organs except: a. Terminal ileum b. Lymph nodes in the mesentery c. Liver d. Esophagus e. Blood

d. Esophagus

Cholera is characteristic as: a. Mucosal ulcerations of the small intestine b. Granulomas under Peyer's patches c. Cryptal abscesses of the large intestine d. Extensive watery diarrhea e. Peritonitis

d. Extensive watery diarrhea

Cholera is characteristic as a. Mucosal ulcerations of the small intestine b. Granulomas under Peyer's patches c. Cryptal abscesses of the large intestine d. Extensive watery diarrhea e. Peritonitis

d. Extensive watery diarrhea no bacterial invasion, no prominent mucosal damage Catarrhal enteritis (cryptal abscess - crohns disease)

Which of the following terms don`t belong to steatosis from lysosomal dysfunction a. Tigered effect on the heart b. Green Amanita/Amanita phalloides mushroom poisoning c. Phosphorous intoxication d. Gangliosidosis e. Starvation

d. Gangliosidosis

What is the most common form of the primary infection of Herpes simplex virus a. Keratitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Encephalitis d. Gingivostomatitis e. Hepatitis

d. Gingivostomatitis

What is the most common form of the primary infection of Herpes simplex virus: a. Keratitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Encephalitis d. Gingivostomatitis e. Hepatitis

d. Gingivostomatitis Also known as primary herpetic gingivostomatitis or orolabial herpes: is a combination of gingivitis and stomatitis (inflam.of mouth and lips), or an inflammation of the oral mucosa and gingiva. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first ("primary") herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.

Phagocytosis is facilitated by a. Hyaluronidase b. Neuraminidase c. Hexose-monophosphate shunt d. Immunoglobulins e. Complement factors

d. Immunoglobulins e. Complement factors

109. Which of the following statements about CMV infections are not true a. Most of the adult population are seropositive b. CMV can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus c. Most congenital infections are asymptomatic d. In patients with AIDS it most often cause encephalitis e. Infected cells are strikingly enlarged

d. In patients with AIDS it most often cause encephalitis

Which of the following statements about CMV infections are not true a. Most of the adult population are seropositive b. CMV can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus c. Most congenital infections are asymptomatic d. In patients with AIDS it most often cause encephalitis e. Infected cells are strikingly enlarged

d. In patients with AIDS it most often cause encephalitis

What is the most likely cause of an AIDS patient not being able to produce granulomas in tissues infected by Mycobacterium tuberculosis a. Clonal deletion of the T-lymphocytes that react with the mycobacterial antigen b. Decreased production of TNF-alpha by macrophages c. Inability of T-lymphocytes to work like helper cells for B-lymphocytes d. Inability of T-lymphocytes to attract and immobilize monocytes e. Decreased phagocytic activity of macrophages

d. Inability of T-lymphocytes to attract and immobilize monocytes

Septic granulomatosis (Chronic granulomatous disease) are caused by a. Congenital defect of the complement system with the gene located on chromosome Y b. Chronic toxoplasmosis infection c. Superoxide dismutase defect d. Inability of the macrophages to destroy the phagocytosed bacteria e. Immune defect with hyperplasia of the thymus and deficiency of T-lymphocytes

d. Inability of the macrophages to destroy the phagocytosed bacteria (cells can't form superoxide (or the most toxic ROS) leading to formation of granulomas in many tissues) They form when the body has trouble breaking down substances, they want to "wall off" the pathogen)

Which of the following statements about steatosis are correct a. Every metabolic defect related to lipid metabolism can manifest as steatosis b. Steatosis is defined as accumulation of fat in any type of cell c. The occurrence of lipid in cells is always a pathologic condition d. It`s an accumulation of lipids intracellularly in the form of lipid-drop aggregates e. Lipomatosis of the myocardium is an example of steatosis

d. It`s an accumulation of lipids intracellularly in the form of lipid-drop aggregates

Which of the following tumor is NOT malignant? a. Glioblastoma b. Lymphoma c. Melanoma d. Leiomyoma e. Medulloblastoma

d. Leiomyoma

90. Which finding can we expect to find in the stool of patients with shigellosis a. Multiple basophils b. Multiple mononuclear cells c. None or only sporadic leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells

Which finding can we expect to find in the stool of patients with shigellosis a. Multiple basophils b. Multiple mononuclear cells c. None or only sporadic leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells

83. Which of the following organisms don't cause acute inflammation a. Streptococcus pneumonia b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Neisseria meningitides d. Mycobacterium leprae e. Borrelia vincenti

d. Mycobacterium leprae

Which of the following organisms don't cause acute inflammation a. Streptococcus pneumonia b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Neisseria meningitides d. Mycobacterium leprae e. Borrelia vincenti

d. Mycobacterium leprae

A 4-year-old boy with recurrent infections with S. aureus and failure of the respiratory burst most likely has a. Defect of spectrin of the cell membrane b. Defect of polymerization of microtubules c. IgG deficiency d. NADPH oxidase deficiency e. Myeloperoxidase deficiency

d. NADPH oxidase deficiency (part of the system of formation of ROS)

Inflammatory reactions a. Differ completely from immune reactions b. Chemotaxis acts only on lymphocytes and macrophages c. Macrophages participates always only in the last phase of inflammation d. Neutrophils participates mainly in the inflammatory reactions caused by bacteria e. Leukocytes participates always in the last phase of inflammation

d. Neutrophils participates mainly in the inflammatory reactions caused by bacteria

Which vitamin deficiency presents with dementia, skin manifestations, and diarrhea a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Folic acid deficiency d. Niacin deficiency e. Pyridoxine deficiency

d. Niacin deficiency

Which vitamin deficiency presents with dementia, skin manifestations, and diarrhea: a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Folic acid deficiency d. Niacin deficiency e. Pyridoxine deficiency

d. Niacin deficiency = Vit.B3

Which of the following cell types are associated with tuberculosis a. Mikulicz cells b. Langerhans cells c. Virchow cells d. Orth cells e. Langhans cells

d. Orthov cells e. Langhans cells Orth cells = macrophages containing mycobacteria (NOTE: This is a specific term used ONLY in meningitis.

121. Which infectious disease are not connected with a granulomatous reaction a. TBC b. Coccidioidomycosis c. Schistosomiasis d. Rabies e. Tuberculoid type of leprosy

d. Rabies

Which of the following diseases are not caused by bacteria: a. Tularemia b. Tetanus c. Plague d. Rabies e. Bacillary dysentery

d. Rabies Rabies is a viral disease that causes acute inflammation of the brain in humans and other warm-blooded animals. Early symptoms can include fever and tingling at the site of exposure. These symptoms are followed by one or more of the following symptoms: violent movements, uncontrolled excitement, fear of water, an inability to move parts of the body, confusion, and loss of consciousness

What are examples of lipomatosis a. Aggregations of cholesterol in macrophages b. Aggregations of neutral fat in hepatocytes during alcoholic liver damage c. Digestion of adipose tissue of the peritoneum during acute necrotic pancreatitis d. The presence of adipocytes between muscle fibers of the right ventricle of the heart e. Hyperlipidemia during nephrotic syndrome

d. The presence of adipocytes between muscle fibers of the right ventricle of the heart

Why are cells undergoing ischemic necrosis more eosinophilic?

due to protein denaturation proteins usually stain eosinophilic, so maybe they just become even more susceptible when they denaturate?

Which of the following substances/cells are essential for degranulation of basophils and mast cells during anaphylactic shock a. Arylsulfatase b. Eosinophilic granulocytes c. IgA and its specific antigen d. IgM and its specific antigen e. IgE and its specific antigen

e - IgE and it's specific antigen

Clostridium can cause all of the following manifestations except a. Necrotizing enteritis b. Necrosis of skeletal muscle c. Generalized muscle spasms d. Cranial nerve palsies e. Cerebral abscesses

e - cerebral abscesses wrong: A - post antibiotic clostridium infection/pseudomembranous ulcerative colitis D - can produce botulinum toxin --> nerve palsy C - can produce tetanus toxin --> muscle spasms B - can cause necrotizing myositis

Granuloma formation is most often associated with a. Acute inflammation b. Healing on secondary intention c. Wound contraction d. Fibrinous exudate e. Poorly digestible pathogenic organisms

e - poorly digestible pathogenic organisms

Basement membrane and/or extracellular matrix is composed of all of the following components, except a. Collagen type IV b. Collagen type III c. Laminin d. Fibronectin e. Lamin

e : Lamin

In yolk sac tumors, it can be useful to monitor: a) CA 125 b) CEA(carcinoembryonal antigen) c) hCG d) alkaline phosphatase e) alpha-fetoprotein

e) alpha-fetoprotein

DOES NOT belong among mixed tumors: a) angiolipoma b) fibroadenoma c) adenosarcoma d) carcinosarcoma e) dermoid cyst of the ovary

e) dermoid cyst of the ovary

What is Schloffer tumour? a) diffuse metastasic carcinoma to the ovaries (?) b) hormonal activ tumour of the hypophysis c) bronchogenic carcinoma of the lung apex in growing sympathetic (?) d) designation metastasis of any tumour to the adrenals e) inflammatory pseudotumour

e) inflammatory pseudotumour ( an uncommon pseudo-tumor of the abdominal wall that usually appears several years after abdominal surgery.) Statements about foreign body granulomas are usually true as well..

The most important properties which determine whether or not malignant epithelial tumors, is/are: a) positive tumor markers in the blood b) number of mitoses c) nuclear hyperchromazie d) high nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio e) invasive growth

e) invasive growth

The following can be applied for hypertrophy: a) affects only permanent tissue b) it's kind of numerical atrophy c) only affects the entire organ d) is a synonym for hyperplasia e) is the enlargement of tissues or organs as a result of enlargement of cells

e) is the enlargement of tissues or organs as a result of enlargement of cells

Cell hypertrophy is associated with / characterized by: a) decrease in blood supplie b) eventually leads to necrosis c) reduced apoptosis d) increaced cell proliferation e) proliferation of cell organelles

e) proliferation of cell organelles

Which of the following manifestations are not seen in epidemic typhus a. Rickettsia in endothelial cells b. Fibrinous thrombi in small blood vessels c. Vasculitis d. Typhoid nodules from mononuclear elements e. Abscesses

e. Abscesses

Which of the following manifestations are not seen in epidemic typhus a. Rickettsia in endothelial cells b. Fibrinous thrombi in small blood vessels c. Vasculitis d. Typhoid nodules from mononuclear elements e. Abscesses

e. Abscesses

Which of the following types of neoplasms are caused by arsenic during prolonged exposure a. Skin neoplasms b. Carinoma of the breast c. Acute leukemia d. Colorectal carcinoma e. Angiosarcoma of the liver

e. Angiosarcoma of the liver

Which of the following types of neoplasms are caused by arsenic during prolonged exposure: a. Skin neoplasms b. Carinoma of the breast c. Acute leukemia d. Colorectal carcinoma e. Angiosarcoma of the liver

e. Angiosarcoma of the liver Excretion occurs in the urine and long-term exposure to arsenic has been linked to bladder and kidney cancer in addition to cancer of the liver, prostate, skin, lungs, and nasal cavity

Which of the following infectious agents most frequently cause asymptomatic helminthic infections: a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Trichinella spiralis c. Cryptosporidium d. Candida albicans e. Ascaris lumbricoides

e. Ascaris lumbricoides - Ascaris lumbricoides: giant roundworm of humans, growing to a length of up to 35 cm - Helminthic infections: parasitic worms - They are often referred to as intestinal worms even though not all helminths reside in the intestines; for example Schistosomes (causing the disease schistosomiasis) are not intestinal worms, but rather a helminth which resides in blood vessels. Helminths belong to the group of intestinal parasites (the other type of intestinal parasite are the protozoa)

Which of the following infectious agents most frequently cause asymptomatic helminthic infections a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Trichinella spiralis c. Cryptosporidium d. Candida albicans e. Ascaris lumbricoides

e. Ascaris lumbricoides - Giant roundworm Remember; helminth = parasite Aspergillus + Candida are fungus Cryptosporidium is not helminth Are parasitic worms, are large multicellular organisms, which when mature can generally be seen with the naked eye. They are often referred to as intestinal worms even though not all helminths reside in the intestines; for example Schistosomes are not intestinal worms, but rather resides in blood vessels. Ascaris lumbricoides is the giant roundworm of humans, growing to a length of up to 35 cm.

116. Which of the following pathogens cause infection by transmitting spores to the skin and lungs a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Vibrio cholera c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Yersinia entercolitica e. Bacillus anthracis

e. Bacillus anthracis

Which of the following pathogens cause infection by transmitting spores to the skin and lungs a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Vibrio cholera c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Yersinia entercolitica e. Bacillus anthracis

e. Bacillus anthracis

Clostridium can cause all of the following manifestations except: a. Necrotizing enteritis b. Necrosis of skeletal muscle c. Generalized muscle spasms d. Cranial nerve palsies e. Cerebral abscesses

e. Cerebral abscesses

Which of the following infectious agents cause pseudomembranous enterocolitis a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Clostridium difficile

e. Clostridium difficile

Which of the following infectious agents cause pseudomembranous enterocolitis: a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Clostridium difficile

e. Clostridium difficile

Perisplenitis cartilaginea is an example of a. Fibrinoid transformation of connective tissue b. Transparent transformation of connective tissue c. Myxoid transformation of connective tissue d. Hyaline transformation of connective tissue e. Fibrous transformation of connective tissue

e. Fibrous transformation of connective tissue

Deficiency of which vitamin can cause megaloblastic anemia during administration of antineoplastic drugs or antiepileptic drugs: a. B1/Thiamine b. B12 c. B2/Riboflavin d. Pyridoxine e. Folic acid

e. Folic acid An anemia (of macrocytic classification) that results from inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. When DNA synthesis is impaired, the cell cycle cannot progress from the G2 growth stage to the mitosis (M) stage. This leads to continuing cell growth without division, which presents as macrocytosis. The defect in red cell DNA synthesis is most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically a deficiency of vitamin B12 and/or folic acid.

Anemia in a pregnant female is most often caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Niacin deficiency e. Folic acid deficiency

e. Folic acid deficiency

Anemia in a pregnant female is most often caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins: a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Niacin deficiency e. Folic acid deficiency

e. Folic acid deficiency

108. Which of the following diseases are not usually transmitted by bites of arthropods or other insect vectors a. Cutaneous leishmaniasis b. Infection of Plasmodium falciparum c. African trypanosomiasis d. American trypanosomiasis e. Giardiasis

e. Giardiasis

X-ray of a patient with chronic cough reveals well-confined spherical foci in the upper lung lobe. Histologically the foci produces a necrotic center surrounded by macrophages, a small amount of lymphocytes and scattered multinuclear giant cells. What is the most likely diagnosis a. Amyloidosis b. Abscess c. Pulmonary infarct d. Fibrinous exudate e. Granuloma

e. Granuloma

Which of the following findings don't belong to the clinical picture of congenital syphilis: a. Pneumonia alba b. ''Flint stone'' liver c. Osteochondritis d. Hutschinson triad e. Gumma

e. Gumma A gumma is a soft, non-cancerous growth resulting from the tertiary stage of syphilis. It is a form of granuloma. Gummas are most commonly found in the liver (gumma hepatis), but can also be found in brain, heart, skin, bone, testis, and other tissues, leading to a variety of potential problems including neurological disorders or heart valve disease.

Which of the following microorganisms dont belong among the protozoa a. Giardia lamblia b. Isospora belli c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Plasmodium malariae e. Histoplasma capsulatum

e. Histoplasma capsulatum Fungus!

Which of the following microorganisms dont belong among the protozoa: a. Giardia lamblia b. Isospora belli c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Plasmodium malariae e. Histoplasma capsulatum

e. Histoplasma capsulatum - dimorphic fungi!

Among paraneoplastic syndromes include all the following states, EXCEPT: a. Dermatomyositis b. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) c. Hypercalcemia d. Peripheral neuropathy e. Hormonal effect of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

e. Hormonal effect of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Which of the following statements are correct a. Caseous necrosis is a typical cause of tissue ischemia b. Amyloid exhibits light green birefringence after staining with Berlin blue c. Post-mortem autolysis is characteristic for the vital reaction (inflammation) to necrotic cells d. Russel bodies are produced predominantly by ubiquitination e. Hyaline in the dye blue trichrome stains blue, like collagen in connective tissue

e. Hyaline in the dye blue trichrome stains blue, like collagen in connective tissue

In which way does viruses cause cell death by an indirect cytopathic mechanism: a. Injury to DNA b. Injury to RNA c. Injury to the cell membrane d. Influx of potassium to the cell e. Immune response

e. Immune response

In which way does viruses cause cell death by an indirect cytopathic mechanism a. Injury to DNA b. Injury to RNA c. Injury to the cell membrane d. Influx of potassium to the cell e. Immune response

e. Immune response (all other are direct responses)

Which of the statements about dry gangrene are correct a. It always develops secondary to venous thrombosis/On the base of venous thrombosis b. It affects predominantly the upper extremities c. Its caused by saprophytic bacteria d. It spreads rapidly and uncontrollably to healthy tissue e. It most often originates secondary to trauma Vernerova: Combination of slow vascular occlusion + trauma

e. It most often originates secondary to trauma Vernerova: Combination of slow vascular occlusion + trauma

Hepatocellular icterus is not characterized by a. Acholic (pale) stools b. Rubin colored skin c. Biirubin in the urine d. Pruritus e. It's synonymous with so-called verdin icterus in patients with neoplastic diseases

e. It's synonymous with so-called verdin icterus in patients with neoplastic diseases (does this mean that this is wrong or correct? confusin spm)

102. Which of the following organisms cause chronic rhinitis a. Rotavirus b. Enteropathogenic E. coli c. Shigella dysentery d. Vibrio cholera e. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

e. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

Which of the following organisms cause chronic rhinitis a. Rotavirus b. Enteropathogenic E. coli c. Shigella dysentery d. Vibrio cholera e. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

e. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

Which of the following pairs of cell - disease are not correct a. Mikulicz cells - Rhinoscleroma b. Warthin-Finkeldey cells - Measles c. Virchow cells - Leprosy d. Orthov cells - TBC e. Langerhans cells - TBC

e. Langerhans cells - TBC - HIV, LCH (Langerhans cell histiocytosis) - Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) is a rare disease involving clonal proliferation of Langerhans cells, abnormal cells deriving from bone marrow and capable of migrating from skin to lymph nodes. Clinically, its manifestations range from isolated bone lesions to multisystem disease.

Which of the following pairs of cell - disease are not correct a. Mikulicz cells - Rhinoscleroma b. Warthin-Finkeldey cells - Measles c. Virchow cells - Leprosy d. Orthov cells - TBC e. Langerhans cells - TBC

e. Langerhans cells - TBC Langerhans cells are antigen presenting cells found in the skin should be Langhans giant cells

What are the most likely late effects one can expect to find in survivers of atomic bombs a. Failure of hematopoiesis after about two weeks b. Death due to GIT syndrome within the third day c. Fibrosing pneumonitis d. Brain edema with neural necrosis and death within the first hour e. Leukemia

e. Leukemia

What are the most likely late effects one can expect to find in survivers of atomic bombs: a. Failure of hematopoiesis after about two weeks b. Death due to GIT syndrome within the third day c. Fibrosing pneumonitis d. Brain edema with neural necrosis and death within the first hour e. Leukemia

e. Leukemia

In which of the following venereal diseases are genital ulcers not one of the manifestations a. Syphilis b. Granuloma inguinale c. HSV-2 infection d. Chancroid e. Lymphogranuloma venereum

e. Lymphogranuloma venereum

In which of the following venereal diseases are genital ulcers not one of the manifestations: a. Syphilis b. Granuloma inguinale c. HSV-2 infection d. Chancroid e. Lymphogranuloma venereum

e. Lymphogranuloma venereum

Which of the following metals affect the kidneys predominantly in its inorganic form, while the organic form mainly injure the brain a. Copper b. Iron c. Lead d. Nickel e. Mercury

e. Mercury

Which of the following metals affect the kidneys predominantly in its inorgic form, while the organic form mainly injure the brain: a. Copper b. Iron c. Lead d. Nickel e. Mercury

e. Mercury - Organic compounds of mercury are often extremely toxic and have been implicated in causing brain and liver damage - Mercury occurs inorganically as salts such as mercury(II) chloride. Mercury salts affect primarily the gastrointestinal tract and the kidneys, and can cause severe kidney damage.

Among morphologic changes characteristic for sarcoidosis belongs a. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, and liquefactive necrosis b. Neutrophils, macrophages, and fibrosis c. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and fibrosis d. Multinuclear giant cells, eosinophils, and fibrin e. Multinuclear giant cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes

e. Multinuclear giant cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes (granuloma formed without central necrosis)

Which of the following infectious agents present with acute rhinitis progressing to symptoms of meningoencephalitis a. Cryptosporidium b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Trichinella spiralis d. Schistosoma hematobium e. Naegleria fowleri

e. Naegleria fowleri

Which of the following infectious agents present with acute rhinitis progressing to symptoms of meningoencephalitis: a. Cryptosporidium b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Trichinella spiralis d. Schistosoma hematobium e. Naegleria fowleri

e. Naegleria fowleri

In which of the following locations can one find the latent form of the virus in people infected with HSV type 2 a. Mucosa of the external genitalia b. Epithelium of internal genital organs c. Germ cells d. Connective tissue of the penis or vagina e. Neural ganglia of the sacral region

e. Neural ganglia of the sacral region

In which of the following locations can one find the latent form of the virus in people infected with HSV type 2: a. Mucosa of the external genitalia b. Epithelium of internal genital organs c. Germ cells d. Connective tissue of the penis or vagina e. Neural ganglia of the sacral region

e. Neural ganglia of the sacral region

Which of the following are not ocular complications of Chlamydia trachomatis a. Conjunctival congestion/hyperemia b. Pannus formation c. Lymphocytic infiltrate d. Scarring e. Retinal detachment

e. Retinal detachment

Which of the following are not ocular complications of Chlamydia trachomatis: a. Conjunctival congestion/hyperemia b. Pannus formation (an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue) c. Lymphocytic infiltrate d. Scarring e. Retinal detachment

e. Retinal detachment Serotypes/serovars Ab, B, Ba, or C — cause trachoma --> infection of the eyes, which can lead to blindness

Which of the following infectious agents cause spotted fever: a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

e. Rickettsia prowazekii - A spotted fever is a type of tick-borne disease which presents on the skin.They are all caused by bacteria of the genus Rickettsia. Typhus is a group of similar diseases also caused by Rickettsia bacteria, but spotted fevers and typhus are different clinical entities - Types of spotted fevers include: Mediterranean spotted fever Rocky Mountain spotted fever Queensland tick typhus Helvetica Spotted fever

What is the most common complication of Gonorrhea in young females a. Myocarditis b. Encephalitis c. Meningitis d. Pancreatitis e. Salpingitis

e. Salpingitis

What is the most common complication of Gonorrhea in young females: a. Myocarditis b. Encephalitis c. Meningitis d. Pancreatitis e. Salpingitis

e. Salpingitis An infection and inflammation in the fallopian tubes.

Which of the following are not examples of 'hyaline droplets' deposits a. Mallory bodies b. Russel bodies c. Crooke hyaline degeneration/change of the basophilic hypophysis d. Deposits of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the liver e. Splendore-Hoeppli bodies/ phenomenon

e. Splendore-Hoeppli bodies/ phenomenon

The liver is not injured during a. Glycogenosis type IV/Andersen disease b. Galactosemia c. Niemann-Pick disease d. Wilson`s disease e. Tay-Sachs disease

e. Tay-Sachs disease

Which of the following infectious agents can cause superficial skin mycosis also affecting hairs a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Clonorchis sinensis d. Candida albicans e. Trichophyton

e. Trichophyton

Which of the following infectious agents can cause superficial skin mycosis also affecting hairs: a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Clonorchis sinensis d. Candida albicans e. Trichophyton

e. Trichophyton

118. Which of the following manifestations are not seen in patients with Lymphogranuloma venereum a. Pustular or vescicular lesions on the penis or vagina b. Lymphadenopathy c. Confluent abscesses surrounded by a zone of palisading arrangement of epithelial cells d. Proctitis in homosexuals e. Urethritis

e. Urethritis

Which of the following manifestations are not seen in patients with Lymphogranuloma venereum a. Pustular or vescicular lesions on the penis or vagina b. Lymphadenopathy c. Confluent abscesses surrounded by a zone of palisading arrangement of epithelial cells d. Proctitis in homosexuals e. Urethritis

e. Urethritis

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with poor wound healing and perifollicular petechiae a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin B2 d. Pyridoxine e. Vitamin C

e. Vitamin C

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with poor wound healing and perifollicular petechiae a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin B2 d. Pyridoxine e. Vitamin C

e. Vitamin C important for collagen, which is important for wound healing

All cell death is necrotic?

false

All cell deaths are pathological?

false

All cell deaths are physiological?

false

Characteristically Balser's fat necrosis lacks some sort of inflammatory reaction in the periphery

false

Some types of necrotic tissue can regenerate

false

What does Sudan 4 stain ?

fat

What is the necrosis affecting the pancreas during pancreatitis called?

fat necrosis

Which type of necrosis is not macroscopically detectable?

fibrinoid necrosis

Which of the following types of cells are the least sensitive to anoxia a. Neurons b. Cardiomyocytes c. Absorptive epithelia of the small intestine d. Proximal tubular cells of the kidney e. Fibroblasts

fibroblasts

How many variants of Gaucher disease?

five

abscess?

form of purulent infl. -circumscribed area of purulent inflammation -pus filled cavity

phlegmon?

form of purulent infl. -diffuse inflammatory process of soft tissue spreding along fascial planes with necrosis.

Baker

formaldehyde + NaCl (fat staining)

B Exudative Inflammation

formation of exudate (mixture of the fluid, cells and proteins exuded from damaged cells)

Another name for Krabbe's disease?

globoid cell leukodystrophy or galactosylceramide lipidosis

PAS

glycogen (!glycolipids)

bacteria

gram staining

Wegener´s granulomatosis ?

granulomatous inflammation of resp. tract Necrotizing vasculitis of small vessels Glomerulonephritis (fibrinoid necrosis of glomeruli)

Langhans multinuclear giant cells have their origin from a. Epithelial cells and lymphocytes b. Endothelial cells and epithelial cells c. Histiocytes and monocytes d. Granulocytes and lymphocytes e. Lymphocytes and plasma cells

histiocytes and monocytes (both belong to reticuloendothelial system(macrophages))

How are the monoclonal Ab produced?

hybridomas

Which of the following conditions predispose to metastatic calcification a. Necrosis of adipose tissue b. Bone fracture c. Hypercalcemia d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. TBC

hypercalcemia

adhesion formation?

in fibrinous necrosis. Fibrinous exudates may be removed by fibrinolysis and clearing of other debris provided by macrophages. The process of resolution may restore normal tissue structure, when fibrin is not removed it may stimulate the ingrowth of fibroblasts and blood vessels and lead to the formation of adhesions.

When does the Niemann pick mainfest?

in infancy, death within 3 years (type A+B)

Where does post mortem stiffnes start?

in the masticatory muscles

5) Gangrenous infl.

inflammation is secondary changed due to ischemia or bacteria alteration. - wet or dry

What does Mucicarmine stain ?

intracellular mucin

What does Berlin blue dye color?

iron

What is Molluscum contagiosum?

is a viral infection of the skin or occasionally of the mucous membranes, sometimes called water warts.

What is Molluscum contagiosum?

is a viral infection of the skin or occasionally of the mucous membranes, sometimes called water warts. Caused by poxvirus

What is Barr bodies?

is the inactive X chromosome in a female somatic cell

How does calcium play a role in cellular damage?

it activates phospholipases

Which of the following statements about hemosiderin are correct a. To maintain its stable concentration in the body the excess is secreted in bile b. It can normally be discovered in macrophages c. It can originate from degraded porphyrin rings d. It's the source of Mallory bodies e. It's generated as a complex of iron and cellular lipids

it can normally be found in macrophages

What is gouty tophi?

it is a deposit of monosodium urate crystals in people with longstanding high levels of uric acid in the blood.

Function of BCL-2 gene?

it is an important anti-apoptotic gene, and is more likely to lead to cancer than apoptosis! B-cell lymphoma is connected with it

When do we see paracortex hyperplasia (T-cell region) of lymph node?

it is seen with viral infections (e.g infectious mononucleosis)

How does formaldeyhde work?

it stops the autolysis of the tissue and preserves the structure.

3) purulent infl.

large amounts of both necrotic and viable neutrophils and liquefied necrotic tissue. Characteristically produced by bacteria mainly Staphylococci.

what is myxoid transformatino?

less fibrous components produced more proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid produced

Which of the following substances only accumulates intracellularly a. Amyloid b. Lipids c. Melanin d. Lipofuscin e. Hematoidin

lipofuscin

What type of necrosis is typical for ischemic cerebral infarct?

liquefactive necrosis

Which of the following pair of organs is due to the dual blood supply least affected by infarction? a) Liver and lungs b) Liver and kidney c) Lungs and spleen d) Spleen and kidneys e) Heart and lungs

liver and lungs

Differentiation AL and AA amyloid

oxidation with potassium permanganate (AA amyloid is resistant) -> best is immunohistochemistry

Which of the following gene products stimulates apoptosis a. C-erb-B2/HER-2/neu b. P53 c. Myc d. Ras e. Bcl-2

p53 Myc - is a regulator gene that codes for a transcription factor. The protein encoded by this gene is a multifunctional, nuclear phosphoprotein that plays a role in cell cycle progression, apoptosis and cellular transformation. Ras - involved in transmitting signals within cells (cellular signal transduction) Bcl-2 - regulate cell death (apoptosis), by either inducing (pro-apoptotic) it or inhibiting it (anti-apoptotic). Bcl-2 is specifically considered as an important anti-apoptotic protein and is thus classified as an oncogene. C-erb-B2/HER-2/neu - protoncogene, tyrosine kinase

4) fibrinous infl. on serous membranes:

pericardium (cor vilosum, cor hirsutum = grey white glossy fibrin deposits sometimes arranged as horizontal lines give the appearance of „bread and butter" pericarditis), meninges, pleura

Name a hyaline transformation?

perisplenitis cartilaginea

How are apoptotic cells removed?

phagocytosis

Calcium pyrophosphate in joints?

pseudogout

Which enzyme is deficient in Fucidosis

reduced or stopoed activity of the alpha-L-fucosidase enzyme. (glycoprotein storage disease)

The content of blisters is an example of which type of exudate a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Suppurative d. Pseudomembranous e. Catarrhal

serous

Primary infection (In the place where TBC enters the organism) are NOT mostly localized to the a. Oral cavity b. Tonsils c. Intestine d. Lungs e. Skin

skin

What causes erysipelas?

streptococcus

Bouin solution

testes - spermatogenesis Fixative Good for GI biopsies

What is pruritus?

the desire to scratch (itching)

Fibrin

trichrom - red Weigert Van Giesson - yellow

All necrotic cells are dead?

true

Polyarteritis nodosa?

vasculitis of medium to small sized arterioles, formation of rosary form of the arteries (small aneurysms) Often affecting renal artery. (?)

What is vitiligo?

vitiligo is patchy and depigmented areas over the body

Which of the following substances/organelles are increased in so-called tumefactio turbida (Vernerova - Term don't used anymore. Used to macroscopically describe organ firm and swelled due to increased water content) a. Calcium b. ER c. Lipids d. Potassium e. Water

water

If a ischemic coagulative necrosis gets infected we end up with a?

wet gangrene

What is the characteristic feature of granulation tissue? a) dry, green colour b) wet, red colour c) red, covered with pus d) soft cheese-like e) solid, yellow-brown

wet, red color

Are basophilic substances often metachromatic?

yes

Are hemosidering visualized as a rusty brown?

yes

Can Balser's fat necrosis occure during acute hemorrhagic necoris of pancreas?

yes

Can we use immunohistochemistry to figure out cell origin of tumor ?

yes

Caseous necrosis is seen as granular rests of chromatim on section?

yes

Does Bax levels increase when the cell is undergoing apoptosis?

yes

Does acidic mucopolysaccharides stain orthochromatic?

yes

Is apopotsis induced by transfer of initiating signals across the plasma membrane?

yes

Is autopsy of children below 15 year obligatory?

yes

Is karyolysis of myocardium irreversible cell injury?

yes

Is this a correct definition: Autolysis - Degradation of tissue by intracellular enzymes

yes

Does Balser's fat necrosis affect fat tissue?

yes An obsolete term dignifying fat necrosis specifically occurring in the pancreas.

During necrosis are the cells both autolysed and heterolyzed?

yes Autolysis, more commonly known as self-digestion, refers to the destruction of a cell through the action of its own enzymes. It may also refer to the digestion of an enzyme by another molecule of the same enzyme. heterolysis refers to apoptosis induced by hydrolytic enzymes from surrounding (usually inflammatory) cells.

Is toludine blue a metachromatic dye ?

yes stains acidic tissue components It stains nucleic acids blue and polysaccharides purple

Flavivurs - Family? - Replicates where? - Species? 1. - symptoms ? - histological ? 2. - symptoms? 3. - Disease? 4. 5. 6.

• In the family of Arboviruses (athropod borne virus) • It replicates in the cytoplasm. • Species 1. Yellow fever virus - hepatitis, fever, backache - councilman bodies - hepatocytes undergoing apoptosis 2. Dengue virus - Dengue fever, headache, muscle and joint pain 3. St. Louis encephalitis - encephalitis and fever 4. japanese encephalitis 5. Hepatitis C 6. West Nile virus

Influenza virus - orthomyxovirus - Disease? - Symptoms? - OBS!!

• Influenza type A is in both human and animals. Type B and C are in humans only. • The flu; fever, runny nose, cough, myalgias. • You can get reyes syndrome in children who use aspirin. Get liver and brain disease. - steatosis and brain swelling

Rabies virus? - Family? - Disease? - How does it spread?

• Rhabdoviridae family. • Cause acute encephalitis. • Travels to the brain by following the peripheral nerves. • Visible inclusion bodies (negri bodies) found in the cytoplasm of certain nerve cells. (Especially in hippocampus). Often found in cerebellar cortex.

94. Which of the following infectious agents cause scarlet fever a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Burkholderia mallei c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Klebsiella pneumonia

a. Streptococcus pyogenes Scarlet fever (also called scarlatina in older literature) is an infectious disease which most commonly affects children. Signs and symptoms include sore throat, fever, and a characteristic red rash. Scarlet fever is usually spread by inhalation. There is no vaccine, but the disease is effectively treated with antibiotics. Most of the clinical features are caused by erythrogenic toxin, a substance produced by the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus) when it is infected by a certain bacteriophage

Which of the following statements about rheumatic nodules are correct a. They are formed in primary chronic polyarthritis b. They are formed mainly as an aggregate of multinuclear giant cells originating from Anitschkow cells c. They are produced as fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by histiocytes d. T-lymphocytes in granulomas produce IgM (rheumatoid factor) e. They don't contain necrotic foci

a. They are formed in primary chronic polyarthritis c. They are produced as fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by histiocytes

Which of the following statements about multinuclear giant cells are correct a. They originate from fusion of macrophages b. Compared to macrophages they have increased phagoctyic activity c. Giant Langerhans cells are found in TBC infections d. Giant cells of the foreign-body type have the nuclei dispersed in a a scattered fashion in the cytoplasm e. Touton cells have light cytoplasm

a. They originate from fusion of macrophages d. Giant cells of the foreign-body type have the nuclei dispersed in a a scattered fashion in the cytoplasm e. Touton cells have light cytoplasm

Which of the following conditions belong among the potentially lethal complications of meningococcal infections a. Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome b. Myocarditis c. Hepatitis d. Glomerulonephritis e. Endometritis

a. Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome - hemorrhagic adrenalitis - Is defined as adrenal gland failure due to bleeding into the adrenal glands, caused by severe bacterial (or rarely viral) infection (most commonly the meningococcus Neisseria meningitidis)

Which of the following conditions belong among the potentially lethal complications of meningococcal infections: a. Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome b. Myocarditis c. Hepatitis d. Glomerulonephritis e. Endometritis

a. Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome Also called hemorrhagic adrenalitis or Fulminant meningococcemia: it is defined as adrenal gland failure due to bleeding into the adrenal glands, caused by severe bacterial (or rarely viral) infection (most commonly the meningococcus Neisseria meningitidis

4) fibrinous infl. on mucous membranes:

a. crupous: -lobar pneumococcal pneumonia- crupous pneumony b. pseudomembranous (membranous, diphtheric) -more fibrin enmeshes neutrophils due to coagulation. More severe process, due to action of surface toxins on the lining cells. Examples: dyphtery, dysentery, uremic colitis c. Necrotizing (escharotic) inflammation: widespread destruction of tissue. Characteristic for certain organisms like Pseudomonas, or organisms producing highly toxic substances exotoxins or endotoxins. Examples: flue tracheitis, burns d. Ulcerative: localized defect in an epithelial surface with infalmmatory reaction in the base.

4) types of fibrinous infl. on mucous membranes:

a. crupous: b. pseudomembranous c. Necrotizing (escharotic) d. Ulcerative:

4) fibrinous infl. Intersticial type

acute phase of rheumatic fever

During autopsy of a 90-year-old female with compensated diabetes and Alzheimer disease the pathologist notices yellow-brown deposits in the hepatocytes that don't stain with Pearls reaction. Which of the following conditions accounts for this pigment accumulation a. Alzheimer disease b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Advanced age d. Hereditary hemochromatosis e. Congested heart failure

advanced age - lipofuscin

Which of these are irreverisble changes of cells? Apoptosis Karyorrhexis Karyolysis Lysosomal rupture

all

What is Fabry's disease?

alpha-galactosidase A deficiency Ii is a rare genetic lysosomal storage disease, inherited in an X-linked manner. It is a form of sphingolipidosis, as it involves dysfunctional metabolism of sphingolipids.

Change of the color of the lung parenchyma in city dwellers can be caused by a. Melanin b. Bilirubin c. Anthracotic pigments d. Hemosiderin e. Lipofuscin

anthracotic pigments

To the morphologic manifestations of neurogenic muscular atrophy belongs a. Absence of dystrophy b. Perivascular mixed inflammatory infiltrate c. Subtle dispersed necrosis of muscle fibers d. Atrophic angular muscle fibers e. Zenker degeneration

atrophic angular muscle fibers

Gelatinous atrophy is a. A type of numerical atrophy b. A type of atrophy of adipose tissue c. Normal and commonly occurs as part of the aging process d. Characteristic for the bone marrow

atrophy of adipose tissue

Which of the following substances have chemotactic properties a. Interleukin-1 and TNF b. C5a and leukotriene B4 c. C3b and serotonin d. Leukotriene C4 and prostacyclin (PGI2) e. Bradykinin and kallikrein

b - C5a and leukotriene B4

In ochronosis homogentisic acid accumulates in a. Muscle b. Cartilage c. Bone d. Kidneys e. Liver

b - cartilage

If a macrophage increases in size, becomes round, and increase its amount of cytoplasm, we can call it a a. Giant cell b. Epitheloid cell c. Langhans cell d. Myofibroblast e. Monocyte

b - epitheloid cell

Which of the following factors inhibits/reduces the activity of metalloproteinases? a) TNF-alfa b) glucocorticoids c) plasmin d) PDGF (platelet derived growth factor) e) activated macrophages

b - glucocorticoids

Rank the right order of the following processes seen in inflammatory reactions. 1. Diapedesis 2. Adhesion to the endothelium 3. Chemotaxis 4. Degranulation a. 1-2-3-4 b. 2-1-3-4 c. 3-2-4-1 d. 2-3-1-4 e. 4-1-3-2

b) 2-1-3-4

Does not belong among the rhabdomyosarcomas: a) Sarcoma botryoides b) Alveolar sarcoma c) Juvenile rhabdomyosarcoma d) Wilms tumor e) Rhabdomyoma

b) Alveolar sarcoma d) Wilms tumor e) Rhabdomyoma

56. Necrosis liquefactive: a) occurs only in the CNS b) arises from the action of proteolytic enzymes c) may be the result of purulent inflammation d) never occurs in TB

b) Arises from the action of proteolytic enzymes c) May be the result of purulent inflammation d) Never occurs in TB -purulent: full of, containing, forming, or discharging pus; suppurating -Liquefactive necrosis: transformation of the tissue into a liquid viscous mass. Often associated with focal bacterial or fungal infections. The affected cell is completely digested by hydrolytic enzymes, resulting in a soft, circumscribed lesion consisting of pus and the fluid remains of necrotic tissue. -Can also occur in lungs and pancreas

46. Which of the following statements is/are correct for p53? a) It is a protooncogene b) Belongs to the tumor suppressor genes c) Its mutation leads to increased production of growth factors receptors d) Its mutation inhibits apoptosis of cells with damaged DNA

b) Belongs to the tumor suppressor genes d) Its mutation inhibits apoptosis of cells with damaged DNA -p53: a protein that in humans is encoded by the TP53 gene. The p53 protein is crucial in multicellular organisms, where it regulates the cell cycle and, thus, functions as a tumor suppressor, preventing cancer. It can initiate apoptosis - programmed cell death - if DNA damage proves to be irreparable

Marker for malignant B lymphoma is: a) CD 30 b) CD 20 c) CD 3 d) CD 99 e) CD 1

b) CD 20

General marker of T lymphocyte is: a) CD 20 b) CD 3 c) CD 4 d) CD 10 e) CD 19

b) CD 3

41. Mycosis fungoides is characterized by the presence of: a) Munro microabscesses b) Pautrier microabscesses c) Burkitt abscesses

b) Pautrier microabscesses Mycosis fungoides, also known as Alibert-Bazin syndrome[1] or granuloma fungoides, is the most common form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. It generally affects the skin, but may progress internally over time. Symptoms include rash, tumors, skin lesions, and itchy skin

Which of the following mediators between oncogenes belongs: a) p53 b) Ras c) RB-1 d) BRCA-1 e) WT-1

b) Ras

20. The complex of rheumatic fever does not include: a) pericarditis b) Raynaud phenomenon c) migratory polyarteritis d) chorea minor

b) Raynaud phenomenon Raynaud's phenomenon is excessively reduced blood flow in response to cold or emotional stress, causing discoloration of the fingers, toes, and occasionally other areas Sydenham's chorea or chorea minor (historically referred to as Saint Vitus Dance) is a disorder characterized by rapid, uncoordinated jerking movements primarily affecting the face, hands and feet. Sydenham's chorea (SC) results from childhood infection with Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus and is reported to occur in 20-30% of patients with acute rheumatic fever (ARF)

51. Right ventricular hypertrophy: a) Persists as long standing concentric hypertrophy b) Results from hypertension in the pulmonary circulation c) The result is a brown induration of lung d) May occur in left heart failure

b) Results from hypertension in the pulmonary circulation d) May occur in left heart failure

Tumors of the peripheral nervous system usually express: a) desmin b) S 100 protein c) melan A d) CD 117 e) CD 3

b) S 100 protein

Hypostasis is a) postmorten diffusion of liquids b) Overfilling of the lower part of an organ by blood c) post mortem autodigestion of the lower part of an organ d) slowdown of blood flow in capillaries in the inflammatory focus e) post mortem clots in the lower part of an organ

b) The settling of blood in the lower part of an organ or the body as a result of decreased blood flow) (directly translated: "overflow part of the organ below the stored blood")

Which of the following is true about thrombus? a) Thrombus formation is an unchangeable structure b) Thrombus composition is variable, but it always contains fibrin and platelets c) So-called white thrombus contains only white blood cells d) Organization of thrombus leads to its fibrous change/remodulation e) Never affecting limb vessels

b) Thrombus composition is variable, but it always contains fibrin and platelets d) Organization of thrombus leads to its fibrous change/remodulation

47. Repair and regeneration: a) tumor necrosis is one of the regenerative processes b) a primitive bony callus is an example of the reparative process c) postencephalomalatic pseudocyst wall is formed of the connective tissue d) a typical manifestation of regeneration is the formation of nodes in cirrhotic liver

b) a primitive bony callus is an example of the reparative process

15. Nasal polyps are; a) viral origin b) allergic origin c) result of long-term smoking d) the effects of chronic rhinitis

b) allergic origin d) the effects of chronic rhinitis Nasal polyps are soft, painless, noncancerous growths on the lining of your nasal passages or sinuses. They hang down like teardrops or grapes. They result from chronic inflammation due to asthma, recurring infection, allergies, drug sensitivity or certain immune disorders.

34. Gliomas of the brain include: a) neuroblastoma b) anaplastic astrocytoma c) oligodendroglioma d) ependyoma

b) anaplastic astrocytoma c) oligodendroglioma d) ependyoma A glioma is a type of tumor that starts in the brain or spine. It is called a glioma because it arises from glial cells. The most common site of gliomas is the brain. Gliomas are named according to the specific type of cell they share histological features with, but not necessarily originate from. The main types of gliomas are: - Ependymomas—ependymal cells. - Astrocytomas—astrocytes (glioblastoma multiforme is a malignant astrocytoma and the most common primary brain tumor among adults). - Oligodendrogliomas—oligodendrocytes. - Brainstem glioma — develop in the brain stem - Optic nerve glioma — develop in or around the optic nerve Neuroblastoma (NB) is the most common extracranial solid cancer in childhood and the most common cancer in infancy. It is a neuroendocrine tumor, arising from any neural crest element of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS)

48. What is true of pigments: a) they are soluble substances which lead to the diffuse cell coloring b) are exogenous and endogenous c) the occurrence of endogenous pigments may participate in macrophages d) iron oxide pigments are only exogenous origin

b) are exogenous and endogenous c) the occurrence of endogenous pigments may

Which of the following is/are true of pigments: a) they are soluble substances which lead to diffuse cell coloring b) are exogenous and endogenous c) the occurrence of endogenous pigments may be present in macrophages d) non-oxide pigments are of exogenous origin only

b) are exogenous and endogenous c) the occurrence of endogenous pigments may be present in macrophages

What is true about papillomas? a) the basic structure of the papilloma consist of epithelial tissue in the center surrounded by tissue b) arise from surface epithelium c) has a papillary structure in the center of the lumen d) a typical example is verruca vulgaris e) occur in the urinary bladder

b) arise from surface epithelium d) a typical example is verruca vulgaris e) occur in the urinary bladder

5. Granulomas are not a typical morphological manifestation of: a) tuberculosis b) asbestosis c) sarcoidosis d) histoplasmosis

b) asbestosis -Histoplasmosis ("cave disease," "Darling's disease,""Ohio valley disease," "reticuloendotheliosis," "spelunker's lung" and "caver's disease"): caused by the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. Symptoms of this infection vary greatly, but the disease affects primarily the lungs. -Sarcoidosis: a disease involving abnormal collections of inflammatory cells (granulomas) that can form as nodules in multiple organs. The granulomas are most often located in the lungs or its associated lymph nodes, but any organ can be affected. Sarcoidosis seems to be caused by an immune reaction to an infection or some other trigger

57. Benign tumors: a) the name is always the name of the tissue with the suffix -oma b) benign epithelial tumors are usually adenomas and papillomas c) benign tumors usually exhibit expansive growth profile d) may sometimes threaten the patients life

b) benign epithelial tumors are usually adenomas and papillomas c) benign tumors usually exhibit expansive growth profile d) may sometimes threaten the patients life

Which of the following events is the fourth in chronological order? a) bronchial carcinoma b) brain metastasis c) smoking 40 cigarettes per day d) airway epithelium metaplasia

b) brain metastasis

65. Thrombosis: a) is the only source of embolism b) can transform into a phlebolith c) always occludes the vessel lumen d) a synonym for postmorem clots

b) can transform into a phlebolith

33. Follicular thyroid carcinoma is characterized by the presence of: a) a) b) b) capsular invasion c) c) Orphan-Annia eye nuclei d) d) psammoma bodies

b) capsular invasion - Psammoma bodies: meningiomas and papillary thyroid cancer - Orphan Annie eye nuclei: papillary thyroid cancer

40. Bowen disease is: a) the proliferation of squamous epithelium in the sites of chronic irritation b) carcinoma in situ c) benign tumor of the sweat glands d) pseudolymphoma of the skin

b) carcinoma in situ Bowen's disease (BD) (also known as "squamous cell carcinoma in situ") is a neoplastic skin disease; it can be considered as an early stage or intraepidermal form of squamous cell carcinoma

In neuroectodermal tumors and carcinomas, we can find: a) actin b) chromogranin c) desmin d) LCA(Leukocyte Common Antigen) e) vimentin

b) chromogranin

Which of the following patterns is/are characteristic of necrosis caused by denaturation? a) caseous b) coagulative c) gangrenous d) liquefactive

b) coagulative No destruction of cells, because the enzymes are not working. Keeps the architecture of the tissue

Which of the following is/are not false tumor? a) cysts b) cystadenomas c) inflammatory tumor d) precancerosis

b) cystadenomas d) precancerosis

10. Subdural hematoma is usually caused by: a) rupture of the medial meningeal artery b) damage to bridging veins c) rupture of the ... artery d) damage of cavernous sinus

b) damage to bridging veins

Cor pulmonale is characterized by all following symptoms EXCEPT a) distended jugular vein b) decreased pulmonary vascular resistance c) nutmeg liver d) edema, depending on body position e) chronic lung disease

b) decreased pulmonary vascular resistance

Grading is a term indicating: a) degree of spread of tumor in the body b) degree of tumor differentiation c) the location of the tumor in the body d) the severity of clinical symptoms

b) degree of tumor differentiation

In germinal tumors belongs: a) dermoid cyst of skin b) dermoid cyst of ovary c) embryonic carcinoma of testis d) seminoma e) dysgerminoma of ovary

b) dermoid cyst of ovary c) embryonic carcinoma of testis d) seminoma e) dysgerminoma of ovary

21. Cytological examination of cervical smear is not used for: a) detection of sexually transmitted diseases b) diagnosis menstrual cycles disorders c) detection of precancerous changes and malignancy of cervix uteri d) detection of endometrial cancer

b) diagnosis menstrual cycles disorders

Which of the following cell types is characteristic elongated oval shape of the nucleus and have spindle shape? a) mast cells b) fibroblasts c) neutrophil granulocyte d) NK cell e) monocyte

b) fibroblasts

3. In advanced liver cirrhosis there is not present: a) spider nevi b) glaucoma c) rupture of esophageal varices d) ascites

b) glaucoma - Cirrhosis is a slowly progressing disease in which healthy liver tissue is replaced with scar tissue, eventually preventing the liver from functioning properly. The scar tissue blocks the flow of blood through the liver and slows the processing of nutrients, hormones, drugs, and naturally produced toxins. - A spider angioma (spider nevus) is a type of telangiectasis (swollen blood vessels) found slightly beneath the skin surface, often containing a central red spot and reddish extensions which radiate outwards like a spider's web. They are common, however, having more than 3 spider angiomas is likely to be abnormal and may be a sign of liver disease

Which of the following is/are the most common CNS tumors in adults? a) ganglioglioma b) glioblastoma c) neuroblastoma d)

b) glioblastoma

Which of the following associations are not correct? a) meingioma - arachnoidea b) glioblastoma - Schwann cells c) medulloblastoma - rosette arrangement d) m. Recklinghausen - acustic neurinoma

b) glioblastoma - Schwann cells Glioglastoma = Astrocytes

Biopsies form the base of a skin ulceration showed proliferation of small blood vessels and the formation of fine collagen fibers. It is typical for: a) basalioma b) granulation tissue c) pemphigus vulgaris d) the radial growth phase of malignant melanoma

b) granulation tissue

Select the INCORRECT answer. In the etiology of carcinogenesis: a) It can play an important role in food ingredients b) have various tissues / cells are roughly comparable sensitivity c) Are certain jobs associated with exposure to risk factors d) consumption is unambiguously aflatoxin risk fakor e) hormones may play a role in tumor promoter

b) have various tissues / cells are roughly comparable sensitivity

5. Which statement is true for hernia? a) are always obtained b) hemorrhagic infarct may occur c) may originate in the scar d) always contains intestinal loops

b) hemorrhagic infarct may occur c) may originate in the scar

14. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is characterized by: a) hypertension b) hypotension c) diabetes mellitus d) massive bleeding into the adrenals

b) hypotension d) massive bleeding into the adrenals Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (WFS) or hemorrhagic adrenalitis is a disease of the adrenal glands most commonly caused by the bacterium Neisseria meningitidis. The infection leads to massive hemorrhage into one or (usually) both adrenal glands

69. Lymphogenic metastasis occur: a) only in carcinomas b) in most carcinomas c) in all tumors d) in mesenchymal tumors as often as in carcinomas

b) in most carcinomas

53. What is true about the role of cells in the immune process: a) macrophages serve mainly to the destruction of antigens b) interdigiting dendritic cells present antigen to T lymphocytes c) the lymphocytes remain in the node in which they arose d) NK cells are part of the acquired immune response

b) interdigiting dendritic cells present antigen to T lymphocytes

Which of the following is/are true of radicular cysts? a) bone cyst mostly involving the radius b) is caused by epithelization of chronic abscess in a dead tooth c) is a cyst resulting from the inflammation of meninges of spinal roots d) is usually associated with periodontitis

b) is caused by epithelization of chronic abscess in a dead tooth

67. Herpes zoster: a) is caused by a measle virus b) is caused by the same virus strain as varicella c) is caused by herpes simplex virus d) latent virus survives in the spinal ganglia

b) is caused by the same virus strain as varicella d) latent virus survives in the spinal ganglia -Herpes zoster: commonly known as shingles is a viral disease characterized by a painful skin rash with blisters in a limited area on one side of the body (left or right), often in a stripe. The initial infection with varicella zoster virus (VZV) causes the acute, short-lived illness chickenpox which generally occurs in children and young adults. -Herpes zoster is not the same disease as herpes simplex -After the initial episode of chickenpox resolves, the varicella zoster virus remains latent in the nerve cell bodies and, less frequently, the non-neuronal satellite cells of the dorsal root, cranial nerve or autonomic ganglia.

Which of the following is/are true of shock? a) is a metabolic disruption caused by tissue necrosis b) it is a consequence of tissue hypoperfusion c) shock causes changes which can be reversible d) is always associated with DIC

b) it is a consequence of tissue hypoperfusion c) shock causes changes which can be reversible (in the beginning atleast)

Which statement is true of necrosis: a) tissue ischemia is a synonym for tissue necrosis b) it is a morphological manifestation of intravital tissue death c) occurs only posthumously d) necrosis is always caused by endogenous reasons

b) it is a morphological manifestation of intravital tissue death

50. What is true of thrombosis: a) it is intravital blood clotting intra and extravascular b) it is intravital blood clotting in the cardiovascular system c) for thrombi formation is always necessary multiplication of platelets d) the organization of thrombi may lead to their recanalization

b) it is intravital blood clotting in the cardiovascular system d) the organization of thrombi may lead to their recanalization

Which of the following is/are characteristic for Grawitz renal cell carcinoma? a) other options are not correct b) it is most common in children than in adults c) it consists of very bright cells d) bleeding into the tumor tissue is frequently present

b) it is most common in children than in adults But I don't think this is true! It should be d) bleeding into the tumor tissue is frequently present

Which of the following is/are not characteristic of prostate hyperplasia? a) the periurethral (central) localization b) it represents a premalignant status c) urinary tract infections are common d) hypertrophy, ev. dilatation of the bladder wall is present

b) it represents a premalignant status

Which of the following is/are NOT true of benign prostatic hyperplasia? a) begins in the periurethral zone b) it leads to a narrowing of the ureter c) incidence increases with age d) is induced by hormonal factors

b) its leads to a narrowing of the ureter NOT URETHRA!! ;)

22. Melanin a) arises in ... b) its production is controlled indirectly by adrenal hormones (POMC) c) there are two basic types oculocutaneous melanin and neuromelanin d) albinism occurs only in animals, not in human

b) its production is controlled indirectly by adrenal hormones (POMC) There are three basic types of melanin: eumelanin, pheomelanin, and neuromelanin. The most common type of melanin is eumelanin.

80. The secondary systemic AA amyloidosis patient usually dies due to: a) malabsorption syndrome b) kidney failure c) in hepatic coma d) for the symptoms of advanced dementia

b) kidney failure

Which of the following organs are usually affected by metastasis of osteosarcoma? a) liver b) lungs c) other bones d) lymph nodes

b) lungs

74. Basalioma is in general: a) highly malignant b) malignant c) potentially malignant d) benign

b) malignant -Basalioma: a skin cancer, is the most common cancer. It rarely metastasizes or kills. However, because it can cause significant destruction and disfigurement by invading surrounding tissues, it is still considered malignant

1. Complication of peptic duodenal ulcers does not include: a) penetration b) malignant reversal c) perforation d) bleeding

b) malignant reversal

21. Metastatic calcification: a) is seen in generalized malignant tumors b) may be triggered by massive metastatic spreading of cancer to bone c) does not depend on the level of calcium in plasma d) affects mainly the liver

b) may be triggered by massive metastatic spreading of cancer to bone Deposition of calcium salts in otherwise normal tissue, because of elevated serum levels of calcium, which can occur because of deranged metabolism as well as increased absorption or decreased excretion of calcium and related minerals, as seen in hyperparathyroidism. In contrast, dystrophic calcification is caused by abnormalities or degeneration of tissues resulting in mineral deposition, though blood levels of calcium remain normal.

Which of these tumors is most typical in children? a) meningioma b) medulloblastoma c) glioblastoma d) oligodendroglioma

b) medulloblastoma

75. The meaning of steatosis: a) the presence of lipids in fat cells b) multiplication of lipids in parenchymal cells c) the presence of lipids in the subcutaneous adipose tissue on obese d) the presence of lipid droplets in hyaline connective tissue

b) multiplication of lipids in parenchymal cells

58. Which statement is correct about tumors: a) the only tumor type arising from neuroendocrine cells are carcinoids b) neurilemom arises from Schwann cells c) names of adenomas are based on their structure d) names of adenomas are derived from the name of the default organ

b) neurilemom arises from Schwann cells c) names of adenomas are based on their structure

To mesenchymal tumors do NOT belong: a) dermatofibroma b) neurofibroma c) nevus flammeus d) nevus pigmentosus e) leiomyoma

b) neurofibroma d) nevus pigmentosus

2. Mucocele is: (mucinous distention) a) congential b) obtained c) dysontogenic cyst d) retention of cyst of bronchial gland

b) obtained A mucocele is any dilatation (typically pathologic) with accumulation of mucus Retention cyst Examples: Oral mucocele Mucocele of the petrous apex Mucocele of the paranasal sinuses Mucocele of appendix Gallbladder mucocele

Which of the following does not represents viral skin infection? a) molluscum contagiosum b) pemphigus vulgaris c) verruca vulgaris d) herpes zoster

b) pemphigus vulgaris Pemphigus vulgaris is a chronic blistering skin disease with skin lesions that are rarely pruritic, but which are often painful. It is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction, with the formation of anti-desmosome antibodies formed.

It is typical for polyclonal antibodies that they: a) recognize only one antigen epitope b) recognize more antigen epitopes c) never show cross-reactivity d) can be produced by so-called hybridomas e) are used to monitor the entire antigen

b) recognize more antigen epitopes c) never show cross-reactivity

60. Diarrhea in children is most commonly caused by: a) Salmonella b) rotavirus c) Entamoeba histolytica d) S. enterotoxicosis

b) rotavirus

17. The most serous complication of myocardial infarction: a) aneurysm b) rupture c) pulmonary edema d) pericardial adhesions

b) rupture

A 1-year-old boy has had repeated S. aureus infections. NADPH oxidase deficiency, that is, the inability to create hydrogen peroxide is discovered in the neutrophils. What is the most likely diagnosis a. Chediak-Higashi syndrome b. Chronic granulomatosis c. Job syndrome d. Lazy leukocyte syndrome e. Myeloperoxidase defect

b. Chronic granulomatosis (bridges good syndrome) Certain cells of the immune system have difficulty forming the reactive oxygen compounds (most importantly, the superoxide radical) used to kill certain ingested pathogens

Which of the following infectious agents cause gas gangrene a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Clostridium difficile

b. Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following infectious agents cause gas gangrene: a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Clostridium difficile

b. Clostridium perfringens

Acute red discoloration of the skin in the earliest phase of a sun burn is caused by a. Multiplication of pigment in the basal layer of the epidermis b. Congestion of capillaries in the dermis c. Edema of the dermis d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Bleeding to the dermis

b. Congestion of capillaries in the dermis

During normal circumstances bilirubin is mostly a. Secreted in the urine b. Conjugated with glucuronic acid c. Stored in macrophages d. Stored in the form of hemosiderin e. Recycled to the bone marrow

b. Conjugated with glucuronic acid

99. The stain Mucicarmine is useful to diagnose which of the following pathogens a. Mycobacteria b. Cryptococcus c. Leishmania d. Protoza e. Nocardia

b. Cryptococcus Generally this is limited to microorganisms with a cell wall that is composed, at least in part, of a polysaccharide component. One of the organisms that is identified using this staining technique is Cryptococcus neoformans. Another use is in surgical pathology where it can identify mucin. This is helpful, for example, in determining if the cancer is a type that produces mucin.

The stain Mucicarmine is useful to diagnose which of the following pathogens a. Mycobacteria b. Cryptococcus c. Leishmania d. Protoza e. Nocardia

b. Cryptococcus - fungus

Ochronosis is characterized by a. Presence of birefringent crystals in the synovium b. Defect of homogentisic acid metabolism c. It's connected with homocystinuria d. It originates as a consequence of hyperuricemia e. None of the answers are correct

b. Defect of homogentisic acid metabolism

The cause of Reye syndrome is usually a. Disorders of lipoprotein synthesis b. Defects of beta-oxidation of fatty acids c. Excessive endocytosis of lipids d. Glycogen aggregations e. None of the answers are correct

b. Defects of beta-oxidation of fatty acids

87. Acute gonococcal infection in females typically manifests like a. Vulvitis b. Endocervicitis c. Vaginitis d. Oophoritis e. Parametritis

b. Endocervicitis

Acute gonococcal infection in females typically manifests like a. Vulvitis b. Endocervicitis c. Vaginitis d. Oophoritis e. Parametritis

b. Endocervicitis

A patient (49 years old) has delirium tremens. He has macrocytic anemia and increased content of hemoglobin in the erythrocytes. The most likely cause of his anemia is a lack of a. Vitamin C deficiency b. Folic acid deficiency c. Vitamin D deficiency d. Vitamin K deficiency e. Niacin deficiency

b. Folic acid deficiency

A patient (49 years old) has delirium tremens. He has macrocytic anemia and increased content of hemoglobin in the erythrocytes. The most likely cause of his anemia is a lack of: a. Vitamin C deficiency b. Folic acid deficiency c. Vitamin D deficiency d. Vitamin K deficiency e. Niacin deficiency

b. Folic acid deficiency

Which substance accumulate in Krabbe`s disease a. Glucocerebrosides b. Galactocerebrosides c. GM2 gangliosides d. Ceramides e. Copper

b. Galactocerebrosides Mr. Krabbe likes galactose, og han krabber langs peripheral nerves..

Which of the following infectious agents can cause lung lesions similar as TB: a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Tularemia d. Toxoplasma gondii e. Neisseria gonorrhea

b. Histoplasma capsulatum Histoplasmosis (also known as "cave disease") is a disease caused by the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. Symptoms of this infection vary greatly, but the disease affects primarily the lungs.

Which of the following infectious agents can cause lung lesions similar as TB a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Tularemia d. Toxoplasma gondii e. Neisseria gonorrhea

b. Histoplasma capsulatum Symptoms of this infection vary greatly, but the disease affects primarily the lungs. Occasionally, other organs are affected. Gives a lung granuloma, that can me mistaken for TB granuloma Ohio Valley Histoplasmosis is common among AIDS patients because of their suppressed immunity Histoplasma capsulatum is found in soil, often associated with decaying bat guano or bird droppings.

Zahn infarct a. Acute myocardial infarct b. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the intrahepatic branches of the portal vein c. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the hepatic artery d. Splenic infarct e. Combined infarct of the liver and spleen due to portal hypertension

b. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the intrahepatic branches of the portal vein

Which of the following statements about inflammation are correct a. Inflammation only originates from the action of chemically noxious substances in the tissue b. Inflammation is a general tissue reaction mediated by noxious agents on vessels c. The nervous system plays the most important role during inflammatory reactions d. Chemotaxis is a general process of chemical substances during inflammation e. Inflammation is an reaction strictly to chemical injury on the organism

b. Inflammation is a general tissue reaction mediated by noxious agents on vessels

What are the causes of steatosis of the liver a. Ingrowth of adipose tissue to the stromal connective tissue b. Inhibition of oxidation of fatty acids from the effects of free radicals on enzymes c. Action of pancreatic enzymes on triglycerides d. Changes of the staining properties of cells due to accumulation of ER e. Accumulation of apoprotein as a consequence of increased proteosynthesis

b. Inhibition of oxidation of fatty acids from the effects of free radicals on enzymes

What applies to acute orchitis a. Its always bilateral b. It can accompany infectious parotitis c. The inflammation has a granulomatous character d. Surgical therapy is indicated e. hCG production is increased

b. It can accompany infectious parotitis

What applies to acute orchitis: a. Its always bilateral b. It can accompany infectious parotitis c. The inflammation has a granulomatous character d. Surgical therapy is indicated e. hCG production is increased

b. It can accompany infectious parotitis - Inflammation of the testes. It can also involve swelling, heavy pains and frequent infection, and is more rarely known as didymitis (as in epididymis). - Can be related to epididymitis infection that has spread to the testicles (then called "epididymo-orchitis"), sometimes caused by the sexually transmitted diseases chlamydia and gonorrhea

Which of the following statements applies to dystrophic calcification a. It can originate during hypercalcemia b. It can be caused by caseous necrosis c. It can be caused by hyperthyroidism d. It can be caused by hypoparathyroidism e. It can develop from osteolytic malignant metastases

b. It can be caused by caseous necrosis

Which of the following statements about granulomatous inflammation are correct a. It forms granulation tissue b. It originates around fibrinoid changes of connective tissue c. Aschoff nodule is an example d. It originates from transformed lymphocytes e. They never originate in association with infectious diseases

b. It originates around fibrinoid changes of connective tissue c. Aschoff nodule is an example Granulation tissue is healing of tissue, not an inflammation! :)

Which of the following applies to Trachoma a. It's a serious generalized skin disease b. It's chlamydial keratoconjunctivitis leading to blindness c. The same etiologic agent cause lymphogranuloma venereum d. Its a tropic parasitic disease e. Its a inflammatory disease of the trachea

b. It's chlamydial keratoconjunctivitis leading to blindness c. The same etiologic agent cause lymphogranuloma venereum

Which of the following applies to Trachoma: a. It's a serious generalized skin disease b. It's chlamydial keratoconjunctivitis leading to blindness c. The same etiologic agent cause lymphogranuloma venereum d. Its a tropic parasitic disease e. Its a inflammatory disease of the trachea

b. It's chlamydial keratoconjunctivitis leading to blindness c. The same etiologic agent cause lymphogranuloma venereum Also called granular conjunctivitis and blinding trachoma is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. The infection causes a roughening of the inner surface of the eyelids. This roughening can lead to pain in the eyes, breakdown of the outer surface or cornea of the eyes, and possibly to blindness

Which of the following statements about catarrhal inflammation are correct a. It's a type of inflammation characteristic of mucosal and serous membranes b. It's exudate consist of protein, pus, and a small amount of polymorphonuclear cells c. It can only occur in the acute phase of inflammation d. It can be acute or chronic e. It only occurs in the upper respiratory tract

b. It's exudate consist of protein, pus, and a small amount of polymorphonuclear cells d. It can be acute or chronic

Metastatic calcification typically affects a. Lungs, kidneys, and liver b. Kidneys, lungs, and cornea c. Liver, pancreas, and basal ganglia d. Choroid plexus and old vascular thromboses e. Lungs, cornea, and stomach

b. Kidneys, lungs, and cornea

With which of the following infectious agents do we find hepatosplenomegaly and macrophages in all of the organs containing the live form of the parasite a. Cryptosporidium b. Leishmania donovani c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Histoplasma capsulatum e. Bacillus anthracis

b. Leishmania donovani

With which of the following infectious agents do we find hepatosplenomegaly and macrophages in all of the organs containing the live form of the parasite a. Cryptosporidium b. Leishmania donovani c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Histoplasma capsulatum e. Bacillus anthracis

b. Leishmania donovani It is a human blood parasite responsible for visceral leishmaniasis or kala-azar, the most severe form of leishmaniasis. It infects the mononuclear phagocyte system including spleen, liver and bone marrow

106. Which findings can one expect to find first in the stool of patients with infectious typhoid fever (typhus abdominalis) a. Mulitple basophils b. Multiple monocytes c. None or only isolated leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

b. Multiple monocytes

Which findings can one expect to find first in the stool of patients with infectious typhoid fever (typhus abdominalis) a. Mulitple basophils b. Multiple monocytes c. None or only isolated leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

b. Multiple monocytes (abnormal for bacteria to NOT attract mainly PMN, but salmonella typhi is an exception in this case! :) )

92. Which of the following metals are used in the production of clothing and brooches (jewelry - 'decorative pin') and cause allergy on contact with hypersensitivity dermatitis a. Copper b. Nickel c. Lead d. Cadmium e. Mercury

b. Nickel

Which of the following metals are used in the production of clothing and brooches (jewelry - 'decorative pin') and cause allergy on contact with hypersensitivity dermatitis a. Copper b. Nickel c. Lead d. Cadmium e. Mercury

b. Nickel

Which of the following metals can cause nasal sinus tumors after chronic exposure a. Copper b. Nickel c. Lead d. Zinc e. Mercury

b. Nickel

Which of the following metals can cause nasal sinus tumors after chronic exposure: a. Copper b. Nickel c. Lead d. Zinc e. Mercury

b. Nickel

112. What type of inflammation is produced by the influenza involving the upper respiratory tract a. Suppurative b. Nonsuppurative hemorrhagic c. Proliferative d. Granulomatous e. Serous

b. Nonsuppurative hemorrhagic

What type of inflammation is produced by the influenza involving the upper respiratory tract a. Suppurative b. Nonsuppurative hemorrhagic c. Proliferative d. Granulomatous e. Serous

b. Nonsuppurative hemorrhagic I don't think this is correct, maybe suppurative should be correct.. ?!

Which of the following statements about serum tumor markers is INCORRECT? a. CA-125 belong among them b. Normal levels of tumor marker reliably excludes the corresponding tumor c. Used as screening methods d. Can be used to monitor the effects of therapy e. Due to the low sensitivity in early stages of tumor it's not recommended for screening

b. Normal levels of tumor marker reliably excludes the corresponding tumor

Which of the following statements about melanin are correct a. Oculocutaneous melanin and neuromelanin have the same synthetic pathway, but different locations b. Oculocutaneous melanin is produced by melanocytes c. Neuromelanin originates from tyrosine d. It can occur in malignant melanoma e. All types of melanin have a black color

b. Oculocutaneous melanin is produced by melanocytes c. Neuromelanin originates from tyrosine d. It can occur in malignant melanoma

Which substance cause thorny, hard, dark-brown concrements a. Urate b. Oxalate c. Cholesterol d. Mixed e. Phosphate

b. Oxalate

105. Which of the following are not examples of viral diseases a. Poliomyelitis anterior acuta b. Pertussis c. Trachoma d. Jakob-Creutzfeldt disease e. Osteomyelitis

b. Pertussis c. Trachoma d. Jakob-Creutzfeldt disease e. Osteomyelitis

Which of the following are not examples of viral diseases a. Poliomyelitis anterior acuta b. Pertussis c. Trachoma d. Jakob-Creutzfeldt disease e. Osteomyelitis

b. Pertussis - kikhoste - Bordetella Pertussis c. Trachoma - Granular conjunctivitis - Chlamydia Trachomatis d. Jakob-Creutzfeldt disease - Degenerativ nervesykdom (mad cow disease = kugalskap) caused by a prion! e. Osteomyelitis - bone marrow inflammation. caused by bacteria

88. What is the typical common histological feature of infections with Herpes simplex and Varicella a. Production of eosinophilic granules/corpuscles b. Production of intranuclear inclusions c. Production of granulomas with giant multinuclear cells d. Eosinophilia e. Plasmocellular response of the immune system

b. Production of intranuclear inclusions

What is the typical common histological feature of infections with Herpes simplex and Varicella a. Production of eosinophilic granules/corpuscles b. Production of intranuclear inclusions c. Production of granulomas with giant multinuclear cells d. Eosinophilia e. Plasmocellular response of the immune system

b. Production of intranuclear inclusions

In which of the following diseases does so-called Negri bodies occur in the cytoplasm of neurons a. Tetanus b. Rabies c. Toxoplasmosis d. Cat scratch disease e. Dengue fever

b. Rabies

In which of the following diseases does so-called Negri bodies occur in the cytoplasm of neurons: a. Tetanus b. Rabies c. Toxoplasmosis d. Cat scratch disease e. Dengue fever

b. Rabies Negri bodies are eosinophilic, sharply outlined, pathognomonic inclusion bodies (2-10 µm in diameter) found in the cytoplasm of certain nerve cells containing the virus of rabies, especially in Ammon's horn of the hippocampus

Which of the following infectious agents cause spotted fever a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

b. Rickettsia rickettsii a --> q fever b --> Rocky Mountain spotted fever c --> psittacosis d --> chlamydia e --> Epidemic typhus (louse borne)

120. For which disease is there a typical rash starting in the form of pink papules from the region of the ear which then rapidly becomes maculopapular and spreads to the face, neck, trunk, and extremities a. Mumps b. Rubella c. Varicella d. Infectious mononucleosis e. Rotavirus infection

b. Rubella

For which disease is there a typical rash starting in the form of pink papules from the region of the ear which then rapidly becomes maculopapular and spreads to the face, neck, trunk, and extremities a. Mumps b. Rubella c. Varicella d. Infectious mononucleosis e. Rotavirus infection

b. Rubella (this should be rubeola - Measles! NOT rubella..)

Impetigo is caused by a. C. difficile b. S. aureus c. C. diphtheria d. K. pneumoniae e. P. aeruginosa

b. S. aureus

Impetigo is caused by a. C. difficile b. S. aureus c. C. diphtheria d. K. pneumoniae e. P. aeruginosa

b. S. aureus Brennkopper: a highly contagious bacterial skin infection most common among pre-school children It is primarily caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and sometimes by Streptococcus pyogenes. Both bullous and nonbullous are primarily caused by Staphylococcus aureus, with Streptococcus also commonly being involved in the nonbullous form

Which of the following pathogens would be the most likely to cause a tissue reaction with eosinophilia a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Schistosoma mansoni c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Influenza virus type A e. Haemophilus influenza

b. Schistosoma mansoni (parasites)

Which of the following statements about inflammation are correct a. The cardinal signs describes microscopical manifestations of inflammation b. Suppurative inflammation is characterized by accumulation of neutrophils c. Inflammatory mediators are synonymous with cytokines d. Histiocyes phagocytose small particles, which is designated as microphagy e. Typically occurs in the setting of apoptotic cells

b. Suppurative inflammation is characterized by accumulation of neutrophils

Which of the following statements about steatosis is correct a. Steatosis and lipidosis are synonyms b. The most common hereditary defect of lipid metabolism are lysosomal enzymopathies c. Deficiency of HDL can cause steatosis d. Alcoholic steatosis of the liver is caused by mitochondrial dysfunction e. It`s a special manifestation of lipomatosis

b. The most common hereditary defect of lipid metabolism are lysosomal enzymopathies c. Deficiency of HDL can cause steatosis ? I would believe that e should not be correct ? Maybe d could be correct..

Which of the following applies for staphylococcal infections: a. They often have a phlegmonous character b. They often cause abscesses c. They originate endogenously as opportunistic infections d. They are often seen as secondary infections e. They typically cause lobar pneumonia when affecting the lung

b. They often cause abscesses d. They are often seen as secondary infections

Which of the following infectious agents can cause myositis a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Trichinella spiralis c. Strongyloides stercoralis d. Candida albicans e. Ascaris lumbricoides

b. Trichinella spiralis

Which of the following infectious agents can cause myositis a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Trichinella spiralis c. Strongyloides stercoralis d. Candida albicans e. Ascaris lumbricoides

b. Trichinella spiralis Myositis is a general term for inflammation of the muscles. Many such conditions are considered likely to be caused by autoimmune conditions, rather than directly due to infection (although autoimmune conditions can be activated or exacerbated by infections.)

96. Which of the following infections can manifest with apical aneurysm of the heart, megaesophagus, and megacolon a. Schistosomiasis b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Visceral leishmaniasis e. Enterobius vermicularis

b. Trypanosoma cruzi

Which of the following infections can manifest with apical aneurysm of the heart, megaesophagus, and megacolon a. Schistosomiasis b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Visceral leishmaniasis e. Enterobius vermicularis

b. Trypanosoma cruzi - parasite

Which of the following pathogens don't invade into the mucosa, but cause disease via their enterotoxin: a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Vibrio cholera c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Yersinia enterocolitis e. Bacillus anthracis

b. Vibrio cholera

Which of the following pathogens don't invade into the mucosa, but cause disease via their enterotoxin a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Vibrio cholera c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Yersinia enterocolitis e. Bacillus anthracis

b. Vibrio cholera -> Cholera toxin increases adenylate cyclase function, increasing cAMP --> increased water secretion into intestines

Which vitamin deficiency is seen with anemia from atrophic gastritis: a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Pyridoxine deficiency e. E deficiency

b. Vitamin B12 deficiency

Which vitamin deficiency manifests with demyelination of the anterior horns of the spinal cord a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Vitamin B6 deficiency e. Vitamin E deficiency

b. Vitamin B12 deficiency

Which vitamin deficiency manifests with demyelination of the anterior horns of the spinal cord: a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Vitamin B6 deficiency e. Vitamin E deficiency

b. Vitamin B12 deficiency

Which vitamin deficiency is seen with anemia from atrophic gastritis a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Pyridoxine deficiency e. E deficiency

b. Vitamin B12 deficiency no production of intrinsic factors from the parietal cells of the stomach --> B12 can't be absorbed

Which of the vitamin deficiencies are associated with rachitis/rickets: a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin D deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) deficiency e. Vitamin C deficiency

b. Vitamin D deficiency Deficiency results in impaired bone mineralization and leads to bone softening diseases including rickets in children and osteomalacia and osteoporosis in adults

Which of the vitamin deficiencies are associated with rachitis/rickets a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin D deficiency c. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency d. Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) deficiency e. Vitamin C deficiency

b. Vitamin D deficiency Rickets is defective mineralization of bones before epiphyseal closure in immature mammals due to deficiency or impaired metabolism of vitamin D

How does collagen fibers stain in blue trichrome stain?

blue

Which color does hyaline stain in blue trichrome stain?

blue

Giemsa Romanowski

bone marrow

Is necrosis only found in cells, or can it affect the interstitial tissue as well?

both

Long-term chronic inflammatory reactions in tissue generally end with a. Resolution b. Liquefaction c. Fibrosis and atrophy of the involved tissue d. Progressive ischemia e. Fibrinous exudate

c - fibrosis and atrophy of the involved tissue

39. Pathological immune response II: a) is mediated by IgE antibodies b) antigens involved in this reaction are only endogenous c) a typical example of this disease is hemolytic anemia d) the type of immune response is always dependent on the presence of complement

c) A typical example of this disease is hemolytic anemia -Pathological immune response II and hypersensitivity II is the same I think. At least that makes sense since hemolytic anemia is an example of it. -IgE = I -Complement = III

38. What is true of T and B lymphocytes: a) plasma cells arise exclusively by transformation of T-lymphocytes b) so-called natural killer cells are transformed macrophages c) CD4 lymphocytes are mainly producers of lymphokines d) CD8 positive lymphocytes are activated B cells

c) CD4 lymphocytes are mainly producers of lymphokines

Which of the following mediators activates the retinoblastoma gene product (Rb protein): a) Plasminogen activator b) Colagenase IV c) Cyclin-dependent kinase d) p53 e) Ras

c) Cyclin-dependent kinase

Which of the following intermediate filaments are found in cancer cells? a) Vimentin b) Desmin c) Cytokeratin d) Tubulin e) Glial fibrillary protein

c) Cytokeratin

Human papilloma virus HPV is involved in cervical cancer: a) Ras activation b) Bcl-2 activation c) Deactivation of p53 d) activation of myc e) Rb-1 activation

c) Deactivation of p53

42. The general symptoms of inflammation do NOT include: a) Leukocytosis b) Hyperemia c) Fever d) Increased sedimentation

c) Fever -Leukocytosis: more WBC -Hyperemia: high blood flow to tissues -Sedimentation: sedimentation rate is common blood test that is used to detect and monitor inflammation in the body. The sedimentation rate is also called the erythrocyte sedimentation rate because it is a measure of the speed that the red blood cells (erythrocytes) in a tube of blood fall to the bottom of the tube, or sediment Redness. Joint swelling.Joint pain.Joint stiffness.Loss of joint function.

White thrombus is mainly composed of a) Erythrocytes b) Hyaline c) Granulocytes d) Fibrin and thrombocytes e) Monocytes

c) Granulocytes d) Fibrin and thrombocytes

12. The clinical picture of pelvic endometriosis does not include: a) infertility b) dysmenorrhea c) HPV infection d) ... menstruation

c) HPV infection A condition in which the tissue normally found inside the uterus (the endometrium) begins to grow outside of the uterus "" on the bladder, ovaries, bowel and pelvic sidewall.

All of the following statements about oncogenic RNA viruses are true, except: a) contain genes that have ancient origins in the genes of their host cells b) can transform cell effect on the host cells own genes c) HPV virus is an example d) are linked with the formation of leukemia in humans e) are linked to tumor formation in animals

c) HPV virus is an example

Which of the following best describes fluid exudate? a) Increased sodium content b) Low specific weight c) Increased protein content d) Chronic fluid accumulation e) Presence of anasarca

c) Increased protein content

What is true about thrombosis? a) Does not occur in flowing blood b) Does not arise in the heart c) Infected thrombus is a source of pyemia d) Obturating thrombus always induces ischemic necrosis e) Only arises in the lower extremities

c) Infected thrombus is a source of pyemia

Which of the following malignant tumors have increased occurrence in AIDS patients? a) Glioma b) Cystadenoma c) Large B-Cell lymphoma d) Rhabdomyosarcoma e) Hemangioendothelioma

c) Large B-Cell lymphoma

Which of the following conditions will macroscopically present like a hemorrhagic coagulative necrosis? a) Nutmeg liver b) Lung abscess c) Lung infarction d) Kidney infarction e) Traumatic hematoma

c) Lung infarction

In which of the following organs will we not fint thromboemboli from the left ventricle? a) Brain b) Kidneys c) Lungs d) Small intestine e) Spleen

c) Lungs

6. Epidural bleeding is due to rupture: a) Lenticulostriate arteries b) Aneurysm of Willis circle c) Medial meningeal artery d) Cavernous hemangioma

c) Medial meningeal artery

Which of the following type of giant cells has tumor origin: a) Langhans type of giant cell b) osteoclast c) RS (Reed-Sternberg) cell d) myogenic giant cell e) Foreign body type giant cell

c) RS (Reed-Sternberg) cell

56. Which statement describes the correct sequence of events: a) active hyperemia, transudation, passive hyperemia b) passive hyperemia, exudation, active hyperemia c) active hyperemia, passive hyperemia, exudation d) cell infiltration, passive hyperemia, inflammatory edema

c) active hyperemia, passive hyperemia, exudation

7. Reye's syndrome is a) effect of chronic alcoholism b) prion encephalopathy c) acute encephalopathy associated with liver steatosis d) complications of herpes encephalitis

c) acute encephalopathy associated with liver steatosis Reye's (Ryes) syndrome is a rare but serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Reye's syndrome most often affects children and teenagers recovering from a viral infection, most commonly the flu or chickenpox

What type of shock is associated with the action of superantigens a) cardiogenic shock b) hypovolemic shock c) anaphylactic shock d) neurogenic shock e) posthemorrhagic shock

c) anaphylactic shock

62. Hyaline droplets: a) are found only in epithelial cells b) are located in cardiomyocytes in myocardial infarction c) are located in plasma cells in chronic inflammation d) are located in macrophages in chronic purulent inflammation

c) are located in plasma cells in chronic inflammation Here they are talking about Russel bodies -Hyaline droplets: apical cytoplasmic vesicles containing an accumulation of electron-dense amorphous materials surrounded by a unit membrane. Hyaline droplets may originate from apical vesicles after conversion to osmotic vesicles and loss of internally lined glycocalyx. They are found in the proximal tubular epithelium in biopsies from patients with renal diseases. Hmmmm.....

79. For secondary systemic AA amyloidosis does not apply: a) accompanies chronic suppurative processes b) accompanies chronic TB c) arises from a pathological immunoglobulin production d) amyloid is deposited extracellularly

c) arises from a pathological immunoglobulin productio

Which of the following enzyme cofactors is/are required for the synthesis of collagen? a) integrins b) lactate c) ascorbic acid d) fibronectin e) laminin

c) ascorbic acid

68. Which is true of toxoplasmosis: a) is a viral disease b) is not transferred through placenta c) can cause ...opthalmia d) affects lymph nodes

c) can cause ...opthalmia d) affects lymph nodes - A parasitic disease caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii. -Animals are infected by eating infected meat, by ingestion of feces of a cat that has itself recently been infected, and by transmission from mother to fetus -During acute toxoplasmosis, symptoms are often influenza-like: swollen lymph nodes, or muscle aches and pains that last for a month or more -The parasite can cause encephalitis (inflammation of the brain) and neurological diseases, and can affect the heart, liver, inner ears, and eyes (chorioretinitis).

70. Neuroectoderm tumors do NOT include: a) malignant melanoma b) medulloblastoma c) carcinoma from C cells d) neurofibromas

c) carcinoma from C cells - Neuroectoderm tumor: a tumor of the central or peripheral nervous system. C-cell carcinoma - neuroendocrine tumo

Which of the following is/are not hematogenic pigments? a) hematoidin b) hemosderin c) ceroid d) bilirubin

c) ceroid

79. Which of the following may NOT always be a germ cell tumor? a) yolk sac tumor b) dysgerminoma c) choriocarcinoma d) teratoma

c) choriocarcinoma

Which of the following tumors are commonly associated with mutations in the APC gene? a) bronchogenic carcinoma b) adenocarcinoma of the uterine cervix c) colonic carcinoma d) squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

c) colonic carcinoma

Which of the following elements forms an early granulation tissue? a) fibronectin b) macrophages c) differentiated collagen d) fibrin e) glucosaminoglycans

c) differentiated collagen

Which type of cell is involved in organization of inflammatory exudate? a) epithelial cells b) mast cells and endothelial cells c) endothelial cells and fibroblasts d) adipocytes and myocytes e) neutrophils and macrophages

c) endothelial cells and fibroblasts

83. The staphylococcal infection does not cover: a) purulent bronchopneumonia b) carbuncle c) erysipel d) impetigo

c) erysipel

Which of the following is/are true of the RB gene: a) has no relationship to oncogenesis b) is one of the proto-oncogenes c) familial retinoblastoma inheritance requires one copy of the mutated RB gene c) for sporadic retinoblastoma both mutated copies of the RB gene are inherited

c) familial retinoblastoma inheritance requires one copy of the mutated RB gene

9. Which of the following is not found in Horner's syndrome? a) miosis b) ptosis c) fever d) enopthalmus

c) fever

31. The most common benign tumor of the mammary gland is: a) lipoma b) benign phyllodes tumor c) fibroadenoma d) leiomyoma

c) fibroadenoma Phyllodes tumor : fibroepithelial tumor, cystosarcoma

16. Pulmonary tuberculosis is not: a) military b) cavernous c) gangrenous d) caseous

c) gangrenous

34. Which of these tumors is rare in children? a) Medulloblastoma (infratentorial tumors) b) neuroblastoma c) glioblastoma d) astrocytoma (most common benign in children)

c) glioblastoma Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is the most common and most aggressive malignant primary brain tumor in humans, involving glial cells and accounting for 52% of all functional tissue brain tumor cases and 20% of all intracranial tumors. GBM is a rare disease

78. Tumors of childhoods do NOT include: a) Wilms tumors b) ALL c) glioblastoma d) invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast

c) glioblastoma d) invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast -Wilms tumor: cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children, rarely in adults. Most nephroblastomas are unilateral, being bilateral in less than 5% of cases, although patients with Denys-Drash syndrome mostly have bilateral or multiple tumors

Type of wound healing with minimal complication is addressed as a) healing throug keloid b) contraction wound c) helaing per primam intentionem d) remodelation e) healing per secundam intentionem

c) healing per primam intentionem

49. Icterus: a) means only an overall yellow color of the body tissues b) in total bilirubin icterus are colored in all tissues of the organism c) hematoidin has the composition as bilirubin d) icteric coloration is irreversible

c) hematoidin has the composition as bilirubin

Which type of jaundice can develop as a consequence of severe cardiac insufficiency? a) obstructive b) hemolytic and obstructive c) hepatocellular d) there is no association with icterus

c) hepatocellular

Which of the following is/are not associated with the celsus signs of inflammation? a) calor b) tumor c) hyperemia d) rubor

c) hyperemia

A large hemorrhage is encountered in the region of the basal ganglia during the autopsy of a 56 year old man, along with penetration of blood into the brain ventricles. Which of the following findings closely relates to the emergence of bleeding in this patient? a) atrial septal defect b) calcification of aortic valve c) hypertrophy of left ventricle d) atherosclerotic plaque in right carotid e) lung embolism

c) hypertrophy of left ventricle

4. Which of the following statements is not true about cystic fibrosis? a) it affects exocrine glands b) recurrent bronchopneumonia c) is complicated by diabetes mellitus d) can cause intestinal perforation

c) is complicated by diabetes mellitus Cystic fibrosis (CF), also known as mucoviscidosis, is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects mostly the lungs but also the pancreas, liver, and intestine. Difficulty breathing is the most serious symptom and results from frequent lung infections. Other symptoms—including sinus infections, poor growth, and infertility—affect other parts of the body. CF is caused by one of many different mutations in the gene for the protein cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR). This protein is required to regulate the components of sweat, digestive fluids, and mucus

Embryonic carcinoma: a) is a malignant tumor affecting the embryo b) belongs among the congenital tumors c) is highly malignant d) producing high quantity of hCG e) no tumor of this name do exist

c) is highly malignant

8. For rheumatoid arthritis the following applies: a) it is a migratory polyarthritis b) leaves lasting effects on bones and joints c) is part of the manifestations of acute rheumatic fever d) is accompanied by formation of caseous epithelioid granulomas

c) is part of the manifestations of acute rheumatic fever

Which of the following is/are true of embryocarcinoma? a) malignant tumor affecting the fetus b) include congenital tumors c) it is highly malignant d) there is no such thing as embrocarcinoma

c) it is highly malignant

Which of the following is/are true of chordoma? a) spinal cord tumor b) benign tumor of cartilage c) it is usually composed of cells containing glycogen d) often located in the upper jaw

c) it is usually composed of cells containing glycogen

Which of the following is/are true of pancreatic pseudocyst? a) is lined by epithelium b) it is a congenital anomaly associated with cystic fibrosis c) its wall is formed by connective tissue lacking epithelium d) is of neoplastic origin, lined by dysplastic epithelium

c) its wall is formed by connective tissue lacking epithelium

Which of the following is least likely to change in a child dying of acute rheumatic fever? a) Aschoff nodules b) pericarditis c) large decaying vegetations on the mitral valve d) increased titer of antistreptolysin O (ASO titre)

c) large decaying vegetations on the mitral valve

16. Which of the following cells are not associated with Hodgkin's lmphoma? a) RS cells b) - c) lymphoblasts d) cells of Hodgkin

c) lymphoblasts

88. Granulation tissue consist of: a) macrophages and plasma cells and granulocytes b) lymphocytes, epithelioid cells and giant cells c) macrophages, capillaries, fibroblasts or inflammatory cells d) granuloma

c) macrophages, capillaries, fibroblasts or inflammatory cells

Which of the following statements is/are true of prostate adenocarcinoma? a) the main cause is alcohol b) it is caused by viral infections c) mainly metastasizes to bone d) it is more often frequent in the age group 20-40 years

c) mainly metastasizes to bone

Which of the following tumors belong among the soft tissue tumors? a) serous carcinoma b) embryonic carcinoma c) malignant fibrous histiocytoma d) hemangioma

c) malignant fibrous histiocytoma d) hemangioma

Which of the following statements/s is/are not correct? a) the behavior of sarcomas is usually determined by the least differentiated component b) sarcomas arise from the mesoderm c) malignant mesenchymal tumors are more common than malignant tumors of epithelial origin d) non-Hodgkin lymphomas are more common in immunosuppressed patients

c) malignant mesenchymal tumors are more common than malignant tumors of epithelial origin Epithelial tumors are more often malignant!!

35. Which statement is incorrect: a) mural thrombus can be seen by the naked eye b) red thrombus is stagnating c) mural thrombi are formed in capillaries d) in the heart thrombi arise only in atrium

c) mural thrombi are formed in capillaries d) in the heart thrombi arise only in atrium Mural thrombi are thrombi that adhere to the wall of a blood vessel. They occur in large vessels such as heart and aorta, and can restrict blood flow but usually do not block it entirely. They appear grey-red with alternating light and dark lines (known as lines of Zahn) which represent bands of fibrin (lighter) with entrapped white blood cells and red blood cells (darker).

15. Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by the presence of: a) lymphoblasts b) RS cells c) myeloblasts d) lymphohistiocytic cells

c) myeloblasts A cancer of the myeloid line of blood cells, characterized by the rapid growth of abnormal white blood cells that accumulate in the bone marrow and interfere with the production of normal blood cells. AML is the most common acute leukemia affecting adults.

25. Mycosis fungoides is characterized by the presence of: a) papillary microabscess b) abscesses c) neoplastic T lymphocytes d) neoplastic B lymphocytes

c) neoplastic T lymphocytes Mycosis fungoides, also known as Alibert-Bazin syndrome or granuloma fungoides, is the most common form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. It generally affects the skin, but may progress internally over time. Characterized by "Pautriers Microabscesses", probably why a and b are wrong.. :)

26. Wilms tumor is another name for: a) hepatoblastoma b) neuroblastoma c) nephroblastoma d) retinoblastoma

c) nephroblastoma Wilms' tumor, or nephroblastoma is cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children, rarely in adults. Most nephroblastomas are unilateral, being bilateral in less than 5% of cases. They tend to be encapsulated and vascularized tumors that do not cross the midline of the abdomen. In cases of metastasis it is usually to the lung

14. Deficiency of alpha-1-antitrypsin causes emphysema: a) compensatory b) congenital c) panacinar d) centroacinar

c) panacinar There are two major types of emphysema: centrilobular (centriacinar) and panlobular (panacinar). The former involves primarily the upper lobes while the latter involves all lung fields, particularly the bases Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes defective production of alpha 1-antitrypsin, leading to decreased A1AT activity in the blood and lungs, and deposition of excessive abnormal A1AT protein in liver cells. Severe A1AT deficiency causes panacinar emphysema or COPD in adult life in many people with the condition (especially if they are exposed to cigarette smoke).

Which of the reported properties of tumor cells is involved in tumor invasiveness: a) increasing mutual cohesion of tumor cells and their increased adhesion to the substrate b) decrease in the number of laminin receporu c) production of metalloproteinases d) overexpression of bcl-2 e) the presence of the t(8:14)

c) production of metalloproteinases

29. Where is probably the primary cancer in a man with osteoblastic metastasis in bone: a) large intestine b) lung c) prostate d) kidney

c) prostate

Between retention cysts belongs: a) dermoid cyst b) ganglion c) ranula (mucocele) d) echinococcus cyst e) cystic spaces dilated cerebral ventricles in hydrocephalus

c) ranula (mucocele)

Which of the following pairs of pseudotumors are WRONG? a) pseudocyst- cavity without actual lining b) chocolate cyst- posthemorrhagic origin c) retention cyst- clogging of the epithelium d) parasitic cyst- chubby tapeworm e) implantation cyst- pin plug of sebaceous glands

c) retention cyst- clogging of the epithelium e) implantation cyst- pin plug of sebaceous glands

Which of the following substances is/are most commonly produced by intestinal carcinoid tumors? a) adrenaline b) heparin c) serotonin d) vanillylmandelic acid

c) serotonin

13. Which statement is true? a) inhalation of amorphous carbon and pulmonary fibrosis b) asbestosis and the development of hepatocellular carcinoma c) silicosis and silicotic nodules d) silicosis and acute cor pulmonale

c) silicosis and silicotic nodules Silicosis is a form of occupational lung disease caused by inhalation of crystalline silica dust, and is marked by inflammation and scarring in the form of nodular lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. It is a type of pneumoconiosis

Septic shock occurs from a) excessive loss of volume of the kidneys and gastrointestinal pressure b) loss of autonomic control of heart activity c) systemic vasodilation and increased vascular permeability d) uncontrolled vasoconstriction e) sudden bleeding

c) systemic vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

Which of the following tumors belongs among germ cell tumors? a) embryonic rhabdomyosarcoma b) Wilms tumor c) teratoma d) medulloblastoma

c) teratoma

Which of the following is/are not true of the basic mechanisms of steatosis? a) lipoprotein synthesis disorders b) disorders of beta-oxidation in mitochondria c) the failure of cell membrane permeability d) lysosomal dysfunction

c) the failure of cell membrane permeability

50. Which is true of hypertrophy of the heart: a) there is a proliferation of cardiomyocytes b) can only be determined microscopically c) the main parameter for the diagnosis is heart weight d) may be reversible

c) the main parameter for the diagnosis is heart weight d) may be reversible

62. What is true of hypertrophy of the heart: a) there is a proliferation of cardiomyocytes b) can be determined only microscopically c) the main parameter for the diagnosis is the heart weight d) may be reversible

c) the main parameter for the diagnosis is the heart weight d) may be reversible

Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by: a) high levels of serum amylase b) high levels of amylase in urine c) the presence of pancreatic pseudocysts d) the presence of balser necrosis

c) the presence of pancreatic pseudocysts

23. Multiple myeloma is not characterized by: a) skeletal involvement b) hypercalcemia c) the proliferation of lymphoblasts d) the proliferation of malignant plasma cells

c) the proliferation of lymphoblasts Multiple myeloma, also known as plasma cell myeloma or Kahler's disease is a cancer of plasma cells, a type of white blood cell normally responsible for producing antibodies. In multiple myeloma, collections of abnormal plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow, where they interfere with the production of normal blood cells. Most cases of multiple myeloma also feature the production of a paraprotein—an abnormal antibody which can cause kidney problems. Bone lesions and hypercalcemia (high blood calcium levels) are also often encountered.

36. Paradoxial embolism: a) occurs in systemic hypertension b) is directed from the left heart into the right side c) the requirments is an open foramen ovale and increased pressure in the right heart d) occurs only in bacterial endocarditis

c) the requirments is an open foramen ovale and increased pressure in the right heart A paradoxical embolism, also called a crossed embolism, is a kind of stroke or other form of arterial thrombosis caused by embolism of a thrombus (blood clot) of venous origin through a lateral opening in the heart, such as a patent foramen ovale. The opening is typically an atrial septal defect, but can also be a ventricular septal defect.

Which of the following is/are not characteristic of glioblastoma? a) it is most common among people older than 50 years b) frequently palisading necrosis is present c) the tumor border is sharp d) mitotic activity is high

c) the tumor border is sharp

18. For Buerger disease does not apply: a) it affects the limbs b) it affects heavy smokers c) they are necrotizing vasculitis d) it is preceded by phlebitis migrans

c) they are necrotizing vasculitis Thromboangiitis obliterans (or presenile gangrene) is a recurring progressive inflammation and thrombosis (clotting) of small and medium arteries and veins of the hands and feet. It is strongly associated with use of tobacco products, primarily from smoking! Buerger's disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is a rare disease of the arteries and veins in the arms and legs. In Buerger's disease, your blood vessels become inflamed, swell and can become blocked with blood clots (thrombi). This eventually damages or destroys skin tissues and may lead to infection and gangrene. Thrombophlebitis is phlebitis (vein inflammation) related to a thrombus (blood clot). When it occurs repeatedly in different locations, it is known as "Thrombophlebitis migrans", "migrating thrombophlebitis" or Trousseau's syndrome

Which of these characters is least characteristic of fresh pulmonary infarcts? a) fibrinous pleuritis b) they are more common in patients with heart failure c) they have a pale color d) have a wedge shape

c) they have a pale color They are hemorrhagic -RED

General marker of mesenchymal cell origin is: a) cytokeratin b) tubulin c) vimentin d) glial fibrillary protein e) S 100 protein

c) vimentin

Which of the following vitamins are not water-soluble a. Biotin b. Niacin c. Vitamin D d. Thiamine (B1) e. Riboflavin (B2)

c) vitamin D (ADEK) A - retinol/retinoic acid D - Calcitriol E - Tocopherol K -

Which of the following infectious agents cause tetanus a. S. pyogenes b. C. perfringens c. C. botulinum d. C. tetani e. C. difficile

c. C. tetani

Which cell type are most markedly decreased in HIV patients a. Cells of the monocyte-macrophage cell line b. Cytotoxic/Suppressor T lymphocytes c. CD4+ (Helper/Inducer) lymphocytes d. Mature plasma cells e. Pre-B lymphocytes

c. CD4+ (Helper/Inducer) lymphocytes

Which cell type are most markedly decreased in HIV patients: a. Cells of the monocyte-macrophage cell line b. Cytotoxic/Suppressor T lymphocytes c. CD4+ (Helper/Inducer) lymphocytes d. Mature plasma cells e. Pre-B lymphocytes

c. CD4+ (Helper/Inducer) lymphocytes

Pneumocystis carinii - Which statements are correct a. Cause atypical pneumonia in all affected individuals b. Usually cause encephalitis leading to death c. Cause atypical pneumonia in immuncompromised patients d. Can cause atypical pneumonia in premature children e. Can manifest as a foamy mass in the alveoli

c. Cause atypical pneumonia in immuncompromised patients d. Can cause atypical pneumonia in premature children e. Can manifest as a foamy mass in the alveoli

Pneumocystis carinii - Which statements are correct: a. Cause atypical pneumonia in all affected individuals b. Usually cause encephalitis leading to death c. Cause atypical pneumonia in immuncompromised patients d. Can cause atypical pneumonia in premature children e. Can manifest as a foamy mass in the alveoli

c. Cause atypical pneumonia in immuncompromised patients d. Can cause atypical pneumonia in premature children e. Can manifest as a foamy mass in the alveoli Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP), formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), is the most common opportunistic infection in persons with HIV infection.

103. Which of the following infectious agents cause ornithosis a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

c. Chlamydia psittaci

Which of the following infectious agents cause ornithosis a. Coxiella burnetti b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Rickettsia prowazekii

c. Chlamydia psittaci

93. Which of the following infectious agents cause botulism a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Clostridium difficile

c. Clostridium botulinum

Which of the following infectious agents cause botulism a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani e. Clostridium difficile

c. Clostridium botulinum

Which of the following gene is among tumor suppressor genes? a. Ras b. Neu c. DCC d. Abl e. Ret

c. DCC - Deleted in Colorectal Carcinoma (gene on chrom. 18)

Which of the following statements about calcification are correct a. Metastatic calcification is most commonly caused by hypervitaminosis D b. Dystrophic calcification never originates from neoplasms c. Dystrophic calcification often originates from caseous necrosis d. Metastatic calcification affects the tunica media of muscular arteries e. Calcification never affects the cornea

c. Dystrophic calcification often originates from caseous necrosis

Which of the following tissue changes is characteristic for rheumatic nodules a. Caseous necrosis with a histiocytic rim b. Suppurative necrosis with granulocytes c. Fibrinoid necrosis with a histiocytic rim d. Necrotizing arteritis with regional infection e. Several multinuclear giant cells from foreign bodies with crystals

c. Fibrinoid necrosis with a histiocytic rim Rheumatic nodules are usually subcutaneous especially over bony prominences such as the tip of the elbow or olecranon or over the finger knuckles. they consist of a shell of fibrous tissue surrounding a center of fibrinoid necrosis.

In the tissue of patients with Tay-Sachs disease we find increased content of a. Sphingomyelin b. Hexosaminidase A c. GM2 gangliosides d. Cerebrosides e. Keratin sulfate

c. GM2 gangliosides

What is the most common cause of genital ulcers in the western industrialized world a. Chancroid b. Chondylomata c. Genital herpes d. Primary syphilis e. Granuloma inguinale

c. Genital herpes

What is the most common cause of genital ulcers in the western industrialized world a. Chancroid b. Chondylomata c. Genital herpes d. Primary syphilis e. Granuloma inguinale

c. Genital herpes

A 40-year-old HIV-positive man with a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 25/mm3 complains of progressive memory impairment, confusion and problems with incontinence. MRI shows mild cerebral atrophy. The patient later dies from disseminated aspergillosis. During autopsy of the brain, cerebral atrophy is confirmed macroscopically. Histologically in the cerebral tissue there are found mulitiple lympho-histiocytic infiltrates with numerous microglial nodes/foci and dispersed large multinuclear cells. Which of the following conditions would most likely cause the patients complaints a. Aspergillosis b. CMV encephalitis c. HIV encephalitis d. Mycobacterial infection e. Vacuolar myelopathy

c. HIV encephalitis

A 40-year-old HIV-positive man with a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 25/mm3 complains of progressive memory impairment, confusion and problems with incontinence. MRI shows mild cerebral atrophy. The patient later dies from disseminated aspergillosis. During autopsy of the brain, cerebral atrophy is confirmed macroscopically. Histologically in the cerebral tissue there are found mulitiple lympho-histiocytic infiltrates with numerous microglial nodes/foci and dispersed large multinuclear cells. Which of the following conditions would most likely cause the patients complaints: a. Aspergillosis b. CMV encephalitis c. HIV encephalitis d. Mycobacterial infection e. Vacuolar myelopathy

c. HIV encephalitis

Which complication is the least severe for patients with extensive second and third degree burns a. Fluid loss b. Infection c. Hyperthermia d. Scars e. Pain

c. Hyperthermia

Which complication is the least severe for patients with extensive second and third degree burns: a. Fluid loss b. Infection c. Hyperthermia d. Scars e. Pain

c. Hyperthermia

117. All of the following diseases are connected with the herpes viridae except a. Herpes zoster b. Varicella c. Influenza d. CMV e. Infectious mononucleosis

c. Influenza

All of the following diseases are connected with the herpes viridae except a. Herpes zoster b. Varicella c. Influenza d. CMV e. Infectious mononucleosis

c. Influenza

Which of the following statements about pseudocysts of the pancreas are correct a. Its lined by mucin-producing epithelium b. It's a congenital anomaly associated with CF of the pancreas c. It has a wall formed of connective tissue, without epithelia d. Its an acquired condition, predisposition is of AD heredity e. It's a neoplastic origin, lined by dysplastic epithelium

c. It has a wall formed of connective tissue, without epithelia

Which of the following statements don't apply for rheumatic endomyocarditis a. It has a tendency to recur b. It often originates in children and the young c. It is often associated with rheumatoid arthritis of large joints d. We can find Aschoff bodies in the affected area e. It can lead to mitral and aortic stenosis or insufficiency

c. It is often associated with rheumatoid arthritis of large joints (hmm.. revise this! )

Which of the following statements about mucoviscidosis(CF) are not correct a. Cystic pancreatofibrosis is a synonym b. We find a defect of the permeability of Cl in the apical membrane of epithelial cells c. It occurs during loss of water and ions in the GIT d. It cause infertility e. Development of cor pulmonale is a complication of this disease

c. It occurs during loss of water and ions in the GIT

Which of the following statements about hyaline droplets are correct a. It`s ethopathogenically a intracellular process b. It`s a irreversible process c. It occurs in the liver during dysfunction of alpha-1-antitrypsin d. It don`t occur in the kidneys e. It manifests as albumin accumulation in the proximal renal tubules

c. It occurs in the liver during dysfunction of alpha-1-antitrypsin e. It manifests as albumin accumulation in the proximal renal tubules

Which of the following statements about acinonodular TBC are not correct a. The granulomas also contain lymphocytes b. It's considered a chronic organizing form of TBC c. It originates from post-primary tuberculosis by hematogenous spread d. It's a post-primary phtysis of the lung e. It originates by intra-pulmonary spread of the organisms

c. It originates from post-primary tuberculosis by hematogenous spread

Chloasma uterinum a. Is a localized hormonally conditioned decrease of skin pigmentation b. It originates from UV radiation c. Its increased pigmentation in the region of linea fusca and the breasts d. It originates from superficial skin inflammations e. Its increased levels of lipofuscin pigmentation of the myometrium during pregnancy

c. Its increased pigmentation in the region of linea fusca and the breasts

Which of the following metals cause anemia with basophilic mottling/stipling a. Cadmium b. Iron c. Lead d. Nickel e. Zinc

c. Lead

Which of the following metals cause anemia with basophilic mottling/stipling a. Cadmium b. Iron c. Lead d. Nickel e. Zinc

c. Lead

Which of the following metals cause peripheral neuropathy of the motor nerves in adults and encephalopathy in children a. Cadmium b. Barium c. Lead d. Nickel e. Zinc

c. Lead

Which of the following metals cause peripheral neuropathy of the motor nerves in adults and encephalopathy in children: a. Cadmium b. Barium c. Lead d. Nickel e. Zinc

c. Lead

Which of the following metals cause the formation of metaphysic lines in growing bones: a. Arsenic b. Barium c. Lead d. Nickel e. Zinc

c. Lead

In which organ do we find characteristic pathological changes in yellow fever a. Brain b. Lungs c. Liver d. Spleen e. Stomach

c. Liver

In which organ do we find characteristic pathological changes in yellow fever a. Brain b. Lungs c. Liver d. Spleen e. Stomach

c. Liver

Which manifestation are most characteristic for staphylococcal infection a. Diffuse scarring b. Acute interstitial inflammation c. Multiple abscesses d. Mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate e. Lobar involvement of the lung

c. Multiple abscesses

Which manifestation are most characteristic for staphylococcal infection a. Diffuse scarring b. Acute interstitial inflammation c. Multiple abscesses d. Mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate e. Lobar involvement of the lung

c. Multiple abscesses streptococcus causes the lobar pneumonia staph would typically produce PMN infiltrate

101. Which of the following organisms are obligate intracellular parasites a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium leprae d. Histoplasma capsulatum e. Legionella pneumophila

c. Mycobacterium leprae

100. What is the typical complications of diphtheria a. Peritonitis b. Meningitis c. Myocarditis d. Hepatitis e. Nephritis

c. Myocarditis

Purulent exudate is best characterized like a. Pus mixed with necrotic epithelia b. Macrophages and connective tissue c. Neutrophils and fluid rich in protein d. Fluid without protein present e. Proliferating fibroblasts

c. Neutrophils and fluid rich in protein (also necrotic debris and fibrin)

113. Which findings can we expect in the stool of patients with cholera a. Multiple basophils b. Multiple mononuclear cells c. None or only isolated leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

c. None or only isolated leukocytes

119. Which finding can we expect in the stool of patients with infectious enterotoxigenic E. coli a. Multiple basophils b. Multiple mononuclear cells c. None or only isolated leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

c. None or only isolated leukocytes

Which finding can we expect in the stool of patients with infectious enterotoxigenic E. coli a. Multiple basophils b. Multiple mononuclear cells c. None or only isolated leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

c. None or only isolated leukocytes

Which findings can we expect in the stool of patients with cholera a. Multiple basophils b. Multiple mononuclear cells c. None or only isolated leukocytes d. Multiple polymorphonuclear cells e. Multiple giant multinuclear cells

c. None or only isolated leukocytes

So-called pemzové (''spongious'') lungs are most commonly found in patients with a. Lipidosis b. Mucoviscidosis c. Osteolytic metastases d. Connective tissue defects e. Kidney failure on dialysis

c. Osteolytic metastases

Erysipelas is an infectious disease characterized by which type of inflammation a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Phlegmonous d. Abscess e. Empyema

c. Phlegmonous

Erysipelas is an infectious disease characterized by which type of inflammation a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Phlegmonous d. Abscess e. Empyema

c. Phlegmonous It is an acute infection typically with a skin rash, usually on any of the legs and toes, face, arms and fingers. It is an infection of the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, usually caused by Beta-hemolytic group A streptococcus bacteria on scratches or otherwise infected areas

Which of the following condition is caused by infection with Epstein-Barr virus? a. Chromosomal translocation b. T-cell necrosis c. Polyclonal proliferation of B-cells d. Monoclonal proliferation of B-cells e. Polyclonal proliferation of T-cells

c. Polyclonal proliferation of B-cells

Which of the following substances is NOT a tumor marker? a. Alfa-fetoprotein (AFP) b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSE) c. Prolactin d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) e. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

c. Prolactin

Neutrophilia with a left-shift is a sign of inflammation caused by a. TBC b. Acute viral infection c. Pyogenic bacterial infection d. Chronic mycotic infection e. Parasitic infection

c. Pyogenic bacterial infection

In which of the following Rickettsial infections are vasculitis not present a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever b. Tsutsugamushi fever c. Q fever d. Epidemic typhus (louse) e. Murine (endemic) typhus (Flea)

c. Q fever

In which of the following Rickettsial infections are vasculitis not present: a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever b. Tsutsugamushi fever c. Q fever d. Epidemic typhus (louse) e. Murine (endemic) typhus (Flea)

c. Q fever - Caused by the bacteria coxiella burnetii: it was originally identified as a species of Rickettsia, but it is no longer regarded as closely related to Rickettsiae

On autopsy of the lung of a child of who dies of acute pneumonia there is found numerous Warthin-Finkeldey cells with more than 100 nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent a. EBV b. CMV c. Rubella d. Mumps e. HIV

c. Rubella

110. On autopsy of the lung of a child of who dies of acute pneumonia there is found numerous Warthin-Finkeldey cells with more than 100 nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent a. EBV b. CMV c. Rubella d. Mumps e. HIV

c. Rubella - measles

115. Which of the following complications can one encounter in a patient with mononucleosis a. Burkitt's lymphoma b. Brain abscesses c. Ruptured spleen d. Liver cirrhosis e. Gonadal atrophy

c. Ruptured spleen

Which of the following complications can one encounter in a patient with mononucleosis a. Burkitt's lymphoma b. Brain abscesses c. Ruptured spleen d. Liver cirrhosis e. Gonadal atrophy

c. Ruptured spleen I would say that EBV mononucleosis can present with complication --> Burkitts lymphoma!

Homogenous eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in plasma cells are called a. Dutcher bodies b. Corpora amylacea c. Russel bodies d. Hyaline nuclei e. Glycogen nuclei

c. Russel bodies

Fibrinoid changes of connective tissue typically occurs during a. Hyperuricemia b. Diabetes c. Rheumatic fever d. Myxedema e. Chronic irritation

c. rheumatic fever

Van Kossa

calcium Used to see mineralization of tissues

What does Grocott stain?

carbohydrates and fungi

All of the following substances cause reversible accumulation in hepatocytes except a. Fat from consumption of fatty food products b. Iron from hemolyzed erythrocytes c. Carbon particles d. Vitamin B12 e. Glycogen

carbon particles

How does mutations arise?

changes in base sequence of DNA (only!)

C Proliferative Inflammation

characteristic feature is formation of connective tissue due to granulation tissue or due to hyperplasia EXAMPLES: Productive polyserositis (Curshmann disease), palmar fasciitis Increased healing in other types of inflammations

When do we have strawberry gallbladder?

cholesterolosis of the gallbladder (Excessive cholesterol) The name strawberry gallbladder comes from the typically stippled appearance of the mucosal surface on gross examination, which resembles a strawberry.Cholesterolosis results from abnormal deposits of cholesterol esters in macrophages within the lamina propria [foam cells] and in mucosal epithelium.

In a patient that died from sepsis during bacterial endocarditis, it was during autopsy of the parenchyma of the left kidney and spleen found yellow wedge-shaped foci of inflammation under the capsule. It most likely represents a. Liquefactive necrosis b. Coagulation necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Hemorrhagic necrosis e. Fibrinoid necrosis

coagulative necrosis

Weigert van Giesen

collagen, elastic fibers (artery, vein)

Which of the following lesions can be observed in all stages of syphilis a. Chancre b. Condylomata lata c. Gumma d. Vasculitis e. Tabes dorsalis

d - Vasculitis wrong: Condylomata lata - is a cutaneous condition characterized by wart like lesions on the genitals. - They are generally symptoms of the secondary phase of syphilis, caused by the spirochete, Treponema pallidum. Tabes dorsalis - Tabes dorsalis, also known as syphilitic myelopathy, is a slow degeneration (specifically, demyelination) of the nerves primarily in the dorsal columns (posterior columns) of the spinal cord (the portion closest to the back of the body). Tertiary stage of syphilis Gumma - tertiary stage of syphilis

Cor villosum originates following which type of inflammation a. Serous b. Non-suppurative c. Suppurative d. Fibrinous e. Gangrenous

d - fibrionus inflammation

Which of the following conditions are usually not associated with postprimary TBC a . Endogenous reactivation b. Reinfection c. TBC superinfection d. Generalized mililary TBC e. Localized TBC in the kidneys

d - generalized miliary TBC (hematogenous spread)

What is Trichinella spiralis?

Parasitic - worm

Aneurysms originating in syphilitic infections a. Most often involve the thoracic aorta b. Are caused by gummae c. Spirochetes can possibly be found in the wall of the affected vessel d. It can be cured by antibiotic therapy e. The wall is weakened by fibrinoid necrosis of the tuncia media

a - Most often involve the thoracic aorta

Granulomatous inflammation often leads to a. Fibrosis of the involved tissue b. Coagulation necrosis of the involved tissue c. Resolution with return to normal tissue architecture d. Liquefaction of the involved tissue e. Ulceration of the involved tissue

a - fibrosis of the involved tissue

Which substance accumulates during intravascular hemolysis a. Hemosiderin b. Hematoidin c. Bilirubin d. Hemoglobin e. Hematin

a - hemosiderin c - bilirubin d - hemoglobin

76. Ulcer means: a) deeper tissue surface defect b) the cavity created by the distintegration of tissue c) the inflammatory infiltrate in the tissue d) a synonym of the erosion

a) deeper tissue surface defect

W of the following items can be linked to lung cancer: a) aflatoxin b) chronic pneumonia c) benzen d) radon e) cadmium

d) radon

89. The characteristics of a malignant tumor do not cover: a) clonal proliferation b) invasive growth c) cell immortalisation d) reduced mitotic time

d) reduced mitotic time

Is this a correct definition: Necrosis - Cell death without accompanying inflammatory change

no

is hemosiderin stained blue in HE ?

no

Do we have caseous necrosis in sarcoidosis?

no (Sarcoidosis is a disease characterized by non-necrotizing ("non-caseating") granulomas in multiple organs )

Does liquefactive necrosis usually occur in the lungs?

no (brain or infectious areas)

Is the post mortem stiffnes caused by either release of tissue proteases or blood coagulation?

no, neither

During embryonic development is apoptosis, atrophy, growth and mitotic activity all normal processes?

no, not atrophy.. but the others are

Can we heal necrosis?

no, not reversible

Does necrosis and apoptosis lead to increased extent of inflammatory response?

no, only necrosis will do that

During apoptosis, is ther inflammation of surrounding tissue?

no, that's the case in necrosis

Which of the blot techniques are used for DNA detection?

northern blot

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

o Cytoplasm has PAS+ material

Symptoms of Niemann Pick disease type C ?

o ataxia: failure of muscular coordination o vertical supranuclear gaze palsy o dystonia --> involuntary muscle contractions o dysarthria --> motor speech disorder o psychomotor regression

Kawasaki syndrome

often in children. Arteritis (medium vessels) with mucocutaneous LN syndrome. Coronary aa can be involved with aneurysm formation and/or thrombus.

Where is the mutation of Tay Sachs found?

on chromosome 15

Do the monoclonal Ab recognise all epitopes or only one epitope on the Ag ?

only one epitope of the antigen

32.Which of the following is/are true of amniotic fluid embolism? 1) May cause symptoms of pulmonary embolism. 2) Its often a clinically insignificant complication of childbirth. 3) Its leads to a massive increase in circulating blood volume and to circulation overload. 4) Serious complications of aminotic fluid embolism do not include DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) and bleeding.

1) May cause symptoms of pulmonary embolism. -A rare obstetric emergency in which amniotic fluid, fetal cells, hair, or other debris enters the mother's blood stream via the placental bed of the uterus and trigger an allergic reaction. This reaction then results in cardiorespiratory (heart and lung) collapse and coagulopathy. -DIC: a pathological process characterized by the widespread activation of the clotting cascade that results in the formation of blood clots in the small blood vessels throughout the body. This leads to compromise of tissue blood flow and can ultimately lead to multiple organ damage. In addition, as the coagulation process consumes clotting factors and platelets, normal clotting is disrupted and severe bleeding can occur from various sites. DIC does not occur by itself but only as a complicating factor from another underlying condition

2. Which of the following can distinguish a leiomyosarcoma from rhabdomyosarcoma? 1) Only in rhabdomyosarcoma do we find striations in the cytoplasm. 2) Leiomyosarcoma is found mostly in young ages. 3) Leiomyosarcoma is found only in the uterus, while rhabdomyosarcoma is in the heart only. 4) Rhabdymyosarcoma never forms distant metastases.

1) Only in rhabdomyosarcoma do we find striations in the cytoplasm. -Leiomyosarcoma (LMS): smooth muscle CT tumor (malignant) -Rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS): cancer cells from sk.muscle prog,. cancer of CT -RMS can metastase -LMS is found in uterus, intestines, sk.muscle etc.

4. Adenoma of the liver is associated with: 1) oral contraceptives 2) polycythemia vera 3) hepatatis A 4) hepatitis B

1) Oral contraceptives. -90% -Benign tumor

11. Which of the following is/are complications of acute myocardial infarction? 1) pericardial tamponade 2) cardiac arrhythmias 3) the emergence of an acute aneurysm of the chamber wall/s 4) the development of amyloidosis

1) Pericardial tamponade 2) Cardiac arrhythmias 3) The emergence of an acute aneurysm of the chamber wall/s -Pericardial tamponade: pericardial effusion (pus, fluid, blood clott, gas) in pericardium that compresses the heart (slow or rapid) -Amyloidosis is not acute, it takes time!

What types of systemic amyloidosis do we have?

1) Primary amyloidosis: AL, associated with plasma cell duscransias 2) Secondary amyloidosis: AA, derived from serum amyloid-associated portein. SAA is increased in chronic inflammatory states, malignancy, and Familial Mediterranean fever.

What types of localized amyloidosis to we have?

1) Senile cardiac amyloidosis 2) Familial amyloid cardiomyopathy 3) Non-insuline dependent DM (Amylin) 4) Alzheimer disease 5) Dialysis-associated amyloidosis (beta2-microglobulin deposition in joint) 6) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

92. Which of the following is/are NOT true for catarrhal inflammation? 1) The accumulation of macrophages in tissue 2) Overproduction of mucus 3) mucosal oedema 4) the presence of granulocytes in the exudate

1) The accumulation of macrophages in tissue catarrhal inflammation, is a disorder of inflammation of the mucous membranes in one of the airways or cavities of the body.It can result in a thick exudate of mucus and white blood cells caused by the swelling of the mucous membranes in the head in response to an infection.

39. Which statement is/are true: 1) The main feature distinguishing benign and malignant tumors are differentiation and the mode of growth. 2) The main criterion for the biological behaviour of a tumor is its size. 3) Benign tumors never transforms into malignant tumors. 4) Other options are NOT true.

1) The main feature distinguishing benign and malignant tumors are differentiation and the mode of growth.

50. Which of the following is/are true of RS cells: 1) they are cancer diagnostic elements for hodgkin lymphomas 2) they are cancer diagnostic elements for non-Hodgkin`s lymphomas 3) they are tumor elements which are diagnostic of sarcidosis 4) they are cancer diagnostic elements in leukemia

1) They are cancer diagnostic elements for hodgkin lymphomas -RS cells: Reed-Sternberg cells (also known as lacunar histiocytes for certain types) are different giant cells found with light microscopy in biopsies from individuals with Hodgkin's lymphoma (aka Hodgkin's disease; a type of lymphoma). They are usually derived from B lymphocytes, classically considered crippled germinal center B cells, meaning they have not undergone hypermutation to express their antibody. Seen against a sea of B cells, they give the tissue a moth-eaten appearance.

88. Which of the following is/are true of teratomas? 1) They belong among germinal tumors. 2) They are always malignant. 3) They are always benign. 4) They arise only in the ovary or testis.

1) They belong among germinal tumors.

59. Which of the following is are true of pathological immune response type III reactions?: 1) a typical example of immuno-complex disease is glomerulonephritis 2) disease caused by immune complex always have a chronic course 3) this type of reaction occurs only under assumption that immune complexes circulate in the blood 4) a systemic disease of this type include hives

1) a typical example of immuno-complex disease is glomerulonephritis Type III hypersensitivity occurs when antigen-antibody complexes that are not adequately cleared by innate immune cells accumulate, giving rise to an inflammatory response and attraction of leukocytes. Hence, vasculitis, glomerulonephritis and arthritis are commonly associated conditions as a result of type III hypersensitivity responses

57. Which of the following brain tumors is/are most common in adults: 1) astrocytoma 2) oligodendroglioma 3) medulloblastoma 4) glioblastoma

1) astrocytoma remember that medulloblastoma are most common in children!

78. Which of the following is/are of septic shock 1) can be accompanied by Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome 2) Other options are NOT true 3) Never accompanies suppurative leptomeningitis 4) is associated with staphylococcal infections

1) can be accompanied by Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (WFS) or hemorrhagic adrenalitis or Fulminant meningococcemia, is defined as adrenal gland failure due to bleeding into the adrenal glands, caused by severe bacterial (or rarely viral) infection (most commonly the meningococcus Neisseria meningitidis)

43. Which of the following is/are NOT morphological patterns seen in early congenital syphilis: 1. Gumma. 2. Osteochondritis. 3. Hudchinsonova triad. 4. Pneumonia alba.

1. Gumma. -Gumma: a soft, non-cancerous growth resulting from the tertiary stage of syphilis. It is a form of granuloma. -Osteochondritis:a painful type of osteochondrosis where the cartilage or bone in a joint is inflamed -Hudchinsonova triad: a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis. Consists of three phenomena: interstitial keratitis (inflamed eye), Hutchinson incisors (smaller and widely spread incisors), and eighth nerve deafness. -Pneumonia alba: often seen in neonates with congenital syphilis. The lung may be firm and pale, owing to the presence of inflammatory cells and fibrosis in the alveolar septa.

20. Which of the following is/are NOT true for diffuse large cell lymphoma (DLBCL): 1) a tumor derived from follicular dendritic cells 2) a common tumor derived from T-cells 3) a rare tumor derived from B- cells 4) may arise on the basis of pre-existing small cell lymphoma

2) A common tumor derived from T-cells 4) May arise on the basis of pre-existing small cell lymphoma -DLBCL: most common type of Non-Hodgkin´s lymphoma of adults 1 - NOT true, follicular dendritic cells can be found in follicular lymphomas, but as bystander cells.. The follicular lymphoma B-cells, can transform into DLBCL. 2 - NOT true. It's B-cells 3 - I don't know if it's rare.. ?! But my notes say that it is the most common type of NHL in adults.. ? 4. TRUE, because it can arise from follicular lymphoma and marginal cell lymphoma, which are both medium/small sized B-cell lymphomas..

9) Which of the following is/are true for repair and regeneration: 1) a typical example of regeneration is the formation of nodes in a cirrhotic liver 2) a primitive bony callus is an example of a reparative process 3) a postencephalomalatic pseudocyst wall is formed by connective tissue as a result of healing of encephalomalacy 4) organization and recanalization of a thrombus is one of the regenerative processes

2) A primitive bony callus is an example of a reparative process. -Encephalopathy: softening of brain tissue 1 - scarring ? reparation maybe 3 - no connective tissue in brain, only gliosis 4 - reparative or organization..

31. Which of the following is/are true for anaplastic large cell lymphoma (AICI): 1) Contains diagnostic "popcorn" cells. 2) A tumor formed of T cells. 3) A tumor formed of B cells. 4) Creates a follicular pattern.

2) A tumor formed of T cells. -ALCL: a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma involving aberrant (unormal) T-cells -Popcorn cells: seen in Hodgkin´s lymphoma

8. Which of the following is/are NOT true of mantle cell lymphoma (MCL): 1) a tumor formed of small B-cells 2) a tumor formed of large B-cells 3) a tumor formed of large T-cells 4) a tumor formed of small T-cells

2) A tumor formed of large B-cells 3) A tumor formed of large T-cells 4) A tumor formed of small T-cells -MCL: Non-Hodgkin´s lymphomas, caused by B-cell malignancy. Cancer of lymph. system

101. EBV plays a role in pathogenesis of: 1) malignant mesothelioma 2) Burkitt`s lymphoma 3) Cancer of the urinary bladder 4) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

2) Burkitt`s lymphoma The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also called human herpesvirus 4 (HHV-4), is a virus of the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. It is best known as the cause of infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever). It is also associated with particular forms of cancer, such as Hodgkin's lymphoma, Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and conditions associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), such as hairy leukoplakia and central nervous system lymphomas. There is evidence that infection with the virus is associated with a higher risk of certain autoimmune diseases,[3] especially dermatomyositis, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren's syndrome, and multiple sclerosis. Infection with EBV occurs by the oral transfer of saliva and genital secretions.

3. Which of the following is/are characteristic for types of inflammation seen in influenza in the upper airways: 1) Proliferative. 2) Catarrhal hemorrhagic 3) Granulomatous. 4) Septic.

2) Catarrhal hemorrhagic -Proliferative: new CT fibres, also called productive -Catarrhal hemorrhagic: normal in resp.tract and colon due to goblet cells -Granulomatous: often chronic inflammation -Septic: due to poison, e.g bacterial product

12. Acne rosacea may be associated with: 1) measles 2) demodex follicolorum 3) chickenpox 4) smallpox

2) Demodex follicolorum. -Acne rosacea: pink/red "rash" in face -Demodex follicolorum: a face mite (parasites) of hair follicles. Demodex brcuis in seb.glands

5. Which of the following is/are NOT true for classical Hodgkin´s lymphoma: 1) a common tumor 2) diagnostic koilocytes are present 3) its formation may be associated with EBV infection 4) a typical tumor of adolescents and young adults

2) Diagnostic koilocytes are present -Hodgkin´s lymphoma: originates from WBC lymphomas -Kiliocytes: changed sq.epith.cell, found when infection of cell by papilloma virus -Epstein-Barr virus infection -The diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease is confirmed by visualizing tissue samples using a microscope. When a biopsy from the cancer contains a certain type of cell termed a Reed-Sternberg cell, the lymphoma is classified as Hodgkin's disease

16. Which of the following changes is/are characteristic for rheumatoid nodule: 1) numerous giant cells of foreign body-type with crystals 2) fibrinoid necrosis with histocytic rim 3) septic necrosis with granulocytes 4) caseous necrosis with histocytic rim

2) Fibrinoid necrosis with histocytic rim. -Rheumatoid nodule: local swelling or tissue lump often seen in rheumatoid arthritis -Histocytic rim: consists of a shell of fibrous tissue

48. An 18 year old healthy man with random identified slightly elevated unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia, with virtually normal levels of ALT and AST. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1) Crigler-Najjar syndrome 2) Gilbert´s syndrome 3) Rotor syndrome 4) Dubin-Johnson syndrome

2) Gilbert´s syndrome -Crigler-Najjar syndrome: or CNS is a rare disorder affecting the metabolism of bilirubin, a chemical formed from the breakdown of the heme in red blood cells. The disorder results in an inherited form of non-hemolytic jaundice, which results in high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and often leads to brain damage in infants -Gilbert´s syndrome: a genetic liver disorder and the most common hereditary cause of increased bilirubin -Rotor syndrome and Dubin-Johnson: a rare, relatively benign autosomal recessive bilirubin disorder. It is a distinct, yet similar disorder to Dubin-Johnson syndrome — both diseases cause an increase in conjugated bilirubin

98. Which of the following is/are autoimmune diseases? 1) AIDS 2) Hashimoto thyroiditis. 3) asthma bronchiale 4) histoplasmosis

2) Hashimoto thyroiditis. Human immunodeficiency virus infection and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS) is a disease spectrum of the human immune system caused by infection with human immunodeficiency virus. Histoplasmosis (also known as "Cave disease," is a disease caused by the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. Symptoms of this infection vary greatly, but the disease affects primarily the lungs. Occasionally, other organs are affected; this is called disseminated histoplasmosis, and it can be fatal if left untreated.

46. Chronic peptic ulcer of the duodenum is probably associated with: 1) Hiatus hernia 2) Helicobacter pylori infection 3) Intestinal metaplasia of squamous epithelium in the lower third of the esophagus 4) High risk of developing adenocarcinoma in the small intestines

2) Helicobacter pylori infection -Helicobacter pylori infection: a spiral-shaped bacterium commonly found in the stomach. The bacteria's shape and the way they move allow them to penetrate the stomach's protective mucous lining, where they produce substances that weaken the lining and make the stomach more susceptible to damage from gastric acids. -Hiatus hernia:is the protrusion (or herniation) of the upper part of the stomach into the thorax through a tear or weakness in the diaphragm

26. Which of the following is/are true of paraneoplastic syndrome? 1) Manifested only in veins. 2) Is often found in small cell lung cancer. 3) Is always caused by hormonal depletion. 4) Is only associated with squamous cell carcinoma.

2) Is often found in small cell lung cancer. -PS is a consequence of cancer, but, unlike mass effect it is not due to the local presence of cancer cells -Mediated by humoral factors (by hormones or cytokines) -Most commonly present with cancers of the lung, breast, ovaries or lymphatic system (a lymphoma

35. Ghons complex is a term that refers to: 1) The generalization in resistance to therapy. 2) Primary complex. 3) Late generalization. 4) Early generalization.

2) Primary complex. -Gohns complex: a lesion seen in the lung that is caused by tuberculosis. The lesions consist of a calcified focus of infection and an associated lymph node. -Primary complex: combination of a Ghon focus and a corresponding lymph node focus in primary tuberculosis.

71. Pulmonary alveoli filled with fibrin rich exudate and granulocytes preferably corresponds to which of the following stages of lobar pneumonia?: 1) lysis 2) Red hapatisation 3) carnification 4) inflammatory oedema

2) Red hapatisation Hepatization is conversion into a substance resembling the liver; a state of the lungs when gorged with effused matter, so that they are no longer pervious to the air. Red hepatization is when there are red blood cells, neutrophils, and fibrin in the alveoli; it precedes gray hepatization, where the red cells have been broken down leaving a fibrinosuppurative exudate. The main cause is lobar pneumonia

76. Which of the following is/are true of metaplasia: 1) it is intravital blood clotting in veins 2) a transformation of columnar epithelium of the uterine cervix into squamous epithelium 3) formation of secondary deposits at a greater or lesser distance from the primary site of the disease 4) it is the movement of an object through the blood stream to a place where anatomical narrowing of blood vessels prevents further movement

2) a transformation of columnar epithelium of the uterine cervix into squamous epithelium

69. Which statement describes the correct sequence of events: 1) active hyperemia, transudation, passive hyperemia 2) active hyperemia, passive hyperemia, exudation 3) passive hyperemia, exudation, active hyperemia 4) cell infiltration, passive hyperemia, inflammatory edema

2) active hyperemia, passive hyperemia, exudation Hyperaemia or hyperemia is the increase of blood flow to different tissues in the body.

86). Which of the following is/are true for autolysis? 1) never occurs intra vitam 2) can be associated with necrosis 3) other opinions are NOT true. 4) it is only a posthumous phenomen

2) can be associated with necrosis autolysis, more commonly known as self-digestion, refers to the destruction of a cell through the action of its own enzymes. Posthumous means arising, occurring, or continuing after one's death.

53) Wich of the following statement/s is/are true for CLL: 1)has no relationship to small B-cell lymphoma 2) can form liver infiltrates 3) affects mainly adolescents 4) other options are NOT true

2) can form liver infiltrates B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL), is the most common type of leukemia in adults. CLL is a disease of adults, but, in rare cases, it can occur in teenagers=adolescents and occasionally in children

96. Which of the following best characterizes inflammatory forms of bronchopneumonia: 1) exudative-serous 2) exudative purulent 3) serous 4) granulomatous

2) exudative purulent

60. Which of the following is/are true of Atrophy 1) Is always a pathological process 2) numerical atrophy occurs at a reduced cell production or destruction 3) Simple and numeric atrophy cannot be combined 4) involution is the only hormone caused atrophy

2) numerical atrophy occurs at a reduced cell production or destruction can be both physiological (thymus) and pathological.

85. Which of the following is/are characteristic for chronic right heart failure 1) peripheral edema 2) pulmonary edema 3) nutmeg liver 4) Splenomegaly.

2) pulmonary edema I think this is wrong, and it should be "which of the following are NOT characteristic for right heart failure"

82. A typical complication of an aneurysm rupture of blood vessels of the willis circle is: 1) epidural hemorrhage 2) subarachnoidal bleeding 3) subdural hemorrhage 4) bleeding into the periventricular white matter

2) subarachnoidal bleeding

38. Which of the following is/are true for embryonal carcinoma? 1) Other opinions are not true. 2) It is the other name for an immature teratoma. 3) Its a typical germinal tumor. 4) Tends to have light PAS positive cytoplasm.

3) Its a typical germinal tumor. -Embryonal c: uncommon type of germ cell tumour that occurs in the ovaries and testes -Immature teratoma: a rare type of malignant (cancerous) germ cell tumor (type of tumor that begins in the cells that give rise to sperm or eggs).

52. Which of the following is/are inherited *metabolic* disorders with manifestations in the CNS: 1) Alzheimer´s disease 2) Parkinsons`disease 3) Niemann-Pick disease 4) Paget`s disease

3) Niemann-Pick disease Niemann-Pick disease= sphingomyelin to accumulate in lysosomes Alzheimer's and Parkinson´s disease is classified as a neurodegenerative disorder. Paget's is caused by the excessive breakdown and formation of bone, followed by disorganized bone remodelling.

22. Giardiasis is a: 1) bacterial infection 2) autoimmune mechanism 3) protozoa infection 4) viral infection

3) Protozoa infection. -It inhabits digestive tract, most common pathogenic parasitic infection

27. Which of the following is/are characteristic of inflammation seen in erysipelas? 1)Abscess 2)Empyema 3)Phlegmone. 4)Fibrinous.

3)Phlegmone. -Phlegmone: a spreading diffuse inflammatory process with formation of exudate or pus -Erysipelas: an acute infection of the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, usually caused by streptococcus bacteria. -Empyema: a collection of pus within a naturally existing anatomical cavity, e.g pleural empyema -Abscess: a collection of pus in a newly formed cavity within tissues

How soon after death can we perform autopsy?

2h

30. Which of the following is/are NOT an autoimmune disorder/s: 1) Graves disease. 2) Myasthenia gravis. 3) Di george syndrome. 4) Diabetes mellitus.

3) Di george syndrome. -Di george: a syndrome caused by the deletion of a small piece of chromosome 22 - CATCH 22 -Graves: hyperthyroidism, frequently causing it to enlarge to twice its size or more -Myasthenia: neuromuscular disease that leads to fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue

18. The cause of hepatic steatosis in adults include: 1) gallstones 2) TB 3) Ethylism 4) hepatocellular carcinoma

3) Ethylism = chronic alcoholism

47. Uterine cervix specimen microscopically shows severe dysplasia of the surface squamous epithelium (CIN III). Which of the following factors is likely to have contributed most to the development of this lesion: 1) Estrogen therapy in postmenopausal women 2) Exposure to dietylstilbestrol 3) Frequent sexual partners 4) Infection of Candida albicans

3) Frequent sexual partners. -Dietylstilbestrola: synthetic nonsteroidal estrogen -Candida albicans: a diploid fungus that grows both as yeast and filamentous cells and a causal agent of opportunistic oral and genital infections in humans

17. Which of the following disease is not a congenital disorder of pigmentation: 1) ochronosis 2) albinism 3) gout 4) hemochromatosis

3) Gout -Ochronosis: accumul.of homogentistic acid, bluish/black discoloration -Albinism: absence of pigment, defect tyrosinase -Gout: crystallization of uric acid -Hemochromatosis: ion deposition, hyperpigmentation

34.Which of the following is/are true for the role of immune cells? 1) Cells remain in the node where they were created. 2) NK cells are part of the aquired immune response. 3) Interdigiting dendritic cells present antigens to T lymphocytes. 4) Macrophages serve mainly to the destruction of antigens.

3) Interdigiting dendritic cells present antigens to T lymphocytes. -They move around between lymph nodes and blood, they don't return to thymus or BM -NK cells are part of innate. -Macrophages engulf and digest cellular debris, foreign substances, microbes, and cancer cells in a process called phagocytosis. Main function is probably Ag-presentation, and activation of acquired immune system.

10. Which of the following is/are NOT true for multiple myeloma? 1) is associated with paraproteinemia 2) is associated with the formation of defective immunoglobulins 3) is a reactive leasion 4) belongs among lymphomas

3) Is a reactive leasion -Multiple myeloma: cancer of plasma cells, second most prevalent after non-hodgkin´s -Paraproteinemia: abnormal antibody causing kidney disease -Reactive lesion: painless production of hyperplastic tissue resulting from repair respond

23. Which of the following is/are true for thrombosis: 1) It is intravital intra and extravascular blood clotting. 2) The multiplication of platelets is always necessary for thrombi formation. 3) It is intravital blood clotting in the cardiovascular system. 4) No recanalization ios seen in the process of organization of thrombi.

3) It is intravital blood clotting in the cardiovascular system.

13. Which of the following is/are true of GIST: 1) it is always a highly malignant tumor 2) it is not related to mutations in the gene c-kit 3) it usually involves the retroperitoneum 4) is typically associated with carcinoid syndrome

3) It usually involves the retroperitoneum. -Also involves liver and omentum -GIST: gastrointestinal stromal tumor is a mesenchymal tumor. Non-epithelial -It IS related to mutations in the gene c-kit -Carcinoid syndrome: occurs secondary to carcinoid tumors. Includes diarrhea, flushing and also heart failure + bronchoconstriction. Flushing (red in the face) is also a cardinal symptom of carcinoid syndrome—the syndrome that results from hormones (often serotonin or histamine) being secreted into systemic circulation.

40.Granulomas are typical morphological manifestation of: 1) Mucoviscidosis 2) Asbestosis. 3) Sarcoidosis 4) Tuberculosis.

3) Sarcoidosis 4) Tuberculosis -Sarcoidosis: a disease involving abnormal collections of inflammatory cells (granulomas) that can form as nodules in multiple organs. Most often located in the lungs or its associated lymph nodes, but any organ can be affected. -Tuberculosis: infectious disease caused by various strains of mycobacteria, usually Mycobacterium tuberculosis. -Granulomas: an inflammation, a collection of immune cells known as macrophages. -Mucoviscidosis/cystic fibrosis: An autosomal recess. genet. disorder that affects mostly the lungs but also pancreas, liver, and intestine. Accumul. of excessively thick and tenacious mucus and abnormal secretion of sweat and saliva. -Asbestosis: chronic inflamm. and fibrotic medical condition affecting parenchymal tissue of lungs caused by the inhalation and retention of asbestos fibers.

37. Which of the following vessels is/are affected in polyarthritis nodosa? 1) Arterioles. 2) Venules. 3) Small and medium sized muscular type arteries. 4) Capillaries.

3) Small and medium sized muscular type arteries. -Also called Kussmaul disease: is a vasculitis of medium and small-sized arteries, which become swollen and damaged from attack by rogue immune cells.

51. Which of the following is/are true for tuberculosis in adults: 1) other options are NOT true 2) TB leptomeningis is a common event 3) the most common location are the apical part of the lungs 4) the process tends mainly to hematogenous dissemination

3) The most common location are the apical part of the lungs Hematogenous =produced by or derived from the blood. dissemination = formidling Hematogenous dissemination of bacteria is part of the pathophysiology of meningitis and endocarditis, and of Pott's disease and many other forms of osteomyelitis. chronic meningitis can be caused by Tuberculosis

42. Which of the following is/are NOT true for neuroendocrine tumors of the gastrointestinal tract? 1) May produce hormonally active mediators. 2) May cause carcinoid syndrome. 3) They are unconditionally benign. 4) May cause impariment of the heart valvular apperatus.

3) They are unconditionally benign. -Many are benign, while some are malignant.

21. ANCA antibodies are found in: 1) nephrocalcinosis 2) gouty kidney 3) wegener`s granulomatosis 4) acute streptococcual glomerulonephritis

3) Wegener`s granulomatosis -ANCA antibodies: anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody = autoantibodies (IgG mostly) -Nephrocalcinosis: deposits of Ca2+ in renal parenchyma due to hyperparathyroidism W.G = It is a form of vasculitis (inflammation of blood vessels) that affects small- and medium-size vessels in many organs. Damage to the lungs and kidneys can be fatal.

81. Cyanotic indruration develops in the lungs in settings of: 1) acute left heart insufficiency 2) shock 3) chronic insufficiency of the left heart 4) in chronic right heart insufficiency

3) chronic insufficiency of the left heart cyanotic induration: Induration related to chronic venous congestion in an organ or tissue, frequently resulting in fibrous thickening of the walls of the veins and eventual fibrosis of adjacent tissues. why not in chronic right heart deficiency though?

65. Gout is characterized by: 1) a black discoloration of cartilage 2) caseous granuloma formation 3) creation of tophus 4) destruction of articular cartilage

3) creation of tophus It is caused by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. The uric acid crystallizes, and the crystals deposit in joints, tendons, and surrounding tissues.

94. Which of the following is/are true for apoptosis and necrosis: 1) necrosis is a process regulated by CASPases 2) the difference between necrosis and apoptosis is only quantitative 3) in apoptosis individual cells disappear resulting in tissue shrinkage 4) apoptosis is caused primarly by a damaged cell membrane

3) in apoptosis individual cells disappear resulting in tissue shrinkage

56. Which of the following is/are true for nephroblastoma: 1) it is a primary CNS tumor 2) it typically occurs in adulthood 3) it typically occurs in childhood 4) the occurrence in childhood is rare

3) it typically occurs in childhood = Wilms tumor cancer of the kidneys rarely in adults.

64. Which of the following is true for germinal tumors. 1) other options are NOT true 2) struma ovarii does not belong among germinal tumors 3) may be benign or malignant 4) occur only in gonads

3) may be benign or malignant germ cell tumors occur both within and outside the ovary and testis. inside the cranium — pineal and suprasellar locations are most commonly reported inside the mouth — a fairly common location for teratoma neck mediastinum — account for 1% to 5% of all germ cell neoplasms pelvis, particularly sacrococcygeal teratoma, ovary, testis

58. Which of the following is/are true of chronic inflammation?: 1) arises in the mucous membranes 2) other options are NOT true 3) may be superficial or deep 4) its typical manifestation is a blister

3) may be superficial or deep tydeligvis kan ikke chronic inflam. arise in mucous membrane? dette må vi undersøke.

61. Which of the following tumors of the thyroid gland can show a presence of amyloid 1) papillart carcinoma 2) anaplastic carcinoma 3) medullary carcinoma 4) follicular adenoma

3) medullary carcinoma

100. Typical morphological signs of myocardial infarction do not cover: 1) cardiomyocyte nuclei decay 2) infiltration of neutrophilic granulocytes 3) perivascular amyloid deposition 4) the disintergration of cell membrane of cardiomyocytes

3) perivascular amyloid deposition

70. Which of the following changes is/are NOT characteristic for chronic left-heart failure? 1) brown induration (forhardning) of lungs 2) the presemce of siderophages in pulmonary alveoli 3) pulmonary artery arteriosclerosis 4) impaired gas diffusion

3) pulmonary artery arteriosclerosis A siderophage is a macrophage that has absorbed iron-containing particles

77. Which of the following is/are true for follicular lymphoma (FL): 1) diagnostic RS cells are present in this tumor 2) a tumor formed of large B-cells 3) the most common type of adult lymphoma 4) a tumor formed of large T-cells

3) the most common type of adult lymphoma It is defined as a lymphoma of follicle center B-cells (centrocytes and centroblasts), which has at least a partially follicular pattern.

6. Acanthosis is defined as: 1) a vacuolar dystrophy of keratinocytes in the basal epidermis 2) intracellular edema of keratinocytes of squamous epithelium, sometimes with the formation of vesicles 3) intercellular edema of squamous epithelium, sometimes with the formation of vesicles 4) a thickening of the epidermis

4) A thickening of the epidermis. -Hyperplasia of Malphigian layer = str.basale + str.spinosum

7. Basilar meningitis is: 1) of unknown etiology 2) caused by pneumococcal infections 3) caused by herperic infections 4) caused by mycobacterial infection

4) Caused by mycobacterial infection. -Usually caused by TB mycobacteria

15. Which of the following applies to trophoblastic disease: 1) changes induced by vaccination 2) changes induced by viral infection 3) other options are NOT true 4) includes moa hydatidosa

4) Includes moa hydatidosa. Moa hydatidosa: clump of growing tissue in e.g gestitional trophoblastic disease, where a non-volatile fertilized egg will implant in uterus and fail to come to term.

45. Which of the following is/are true of tuberculous epinephritis? 1) Always leads to sterility. 2) Is formed by non specific granulation tissue. 3) Advanced double sided form is the cause of chronic adrenal hyperplasia. 4) Is made up of specific granulation tissue.

4) Is made up of specific granulation tissue. -

29. Condyloma accuminatum: 1) is caused by HSV type 1 infection. 2) is caused by the chlamydial infection 3) is caused by HSV type 2 infection. 4) Its a warty condyloma.

4) Its a warty condyloma. -CA: an epidermal manifestation attributed to the epidermotropic human papillomavirus (HPV)

49. Which of the following is/are true for necrosis? 1) Coagulative necrosis occurs only in mesenchymal tissues 2) No further modification of necrotic tissue is known 3) Apoptosis and necrosis differ only in the extent of the affected tissue 4) Necrosis is an irreversible tissue damage

4) Necrosis is an irreversible tissue damage

What is the origin of amyloid deposits in patients with B non-Hodgkins lymphoma? a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AL -amyloid (amino light chain) (A-amino, L-light chain) just a way to remember it :)

What is the origin of amyloid deposits in the kidney in nephrotic syndrome from multiple myeloma a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AL amyloid

What are rheumatic nodules?

A rheumatoid nodule is a local swelling or tissue lump, usually rather firm to touch, like an unripe fruit, which occurs almost exclusively in association with rheumatoid arthritis. They are usually subcutaneous especially over bony prominences such as the tip of the elbow or olecranon or over the finger knuckles Histological examination of nodules shows that they consist of a shell of fibrous tissue surrounding a center of fibrinoid necrosis. The boundary between the necrotic centre and the outer fibrous shell is made up of the characteristic feature of the nodule, which is known as a cellular palisade. The palisade is a densely packed layer of macrophages and fibroblasts which tend to be arranged radially, like the seeds of a kiwi fruit or fig. Further out into the fibrous shell there is a zone that contains T lymphocytes and plasma cells in association with blood vessels.

What is Niemann Pick disease? (type A+B)

A sphingomyelinase deficiency Deficiency in this reaction: Sphingomyelin --> ceramide + phosphorylcholine Making sphingomyelin accumulate in cells

*Which of the following statements are true for collagen? A) It is produced in the endoplasmatic reticulum of fibroblasts B) Is secreted to the extra cellular space in the form of tropocollagen C) The amount of collagen in wounds reaches normal levels after about 4 weeks. D) Synthesis is disturbed by glucocorticoids E) Production is disturbed by a lack of vitamin C

A) It is produced in the endoplasmatic reticulum of fibroblasts B) Is secreted to the extra cellular space in the form of tropocollagen C - wrong D) Synthesis is disturbed by glucocorticoids E) Production is disturbed by a lack of vitamin C

The main function of granulation tissue in wound healing "per secundam intentionem" is: A) To bridge open wounds B) To capture bacteria C) To provide nourishment for macrophages D) To promote the production of antibodies E) To preform "scaffolding" a for polymorfonuclear cells

A) To bridge open wounds Granulation tissue is new connective tissue and tiny blood vessels that form on the surfaces of a wound during the healing process. Granulation tissue typically grows from the base of a wound and is able to fill wounds of almost any size. (first type 3 collagen, then later type 1 collagen--> scar) (big amount of macrophages and neutrophils, fighting infection and digesting old cells) (high vascularisation to provide nutrients to the new growing tissue and to remove wasteproducst, also bring in new white blood cells to the area and remove the old ones)

Which of the following statements about atrophy are correct a. It concerns reduction in size of normally developed organs or their parts b. It`s determined only by decrease in cell size c. It`s determined only by loss of cells d. It`s a consequence of decreased size or loss of cells e. Reduction of cell size occurs by autophagocytosis or via proteasome complexes

A, D, E

Leukodystrophy is a term that indicates a. Lysosomal dysfunction of the glial cells b. Lysosomal dysfunction of leukocytes c. Lysosomal dysfunction of endothelia d. Regressive changes of leukocytes e. This term don`t exist

A- lysosmal dysfunction of glial cells

Secondary gout are not associated with a. Repeated transfusions b. Hemolytic anemia c. Leukemia d. Abetalipoproteinemia e. Chemotherapy

A-beta-lipoproteinemia

Which of the following statements of granulation tissue are NOT true? a) contains groups of epithelioid cells b) contains myofibroblasts c) contains proliferating capillaries d) plays an important role in wound healing per secundam intentionem e) is present in the base of chronic ulcer

A: Contains group of epithelioid cells (Do not confuse with granulomas, who actually have groups of epithelioid cells)

Which type of amyloid occurs in patients with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis a. AA b. AL c. Prion protein d. AE e. None of the answers are correct

AA (secondary amyloidosis)

What is the origin of the most common amyloid deposit in patients with Hodgkin`s disease a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AA - amyloid

Which type of amyloid occurs in Familial Mediterranean fever a. AA amyloid b. Beta-2-microglobulin c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. Amyloid derived from gelsolin

AA amyloid

Which type of amyloidosis can arise in the setting of chronic suppurative osteomyelitis a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AA amyloid

Which type of amyloid are found in patients with bronchiectasis and chronic inflammation a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AA amyloid (remember, it is connected with inflammation)

What is the origin of amyloid deposits in patients with paraneoplastic complications of renal carcinoma a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AA-amyloid

Interleukin-1 stimulates the liver to produce precursors of which of the following amyloids a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AA-amyloid (aa-amyloid is an acute phase protein, produced during inflammation)

What is the origin of amyloid deposits in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AE amyloid

What is the origin of deposits of amyloid in the islets of Langerhans in a patient with diabetes mellitus a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid

AE amyloid deposits in the islets

Botulissem

Bacteria

What is simple atrophy?

Can't find a good definition.. :ask teacher Simple atrophy has a basophilic appearance due to a reduction in cytoplasmic volume which leads to a relative increase in nucleus/cytoplasmic ratio.

Which of the following manifestations are not complications of secondary pulmonary TBC a. Scar formation b. Calcification c. Massive hemorrhage d. Carcinoma e. Pleuritis

Carcinoma

What is desmoplastic carcinoma ?

Carcinoma with involvement of the stromal component as well as the epithelial component.

RAS gene family (GTP-binding protein) point mutation is associated with...

Carcinomas, melanoma and lymphoma

Patients with Fabry disease usually die from a. Anemia b. Cardiovasculars injury c. Liver failure d. Respiratory failure e. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma of the B line

Cardiovascular injury

Which type of necrosis is characterized by regions of amorphous eosinophilic material, with basophilic regions, without cell residues or recognizable tissue architecture?

Caseous necrosis

Which of the following manifestations are typical for apoptosis a. Caspase activation b. Localized inflammatory response c. Phagocytosis of cell fragments by local macrophages d. Chromatin condensation e. Hydrolysis of chromatin by endonucleases

Caspase activation Phagocytosis of cell fragments by local macrophages Chromatin condensation Hydrolysis of chromatin by endonucleases

Which enzyme is present in peroxisomes?

Catalase

What is Pneumocytosis?

Caused by a fungal infection Pneumonia occuring in infants or persons with impaired immune system - e.g AIDS

Atrophy is most often associated with a. Autolysis b. Enlarged cells c. Abnormal cellular differentiation d. Chronic decrease of blood supply e. Increased cellular proliferation

D: Chronic decrease of blood supply Obs! Not acute stop of blood supply --> ischemia

Which of the following statements about atrophy are correct a. Simple atrophy is the opposite of hyperplasia b. Numerical atrophy can`t originate from permanent cell populations c. Simple atrophy and numerical atrophy can`t be combined d. Brown atrophy occurs in parenchymatous organs e. One of the mechanisms of simple atrophy is autophagocytosis

D: brown atrophy occurs in parenchymatous organs

All of the following situations are examples of atrophy except a. Skeletal muscle after severing of its motorneuron b. Skeletal muscle after long-term immobilization for extremity fracture healed in a cast c. Ovary after hypophysectomy d. Endometrium after long-term administration of estrogen e. Brain in a very old person

D; Endometrium after long term administration of estrogen (would lead to hypertrophy I believe)

We use hybrid techniques (Southern blot or in-situ hybridization) to diagnose all of the following conditions, except a. Identification of viral DNA in specimens b. Diagnosis of different types of anemia c. Classification of B lymphomas d. Differentiation of ovarian carcinomas from breast carcinoma e. Classification of T lymphomas

Diagnosis of different types of anemia

What do we use Giemsa stain for?

Diagnosis of malaria and other parasites Chlamydia, histoplasma fungi

What can Resorcin fuschin be used for?

Elastic fiber staining

What do we visualize in Resorcin-Fuchins and Orcein stain?

Elastic fibers

If you put the sample through glutaraldehyde, 100%alcohol, osmium tetroxide and lead acetate, you are ready for which histological technique?

Electron transmission microscopy

How can we identify microbes in the tissue?

Electrone microscopy, in situ hybridization PCR

Which of the following conditions are examples of coagulation necrosis a. Lobar pneumonia in alcoholics b. Liver abscesses in patients with amebiasis c. Pseudomembranous colitis in patients using ampicillin d. Cerebral atrophy in patients with Alzheimer`s disease e. Embolus to the superior mesenteric artery leading to colonic infarct

Embolus to the superior mesenteric artery, leading to a colonic infarcts

Multiple endocrine neoplasia 1

Endocrine neoplasms of pituitary, parathyroid gland and pancreas.

The main clinical signs of inflammation are a. Pallor b. Erythema c. Increased appetite d. Affected tissues are cold on palpation e. Dryness of the affected tissue

Erythema

What is the most common cause of steatosis of the liver a. Anemia b. Chloroform c. Ethanol d. Hypercholesterolemia e. Pre-eclampsia (EPH gestóza)

Ethanol - meaning alcohol

What is etiology?

Etiology deals with the general cause of the disease!

Early reversible phenomena, which occurs during potential lethal hypoxic cellular injury is/are a. Flocculant/precipitated densities in the mitochondria (Flocculant - a reagent added to a dispersion of solids in a liquid to bring together the fine particles to form flocs) b. Evaginations of the plasma membrane (so-called blebs) c. Release of lysosomal enzymes d. Loss of nuclear basophilia e. Autolysis

Evagation of the plasma membrane - blebs

what is silicosis pulmonum?

Excessive pulmonary fibroplastic process induced by SiO2

What does orthochromasia mean?

Existing structure are colored the same color as the dye

Which of the following substances belongs among chemical mediators of acute inflammation a. The complement system b. Histamine c. Insulin d. Bradykinin e. Lymphokines

Histamine, bradykinin, The complement system What are lymphokines? Lymphokines are a subset of cytokines that are produced by a type of immune cell known as a lymphocyte. Protein mediatros, produced by T-cells, signaling between cells. 1. including the attraction of other immune cells,( macrophages and other lymphocytes), to an infected site and their subsequent activation to prepare them to mount an immune response. 2. Circulating lymphocytes can detect a very small concentration of lymphokine and then move up the concentration gradient towards where the immune response is required. 3. Lymphokines aid B cells to produce antibodies. IL2,3,4,5,6, GMCSF, IFgamma

What is liquidation of Histoplasma capsulatum ?

Histoplasma capsulatum is the most common cause of fungal respiratory infections (histoplasmosis) in the world. While most infections are mild, 10% of cases result in life-threatening complications such as inflammation of the pericardium and fibrosis of major blood vessels

Type 2 mucopolysaccharidoses:

Hunter syndrome (X-linked R) - Enzyme deficieent: L-iduronate sulfatase - milder clinical course, absence of corneal clouding - accumlation of heparan and dermatan sulphate

All of the following substances are examples of exogenous and endogenous antioxidants except a. Catalase b. Hydrogen peroxide c. Glutathione d. Vitamin E e. Vitamin C

Hydrogen peroxide Is a part of the whole formation of ROS, so it can't be an antoxidant!

Which mechanisms are responsible for killing microorganisms after being taken up by phagocytes a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Lysozyme c. Lymphokines d. The complement system e. Facilitated by IgG

Hydrogen peroxide and Lysozyme

What causes pseudomelanosis of the abdominal organs?

Hydrogen sulphide Hydrogen sulfide was formed by bacteria in the intestine. This gas diffused across the intestinal wall and came into contact with the kidney and with hemoglobin in the kidney. The iron in the hemoglobin reacted with the sulfide and formed the black precipitate, IRON SULFIDE, which is the basis of PSEUDOMELANOSIS.

Lipid peroxidation in cells exposed to ionizing radiation is mediated by a. Catalase b. Superoxide anions c. Hydroxyl radicals d. Hydrogen peroxide e. Glutathione

Hydroxyl radicals

What is progressive hyperplasia?

Hyerplasia happening over time, the organ is getting bigger and bigger over time. Prostatic progressive hyperplasia (in aging)

Rotor syndrome

Hyperbilirubinemia, increase in conjugated bilirubin, no pigmentation in liver cells (compared to the Dubin-Johnson syndrome, otherwhise quite similar)

From which of the following conditions can metastatic calcification arise a. Necrosis of adipose tissue b. Bone fracture c. Hypercalcemia d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Chronic abscess

Hyperglycemia

Which of the following cell types participate in acute inflammation a. PMN granulocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Endothelial cells d. Epithelial cells e. Mast cells

PMN granulocytes, endothelial cells and Mast cells

Pick´s disease: What is it

Pick´s disease: premature abnormal aging of brain, behavioral changes, dementia - cytoskeletal damage --> spongiform encephalopathy --> apoptosis - frontal and temporal lobes

Which substance can be used at the same time as a fixative and a stain?

Picric acid

Primary hemostatic plug is formed by: a) Endothelium b) Platelets c) Emboli d) Fibrin e) Plasma coagulation factors

Platelets

What is Pneumocytosis?

Pneumonia occuring in infants or persons with impaired immune system - e.g AIDS

To execute Virchow`s (macro)reaction we need a. Sulphuric acid b. Congo red c. Thioflavin T and T d. Lugol solution e. Hydrochloric acid

Sulphyric acid + lugol solution

Select from the following qualities which best characterizes neutrophils a. Surface receptors for complement b. Kidney-shaped nucleus c. Gene rearrangement d. Metachromatic granules e. Antibody production

Surface receptors for complement

What would be the most prominent change in the cells of a patient with myocardial infarct, straigh after the infarction?

Swelling of the ER

The relationship between the human host and the normal bacterial flora can best be described as a. Saprophytic b. Commensal c. Symbiotic d. Parasitic e. Facultative

Symbiotic

Clinical picture of a patient with Von Gierkes disease?

The deficiency impairs the ability of the liver to produce free glucose from glycogen and from gluconeogenesis. Since these are the two principal metabolic mechanisms by which the liver supplies glucose to the rest of the body during periods of fasting, it causes severe hypoglycemia and results in increased glycogen storage in liver and kidneys. This can lead to enlargement of both.(but aparently Mrs. V thinks they don't enlarge..)

Pathology of gauchers disease?

The disorder is characterized by bruising, fatigue, anemia, low blood platelets, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. It is caused by a hereditary deficiency of the enzyme beta- glucocerebrosidase. When the enzyme is defective, glucosylceramide accumulates, particularly in white blood cells, most often macrophages (mononuclear leukocytes). Glucosylceramide can collect in the spleen, liver, kidneys, lungs, brain, and bone marrow.

What does metachromasia mean ?

The existing structure is colored another color than the dye solution.

What is a granulomatous inflammation?

The granulomatous inflammatory response is a special type of chronic inflammation characterised by often focal collections of macrophages, epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells. Granulomas form when the immune system attempts to wall off substances that it perceives as foreign but is unable to eliminate. Such substances include infectious organisms such as bacteria and fungi as well as other materials such as keratin and suture fragments

Which of the following changes can during ischemic injury be considered manifestations of irreversible change a. Increase/Aggregate of glycogen b. Aggregation of nuclear chromatin c. Intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes d. Decreased protein synthesis e. Depletion of intracellular calcium

The intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes

Which joint is most affected in gout?

The metatarsal-phalangeal joint at the base of the big toe

Which organs are often affected by curshmann disease?

The spleen is commonly affected and often referred to as sugar-coated spleen. The liver and heart are also sometimes affected and referred to as frosted liver (or sugar-coated liver) and frosted heart respectively.

What is the Lewis axon reflex?

The triple response of Lewis is a cutaneous response that occurs from firm stroking of the skin, which produces an initial red line, followed by a flare around that line, and then finally a wheal The triple response is due to histamine Red spot: due to capillary dilatation Flare: redness in the surrounding area due to arteriolar dilatation mediated by axon reflex. Wheal: due to exudation of fluid from capillaries and venules The underlying pathophysiology of frostbite is a combination of freezing, vascular insufficiency (constriction and occlusion) and damage due to inflammatory mediators. As extremities cool, the 'hunting response of Lewis' (alternating vasoconstriction and vasodilation) occurs, ending with vasoconstriction.

The intensity of leukocyte migration to an area with bacterial infection depends on a. The type of organism which caused the inflammatory reaction b. Chemotaxis c. C5a of the complement system d. Concentration of phosphates in the area of inflammation e. Pus formation

The type of organism which caused the inflammatory reaction Chemotaxis C5a of complement Pus formation

Which of the following statements about smallpox are correct a. It still poses a serious medical problem in third-world countries b. It has fecal-oral transmission c. The virus cause degeneration of epidermal cells, giving rise to multilocular blisters d. The main symptom of the disease is jaundice during centrolobular necrosis of hepatocytes e. The disease cause re-activation of endogenous latent viruses which lead to serious complications

The virus cause degeneration of epidermal cells, giving rise to multilocular blisters Smallpox is enveloped - not fecal oral transmission

Where are giant langerhans cells found?

They can't be found because they don't exist! Langhans giant cells on the other hand are found in nearly any granulomatous disease, including TBC!

What are antiphospholipid antibodies?

When antibodies attack phospholipids, cells are damaged. This damage causes blood clots to form in the body's arteries and veins In APS (antiphospholipid syndrome) too much blood clotting can block blood flow and damage the body's organs. (heart attack, ischemia, spontaneous abortion (mulitple), pulmonary embolism ++ )

Whipple triad ?

Whipple triad; episodic hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia --> cause CNS dysfunction that disappear after glucose infusion.

Which of the following enzymes/molecules are not involved in inactivation of free radicals a. Superoxide dismutase b. Vitamin E c. Catalase d. Glutathion peroxidase e. Xanthine oxidase

Xanthine oxidase

How does mm stain with van Gieson?

Yellow

Can coagulation and liquefactive necrosis occur in a combined fashion?

Yes

Can liquefactive necrosis be caused by NaOH?

Yes

Does patients with Sjøgren syndrome have increased risk for cancer?

Yes, 40* higher risk for non-hodgkin lymphoma for B-cell (marginal zone) lymphoma

What is zenker wax degeneration?

Zenker's degeneration is a severe glassy or waxy hyaline degeneration or necrosis of skeletal muscles in acute infectious diseases.

47. Which statement is true of syphilis? a) Untreated usually involves three stages b) The first stage is characterized by the "ulcus molle" c) Gumma is a manifestation of the third stage d) When neurosyphilis occurs in the spinal cord, motor neurons are destroyed

a) Untreated usually involves three stages c) Gumma is a manifestation of the third stage - Primary: A red, oval sore, called a chancre (ulcus durum) develops at the site where the bacteria entered the body Elise: wiki says that syphilis should have a "hard chancre", whereas the statements speaks about a a "soft chancre" Molle = soft , Derfor er denne feil! -Secondary: condyloma latum, a cutaneous condition characterized by wart like lesions on the genitals -Latent: having serologic proof of infection without symptoms of disease. -Tertiary: formation of chronic gummas, which are soft, tumor-like balls of inflammation which may vary considerably in size. They typically affect the skin, bone, and liver, but can occur anywhere

Which of the following conditions does not have an increased tendency to thromboses? a) Use of Acylpyrin b) Atherosclerosis c) Increased blood viscosity d) Carcinoma of pancreas e) Intravascular catheter

a) Use of Acylpyrin

43. Which is true for precancerosis: a) We distinguish precancerosis conditions and lesions b) Precancerosis does not include bening tumors c) The example is prostate hyperplasia d) Solar keratosis shall be considered precancerosis

a) We distinguish precancerosis conditions and lesions d) Solar keratosis shall be considered precancerosis -Precancerosis condition: a generalized state associated with an increased risk of cancer -Precancerosis: a condition marked by the presence of one or more precancerous lesions -Solar keratosis: also called actinic keratosis; a pre-cancerous patch of thick, scaly, or crusty skin -Prostate hyperplasia: mostly benign? (BPH)

Malignant tumors generally have: a) a reduced contact inhibition b) elevated intercellular cohesion c) low ratio of nucleus / cytoplasm d) low mitotic activity e) low degree of invasive growth

a) a reduced contact inhibition

66. Which of the featured states occurs as the complication of cholangitis a) abscesses in the liver b) perisplenitis cartilaginea c) thrombophlebitis of appendicular veins d) ulverophlegmonous appendicitis

a) abscesses in the liver

59. Which of the following states represents purulent inflammation: a) Abscesses in the liver b) Portal pyemic c) Thrombophlebitis of appendicular veins d) Ulcerphlegmonous appendicitis

a) abscesses in the liver b) portal pyemic c) thrombophlebitis of appendicular veins d) ulcerphlegmonous appendicitis -Hard to find.... -Pyemia: a type of septicaemia that leads to widespread abscesses of a metastatic nature

Which of the following is not an organ specific autoimmune disease? a) addison's disease b) juvenile diabetes mellitus c) hashimoto thyroiditis d) pernicious anemia

a) addison's disease DM --> pancreas Hash --> thyroid gland Anemia --> stomach (parietal cells)

73. Epithelial tumor can take which of the following forms: a) adenocarcinoma b) fascicular c) trabecular d) solid alveolar

a) adenocarcinoma c) trabecular d) solid alveolar -Epithelial tumor: a cluster of irregularly-shaped cells growing specifically on the outer membrane of an organ, gland or body part. It may or may not be cancerous.

46. Steatosis examples: a) alcoholic liver b) myocardial ischemia c) the proliferation of fat d) lipidosis of the gallbladder

a) alcoholic liver b) myocardial ischemia

Which type of amyloid can develop in a patient with long-term rheumatoid arthritis? a) amyloid AA b) AL amyloid c) amyloid AE d) amyloid ARA

a) amyloid AA

Which of the following statements/s is/are true of oncogenes? a) are present in human cells b) are formed by viral DNA c) they code growth factor receptors d) they are present in all patients with malignancies

a) are present in human cells b) are formed by viral DNA c) they code growth factor receptors

51. Air and gas embolism: a) are the same conditions, there are present air bubbles in the blood b) air embolism occurs when air is sucked into the veins with negative pressure c) in gas embolism the blood oxygen is released mainly in the form of bubbles d) gas embolism occurs as fast release of nitrogen during decompression

a) are the same conditions, there are present air bubbles in the blood b) air embolism occurs when air is sucked into the veins with negative pressure d) gas embolism occurs as fast release of nitrogen during decompression

77. The calcification applies: a) arises in caseous necrosis b) results from hypercalcemia c) bone metaplasia arises on its bases d) does not affect the vascular wall

a) arises in caseous necrosis b) results from hypercalcemia

Which of the following tumors is most likely the primary source of metastasis to the liver? a) carcinoma in situ of the cervix b) adenocarcinoma of the cecum c) testicular germinal tumor d) pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland

a) carcinoma in situ of the cervix What? :P I would think adenocarcinoma of caecum..

87. Chronic heart failure left side: a) causes brown induration of the lung b) causes cardiac hydrops c) the cause of systemic hypertension d) may lead to right heart failure

a) causes brown induration of the lung d) may lead to right heart failure

29. Testicular germ cell tumors include: a) choriocarcinoma b) sertoli cell tumor c) yolk sac tumor d) seminoma

a) choriocarcinoma c) yolk sac tumor d) seminoma

For which of the following pathologic states is characteristic for reciprocal chromosomal translocation leading to amplification of onogene abl? a) chronic myeloid leukemia b) Barrett oesophagus c) Lymphocytic leukemia d) osteosarcoma e) Burkitt lymphoma

a) chronic myeloid leukemia

11. HPV infection does not cause: a) condyloma lata b) c) condyloma acuminatum d) cervical intraepithelial neoplasia second degree (CIN2)

a) condyloma lata b) Cond.lata: a cutaneous condition characterized by wart like lesions on the genitals. They are generally symptoms of the secondary phase of syphilis, caused by the spirochete, Treponema pallidum

1. Crohn's disease is: a) the transmural inflammation of the intestine b) granulomatous inflammation associated with suppurative granuloma formation c) associated with the formation of fistula d) granulomatous inflammation associated with non-caseous granuloma formation

a) the transmural inflammation of the intestine c) associated with the formation of fistula d) granulomatous inflammation associated with non-caseous granuloma formation A type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from mouth to anus. Crohn's disease is caused by a combination of environmental, immune and bacterial factors in genetically susceptible individuals. It results in a chronic inflammatory disorder, in which the body's immune system attacks the gastrointestinal tract possibly directed at microbial antigens. While Crohn's is an immune related disease, it does not appear to be an autoimmune disease (in that the immune system is not being triggered by the body itself).

27. For malignant lymphoma the following statements do not apply: a) they are never disseminated b) it is often a diffuse large cell lymphoma c) patients are often children d) follicular lymphoma is an example of T-cell lymphoma

a) they are never disseminated d) follicular lymphoma is an example of T-cell lymphoma Cancerous cells that have the ability to spread are called malignant cells. Our bodies have what is called a lymph system, which runs throughout our bodies. It is composed of lymphoid tissue, vessels, and fluid. Lymphoid tissue contains lymph nodes, which are part of the immune system. The immune system's job is to produce blood cells and protect against harm from invading germs. Cancers that start anywhere in the lymphatic system are lymphomas. Follicular lymphoma is the most common of the indolent non-Hodgkin's lymphomas, and the second-most-common form of non-Hodgkin's lymphomas overall. It is defined as a lymphoma of follicle center B-cells (centrocytes and centroblasts), which has at least a partially follicular pattern

Which of the following is/are true of trombangitis obliterans? a) thrombosis with obliteration of the arteries and veins b) it affects mainly younger women c) pulseless disease d) multiple small aneurysms in small arteries are present

a) thrombosis with obliteration of the arteries and veins

Example of paradoxal emboli a) Thrombus travelled from femoral artery to cerebral arteries b) fat from bone marrow to cerebral arteries c) thrombus released from left atrium and going to renal artery d) thrombus from IVC into hepatic vein e) thrombus from femoral veins into pulmonary artery

a) thrombus travelled from femoral artery to cerebral arteries Paradoxal emboli explanation (very good)! Passage of a clot (thrombus) from a vein to an artery. When clots in veins break off (embolize), they travel first to the right side of the heart and, normally, then to the lungs where they lodge, causing pulmonary embolism. On the other hand, when there is a hole at the septum, either upper chambers of the heart (an atrial septal defect) or lower chamber of the heart (ventricular septal defects), a clot can cross from the right to the left side of the heart, then pass into the arteries as a paradoxical embolism. Once in the arterial circulation, a clot can travel to the brain, block a vessel there, and cause a stroke (cerebrovascular accident).

To mesenchymal tumors does NOT belong: a) urothelial papilloma b) liposarcoma c) leiomyoma of uterus d) rhabdomyosarcoma of heart e) hemangioma of liver

a) urothelial papilloma

Undifferentiated sarcomas usually only express: a) vimentin b) actin c) S 100 protein d) they do not express any marker e) synaptopodin

a) vimentin

Which of the following statements about bilirubin are correct a. Its abundance in blood cause icterus b. Conjugated bilirubin are passed in the urine c. During obstructive icterus there's mainly unconjugated bilirubin in the blood d. Increased levels of conjugated bilirubin in the blood cause pruritus e. It's synonymous with hematoidin

a, b, e (I think that d should be correct as well)

Which of the following statements about macrophages are correct a. They're derived from monocytes b. They have a longer life span than neutrophils c. They can contain living organisms d. They are involved in the late hypersensitivity reaction e. They produce cytokines

a,b,c,d,e All in other words.. :)

Acute inflammation are characterized by a. Vasodilation b. Increased vascular permeability c. Activation of fibroblasts d. Diapedesis of PMNs through the vascular wall e. Infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages

a,b,d lymphocytes + macrophages --> chronic inflam fibroblasts - healing

Which type of inflammation is found in association with agranulocytosis a. (Hemorrhagic)-necrotizing inflammation b. Catarrhal inflammation c. Granulomatous inflammation d. Abscess-forming inflammation e. Fibrinous inflammation

a. (Hemorrhagic)-necrotizing inflammation

Which of the mentioned forms of TBC don't originate by hematogenous spread a. Acinonodular pulmonary TBC b. Miliary TBC c. Renal TBC d. Tuberculous epididymitis e. Tuberculous meningitis

a. Acinonodular pulmonary TBC

Which of the following chronic inflammations exhibit necrosis a. Actinomycosis b. Syphilis c. Sarcoidosis d. Tuberculosis e. Leprosy

a. Actinomycosis b. Syphilis d. TBC Actinomycosis: The disease is characterised by the formation of painful abscesses in the mouth, lungs, or gastrointestinal tract. Actinomycosis abscesses grow larger as the disease progresses, often over months.

Which of the following infectious agents can cause myectomas in the lung a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Candida albicans c. Mycoplasma pneumonia d. Histplasma capsulatum e. Cryptosporidium parvum

a. Aspergillus fumigatus

Which of the following infectious agents can cause mycetomas in the lung a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Candida albicans c. Mycoplasma pneumonia d. Histplasma capsulatum e. Cryptosporidium parvum

a. Aspergillus fumigatus Mycetoma is a chronic subcutaneous infection caused by actinomycetes or fungi. This infection results in a granulomatous inflammatory response in the deep dermis and subcutaneous tissue

5. Which of the following statements about parotitis are correct: a. Humans are the only natural host b. It often occurs in the infant period c. Very often it develops into orchitis resulting in sterility d. One can find intracellular inclusions in infected acinar cells of the parotid glands e. Prevention is achieved by dead viral mumps vaccine

a. Humans are the only natural host -Parotitis is an inflammation of one or both parotid glands -Acute bacterial parotitis: is most often caused by a bacterial infection of Staphylococcus aureus but may be caused by any commensal bacteria. - Parotitis as Extrapulmonary Tuberculosis: The mycobacterium that cause tuberculosis can also cause parotid infection. - Acute viral parotitis (mumps): the most common viral cause of parotitis is mumps. Routine vaccinations have dropped the incidence of mumps to a very low level

Which of the following statements about parotitis/mumps are correct a. Humans are the only natural host b. It often occurs in the infant period c. Very often it develops into orchitis resulting in sterility d. One can find intracellular inclusions in infected acinar cells of the parotid glands e. Prevention is achieved by dead viral mumps vaccine

a. Humans are the only natural host Rarely develops into orchitis Young children (but not infants) get mumps Live attenuated viral mumps vaccine, NOT dead

Contago disease (polyserositis) are based on a. Hyaline alteration of connective tissue b. Fibrinoid alteration of connective tissue c. Myxoid alteration of connective tissue d. Transparent alteration of connective tissue e. Storage disease

a. Hyaline alteration of connective tissue

Curshmann disease (polyserositis) are based on a. Hyaline alteration of connective tissue b. Fibrinoid alteration of connective tissue c. Myxoid alteration of connective tissue d. Transparent alteration of connective tissue e. Storage disease

a. Hyaline alteration of connective tissue

Which of the following substances mediate the systemic effects of inflammation, have chemotactic properties and stimulates adhesion molecules a. IL-1 and TNF b. C5a and Leukotriene B4 c. C3b and C5-9 d. Leukotrienes C4-E4 e. Bradykinin and prostaglandin E2

a. IL-1 and TNF

The pigment hematin can be found a. In the foam of bleeding peptic ulcers b. In secondary hemochromatosis c. During siderosis d. During intravascular hemolysis e. In pigmented cirrhosis

a. In the foam of bleeding peptic ulcers

Which of the following sentences don`t relate to hydropic cell swelling a. Increased number of cytoplasmic organelles b. Dilated cisterns of ER c. Injury to the cell volume regulatory mechanisms d. Influx of sodium ion to the cell e. Efflux of potassium out of the cell

a. Increased number of cytoplasmic organelles

What is the mechanism of decreased perfusion through tissues affected by acute inflammation a. Increased visocity of the blood caused by escape of fluid to the interstitium b. Loss of proteins from dilated capillaries c. Aggregation of erythrocytes d. Adherences of leukocytes to the endothelia of capillaries e. Lewis axon reflex

a. Increased visocity of the blood caused by escape of fluid to the interstitium c. Aggregation of erythrocytes d. Adherences of leukocytes to the endothelia of capillaries

95. Which virus can cause necrotizing bronchitis and diffuse hemorrhagic necrotizing pneumonia in adults sometimes in the form of epidemics a. Influenza virus A b. CMV c. Rhinovirus d. Norwalk-like virus e. Rotavirus

a. Influenza virus A

Which virus can cause necrotizing bronchitis and diffuse hemorrhagic necrotizing pneumonia in adults sometimes in the form of epidemics a. Influenza virus A b. CMV c. Rhinovirus d. Norwalk-like virus e. Rotavirus

a. Influenza virus A

TNF-alpha a. Is produced by T-lymphocytes b. Act on the hypothalamus to induce fever c. Have antiviral properties d. Cause hypertension e. Increase blood clotting

a. Is produced by T-lymphocytes b. Act on the hypothalamus to induce fever e. Increase blood clotting

Which of the following statements applies to Amyloidosis a. It can occur in chronic inflammatory conditions b. It occurs in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland c. It acts like a basophilic substances which stains with Congo red d. It weakens the wall of blood vessels e. It cause renal failure

a. It can occur in chronic inflammatory conditions b. It occurs in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid glande. e .It causes renal failure

Which of the following statements about granulomatous inflammation are correct a. It's an immunopathologic reaction of type IV hypersensitivity b. It always shows like conspicious infiiltrates of the involved tissue with plasma cells c. It contains epithelioid cells derived from tissue histiocytes d. It occurs in sarcoidosis e. It's a trait of mycobacterial infection

a. It's an immunopathologic reaction of type IV hypersensitivity c. It contains epithelioid cells derived from tissue histiocytes d. It occurs in sarcoidosis e. It's a trait of mycobacterial infection

Which of the following statements are not correct for peracute tuberculous sepsis (Landouzy sepsis) a. It's associated with extreme leukocytosis b. It's not formed during typical tuberculous granulomas c. It can develop like a late complication of organizing TBC d. It originates during areactive necrosis e. It can develop in patients with AIDS

a. It's associated with extreme leukocytosis (probably because AIDS patients has a very low white cell count, and it is common for these patients to develop this type of sepsis)

Which of the following statements about granulomatous inflammation are correct a. It's associated with late hypersensitivity reactions b. It never has an infectious origin c. It can originate around foreign bodies d. One example is Schloffer tumors e. It originates like an reaction to substances which are difficult to digest

a. It's associated with late hypersensitivity reactions c. It can originate around foreign bodies d. One example is Schloffer tumors e. It originates like an reaction to substances which are difficult to digest

58. Thrombosis: a) Is the only source of embolism b) Can be transformed into a phlebolith c) Always closes the vessel lumen d) Does not occur in the bloodstream

b) Can be transformed into a phlebolith -Thrombosis: the formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel, obstructing the flow of blood. When a blood vessel is injured, the body uses platelets (thrombocytes) and fibrin to form a blood clot to prevent blood loss. Even when a blood vessel is not injured, blood clots may form in the body under certain conditions. A clot that breaks free and begins to travel around the body is known as an embolus. -Phlebolith: a small local calcification within a vein. These are very common in the veins of the lower part of the pelvis, and they are generally of no clinical importance. - Thrombosis can be a sign of phleboliths. Blood flow can slow when this happens, but you may not notice it on your own.

Platelet aggregation at the site of damage to blood vessels is induced by what? a) Activation of Hageman factor b) Contact of platelets to collagen subendothelium c) lysosomal enzymes from neutrophil d) release of tissue thromboplastin e) thrombi

b) Contact of platelets to collagen subendothelium

55. Hyperplasia: a) Is the opposite of simple atrophy b) Does not affect neurons in the CNS c) Cannot be combined with hypertrophy c) Regularly precedes dysplasia

b) Does not affect neurons in the CNS

The most frequent etiologic agents of meningitis in neonates is? a) Toxoplasmosis b) E. coli c) meningococcus d) amoebae

b) E. coli And group B strep

28. The prostate cancer is graded according to: a) Breslow b) Gleason c) Paget d) Lauren

b) Gleason The Gleason Grading system is used to help evaluate the prognosis of men with prostate cancer. Together with other parameters, it is incorporated into a strategy of prostate cancer staging which predicts prognosis and helps guide therapy. A Gleason score is given to prostate cancer based upon its microscopic appearance. Cancers with a higher Gleason score are more aggressive and have a worse prognosis

57. Wet gangrene: a) Is always the result of injuries b) Is caused by putrefactive bacteria c) Never affects internal organs d) Always precedes dry gangrene

b) Is caused by putrefactive bacteria -Gangrene: arises when a considerable mass of body tissue dies (necrosis). May occur after an injury or infection, or in people with chronic health problem affecting blood circulation. Primary cause is reduced blood supply to the affected tissues, which results in cell death -Dry: begins at the distal part of limb due to ischemia, and often occurs in the toes and feet due to arteriosclerosis (known as senile gangrene). Mainly due to arterial occlusion and there is limited putrefaction. -Wet: occurs in naturally moist tissue and organs (mouth, bowel, lungs, cervix, and vulva). Bedsores are also wet gangrene infections. Wet gangrene is coagulative necrosis progressing to liquefactive necrosis. -Putrefaction: 1/7 stages in the decomposition of a dead body. It can be viewed as the decomposition of proteins in a process that results in the eventual breakdown of cohesion between tissues and the liquefaction of most organs. Caused due to bacterial or fungal decomposition of organic matter and results in production of noxious odours.

44. Which of the following apply to cancer designations (betegnelse)? a) Malignant epithelial tumors are called ... b) Malignant mesenchymal tumors are designated as sarcomas c) Malignant neurogenic sarcomas are of neuroectodermal origin d) Benign tumors of melanocytes are called nevi

b) Malignant mesenchymal tumors are designated as sarcomas d) Benign tumors of melanocytes are called nevi -Nevi: medical term for sharply circumscribed and chronic lesions of the skin or mucosa, commonly named birthmarks or beauty marks, are benign by definition but 25% of malignant melanomas arise from pre-existing nevi -Carcinoma is the term used for a malignant epithelial tumor

40. Which is true of autoimmune diseases: a) Hashimoto thyroiditis is an example of pathological type IV immune response b) May be systemic and organ specific c) Systemic forms include Sjögren's syndrome d) Goodpasutre syndrome is an autoimmune disease with antibodies against pneumocytes and podocytes

b) May be systemic and organ specific c) Systemic forms include Sjögren's syndrome -Hashimotos is type IV hypersensitivity tho! (Vernerova says type II in her lecture.. ) -Sjögren syndrome: a chronic autoimmune disease in which the body's white blood cells destroy the exocrine glands, specifically the salivary and lacrimal glands, that produce saliva and tears. -Goodpasutre syndrome: causes the abnormal production of anti-GBM antibodies, by the plasma cells of the blood. The anti-GBM antibodies attack the alveoli and glomeruli basement membranes --> type II

What is true about fat emboli? a) Occurs most frequently after blunt abdominal trauma b) May occur as a brain embolism c) Occurs most frequently in long bone fractures d) Do not lead to severe symptoms e) Can occur following the ingestion of fatty food

b) May occur as a brain embolism c) Occurs most frequently in long bone fractures

45. Which statement is correct about tumors? a) Tumors arising from neuroendocrine cells are carcinoids b) Neurilemmoma arises from Schwann cells c) Identification of adenomas is based on their structure d) Names of adenomas are derived from the name of their source body organs

b) Neurilemmoma arises from Schwann cells c) Identification of adenomas is based on their structure -Carcinoids:a slow-growing type of neuroendocrine tumor originating in the cells of the neuroendocrine system OLD TERM, no we use NET1,NET2,NEC -Neurilemmoma: benign, encapsulated tumors of the nerve sheath (from schwann cells of nerual crest)

28. The most important risk factors for urothelial bladder cancer include: a) HPV infection b) smoking cigarettes c) exposure to ... d) Schistosoma infection

b) smoking cigarettes d) Schistosoma infection Urothelial carcinoma is a prototypical example of a malignancy arising from environmental carcinogenic influences. By far the important cause is cigarette smoking, which contributes to approximately half of the disease burden. Schistosomiasisis a disease caused by parasitic worms of the Schistosoma type. It may infect the urinary tract or intestines. Signs and symptoms may include abdominal pain, diarrhea, bloody stool, or blood in the urine. In those who have been infected a long time, liver damage, kidney failure, infertility, or bladder cancer may occur. The disease is spread by contact with water that contains the parasites. These parasites are released from freshwater snails that have been infected

Which of the following diseases are examples of metaplasia? a) multiplication of the number of goblet cells in the main bronchus of a smoker b) squamous epithelium in the bronchi of a smoker c) proliferative endometrial glands in patients on estrogen therapy d) hyperkeratotis skin in patient with psoriasis e) multiplication of the number of goblet cells in the terminal bronchus of a smoker

b) squamous epithelium in the bronchi of a smoker e) multiplication of the number of goblet cells in the terminal bronchus of a smoker

For abnormal findings on cytological examination (PAP) cervical biopsy was performed in 28 years old female. The endocervical squamous epithelium was regular, both on the surface and in glands. Diagnosis? a) squamous dysplasia b) squamous metaplasia c) endocervical atrophy d) squamous hyperplasia

b) squamous metaplasia Endocervix is usually made from glandular epithelium, not squamous

4. Acute coronary syndromes do not include: a) myocardial infarction b) stable angina pectoris c) sudden death d) chronic ischemic heart disease

b) stable angina pectoris d) chronic ischemic heart disease

19. Which type of steatosis is caused by mitochondrial disorder? a) alcoholic liver steatosis b) steatosis in myocardial ischemia c) granular cells in CNS d) lipidosis of gallbladder mucosa

b) steatosis in myocardial ischemia Steatosis (also called fatty change, fatty degeneration or adipose degeneration) is the process describing the abnormal retention of lipids within a cell. It reflects an impairment of the normal processes of synthesis and elimination of triglyceride fat. Excess lipid accumulates in vesicles that displace the cytoplasm. When the vesicles are large enough to distort the nucleus, the condition is known as macrovesicular steatosis; otherwise, the condition is known as microvesicular steatosis.

Which of the following tumors consists of epithelioid and spindle components? a) rhabdomyosarcoma b) synovial sarcoma c) malignant melanoma d) liposarcoma

b) synovial sarcoma a - mesenchymal c- neuroectoderm d - no epithelial component

37. Which of the following statements about fat embolism is/are true? a) the most common cause is bruising of subcut. tissue b) tends to accompany multiple fractures of long bones c) apply mainly in the pulmonary bloodstream and CNS d) syndromes appear within one week of trauma

b) tends to accompany multiple fractures of long bones c) apply mainly in the pulmonary bloodstream and CNS A fat embolism is a type of embolism that is often caused by physical trauma such as fracture of long bones, soft tissue trauma, and burns.

52. Hypovolemic shock: a) the assumption is always extensive bleeding b) the cause may be an extensive bleeding c) the cause is hypovolemia in patients with edema d) the cause may be severe dehydration in patients with cholera

b) the cause may be an extensive bleeding d) the cause may be severe dehydration in patients

27. Breslow is defined as: a) the depth of invasion of squamous cell carcinoma measured from the basement membrane of the site with the deepsest invasion b) the depth of invasion measured in malignant melanoma from stratum granulosum of epidermis to the place with the deepest invasion c) histological subtype of malignant melanoma d) cytological subtype of malignant melanoma

b) the depth of invasion measured in malignant melanoma from stratum granulosum of epidermis to the place with the deepest invasion

20. Which of the following is/are associated with the term reparation? a) tissue replacement by another tissue that is morphologically and functionally the same as the original tissue b) the healing process resulting in a newly formed tissue c) exemplified by the regeneration of surface epithelium in healing of erosion d) reparative processes do not arise in bone tissue

b) the healing process resulting in a newly formed tissue

72. The source of pulmonary embolism is not: a) the deep vein thrombosis b) thrombosis in the aorta c) thrombosis in the right heart d) thrombosis in the left heart during a closed foramen ovale

b) thrombosis in the aorta d) thrombosis in the left heart during a closed foramen ovale

Which of the following is/are true of epulis? a) aberrant goiter at the root of tongue b) tumor of the gum c) acquired dystrophy of mesenchymal tissue d) a special form of dental caries in milk teeth

b) tumor of the gum

Which of the following is/are true of pathological calcification? a) occurs only in pathologically changed tissues b) two forms are known - dystrophic and metastatic c) the assumption is always hypercalcemia d) always begins as an intracellular process

b) two forms are known - dystrophic and metastatic

44. Gangrene: a) never occur in children b) wet gangrene is caused by bacteria c) never affects internal organs d) it is usually preceded by necrosis, subsequently modified

b) wet gangrene is caused by bacteria d) it is usually preceded by necrosis, subsequently modified

What medullary tumor is commonly referred to tumors: a) growing up primarily in the bone marrow b) with small amounts of stroma and large amounts of cells c) with large amounts of stroma and few cells d) marrow nadlevin e) exclusively metastatic to the bone marrow

b) with small amounts of stroma and large amounts of cells

32. Schiller-Duval bodies are found in: a) Wilms tumors b) yolk sac tumor c) they do not exist d) in steroid-forming tumor cells

b) yolk sac tumor -Schiller-Duval body is a cellular structure in endodermal sinus tumors (yolk sac tumors) which are the most common testicular cancer in children. Schiller-Duval bodies are said to resemble a glomerulus. They have a mesodermal core with a central capillary, all lined by flattened layers of both visceral and parietal cells. Immunofluorescent stain may show eosinophilic hyalin-like globules both inside and outside the cytoplasm that contain AFP and alpha 1-antitrypsin. -Wilms' tumor or nephroblastoma is cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children, rarely in adults.Wilms' tumor is a malignant tumor containing metanephric blastema, stromal and epithelial derivatives. Characteristic is the presence of abortive tubules and glomeruli surrounded by a spindled cell stroma. The stroma may include striated muscle, cartilage, bone, fat tissue, fibrous tissue. The tumor is compressing the normal kidney parenchyma.

The most characteristic features of granulation tissue is a) similarities with the granuloma b)proliferation of fibroblasts and capillaries c)exudative character d) the presence of hyalin collagen e) the presence of granular necrosis

b)proliferation of fibroblasts and capillaries

Which of the following pigments belong among the hematogenous pigments a. Ceroid b. Hemosiderin c. Bilirubin d. Hematoidin e. Lipofuscin

b,c,d b. Hemosiderin c. Bilirubin d. Hematoidin

Which statements applies for melanin a. Its presence in the intestine cause melanosis coli b. Failure of melanin synthesis cause albinism c. Its increased in the skin during so-called bronze diabetes d. During Addison disease the amount of melanin in the skin is decreased e. It's also produced by melanocytes of the skin

b,c,e Failure --> albinism increased amount --> Bronze diabetes Produced by melanocytes in skin Addisons --> hyperpigmentation ( massive ACTH produ + MSH)

After a burn injury a skin ulcer that won't heal appears. It grows hair on the healing skin. What is correct about the grade of the burn injury: a. 1st degree b. 2nd degree c. 3rd degree d. 4th degree e. 5th degree

b. 2nd degree

After a burn injury a skin ulcer that won't heal appears. It grows hair on the healing skin. What is correct about the grade of the burn injury a. 1st degree b. 2nd degree c. 3rd degree d. 4th degree e. 5th degree

b. 2nd degree Dermis is not destroyed, but the entire epidermis is gone (even the stratum basale)

Fistula is best defined as a. Focal defect of superficial tissue b. Abnormal communication among surfaces and cavities c. Any area of tissue necrosis d. Focal accumulation of pus e. Epithelium lining a cavity filled with liquid

b. Abnormal communication among surfaces and cavities

Which of the following diseases belong among the non-infectious sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Meningitis d. Hepatitis e. Orchitis

b. Acute glomerulonephritis

Which of the following diseases belong among the non-infectious sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Meningitis d. Hepatitis e. Orchitis

b. Acute glomerulonephritis

The characteristic cell type for Aschoff nodules is a. Langhans cells b. Anitschow cells c. Mikulicz cells d. Lymphocytes e. Fibroblats

b. Anitschow cells

With which deficiency of the following vitamins can there be an association with megaloblastic anemia and Chrohn`s disease a. B1/Thiamine b. B12 c. B2/Riboflavin d. Pyridoxine e. Folic acid

b. B12

With which deficiency of the following vitamins can there be an association with megaloblastic anemia and Chrohn`s disease: a. B1/Thiamine b. B12 c. B2/Riboflavin d. Pyridoxine e. Folic acid

b. B12 Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from mouth to anus. Symptoms often include: abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be bloody if inflammation is severe), fever and weight loss

C5a, Leukotriene B4 and bacterial products mediate a. Angiogenesis b. Chemotaxis c. Fever d. Pain e. Vasodilation

b. Chemotaxis

Which of the following infectious agents cause ornithosis a. Coxiella burnetii b. Chlamydia psittaci c. Actinomyces israelii d. Listeria monocytogenes e. Salmonella typhi

b. Chlamydia psittaci A disease of birds caused by Chlamydia psittaci and contracted by humans through contact with infected birds. psittacosis — also known as parrot fever, and ornithosis — is a zoonotic infectious disease caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci and contracted from parrots

Which of the following infectious agents cause ornithosis a. Coxiella burnetii b. Chlamydia psittaci c. Actinomyces israelii d. Listeria monocytogenes e. Salmonella typhi

b. Chlamydia psittaci psittacosis — also known as parrot fever, and ornithosis — is a zoonotic infectious disease caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci and contracted from parrots, such as macaws, cockatiels and budgerigars, and pigeons, sparrows, ducks, hens, gulls and many other species of bird.

The foci of aggregation of macrophages filled with cholesterol esters in the mucosa of the gallbladder are known as a. Lipomatous atrophy b. Cholesterolosis c. Atheroma d. Granuloma e. Xanthoma

b. Cholesterolosis

98. The relationship between the human host and the normal bacterial flora can best be described as a. Saprophytic (organisms which obtain nutrients from dead organic matter) b. Commensal (a symbiotic relationship in which one species is benefited while the other is unaffected) c. Symbiotic d. Parasitic (a non-mutual symbiotic relationship between species, where one species, the parasite, benefits at the expense of the other) e. Facultative

c. Symbiotic

91. Which of the following statements about anthrax are correct a. It is a mild acute gastrointestinal disease b. It has a serious skin form and a mild pulmonary form c. The contagion consist of spores of Bacillus anthracis d. Patients die from hemorrhagic-necrotizing pneumonia e. The skin form appears like malignant pustules

c. The contagion consist of spores of Bacillus anthracis d. Patients die from hemorrhagic-necrotizing pneumonia e. The skin form appears like malignant pustules

Which of the following statements about anthrax are correct a. It is a mild acute gastrointestinal disease b. It has a serious skin form and a mild pulmonary form c. The contagion consist of spores of Bacillus anthracis d. Patients die from hemorrhagic-necrotizing pneumonia e. The skin form appears like malignant pustules

c. The contagion consist of spores of Bacillus anthracis d. Patients die from hemorrhagic-necrotizing pneumonia e. The skin form appears like malignant pustules (mild skin form, severe pulmonary form)

Which of the following statements about smallpox are correct: a. It still poses a serious medical problem in third-world countries b. It has fecal-oral transmission c. The virus cause degeneration of epidermal cells, giving rise to multilocular blisters d. The main symptom of the disease is jaundice during centrolobular necrosis of hepatocytes e. The disease cause re-activation of endogenous latent viruses which lead to serious complications

c. The virus cause degeneration of epidermal cells, giving rise to multilocular blisters

Which of the following statements applies to polymorphonuclear cells a. Their granules contains histamine b. They recirculate permanently in the bloodstream c. They contain two types of cytoplasmic granules d. They originate from monocytes/macrophages e. They contain abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum

c. They contain two types of cytoplasmic granules (why not a and e?)

Which of the following infectious agents cause transplacental infections in the fetus a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Histoplasma capsulatum e. Candida albicans

c. Toxoplasma gondii

Which of the following infectious agents cause transplacental infections in the fetus a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Histoplasma capsulatum e. Candida albicans

c. Toxoplasma gondii parasitic protozoan that causes the disease toxoplasmosis. Acute toxoplasmosis is often asymptomatic in healthy adults. However, symptoms may manifest and are often influenza-like: swollen lymph nodes, or muscle aches and pains that last for a month or more. Rarely will a human with a fully functioning immune system develop severe symptoms following infection

82. Which of the following diseases are not caused by Rickettsia a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever b. Ehrlichisois c. Typhoid fever d. Q fever e. Bacillary angiomatosis

c. Typhoid fever

Which of the following diseases are not caused by Rickettsia a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever b. Ehrlichisois c. Typhoid fever d. Q fever e. Bacillary angiomatosis

c. Typhoid fever - Salmonella Typhi

Which virus are not oncogenic a. Papilloma virus b. EBV c. Virus poliomyelitis acuta anterior d. HSV type 1 e. HSV type 2

c. Virus poliomyelitis acuta anterior d. HSV type 1 e. HSV type 2

Which virus are not oncogenic: a. Papilloma virus b. EBV c. Virus poliomyelitis acuta anterior d. HSV type 1 e. HSV type 2

c. Virus poliomyelitis acuta anterior d. HSV type 1 e. HSV type 2

Which vitamin deficiency manifests with cheilosis (anguli infectiosi) a. Vitamin B1 deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 deficiency d. Vitamin A deficiency e. Vitamin E deficiency

c. Vitamin B2 deficiency Fissuring and dry scaling of the vermilion surface of the lips and angles of the mouth, a characteristic of riboflavin deficiency (Vit.B2)

Which vitamin deficiency manifests with cheilosis (anguli infectiosi) a. Vitamin B1 deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin B2 deficiency d. Vitamin A deficiency e. Vitamin E deficiency Cheilosis: is inflammation of one, or more commonly both, of the corners of the mouth. It is a type of cheilitis (inflammation of the lips).

c. Vitamin B2 deficiency (Riboflavin deficiency) Clinical symptoms: - Skin: Oro-oculo-genital syndrome (anguli infectiosi, cheilosis, rhagades, interspersed lips, tongue atrophy); - nail changes (koilonychia); ekzema-like changes similar to seborrhoic dermatitis in the face, capillitium and genital region; - Eye: angular blepharitis, sometimes associated with conjunctivitis and corneal vascularisation.

Which of the following vitamins are not water-soluble: a. Biotin b. Niacin c. Vitamin D d. Thiamine (B1) e. Riboflavin (B2)

c. Vitamin D - fat soluble (ADEK)

Which of the following is/are true of tumors of striated muscle? a) rhabdomyoma is a frequent tumor in limb muscles b) rhabdomyosarcoma occur in the myocardium of children c) rhabdomyosarcoma can be derived into embryonic juvenile and adult d) embryonic rhaobdymyosarcoma is frequently seen in the pelvic floor

d) embryonic rhaobdymyosarcoma is frequently seen in the pelvic floor (B --> Rhabdomyoma (benign variant) in heart) Common sites of RMS include: - Head and neck (such as near the eye, inside the nasal sinuses or throat, or near the spine in the neck) - Urinary and reproductive organs (bladder, prostate gland, or any of the female organs) - Arms and legs - Trunk (chest and abdomen Types: Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma --> ERMS tends to occur in the head and neck area, bladder, vagina, or in or around the prostate and testicles. Subtypes: Botryoid and spindle cell rhabdomyosarcomas Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma ARMS most often occurs in large muscles of the trunk, arms, and legs. Anaplastic rhabdomyosarcoma (formerly called pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma) is an uncommon type that occurs in adults but is very rare in children. Most rhabdomyosarcomas develop in children, but they can also occur in adults.

Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with which one of these: a) bechterew disease b) diverticulitis c) emphysema d) gluten sensitive enteropathy

d) gluten sensitive enteropathy

78. The basic pathogenetic types of amyloid does not cover a) AA amyloid b) AL amyliod c) tranthyertin type d) histamine type

d) histamine type

10. With chronic bronchitis is not related: a) smoking b) bronchial asthma c) productive cough d) hyaline membrane

d) hyaline membrane Hyaline membrane disease: A respiratory disease of the newborn, especially the premature infant, in which a membrane composed of proteins and dead cells lines the alveoli (the tiny air sacs in the lung), making gas exchange difficult or impossible

68. The causes of necrosis do not cover: a) trauma b) pathological immune response c) microbial infection d) hypothyroidism

d) hypothyroidism

Which of the following properties are characteristic of the tumor cells? a) proliferation requires external growth factor b) Increased intercellular adhesion of tumor cells c) contact inhibition of growth in vitro d) include years of evolution transformation changes / tumor progression e) terminal differentiation of tumor cells

d) include years of evolution transformation changes / tumor progression

What causes acute pulmonary edema in left-sided heart failure? a) increased arterial hydrostatic pressure b) decreased colloid osmotic pressure of plasma c) increased vascular permeability d) increased capillary hydrostatic pressure e) combination of C and D is correct

d) increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

Which of the following assertion is true for CML: a) moderate enlargement of the spleen b) mainly affects adolescents c) characterized by RS cells d) infiltrates in the liver is within sinusoids e) bone marrow is not affected

d) infiltrates in the liver is within sinusoids

2. Ulcerative colitis is: a) granulomatous inflammation b) transmural inflammation of the intestinal wall c) associated with formation of fissural ulcers d) inflammation with formation of inflammatory pseudopolyps

d) inflammation with formation of inflammatory pseudopolyps

12. For lobar pneumonia following applies: a) it is a granulomatous inflammation b) it is an interstitial inflammation c) there are presented multinucleated cells d) it affects the entire lung lobe

d) it affects the entire lung lobe Lobar pneumonia usually has an acute progression. Classically, the disease has four stages: - Congestion in the first 24 hours: This stage is characterized histologically by vascular engorgement, intra-alveolar fluid, small numbers of neutrophils, often numerous bacteria. Grossly, the lung is heavy and hyperemic - Red hepatization or consolidation : Vascular congestion persists, with extravasation of red cells into alveolar spaces, along with increased numbers of neutrophils and fibrin. The filling of airspaces by the exudate leads to a gross appearance of solidification, or consolidation, of the alveolar parenchyma. This appearance has been likened to that of the liver, hence the term "hepatization". - Grey hepatization : Red cells disintegrate, with persistence of the neutrophils and fibrin. The alveoli still appear consolidated, but grossly the color is paler and the cut surface is drier. - Resolution (complete recovery):The exudate is digested by enzymatic activity, and cleared by macrophages or by cough mechanism

Gynecomastia is associated with: a) seminoma b) it is commonly bilateral c) turner syndrome d) liver cirrhosis

d) liver cirrhosis What is Gynectomastia: Gynecomastia is a common endocrine disorder in which there is a benign enlargement of breast tissue in males. Gynecomastia is thought to be caused by an altered ratio of estrogens to androgens mediated by an increase in estrogen production, a decrease in androgen production, or a combination of these two factors In individuals with liver failure or cirrhosis, the liver's ability to properly metabolize hormones such as estrogen may be impaired.

45. What is true of atrophy: a) a rare change b) has a productive form c) is never generalized state d) may be combined with tumor

d) may be combined with tumor

43. What is true of necrosis: a) caseous necrosis is of ischemic origin b) liquefactive necrosis occurs only in the CNS c) type of necrosis depends only on the causative agents d) necrosis is of endogenous and exogenous origin

d) necrosis is of endogenous and exogenous origin

Which of the following is/are NOT true of plasmacytoma? a) is often accompanied by amyloid deposition b) is often accompanied by paraproteinuria c) it is B-NHL d) numerous osteoplastic metastasis are commonly present

d) numerous osteoplastic metastasis are commonly present

Supraclavicular Lymph node biopsy of a 60 year old man revealed metastasis. What is probably the tumor? a) leiomyosarcoma b) Kidney Wilms tumor c) humerus osteosarcoma d) pancreatic cancer e) embryonic carcinoma

d) pancreatic cancer

For which primary tumor is characterized for osteoplastic metastasis? a) hepatocellular carcinoma b) Basal cell skin cancer c) colorectal cancer d) prostate cancer e) Clear cell carcinoma of kidney

d) prostate cancer

The best method for detecting the origin of clonal T cell lymphoma is: a) in situ hybridization of cells. b) immunohistochemical T cell marker c) investigate cytological nuclear irregularities d) prúkazem rearrangementu DNA e) ELISA test

d) prúkazem rearrangementu DNA

Which of the following statements about poliomyelitis are true: a. The infection belongs to anthropozoonosis b. The virus enters the organism through the upper respiratory tract c. The virus enters the CNS via the peripheral nerve fibers d. The region most affected are the frontal horns of the spinal cord e. Outbreak of the disease can be stopped by T cell response

d. The region most affected are the frontal horns of the spinal cord Poliomyelitis: infectious disease caused by the poliovirus. Approximately 90% to 95% of infections cause no symptoms. Another 5 to 10% of people have minor symptoms such as: fever, headache, vomiting, diarrhea, neck stiffness and pains in the arms and legs. These people are usually back to normal within one or two weeks. In about 0.5% of cases there is muscle weakness resulting in an inability to move. Poliovirus is usually spread from person to person through infected feces entering the mouth. It may also be spread by food or water containing human feces and less commonly from infected saliva

Which of the following statements about poliomyelitis are true a. The infection belongs to anthropozoonosis ( animals <---> Humans) b. The virus enters the organism through the upper respiratory tract c. The virus enters the CNS via the peripheral nerve fibers d. The region most affected are the frontal horns of the spinal cord e. Outbreak of the disease can be stopped by T cell response

d. The region most affected are the frontal horns of the spinal cord C - must also be correct? (caused by the poliovirus) Enters our body via intestines - lymphoid cells

In which of the following locations does metastatic calcification not occur a. Renal tubules b. Glands of the fundus of the stomach c. Lung alveoli d. Tunica media in Monckeberg medial calcification e. Cornea

d. Tunica media in Monckeberg medial calcification

Which of the following vitamin deficiency manifests as xerophthalmia a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin D deficiency d. Vitamin A deficiency e. Vitamin E deficiency

d. Vitamin A deficiency Xerophthalmia is a medical condition in which the eye fails to produce tears. It may be caused by a deficiency in vitamin A

Which of the following vitamin deficiency manifests as xerophthalmia: a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Vitamin D deficiency d. Vitamin A deficiency e. Vitamin E deficiency

d. Vitamin A deficiency Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) is a medical condition in which the eye fails to produce tears. It may be caused by a deficiency in vitamin A and is sometimes used to describe that lack, although there may be other causes

81. Which of the following statements about ionizing radiation are correct a. Cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle are most sensitive b. Irradiated cells don't precede to mitosis/There is no mitosis in irradiated cells c. Cells exposed to hypoxia are particularly sensitive to radiation injury d. With radiation injuries there is delayed production of granulation tissue e. Undifferentiated neoplasms are more sensitive to irradiation than differentiated neoplasms

d. With radiation injuries there is delayed production of granulation tissue e. Undifferentiated neoplasms are more sensitive to irradiation than differentiated neoplasms

Which of the following statements about ionizing radiation are correct a. Cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle are most sensitive b. Irradiated cells don't precede to mitosis/There is no mitosis in irradiated cells c. Cells exposed to hypoxia are particularly sensitive to radiation injury d. With radiation injuries there is delayed production of granulation tissue e. Undifferentiated neoplasms are more sensitive to irradiation than differentiated neoplasms

d. With radiation injuries there is delayed production of granulation tissue e. Undifferentiated neoplasms are more sensitive to irradiation than differentiated neoplasms

Which of the following microorganisms cause clinical symptoms resembling acute appendicitis a. Enteropathogenic E. coli b. Enterobius vermicularis c. Trichomonas hominis d. Yersinia enterocolitis e. Bacillus anthracis

d. Yersinia enterocolitis

Which of the following microorganisms cause clinical symptoms resembling acute appendicitis a. Enteropathogenic E. coli b. Enterobius vermicularis c. Trichomonas hominis d. Yersinia enterocolitis e. Bacillus anthracis

d. Yersinia enterocolitis

Which enzyme is deficient in Niemann pick disease

deficiency of sphingomyelinase. (usually)

Which enzyme is deficient in Pompe disease:

deficiency of the lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase enzyme

Which of the following cells are capable of proper phagocytosis a. T lymphocytes b. Plasma cells c. B lymphocytes d. Mast cells e. Macrophages

macrophages

1) serous infl.

mild inflammation watery, low protein content, fewer cells, derived from blood or serous lining cells. Mild inflammation. Examples: skin blisters, effusions (pleural, peritoneal, pericardial), second degree termal burns, viral meningitis, joint effusions

What is the source for the increased intracellular calcium during cell death?

mitochondrias of dying cells

4) fibrinous infl.

more severe injury, greater vascular permeability, larger molecules such as fibrinogen pass the vascular barier and fibrin is formed and deposited in extracellular space. Histologically fibrin appears as an eosinophilic meshwork or sometimes as an amorphous coagulum.

Ziel-Nielson

mycobacteriae

What does Ziehl-Neelson stain show?

mycobacterium tuberculosis + leprae

Grocott

mykosis

A Alterative Inflammation (parenchymatous)

necrotic changes predominate, ordinary features of inflammation are not pronounced (almost without exudation). Examples: viral hepatitis, lyssa, diphteric endocarditis

Among adults cells that does not regenerate by the process of cell division, belongs a) fibrocytes b) hepatocytes c) pneumocytes d) neurons e) osteocytes

neurons,

Are calcium deposits stained black with HE stain?

no

Can we color adipocytes with PAS staining?

no

Do we require the permission of the family/patient to perform autopsy?

no

Does amyloid stained withH&E show a yellow/green birefringence on polarized light?

no

Does lipid peroxidation accompany apoptosis?

no

Does necrosis occur immediately in necrotic tissue?

no

Does the plasma membrane of the apoptotic cell rupture?

no

Is Balser necrosis a subtype of caseous necrosis?

no

Is Protein droplets in the cytoplasm of renal tubular cells irreversible cell injury?

no

Is caseous necrosis a variant of liquefactive necrosis?

no

Is caseous necrosis present in muscle tissue during tetanus?

no

Is caseous necrosis typical around foreign bodies?

no

Is deposition of glycogen in the nuclei of hepatocytes (so-called glycogen nuclei) irreversible cell injury?

no

Is hydropic vacuolization of epithelial tubules in the kidneys irreverisble cell injury?

no

Is immunohistochemistry the same as FISH+

no

Is steatosis irreversible cell injury?

no

Is the nuclear chromatin intact in apopototic cells?

no

Is this a correct definition: Apoptosis - Balloon swelling of cytoplasm due to aggregations of lipid substances

no

Is this a correct definition: Fibrinoid necrosis - Ischemic necrosis originating from obstruction of an arterial lumen secondary to coagulation

no

Is this a correct definition: Heterolysis - Alteration of tissue by the action of fixation solution

no

Which of the following is the LEAST characteristic feature of a malignant tumor? a. Increased proliferation of cells b. Nuclear atypia c. Distant metastasis d. Penetrating or invasive to adjacent tissue e. Invasion to blood or lymphatic vessels

a. Increased proliferation of cells

Which of the following is NOT true about neuroblastoma? a. It's a tumor for middle-aged adults b. May arise in the medulla c. May arise in the posterior mediastinum d. Can secret catecholamines e. Histologically rosette formation is present

a. It's a tumor for middle-aged adults

721. For determining the prognosis of the tumor we use: a. Mitotic index b. Necrosis c. Degree of differentiation d. Spreading to the lymph nodes e. Number of deposits of dystrophic calcifications

a. Mitotic index c. Degree of differentiation d. Spreading to the lymph nodes

A 3-year old boy is presented with a left sided neck swelling. Histological examination shows a cystic lesion lined with flattened endothelial cells. There is no blood present. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Kaposi's sarcoma b. Metastatic prostate cancer c. Hemangioma d. Angiosarcoma e. Cystic hygroma

e. Cystic hygroma Also known as cystic lymphangioma and macrocystic lymphatic malformation, is often a congenital multiloculated lymphatic lesion

Which of the following tumor is most likely the primary source of metastasis to the liver? a) Cervical carcinoma in situ b) Adenocarcinoma in colon c) Clear cell carcinoma of the right kidney d) Testicular germ cell tumor e) Pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland

b) Adenocarcinoma in colon

Which of the following substances is not a proven carcinogen? a) Asbestos b) Aspartame c) Vinyl chloride d) Benzpyrene e) Aflatoxin

b) Aspartame

Which of the following condition(s) is/are predisposing to hepatocellular carcinoma? a) Acute viral hepatitis b) Chronic hepatitis B c) Chronic congestion of liver d) Pre-existing hepatic adenoma e) Cholestasis

b) Chronic hepatitis B

Each of the following is related to the expression of cancer except: a) Molecular genetic changes b) Ectopic secretion of hormones c) Clonal evolution d) Tumor heterogeneity e) Karyotype changes

b) Ectopic secretion of hormones

Belongs among mixed tumors: a) Chondroid hamartoma b) Fibroadenoma c) Carcinosarcoma d) Mixed pigmented nevus e) Basalioma

b) Fibroadenoma

To which organ usually metastasize osteosarcomas? a) Liver b) Lung c) Other bones d) Lymphatic nodes e) Spleen

b) Lung

From which tissue does rhabdomyoma origin? a) Epithelium b) Mesenchymal tissue c) Lymphoid tissue d) Mixed tissue e) Endothelium

b) Mesenchymal tissue

Autocrine growth factor homologous with c-sis oncogene is: a) TGF-beta b) PDGF c) TGF-alpha d) IGF e) EGF

b) PDGF

What is true about adenomas? a) are tumors from superficial epithelium b) are tumors of glandular epithelium c) are mixed mesenchymal-epithelial tumors d) designate only to neoplasms originating from endocrine glands e) arise only in the digestive tract

b) are tumors of glandular epithelium

Which of the following substances is considered a tumor promoter? a) plasminogen activator b) estrogen c) p53 d) radiation e) ras oncogene

b) estrogen

Which of the following finding is most characteristic for tile carcinoma: a) neurosecretory granule b) the corner beads c) intracellular mucus d) complex glandular formation e) tumor rosettes

b) the corner beads

Hamartoma is: a) designation of bleeding into a joint b) tumor erroneously connected in tissues c) tumor of a given organ structures goblets d) bleeding into the abdominal cavity e) Subperiosteal hematoma skull bones after birth

b) tumor erroneously connected in tissues

In such manner do carcinomas and sarcomas metastatsize: a) often simultaneously based lymphogenous and hematogenous metastases b) Both types will first metastasize to regional lymph nodes c) perineural spread d) Sarcomas metastasize more often hematogenously and carcinomas more often lymphogenously e) Sarcomas metastasize more often lymphogenously and carcinomas more often hematogenously

d) Sarcomas metastasize more often hematogenously and carcinomas more often lymphogenously

All the following statements are valid about oncogene products, except: a. May be a nuclear protein b. Some act as growth factors c. Some act as receptors for growth factors d. Some has tyrosine kinase activity e. Some facilitates the process of apoptosis

e. Some facilitates the process of apoptosis

Which of the following features is most characteristic for malignant tumors? a. Encapsulated b. Expansive growth c. Large size d. Anaplasia e. Abnormal hormone secretion

d. Anaplasia a condition whereby cells lose the morphological characteristics of mature cells and their orientation with respect to each other and to endothelial cells

Which of these proteins is associated with loss of intercellular adhesion of tumor: a) Ras b) c-erbB-2 c) Myc d) p53 e) DCC(deleted in colon carcinoma)

e) DCC(deleted in colon carcinoma)

Which of the following mechanism is responsible for xeroderma pigmentosa patients with an unusual susceptibility to the formation of skin tumors: a) Acquired tumor suppressor gene p53 b) Activation of Ras oncogene c) Abnormal melanin synthesis d) sensitivity to infrared radiation e) Defective DNA reparation after UV damage

e) Defective DNA reparation after UV damage

Ability of chemical carcinogen to induce tumors is influenced by each of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) ability of cells to DNA repair b) ability to detoxify carcinogen c) ability to activate carcinogen d) The presence of tumor promoter e) extent of damage the target cell plasma membrane

e) extent of damage the target cell plasma membrane

The main mechanism of tumor formation by ultraviolet radiation (UVB solar radiation) is: a) change in cellular differentiation b) inhibition of cellular interactions c) stimulate the activity of ras oncogene d) inhibits the activity of ras oncogene e) mutations of DNA

e) mutations of DNA

Which of the following statements about EBV is true? a) viral oncogene that cause cancer b) it is an oncornavirus c) induce formation of intranuclear inclusions d) induce formation of intracytoplasmic inclusions e) negatively affects the expression of bcl-2

e) negatively affects the expression of bcl-2

Which of the following statements are not true concerning carcinogens? a) are mutagens b) affects multiple target organs/tissues c) comes from the environment d) for the development of their carcinogenic potential they must be converted to electrophilic substances e) their effects on cells are irreversible

e) their effects on cells are irreversible

Which tumor formation(s) is/are related to EBV? a) Burkitt lymphoma. b) Some B cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. c) Kaposi`s sarcoma. d) T-lymphoblastic leukemia. e) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

a) Burkitt lymphoma. b) Some B cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. e) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

Which of the following pairs are correct? a) EBV - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma b) AIDS - Lymphoma, especially T-cell lymphoma c) HPV type 18 - Stomach cancer d) Hepatitis B - Breast cancer e) Herpes simplex type II - Burkitt lymphoma

a) EBV - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Which of the following type of cancer in children occurs LEAST frequently: a) adenocarcinoma b) leukemia c) lymphoma d) sarcoma e) meduloblastoma

a) adenocarcinoma

Which of the following genes are frequently altered in the process of gene amplification? a) c-erbb-2 b) bcl-2 c) abl d) p53 e) ras

a) c-erbb-2

Leiomyosarcoma and rhabdomyosarcoma is different in that: a) rhabdomyosarcoma is only found in the cytoplasm of striated muscle b) leiomyosarcoma is only found in the uterus and rhabdomyosarcoma is only found in the heart c) in rhabdomyosarcoma we find huge multinucleated cells d) leiomyosarcoma is found predominately in young people e) rhabdomyosarcoma does not have distant metastasis

a) rhabdomyosarcoma is only found in the cytoplasm of striated muscle

Which of the following process is an example of dysplasia? a. Actinic keratosis b. Chronic cystitis c. Chronic bronchitis d. Ulcerative colitis e. Pigmented nevus

a. Actinic keratosis Also called "solar keratosis" and "senile keratosis". It is a pre-cancerous patch of thick, scaly, or crusty skin. These growths are more common in fair-skinned people and those who are frequently in the sun

The tumor characterized by reciprocal chromosomal translocations leading to amplification of c-myc oncogene is called: a. Burkitt's lymphoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Chronic myeloid leukemia d. Fibrosarcoma e. Small cell carcinoma

a. Burkitt's lymphoma A cancer of the lymphatic system, particularly B lymphocytes found in the germinal center. All types of Burkitt's lymphoma are characterized by disregulation of the c-myc gene by one of three chromosomal translocations

Tumor promoters acts by: a. Changes of cellular differentiation b. DNA mutation c. Activation of apoptosis d. Dephosphorylation of Rb protein e. Formation of oxygen radicals

a. Changes of cellular differentiation

Which of the following are true about grading? a. Expresses the degree of maturity of malignant tumor b. It takes into account only the cytological criteria c. It takes into account the cytological and structural criteria d. Relies on tumor size e. Determines the degree of expansion of metastases in the body

a. Expresses the degree of maturity of malignant tumor c. It takes into account the cytological and structural criteria

Which of the following infection is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma? a. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) b. Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2) c. Aspergillus d. Treponema pallidum e. Staphylococcus aureus

a. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) A systemic disease that can present with cutaneous lesions with or without internal involvement

To DNA oncogenic viruses belong: a. Papillomavirus b. Myxovirus c. Papovavirus (they probably mean the polyomavirus since the papillomavirus is a papovavirus) d. Rhabdovirus e. Picornavirus

a. Papillomavirus

Which of the following protein encoding genes are inactivated by HPV? a. Rb b. Ras c. Myc d. Bcl-2 e. WT-1

a. Rb

Which of the following infectious agents may induce formation of bladder cancer? a. Schistosoma hematobium b. Trichinella spiralis c. Trichophyton d. Candida albicans e. Ascaris lumbricoides

a. Schistosoma hematobium - a flatworm that develope squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

To Neuroendocrine tumors belongs: a. Small cell carcinoma of lung b. Squamous cell carcinoma of cervix c. Pancreatic insulinoma d. Appendix carcinoid e. Neuroma

a. Small cell carcinoma of lung c. Pancreatic insulinoma d. Appendix carcinoid

Which of the following condition predisposes to the emergence of squamous cell carcinoma? a. Solar keratosis b. Bowen's disease/dermatosis c. Chronic eczema d. Chronic ulcer e. Keratoacanthoma

a. Solar keratosis b. Bowen's disease/dermatosis d. Chronic ulcer

Tumor associated with congenital deletion on chromosome 11 is? a. Wilm's tumor b. Cervical carcinoma c. Mammary gland carcinoma d. Colorectal carcinoma e. Yolk sac tumor

a. Wilm's tumor (or nephroblastoma) is cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children, rarely in adults

Which of the following does NOT apply to carcinoma in situ? a. It can be detected by a screening examination methods b. At the time of diagnosis may have already established metastases c. Tumor growth does not go through the basement membrane d. Connected with monoclonal disease e. Mutations occurs

b. At the time of diagnosis may have already established metastases CIS = a group of abnormal cells that grow in their normal place. For example, carcinoma in situ of the skin, also called Bowen's disease, is the accumulation of dysplastic epidermal cells within the epidermis only, that has failed to penetrate into the deeper dermis. For this reason, CIS will usually not form a tumor

How do tumor promoters work? a. Interaction with the receptor for PDGF b. Cellular growth stimulation c. Causes oxidative damage to the DNA d. Causes viral infection e. Activate initiators

b. Cellular growth stimulation

Which of the following characteristics is most typical for benign tumors? a. Anaplasia b. Differentiated tumor tissue appearance c. Absence of genetic changes d. Rapid growth e. Minimal or no clinical manifestations

b. Differentiated tumor tissue appearance

In which of the following organs of chronic abuse of nicotine increases the risk of malignancy? a. Liver b. Esophagus c. Colon d. Urinary bladder e. Gallbladder

b. Esophagus d. Urinary bladder

Rb gene: a. Is a protooncogene b. Is a tumorsuppressor gene c. Found in neurofibromatosis d. The mutated form is found in retinoblastoma e. Its protein product is involved in HPV oncogenesis

b. Is a tumorsuppressor gene d. The mutated form is found in retinoblastoma e. Its protein product is involved in HPV oncogenesis

Which of the following statements is true? a. The lymph node metastasis is usually in the area of the sarcoma b. Sarcomas metastasize predominantly by the blood c. Hematogeneous metastases usually arise from the spread of nodal metastasis d. All tumor emboli give rise to metastasis e. due to the presence of blood-brain barrier the brain metastases are extremely rare

b. Sarcomas metastasize predominantly by the blood

Which of the following statements is true of paraneoplastic syndrome: a) manifested only in squamous cell carcinoma b) manifested only in upper respiratory tract tumors c) we find him often in small cell lung cancer d) manifested only in the veins e) only condition is the presence of liver metastases

c) we find him often in small cell lung cancer

Which circumstance(s) affecting the Rb gene on chromosome 13 evokes the formation of retiboblastoma? a) Chromosomal translocation b) Gene mutation c) Deletion in both copies of the gene. d) Amplification in both copies of the gene. e) Deactivation in viral infections

c) Deletion in both copies of the gene.

Aflatoxin B1, a chemical carcinogen produced by mold-contaminated food, evokes: a) Lung carcinoma of transitional epithelium b) Rectal adenocarcinoma c) Hepatocellular carcinoma d) Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin e) Kidney cancer

c) Hepatocellular carcinoma

Hereditary tumor genetically characterized by deletion of the short arm of chromosome13 (13q14p) is called: a) Neuroblastoma b) Wilms tumor c) Retinoblastoma d) Angiosarcoma e) Neurofibroma

c) Retinoblastoma

Which of the following cancers belong among germ cell tumors? a) Embryonal rhadbomyosarcoma b) Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) c) Teratoma d) Medulloblastoma e) Hamartoma

c) Teratoma

Which of the following tumor types has an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance? a) Squamous cell carcinoma in lungs b) Colloid colon cancer c) Wilms tumor d) Pleomorphic adenoma e) Teratoma

c) Wilms tumor

The retinoblastoma gene regulates: a) DNA transcription b) signal transmission in cells c) cell cycle progression d) apoptosis e) repair DNA

c) cell cycle progression

A 49 year old female presents with a lump in her left breast.. Biopsy showed invasive ductal carcinoma of the mammary gland. There is increased fibrosis in the vicinity of the tumor. This finding is an example of: a) anaplasia b) carcinoma in situ c) desmoplasia d) dysplasia e) metaplasia

c) desmoplasia (the growth of fibrous or connective tissue)

Which of the following assertion is true for adenocarcinoma of prostate: a) primary cause is alcohol b) caused by viral infection c) mainly metastasize to bone d) 5 year survival is about 5 % e) Most often in age group between 20-40 years

c) mainly metastasize to bone

Malignant neoplasms of mesenchymal origin are referred to as: a) teratoma b) carcinoma c) sarcoma d) fibroma e) hamartoma

c) sarcoma

Abnormalities in DCC (Deleted in colon cancer) gene are related to: a) abnormal chromosome distribution between cells during cell division b) changes in cell cycle c) to changes in cell adhesion d) changes in DNA repair e) DNA transcription

c) to changes in cell adhesion

All of the following characteristics of tumors are associated with invasion ability EXCEPT: a) type IV collagenase production b) expression of receptors for extracellular matrix components c) viral infection of tumor cells d) paracrine interactions e) angiogenesis

c) viral infection of tumor cells

Exposure to sunlight plays an important etiological role in the development of all the following pathologies EXCEPT: a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Melanoma e. Actinic keratoses

c. Adenocarcinoma

Which of the following statements is true about glomangioma? a. Glomangiomas arise from specialized structures associated with the regulation of pressure b. Are typically located near the proximal interphalangeal joint c. Are usually painful d. Are usually malignant e. Glomangiomas usually surround nerves

c. Are usually painful A glomus tumor (also known as a "solitary glomus tumor," or glomangioma) is a rare benign neoplasm arising from the glomus body (a component of the dermis layer of the skin, involved in body temperature regulation) and mainly found under the nail, on the fingertip or in the foot

A two-year old boy with a malignant tumor will most likely have: a. Hamartoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma e. Leiomyosarcoma

c. Retinoblastoma A rapidly developing cancer that develops from the immature cells of a retina, the light-detecting tissue of the eye and is the most common malignant tumor of the eye in children

What is the tumor called consisting of mutually intertwined elongated bundles, unequally sized spindle cells with large, atypical nuclei and numerous hyperchromatic mitoses? a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Sarcoma d. Lymphoma e. Leiomyoma

c. Sarcoma

Grading and staging is a process which aims to assess the degree of differentiation and aggressiveness of the tumor. Which of the following is correct? a. Grading a tumor has greater clinical significance then staging b. Tumor staging shall be based on cytological differentiation of tumor cells and the number of mitoses c. Staging shall be based on the size of the primary tumor, the extent of tumor spread to lymph nodes and the presence or absence of metastases d. Grading is based on the degree of local invasion of primary tumor e. Staging of tumors do not have - unlike grading - any importance in determining the patient's prognosis

c. Staging shall be based on the size of the primary tumor, the extent of tumor spread to lymph nodes and the presence or absence of metastases

What is critical for staging of tumors? a. The type of tumor b. The maturity of the tumor c. The size of the tumor d. Metastases e. The number of mitoses per 10 fields of vision at a magnification of 40x (so-called high-power field / HPF)

c. The size of the tumor d. Metastases

The tumor containing, extraembryonal mesoderm, is referred to as: a. Dermoid cyst b. Choristom c. Yolk sac tumor d. Teratoma e. Hamartoma

c. Yolk sac tumor

A 30-year old man was diagnosed with and had removal of testicular tumors. Which of the following facts are evidence of a malignant lesion? a. The size of the tumor is more than 3 cm b. More than 2 mitoses per 10 fields of vision at a magnification of 40x c. The tumor has a different sized nuclei some of which are markedly hyperchromatic d. Chest X-ray reveals two spherical deposits in the right lung field, which in previous examinations were not present e. The patient is infertile

d. Chest X-ray reveals two spherical deposits in the right lung field, which in previous examinations were not present

Which of the following statements is NOT true of plasmacytoma? a. Often is accompanied by a deposit of amyloid b. Often is accompanied by paraproteinuria c. Belongs to non-Hodgkin's B-cell lymphoma d. Creates numerous osteoplastic metastases e. It affects mainly older men

d. Creates numerous osteoplastic metastases Plasmacytoma refers to a malignant plasma cell tumor growing within soft tissue or within the axial skeleton

What's the most important difference between benign and malignant tumors? a. Tumor size b. Number of mitoses c. Dystrophic calcification d. Distant metastases e. Necrosis

d. Distant metastases

Which of the following properties is the most characteristic of malignant tumors? a. Autonomous proliferation of cells b. Necrosis in the center of the tumor c. Lack of encapsulation d. Distant metastasis e. Painless manifestation

d. Distant metastasis

Which of the following is a protein encoded by human papillomavirus? a. Bcl-2 b. Bax c. Tax d. E7 e. P53

d. E7 Some of the HPV "early" genes, such as E6 and E7, are known to act as oncogenes that promote tumor growth and malignant transformation. The two primary oncoproteins of high risk HPV types are E6 and E7. The "E" indicates that these two proteins are expressed early in the HPV life cycle, while the "L" indicates late expression. The HPV genome is composed of six early (E1, E2, E4, E5, E6, and E7) ORFs, two late (L1 and L2) ORFs, and a non-coding long control region (LCR)

All of the following oncogenic virus are correctly paired with caused tumors EXCEPT: a. HTLV-1 - Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma b. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) - Hepatocellular carcinoma c. Human papilloma virus (HPV) - laryngeal papillomatosis d. Epstein-Barr virus - cervical cancer e. EBV - Burkitt's lymphoma

d. Epstein-Barr virus - cervical cancer Also called human herpesvirus 4, is a virus of the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. It is best known as the cause of infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever). It is also associated with particular forms of cancer, such as Hodgkin's lymphoma, Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and conditions associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), such as hairy leukoplakia and central nervous system lymphomas.

Biphasic benign tumor often present in the parotid gland is: a. Adenocarcinoma b. Papilloma c. Cystadenoma d. Pleomorphic adenoma e. Chondroma

d. Pleomorphic adenoma

All tumors underwent the following sequence of events metaplasia-dysplasia-malignant tumor EXCEPT: a. Squamous cell carcinoma of cervix b. Squamous cell carcinoma of urinary bladder c. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung d. Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus e. Squamous cell carcinoma of paranasal sinus

d. Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus

Which of the following is the LEAST important factor in the etiology of cancer? a. Age b. Solar radiation c. Virus infection d. Traumatic injury e. Inheritance

d. Traumatic injury

Which of the following conditions in cancerogenesis/neoplastic progression is reversible? a. Invasion b. Clonal expansion c. Distant metastasis d. Tumor promotion e. Initiation

d. Tumor promotion A process in carcinogenesis by which various factors permit the descendents of a single initiated cell to survive and expand in number, i.e. to resist apoptosis and to undergo clonal growth. This is a step toward tumor progression