Peds Final Study Guide

A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a child who has had a shunt inserted as treatment for hydrocephalus. The parents demonstrate understanding of the teaching when they make what statement? A) "Having the shunt put in decreases his risk for developmental problems." B) "If he doesn't get an infection in the first week, the risk is greatly reduced." C) "He will need more surgeries to replace the shunt as he grows." D) "The shunt will help to prevent any further complications from his disease."

"He will need more surgeries to replace the shunt as he grows." Parents need to know that hydrocephalus is a chronic illness that requires lifelong follow-up and regular evaluations, including future surgeries as the child grows. The risk for infection is ever present, but is most common 1 to 2 months after shunt placement. The child with a shunt and hydrocephalus is at risk for potential growth and developmental disabilities as well as complications such as infection and malfunction of the shunt.

When evaluating the hemogram of an 8-month-old infant, the nurse would identify which type of hemoglobin as being the predominant type? A)Hemoglobin A B)Hemoglobin F C)Hemoglobin A2 D)Hemoglobin S

A. Hemoglobin A. Three types of normal hemoglobin are present at any given time in the blood: A, F, and A2. By 6 months of age, hemoglobin A is the predominant type. Hemoglobin S is associated with sickle cell disease.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a child with thalassemia. What information would the nurse expect to include? Select all that apply. A)Packed RBC transfusions B)Deferoxamine therapy C)Heparin therapy D)Opioid analgesics E)Platelet transfusions F)Intravenous immunoglobulin

A, B RBC transfusions and deferoxamine for chelation are used to treat thalassemia. Heparin therapy is used for treating DIC. Opioid analgesics would be used to treat severe pain associated with sickle cell crisis. Platelet transfusions and intravenous immunoglobulin would be used to treat idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child who is receiving chemotherapy. To calculate the child's absolute neutrophil count, in addition to the total number of white blood cells, which results would the nurse use? Select all that apply. A)Bands B)Segs C)Eosinophils D)Basophils

A, B To calculate the absolute neutrophil count, the nurse would add together the percentage of banded and segmented neutrophils and then multiply the total number of white blood cells reported on the complete blood count by the sum.

While performing an assessment of a patient who is immunocompromised, the nurse notes the child to have thrush in the mouth, tenderness over the spleen upon palpation, and a white blood cell count of 3,000. Which nursing diagnoses will the nurse include in the care plan of this child based on these findings? Select all that apply. A)Ineffective protection B)Risk for imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements C)Pain D)Impaired skin integrity E)Delayed growth and development

A, B, C Based on these symptoms the diagnosis of Ineffective protection is related to the decreased white blood cell count; Risk for imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, is related to the thrush; and Pain is related to the tenderness over the spleen and the thrush. There is no evidence to support the diagnoses of Impaired skin integrity or Delayed growth and development.

A child is diagnosed with a food allergy to milk. When teaching the parents about this allergy, what would the nurse suggest as possible substitutions for milk? Select all that apply. A)Fruit juice B)Rice milk C)Yogurt D)Nondairy creamers E)Soy milk

A, B, E Milk can be replaced with water, fruit juice, rice milk, or soy milk. Yogurt contains milk and some nondairy products such as creamers may contain milk and should be avoided.

A 14-year-old boy is diagnosed with Hodgkin disease. When palpating for enlarged lymph nodes, the nurse would expect to find which nodes as most commonly enlarged? Select all that apply. A)Cervical B)Axillary C)Supraclavicular D)Occipital E)Inguinal

A, C Enlarged lymph nodes may feel rubbery and tend to occur in clusters. Although any lymph nodes may be involved, the lymph nodes most commonly affected are in the cervical and supraclavicular areas.

A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old girl with a severe peanut allergy. The girl's parents are upset because the school does not permit her to carry her EpiPen with her. It must remain in the school's office per school regulations. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A)"She is allowed by law to carry her EpiPen with her; I will talk to school authorities." B)"Let's file an action plan and keep it in the school office in the event of anaphylaxis." C)"Make sure she wears a medical alert bracelet so that school staff know she has allergies." D)"I will be happy to train school authorities and staff to recognize anaphylaxis."

A. "She is allowed by law to carry her EpiPen with her; I will talk to school authorities." Public Law No. 108-377, the Asthmatic Schoolchildren's Treatment and Health Management Act of 2004, was passed by the U.S. Congress. This law is intended to ensure that students with severe allergies can carry prescribed medications such as an EpiPen with them at all times. The nurse must contact the school and inform them of this law so that the girl is allowed to carry her EpiPen on her person at all times. The school staff should be trained to recognize anaphylaxis, there should be an action plan on file, and the girl should wear a medical alert bracelet as well. However, the most important action is to notify school authorities of the law.

What would the nurse expect to find in a male infant with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome? A)Eczema B)Thrombocytosis C)Lymphadenopathy D)Pneumonia

A. Eczema Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is manifested by eczema that usually worsens with time, petechiae, bloody diarrhea, or a bleeding episode in the first 6 months of life. Thrombocytopenia is present. Lymphadenopathy is associated with hypogammaglobulinemia. Pneumonia is associated with severe combined immune deficiency.

The nurse is administering intravenous immune globulin (IVIG). The nurse assesses vital signs and for adverse reactions every 15 minutes for the first hour of administration. After the first hour, the nurse most likely would continue to assess the child at which frequency? A)Every 30 minutes B)Every 45 minutes C)Every 60 minutes D)Every 2 hours

A. Every 30 mins The nurse needs to continue assessments according to institutional protocol. Every 15 minutes for the first hour and every 30 minutes through the remainder of the infusion is the standard assessment.

The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old boy with acute myelogenous leukemia who is experiencing feelings of powerlessness due to the effects of chemotherapy. What intervention will best help the teen's sense of control? A)Involving the boy in decisions whenever possible B)Acknowledging the boy's feelings of anger with the disease C)Providing realistic expectations of treatments and outcomes D)Recognizing abilities that are unaffected by the disease

A. Involving the boy in decisions whenever possible. Involving the boy in the decision-making process will best help his sense of control. Whether he is included in important decisions about therapy or minor decisions like menus or dress, it will give him a sense of control over his situation. Acknowledging feelings of anger, recognizing his abilities, and providing realistic expectations will reduce body image disturbance and build self-esteem.

The mother of a 5-year-old girl brings the child to the clinic for an evaluation. The mother tells the nurse, "She seems to be so tired and irritable lately. And she looks so pale." Further assessment reveals pale conjunctiva and oral mucous membranes. The nurse suspects iron-deficiency anemia. Which additional finding would help provide additional evidence for this suspicion? A)Spooned nails B)Negative splenomegaly C)Oxygen saturation: 99% D)Bradycardia

A. Spooned nails Spooning or concave shape of the nails suggests iron-deficiency anemia. Other findings would include decreased oxygen saturation levels, tachycardia, and possible splenomegaly.

The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old girl with a family history of kidney cancer who has come to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Which finding would the nurse identify as least likely indicative of cancer in a child? A)The child reports rectal bleeding and diarrhea. B)Observation reveals an asymmetric abdomen. C)The child experiences a broken bone without trauma. D)Palpation determines an abdominal mass.

A. The child reports rectal bleeding and diarrhea. Rectal bleeding and diarrhea are symptoms of rectal cancer in adults and are not typical of children with cancer. The child reporting that a bone broke without any trauma, the nurse observing asymmetric swelling in the abdomen, or palpation revealing a mass in the abdomen are findings in children with cancer.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a child who is receiving cyclophosphamide. What advice would the nurse expect to include? A)Withholding food and fluids from the child during the infusion B)Encouraging frequent voiding during and after the infusion C)Monitoring for signs of anaphylaxis during infusion D)Assessing the child for complaints of bone pain

B. Encouraging frequent voiding during and after the infusion. Cyclophosphamide may cause hemorrhagic cystitis. Therefore, the nurse needs to provide adequate hydration and have the child void frequently during and after the infusion to decrease the risk of hemorrhagic cystitis. Fluids need to be encouraged, not withheld. Monitoring for anaphylaxis would be appropriate when asparaginase or etoposide is given. Bone pain is associated with the administration of filgrastim or sargramostim.

The nurse is evaluating the laboratory test results of a 7-year-old child with a suspected hematologic disorder. Which finding would cause the nurse to be concerned? A)WBC: 5.6 X 103/mm3 B)RBC: 2.8 X 106/mm3 C)Hemoglobin: 11.4 mg/dL D)Hematocrit: 35%

B. RBC: 2.8 X 106/mm3 The RBC listed is below the normal range for a child between the ages of 6 and 16 years (4.0 to 5.2 X 106/mm3). The WBC count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit are within acceptable parameters for a child this age

A nurse is conducting a physical examination of a 5-year-old with suspected iron-deficiency anemia. How would the nurse evaluate for changes in neurologic functioning? A)"Open your mouth so I can look inside your cheeks and lips." B)"Do you have any bruises on your feet or shins?" C)"Will you show me how you walk across the room?" D)"Let me see the palms of your hands and soles of your feet."

C. "Will you show me how you walk across the room?" Neurologic effects of iron deficiency may be demonstrated when the child's ability to sit, stand, and walk are impaired. Inspecting the mouth, looking for bruises, and checking the hands and feet provide information about signs of petechiae, purpura, or pallor.

Which test result would the nurse least likely expect to find in a child diagnosed with Wilms tumor? A)Complete blood count (CBC) within normal limits B)Urinalysis positive for blood C)Mass on kidney D)Elevated homovanillic acid (HVA) with 24-hour urine collection

D. Elevated homovanillic acid (HVA) with 24 hr urine collection Levels of HVA and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) will not be elevated with Wilms tumor; they are elevated with neuroblastoma. CBC, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine usually are within normal limits. Urinalysis may reveal hematuria or leukocytes. Renal or abdominal ultrasound would reveal a mass on the kidney.

A nurse is talking with the parents of a child who has had a febrile seizure. The nurse would integrate an understanding of what information into the discussion? A) The child's risk for cognitive problems is greatly increased. B) Structural damage occurs with febrile seizure. C) The child's risk for epilepsy is now increased. D) Febrile seizures are benign in nature.

Febrile seizures are benign in nature. Parents need reassurance that febrile seizures, although frightening, are benign in nature. Children who experience one or more febrile seizures are at no greater risk of developing epilepsy than the general population. No evidence exists that febrile seizures cause structural damage or cognitive declines.

The nurse knows that children have larger heads in relation to the body and a higher center of gravity. When developing a teaching plan for parents, the nurse includes information about an increased risk for which problem? A) Febrile seizures B) Head trauma C) Caput succedaneum D) Posterior plagiocephaly

Head trauma The larger head size in relation to the body, coupled with a higher center of gravity, causes children to hit their head more readily when involved in motor vehicle accidents, bicycle accidents, and falls. Febrile seizures are not related to anatomy or physiology. Caput succedaneum is an edematous area on the scalp caused by pressure of the uterus or vagina during head-first delivery. Posterior plagiocephaly is caused by early closure of the lamboid suture.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information related to seizures that occur in infants and children. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify which type as common in neonates? A) Tonic B) Focal clonic C) Multifocal clonic D) Myoclonic

Myoclonic Five major types of seizures have been recognized in the neonatal period: subtle, tonic, focal clonic, multifocal clonic, and myoclonic. Of these, myoclonic seizures rarely occur during the neonatal period. Subtle seizures affect preterm and full-term neonates. Tonic seizures primarily occur in preterm neonates. Focal clonic and multifocal clonic are more common in full-term neonates.

The nurse is assessing a child with aplastic anemia. What would the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply. A)Ecchymoses B)Tachycardia C)Guaiac-positive stool D)Epistaxis E)Severe pain F)Warm tender joints

A, B, C, D Assessment findings associated with aplastic anemia include ecchymoses, epistaxis, guaiac-positive stools, and tachycardia. Severe pain and warm tender joints are most often associated with sickle cell crisis.

A nurse is assessing a child who may have a latex allergy. The nurse asks the child about allergic reactions to certain foods. Which foods if identified by the child as experiencing an allergic reaction would help support the suspected latex allergy? Select all answers that apply. A)Peaches B)Plums C)Carrots D)Tomatoes E)Apples F)Lettuce

A, B, C, D Foods with a known cross-sensitivity to latex include pear, peach, passion fruit, plum, pineapple, kiwi, fig, grape, cherry, melon, nectarine, papaya, apple, apricot, banana, chestnut, carrot, celery, avocado, tomato, or potato. Apples and lettuce are not associated with a cross-sensitivity.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia about ways to increase their child's intake of iron. The parents demonstrate understanding of the teaching when they identify which foods as good choices for the child? Select all that apply. A)Tuna B)Salmon C)Tofu D)Cow's milk E)Dried fruits

A, B, C, E Foods high in iron include red meats, tuna, salmon, eggs, tofu, enriched grains, dried beans and peas, dried fruits, leafy green vegetables, and iron-fortified breakfast cereals.

A nursing student is reviewing information about primary immunodeficiencies. The student demonstrates understanding of the material by identifying which immunodeficiencies as affecting only males? Select all that apply. A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia B)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C)Selective IgA deficiency D)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome E)IgG subclass deficiency F)Severe combined immune deficiency

A, B, D X-linked agammaglobulinemia, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, and X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome affect males only. Selective IgA deficiency, IgG subclass deficiency, and severe combined immune deficiency affect boys and girls.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child who is suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What would the nurse identify as supporting this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A)Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) B)Increased C3 levels C)Thrombocytopenia D)Leukopenia E)Increased hematocrit

A, C, D Laboratory findings may include decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, decreased platelet count, and low white blood cell count. Complement levels, C3 and C4, will also be decreased. Though not specific to SLE, the ANA is usually positive in children with SLE.

The parents bring their 4-year-old son to the emergency department. The child is receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia. The parents report that the child has become lethargic and has had significant episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. Why findings would lead the nurse to suspect the child may be experiencing tumor lysis syndrome? Select all answers that apply. A)Hyperkalemia B)Hypophosphatemia C)Polyuria D)Hypocalcemia E)Hyperuricemia

A, D, E Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, decreased or absent urine output, and hypocalcemia

The nurse is educating the parents of a 4-year-old boy with a Wilms tumor who is about to have chemotherapy prior to surgery. Which statement by the parents indicates that the nurse should review the instructions about preventing infection? A)"He takes his antibiotic twice a day." B)"We check his temperature orally." C)"We keep him away from crowds." D)"He must be clean and his teeth brushed."

A. "He takes his antibiotic twice a day." The parents have heard the instructions for the antibiotic administration incorrectly. The trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole should be administered twice daily for 3 consecutive days each week to prevent Pneumocystis pneumoniae. The parents understand to avoid rectal temperatures and crowds, and to maintain his hygiene meticulously.

The nurse is caring for a child with thalassemia who is receiving chelation therapy at home using a battery-operated pump. After teaching the parents about this treatment, which statement by the mother indicates a need for additional teaching? A)"I can have the nurse administer the chelation therapy if I am uncomfortable." B)"I must be very careful to strictly adhere to the chelation regimen." C)"The deferoxamine binds to the iron so it can be removed from the body." D)"The medication can be administered while my child is sleeping."

A. "I can have the nurse administer the chelation therapy if I am uncomfortable." The nurse needs to emphasize to the mother that therapy must be maintained at home to continuously decrease the iron levels in the child's body. Family members need to be taught to administer deferoxamine subcutaneously with a small battery-powered infusion pump over a several-hour period each night (usually while the child is sleeping).

The nurse is providing home care instructions for a 13-year-old girl recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which response by the girl indicates a need for further teaching? A)"I need to wear sunscreen in the summer to prevent rashes." B)"I need to eat a healthy diet, exercise, and get plenty of sleep." C)"I need an eye examination every year." D)"I need to be careful when it is cold; I should always wear gloves."

A. "I need to wear sunscreen in the summer to prevent rashes." The nurse needs to emphasize that the girl should apply sunscreen every day, not just in the summer, to prevent rashes resulting from photosensitivity. A healthy diet, sleep, yearly eye examinations, and protection from cold weather are appropriate measures.

The nurse is planning a discussion group for parents with children who have cancer. How would the nurse describe a difference between cancer in children and adults? A)Most childhood cancers affect the tissues rather than organs. B)Childhood cancers are usually localized when found. C)Unlike adult cancers, childhood cancers are less responsive to treatment. D)The majority of childhood cancers can be prevented.

A. Most childhood cancers affect the tissues rather than organs. Childhood cancers usually affect the tissues, not the organs, as in adults. Metastasis often is present when the childhood cancer is diagnosed. Childhood cancers, unlike adult cancers, are very responsive to treatment. Unfortunately, little is known about cancer prevention in children.

The nurse is caring for a child undergoing highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for HIV infection. The nurse is preparing to administer the prescribed medication. In addition to the nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and the nonnucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), the nurse is cognizant that the child will be taking which additional medication as part of the three-drug regimen? A)Protease inhibitors B)Corticosteroids C)Cytotoxic drugs D)Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

A. Protease inhibitors The nurse understands that the child will be taking protease inhibitors as part of the three-drug regimen for HAART. Corticosteroids, cytotoxic agents, and DMARDs are typically used for the treatment of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA).

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a toddler with suspected lead poisoning. Lab results indicate blood lead level 52 mcg/dL. Which action would the nurse expect to happen next? A)Repeat testing within 2 days and prepare to begin chelation therapy as ordered. B)Repeat testing within 1 week with education to decrease lead exposure. C)Confirm with repeat testing in 1 month and referral to local health department. D)Prepare to admit child to begin chelation therapy.

A. Repeat testing within 2 days and prepare to begin chelation therapy as ordered. The recommendation for blood lead levels of 45 to 69 mcg/dL is to confirm the level with a repeat laboratory test within 2 days and educate the parents to decreased lead exposure. She should also expect to begin chelation therapy as ordered and refer the case to the local health department for investigation of home lead reduction with referrals for support services. Repeat testing in 1 week with parent education is appropriate for lead levels between 20 and 44 mcg/dL. Repeat testing in 1 month and education would be appropriate for levels between 15 and 19 mcg/dL. Preparing to admit the child to begin chelation therapy immediately would be appropriate for lead levels greater than 70 mcg/dL.

When providing care to a child with aplastic anemia, which nursing diagnosis would be the priority? A)Risk for injury B)Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements C)Ineffective tissue perfusion D)Impaired gas exchange

A. Risk for injury For the child with aplastic anemia, safety is of the utmost concern, with injury prevention essential to prevent hemorrhage. Nutrition, tissue perfusion, and gas exchange may or may not be associated with the child's condition.

A child with hypogammaglobulinemia is to receive intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). What action would not be correct to take? A)Shake the vial after reconstituting it B)Premedicate the child with acetaminophen C)Obtain preinfusion vital signs D)Check serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

A. Shake the vial after reconstituting it. Many IVIG products are packed as two vials, one the IVIG powder and one the sterile diluents. Once reconstituted, the IVIG should not be shaken because this leads to foaming and may cause the immunoglobulin protein to degrade. The child can be premedicated with acetaminophen or diphenhydramine. Baseline serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine should be assessed because acute renal insufficiency may occur as a serious adverse reaction.

When reviewing the history of a child with suspected primary immunodeficiency, what would the nurse be least likely to find? A)Weight appropriate for height B)Antibiotic therapy for the past 3 months without effect C)Ten episodes of otitis media in the last year D)Three bouts of sinusitis within a year's time

A. Weight appropriate for height Weight appropriate for height would not be associated with primary immunodeficiency. Rather, failure to thrive is considered a warning sign. Other warning signs of primary immunodeficiency include eight or more episodes of acute otitis media in 1 year; two or more episodes of severe sinusitis in 1 year; treatment with antibiotics for 2 months or longer with little effect; two or more episodes of pneumonia in 1 year; recurrent deep skin or organ abscesses; persistent oral thrush or skin candidiasis after age 1 year; history of infections that do not clear with antibiotics; two or more serious infections; and a family history of primary immunodeficiency.

A group of students is reviewing information about glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. The students demonstrate understanding of the material what as the cause of the disorder? A)X-linked recessive inheritance B)Deficiency in clotting factors C)An excess supply of iron D)Autosomal recessive inheritance

A. X-linked recessive inheritance G6PD deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder that affects the functioning of the red blood cells. A deficiency in clotting factors is associated with disorders such as idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura, DIC, or hemophilia. An excess supply of iron refers to hemosiderosis, a complication of thalassemia, an autosomal recessive disorder.

30. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous fluids to manage a child with dehydration. The medical record indicates the child weighs 60 lb (27.2 kg). How many milliliters will initially be administered? Record your answer using two decimal places.

Ans: 545.45 Feedback: Nursing goals for the infant or child with dehydration are aimed at restoring fluid volume and preventing progression to hypovolemia. Provide oral rehydration to children for mild to moderate states of dehydration. Children with severe dehydration should receive intravenous fluids. Initially, administer 20 mL/kg of normal saline or lactated Ringer, and then reassess the hydration status.

23. An infant is diagnosed with a congenital cataract. What would the nurse expect to assess? A) Absent red reflex B) Rapid irregular eye movement C) Misalignment of the eyes D) Enlarged eye appearance

Ans: A Feedback: Assessment findings associated with congenital cataract include a history of lack of visual awareness; clouding of the cornea, which may or may not be visible; and no red reflex. Rapid irregular eye movement would suggest nystagmus. Misalignment of the eyes would suggest strabismus. Enlarged appearance of the eye is associated with infantile glaucoma.

18. An 8-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for evaluation. The mother tells the nurse that she has noticed some white patches on the infant's tongue that look like curdled milk after breastfeeding. The nurse suspects oral candidiasis (thrush). Which question would the nurse use to help confirm this suspicion? A) "Are you having breast pain when you nurse the baby?" B) "Has he had any dairy problems recently?" C) "Is he experiencing any vomiting lately?" D) "How have his stools been this past week?"

Ans: A Feedback: The infant may develop thrush from the mother if the mother has a fungal infection of the breast. Asking the mother about breast pain would be important because this type of infection can cause the mother a great deal of pain with nursing. Dairy products are not associated with oral candidiasis but are associated with the development of infectious diarrhea in infants. Vomiting is unrelated to thrush. The infant also may have candidal diaper rash, but this would be manifested on the skin as a beefy-red rash with satellite lesions, not in his stools.

30. An infant is diagnosed with infantile glaucoma. When developing the plan of care for the infant, for what would the nurse expect to prepare the infant and family? A) Goniotomy B) Antibiotic therapy C) Contact lenses D) Patching of affected eye

Ans: A Feedback: Therapeutic management of infantile glaucoma is focused on surgical intervention via a goniotomy. Antibiotic therapy would be used to treat an infection. Contact lenses would be indicated for refractive errors and following removal of congenital cataracts. Patching of the affected eye is used for treating amblyopia and after surgery for congenital cataract.

21. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a child who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The child is visually impaired. What would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care? Select all that apply. A) Explaining instructions using simple and specific terms the child understands B) Allowing the child to explore the postoperative equipment with his hands C) Touching the child on his shoulder before letting the child know someone is there D) Using the child's body parts to refer to the area where he may have postoperative pain E) Speaking to the child in a voice that is slightly louder than the usual tone of voice

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: When interacting with a visually impaired child, the nurse would make directions and instructions simple and specific, encourage exploration of objects such as postoperative equipment through touch, and use the parts of the child's body as reference points for the location of items or for this child, his postoperative pain. The nurse should identify him- or herself first before touching the child and speak in a tone of voice that is appropriate to the situation.

18. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a child with hearing loss and notes that the child's hearing loss is in the range 40 to 60 decibels (dB). The nurse interprets this as indicating what level of hearing loss? A) Mild loss B) Moderate loss C) Severe loss D) Profound loss

Ans: B Feedback: A hearing loss of 40 to 60 dB indicates a moderate loss; 20 to 40 dB indicates a mild loss; 60 to 80 dB indicates a severe loss; and greater than 80 dB indicates a profound loss.

20. The parents of a 10-year-old girl with a refractive error ask the nurse about the possibility of laser surgery to correct the vision. Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "As she gets older, her vision will begin to correct itself." B) "Laser surgery typically is not done until she's 18 years old." C) "She looks so cute in her glasses; why put her through surgery?" D) "She can use contact lenses soon, so surgery isn't necessary."

Ans: B Feedback: Because of the continuing refractive development in the child's vision through adolescence, laser surgery for vision correction is not recommended by the American Academy of Ophthalmology until 18 years of age. The refractive error will continue to change as the child's vision continues to develop, making the refraction unstable. Thus, corrective lens prescription may change but the refraction error will not correct itself. Glasses still carry a stigma and the child may be teased or bullied. The statement about the child looking cute in her glasses ignores the parents' question and concerns and questions the parents' desire for information. The use of contact lenses does not negate the possibility of surgery. However, laser surgery would have to wait until the child is 18 years of age.

2. The nurse is providing parental teaching about home care for an 8-year-old boy with widespread sunburn on his back and shoulders. Which response indicates a need for further teaching? A) "Cool compresses may help cool the burn." B) "He should manually peel off any flaking skin." C) "Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen are helpful." D) "He should avoid hot showers or baths for a couple of days."

Ans: B Feedback: If skin flaking occurs, the child should be discouraged from manually "peeling" the flaked skin as it can cause further injury. Using cool compresses, taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and avoiding hot showers or baths are appropriate measures.

1. The nurse is teaching the mother of a toddler about burn prevention. Which response by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? A) "We will leave fireworks displays to the professionals." B) "I will set our water heater at 130 degrees." C) "All sleepwear should be flame retardant." D) "The handles of pots on the stove should face inward."

Ans: B Feedback: If the temperature of the water heater is set at 130°F, a child can be burned significantly in only 30 seconds. The recommended maximal home hot water heater temperature is 120°F. Leaving fireworks to the professionals, using flame-retardant sleepwear, and turning the handles of pots on the stove inward are correct.

9. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection? A) Burn wound cellulitis B) Invasive burn cellulitis C) Burn impetigo D) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

Ans: B Feedback: Invasive burn cellulitis results in the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with a discharge and foul odor. In burn wound cellulitis, the area around the burn becomes increasingly red, swollen, and painful early in the course of burn management. Burn impetigo is characterized by multifocal, small, superficial abscesses. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is not a burn infection; however, it is managed similarly to burns.

10. The school nurse is working with a 10-year-old girl with recurrent abdominal pain. The girl's teacher has been less than understanding about the frequent absences and trips to the nurse's office. How should the nurse respond? A) "Be patient; she is trying some new medication." B) "The pain she is having is real." C) "The family is working toward improvement." D) "Please do not add to this family's stress."

Ans: B Feedback: It is important to educate the teacher that this recurrent abdominal pain is a true pain that the child feels and it is not "in her mind." Telling the teacher not to add to the family's stress or that the family is working toward improvement does not teach. The nurse must have the permission of the family to discuss the girl's medication.

31. The mother of a 5-year-old child with eczema is getting a check-up for her child before school starts. What will the nurse do during the visit? A) Change the bandage on a cut on the child's hand. B) Assess the compliance with treatment regimens. C) Discuss systemic corticosteroid therapy. D) Assess the child's fluid volume.

Ans: B Feedback: Maintaining proper therapy for eczema can be exhausting both physically and mentally. Therefore, it is essential that the nurse assess compliance and support the parents' ability to cope if necessary. Changing a bandage is not part of a health maintenance visit. Hydration is important for a child with eczema; however, fluid volume is not the focus at this visit. Systemic corticosteroid therapy is very rarely used, and the success of the current therapy needs to be assessed first.

9. The nurse is caring for a 2-month-old with a cleft palate. The child will undergo corrective surgery at age 3 months. The mother would like to continue breastfeeding the baby after surgery and wonders if it is possible. How should the nurse respond? A) "There is a good chance that you will be able to breastfeed almost immediately." B) "Breastfeeding is likely to be possible but check with the surgeon." C) "After the suture line heals, breastfeeding can resume." D) "We will have to wait and see what happens after the surgery."

Ans: B Feedback: Postoperatively, some surgeons allow breastfeeding to be resumed almost immediately. However, the nurse needs to advise the mother to check with the surgeon to determine when breastfeeding can resume. Telling the mother that she has to wait until the suture line heals may be inaccurate. Telling her to wait and see does not answer her question.

5. The nurse is caring for an infant with a temporary ileostomy. As part of the plan of care, the nurse monitors for skin breakdown around the stoma. If redness occurs, what would be most appropriate to promote healing and prevent further skin breakdown? A) Clean the area well with a scented diaper wipe. B) Apply a barrier/healing cream or paste on the skin. C) Use a barrier wafer to attach the appliance. D) Sanitize the area with an alcohol wipe after each diaper change.

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse should use a barrier/healing cream or paste on the skin around the stoma to promote healing and prevent further skin breakdown. Diaper wipes that contain fragrance or alcohol can sting if used on nonintact skin and can worsen skin breakdown. The barrier wafer would be helpful but does not address the skin breakdown.

17. What would the nurse include when teaching parents how to prevent otitis externa? A) Daily ear cleaning with cotton swabs B) Wearing ear plugs when swimming C) Using a hair dryer on high to dry the ear canals D) Using hydrogen peroxide to dry the canal skin

Ans: B Feedback: To prevent otitis externa, the nurse would teach parents and children to wear earplugs when swimming and to avoid use of cotton swabs, headphones, and earphones. A hair dryer on a low setting can be used to dry the ear canals. A mixture of half rubbing alcohol and half vinegar can be used to dry the canal and alter the pH to discourage organism growth.

13. The nurse is determining maintenance fluid requirements for a child who weighs 25 kg. How much fluid would the child need per day? A) 1,560 mL B) 1,600 mL C) 1,650 mL D) 1,700 mL

Ans: B Feedback: Using the following formula of 100 mL/kg for the first 10 kg, plus 50 mL/kg for the next 10 kg, and then 20 mL/kg for the remaining kg, the child would require (100 × 10) + (50 × 10) + (20 × 5) = 1,000 + 500 + 100 = 1,600 mL in 24 hours.

22. A nurse is performing a primary survey on a child who has sustained partial thickness burns over his upper body areas. What action should the nurse take first? A) Inspect the child's skin color. B) Assess for a patent airway. C) Observe for symmetric breathing. D) Palpate the child's pulse.

Ans: B Feedback: When performing a primary survey, the nurse first assesses the child's airway for patency and then intervenes accordingly to ensure that the airway is patent. Next the nurse would evaluate the child's skin color, respiratory effort, and symmetry of breathing and breath sounds. Then the nurse would determine the pulse strength, perfusion status, and heart rate.

26. A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local parent group about burn prevention and care in children. What would the nurse be least likely to include in the presentation when describing how to care for a superficial burn? A) Using cool water over the burned area until the pain lessens B) Applying ice directly to the burned skin area C) Covering the burn with a clean, nonadhesive bandage D) Giving the child acetaminophen for pain relief

Ans: B Feedback: With a superficial burn, ice should not be applied to the skin. Using cool water over the burn area; covering with a clean, nonadhesive bandage; and using acetaminophen for pain relief are appropriate to include in the presentation.

19. The parents of a 6-week-old boy come to the clinic for evaluation because the infant has been vomiting. The parents report that the vomiting has been increasing in frequency and forcefulness over the last week. The mother says, "Sometimes, it seems like it just bursts out of his mouth." A diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is suspected. When performing the physical examination, what would the nurse most likely find? A) Sausage-shaped mass in the upper midabdomen B) Hard, moveable, olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant C) Tenderness over the McBurney point in the right lower quadrant D) Abdominal pain in the epigastric or umbilical region

Ans: B Feedback: With hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a hard, moveable, olive-shaped mass would be palpated in the right upper quadrant. A sausage-shaped mass in the upper midabdomen would suggest intussusception. Tenderness over the McBurney point would be associated with appendicitis. Epigastric or umbilical pain would be associated with peptic ulcer disease.

2. The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a 5-year-old boy with chickenpox. Which nursing intervention should be questioned? A. Administer antipyretics as ordered. B. Keep the child's fingernails short. C. Monitor fluid intake and output. D. Provide alcohol baths as needed.

Answer: D Rationale: Treatments such as sponging the child with alcohol or cold water are not appropriate interventions for fever management. Rather, the nurse would use tepid sponge baths and cool compresses. Administering antipyretics, keeping the child's fingernails short, and monitoring intake and output are appropriate.

18. A nurse is preparing a class for parents of infants about managing diaper dermatitis. What advice would the nurse include in the presentation? Select all that apply. A) Applying topical nystatin to the diaper area B) Using a blow dryer on warm to dry the diaper area C) Refraining from using rubber pants over diapers D) Using scented diaper wipes to clean the area E) Washing the diaper area with an antibacterial soap

Ans: B, C Feedback: For diaper dermatitis, topical products such as ointments or creams containing vitamins A, D, and E; zinc oxide; or petrolatum help to provide a barrier. Nystatin is an antifungal agent used for diaper candidiasis. Using a blow dryer on warm to dry the area, avoiding the use of rubber pants, and using unscented diaper wipes or ones free of preservatives are appropriate. The area should be washed with a soft cloth, without harsh soaps.

28. The nurse is caring for a 6-month-old with a cleft lip and palate. The mother of the child demonstrates understanding of the disorder with which statements? Select all that apply. A) "My smoking during pregnancy didn't have anything to do with this disorder. Smoking primarily causes low birth weight." B) "I know my baby takes a lot longer to feed than most children this age." C) "It really worries me that my baby may have some other disorders that haven't been detected yet." D) "I wonder if my baby will develop speech problems when language development begins?" E) "Thankfully there are healthcare providers that specialize in correcting this type of disorder."

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: Feeding and speech are especially difficult for the child with cleft lip and palate until the defect is repaired. Cleft lip and palate occurs frequently in association with other anomalies and has been identified in more than 350 syndromes. Plastic surgeons or craniofacial specialists, oral surgeons, dentists or orthodontists, and prosthodontists are some of the healthcare providers that specialize in repair of this disorder. The mother is incorrect in stating that smoking is not associated with cleft lip or palate. Maternal smoking during pregnancy is a major risk factor for the disorder.

25. After teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease about nutrition, the nurse determines that the teaching was effective when the parents identify which foods as appropriate for their child? Select all that apply. A) Wheat germ B) Peanut butter C) Carbonated drinks D) Shellfish E) Jelly F) Flavored yogurt

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: Foods allowed in a gluten-free diet include peanut butter, carbonated drinks, shellfish, and jelly. Wheat germ and flavored yogurt should be avoided.

28. The mother of a 15-year-old girl has contacted the clinic to report that her daughter has burned the back of her hand with a curling iron. The child's mother reports the burn is mild but states her daughter is complaining of pain. After consulting with the healthcare provider, what instructions can the nurse anticipate will be recommended? Select all that apply. A) Apply a thin film of protective cocoa butter. B) Run cool water over the injured area. C) Apply ice for 15 to 20 minutes each hour until the pain subsides. D) Take acetaminophen using the manufacturer's guidelines. E) Apply a thin layer of petroleum jelly to the burned area.

Ans: B, D Feedback: Mild burns may be cared for at home. Cool water may be run over the injured tissue. Acetaminophen or ibuprofen may be administered for pain. Ointments and creams including butter, margarine, cocoa butter, and petroleum jelly should not be applied.

12. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a child is experiencing moderate dehydration? A) Dusky extremities B) Tenting of skin C) Sunken fontanels D) Hypotension

Ans: C Feedback: A child with moderate dehydration would exhibit sunken fontanels. Severe dehydration would be characterized by dusky extremities, skin tenting, and hypotension.

23. A 3-year-old child has sustained severe burns and is ordered to receive 100% oxygen. What would the nurse use to administer the oxygen? A) Nasal cannula B) Venturi mask C) Nonrebreather mask D) Oxygen hood

Ans: C Feedback: All children with severe burns should receive 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask or bag--valve--mask ventilation. A nasal cannula provides only low oxygen concentrations (22% to 44%); a Venturi mask provides only 24% to 50% oxygen concentrations. An oxygen hood is used for infants only.

5. A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old in Bucks traction. When conducting a skin examination for signs of pressure ulcers, the nurse pays particular attention to which area? A) Sacral area B) Hip area C) Occiput D) Upper arm

Ans: C Feedback: Common sites of pressure ulcers in hospitalized children include the occiput and toes, while children who require wheelchairs for mobility demonstrate pressure ulcers in the sacral or hip areas more frequently. The upper arm is not a common site for pressure ulcers.

3. The nurse is providing care for a 14-year-old girl with severe acne. The girl expresses sadness and distress about her appearance. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "Are you using your medicine every day?" B) "Your condition will most likely improve in a year or two." C) "Many people feel this way; I know someone who can help." D) "If you have any scarring you can undergo dermabrasion."

Ans: C Feedback: Depression can occur as a result of body image disturbances with severe acne. The nurse should provide emotional support to adolescents undergoing acne therapy and refer teens for counseling if necessary. Telling the girl that her condition is likely to improve in a year or two is not helpful. Asking the girl whether she uses her medicine every day or reminding her that her scars can be addressed with dermabrasion does not address her feelings of sadness and distress.

25. The nurse is instructing a 7-year-old child and his parents about using his prescribed corrective lenses. What would the nurse include in these instructions? A) "Make sure to take your glasses off from time to time to allow your eyes to rest." B) "Remove your glasses with both hands and lay them with the lens upright on the surface." C) "Clean the glasses every day with a mild soap and water or commercial cleaning agent." D) "Use paper towels or tissues to dry and periodically clean the lenses.

Ans: C Feedback: Eyeglasses should be cleaned daily with mild soap and water or a commercial cleaning agent. The glasses should be worn at all times, but when removed, they should be removed with both hands and placed on their side (not directly on the lens on any surface). A soft cloth, not paper towels, tissues, or toilet paper, should be used to clean the lenses.

28. The parents of a 5-year-old bring their son to the emergency department because of significant eyelid edema. The mother states, "He scratched himself near his eye a couple of days ago while playing outside in the yard." The nurse suspects periorbital cellulitis based on which finding? A) Evidence of discharge B) Reddened conjunctiva C) Purplish discoloration of eyelid D) Altered visual acuity

Ans: C Feedback: Periorbital cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the eyelids and tissue surrounding the eye. The bacteria may gain entry into the skin via an abrasion, laceration, insect bite, foreign body, or impetiginous lesion. It may also result from a nearby bacterial infection such as sinusitis. Findings include marked eyelid edema, purplish or red color of the eyelid, clear conjunctivae, absence of discharge, and normal visual acuity.

25. A 4-year-old is brought to the emergency department with a burn. What would alert the nurse to the possibility of child abuse? A) Burn assessment correlates with mother's report of contact with a portable heater. B) Parents state that the injury occurred approximately 15 to 20 minutes ago. C) Clear delineations are noted between burned and nonburned skin areas. D) The burn area appears asymmetric and nonuniform.

Ans: C Feedback: Suggested signs of a burn resulting from possible child abuse include a uniform appearance of the burn with clear delineations of burned and nonburned areas. Abuse would also be suspected if the report of the injury was inconsistent with burn injury or there was a delay in seeking treatment. An asymmetric nonuniform burn often correlates with a splatter-type burn resulting from the child pulling a source of hot fluid onto himself or herself.

15. The nurse is providing care to a child with an intussusception. The child has a bowel movement and the nurse inspects the stool. The nurse would most likely document the stool's appearance as having what quality? A) Greasy B) Clay-colored C) Currant jelly-like D) Bloody

Ans: C Feedback: The child with intussusception often exhibits currant jelly-like stools that may or may not be positive for blood. Greasy stools are associated with celiac disease. Cay-colored stools are observed with biliary atresia. Bloody stools can be seen with several gastrointestinal disorders, such as inflammatory bowel disease.

29. After teaching a group of students about visual disorders, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify what as the most common cause of visual difficulties in children? A) Astigmatism B) Strabismus C) Refractive errors D) Nystagmus

Ans: C Feedback: The most common cause of visual difficulties in children is refractive errors. Astigmatism, strabismus, and nystagmus are other common visual disorders in children but are less common than refractive errors.

4. The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old visually impaired boy and is about to begin the physical examination. Which intervention would be most appropriate to promote effective communication with the child? A) Show him the stethoscope. B) Describe the examination room. C) Use his name before touching him. D) Allow him to explore the exam rooM

Ans: C Feedback: When interacting with a visually impaired child, it is a good communication technique to use his name to gain his attention before touching him. Letting him listen to his heart with the stethoscope, describing the examination room, and promoting exploration by touch are sound ways to interact, but are not specific to communicating with the child at the beginning of the assessment.

14. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include? A) Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid B) Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn C) Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours D) Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr

Ans: C Feedback: With fluid replacement therapy, most of the volume is administered during the first 8 hours. Crystalloids (such as Ringer lactate) are administered for the first 24 hours, and then colloids are used once capillary permeability is less of a concern. Fluid replacement is determined by the amount of body surface area burned. Hourly urine output is expected to be at least 1 mL/kg/hr.

6. A 6-year-old boy has been admitted to the hospital with burns. The nurse notes carbonaceous sputum. What action would be the priority? A) Determining the burn depth B) Eliciting a description of the burn C) Estimating burn extent D) Ensuring a patent airway

Ans: D Feedback: Carbonaceous sputum is a sign of potential airway injury due to smoke inhalation. Therefore, the nurse should ensure a patent airway while obtaining a brief history and simultaneously evaluating the child and providing emergency care. If the burn does not pose an immediate, life-threatening risk, the nurse would obtain an indepth history and elicit a description of the burn. Determining the burn depth and extent are part of the secondary survey.

6. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old boy who has undergone an appendectomy. The child is unwilling to use the incentive spirometer. Which approach would be most appropriate to elicit the child's cooperation? A) "Can you cough for me please?" B) "You must blow in this or you might get pneumonia." C) "If you don't try, I will have to get the healthcare provider." D) "Can you blow this cotton ball across the tray?"

Ans: D Feedback: Children are more likely to cooperate with interventions if play is involved. Encourage deep breathing by playing games. Asking the boy to cough is less likely to engage him. Telling the child he might get pneumonia is not age appropriate and is unhelpful. Threatening to call the healthcare provider is unhelpful and inappropriate. Remember, however, that the incentive spirometer works on the principle of the amount of air inhaled, not exhaled. Having the child take a deep breath prior to blowing the cotton ball is a beginning step.

7. A nurse is caring for a 14-year-old girl who received an electrical burn. The nurse would anticipate preparing the girl for which diagnostic tests as ordered? A) Pulse oximetry B) Fiberoptic bronchoscopy C) Xenon ventilation-perfusion scanning D) Electrocardiographic monitoring

Ans: D Feedback: Electrocardiographic monitoring is important for the child who has suffered an electrical burn to identify possible cardiac arrhythmias, which can be noted for up to 72 hours after a burn injury. Fiberoptic bronchoscopy and xenon ventilation- perfusion scanning may be ordered to evaluate an inhalation injury, not an electrical burn. Pulse oximetry is used to evaluate pulmonary function and would not be indicated in the case of an electrical burn.

13. A nurse develops a plan of care for a child that includes patching the eye. This plan of care would be most appropriate for which condition? A) Astigmatism B) Hyperopia C) Myopia D) Amblyopia

Ans: D Feedback: Eye patching is used for amblyopia or any condition that results in one eye being weaker than the other. Corrective lenses would be appropriate for astigmatism, hyperopia, and myopia.

14. The parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease ask the nurse what types of food they can offer their child. What recommendation would the nurse include in the teaching plan? A) Frozen yogurt B) Rye bread C) Creamed spinach D) Fruit juice

Ans: D Feedback: For the child with celiac disease, foods containing gluten such as frozen yogurt, rye bread, and creamed vegetables should be avoided. Fruit juice would be an appropriate suggestion in a gluten-free diet.

24. As part of a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing the burn classification. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns? A) Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen B) Skin appearing wet with significant pain C) Skin with blistering and swelling D) Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Ans: D Feedback: Full-thickness burns may be very painful, numb, or pain-free in some areas. They appear red, edematous, leathery, dry, or waxy and may display peeling or charred skin. Superficial burns are painful, red, dry, and possibly edematous. Partialthickness and deep partial-thickness burns are very painful and edematous and have a wet appearance or blisters.

6. The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old boy with amblyopia. Which intervention would be most appropriate to include in the child's plan of care? A) Rinsing the eye with cool water B) Educating the family about the disease C) Encouraging frequent hand washing D) Promoting eye safety

Ans: D Feedback: Promoting eye safety is extremely important for the child with amblyopia; if the better eye suffers a serious injury, both eyes may become blind. Rinsing the eye with cool water, educating the family about the disorder, and encouraging frequent hand washing are interventions for infectious conjunctivitis.

8. The nurse has developed a plan of care for a 12-month-old hospitalized with dehydration as a result of rotavirus. Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Encouraging consumption of fruit juice B) Offering Kool-Aid or popsicles as tolerated C) Encouraging milk products to boost caloric intake D) Maintaining the intravenous (IV) fluid rate as ordered

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse should maintain an IV line and administer the IV fluid as ordered to maintain fluid volume. High-carbohydrate fluids like fruit juice, Kool-Aid, and popsicles should be avoided as they are low in electrolytes, increase simple carbohydrate consumption, and can decrease stool transit time. Milk products should be avoided during the acute phase of illness as they may worsen diarrhea.

42. A child is brought to the clinic after tripping over a rock. The child states "I twisted my ankle" and is given a diagnosis of a sprain. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for this child? A. For the first 24 hours apply ice for 20 minutes and remove for 60 minutes B. Bedrest with leg elevated for 36 hours C. May take an NSAID for pain as prescribed D. Use compression dressing for 72 hours

Answer: A Rationale: A sprain results from twisting or a turning motion of the affected body part. Usually that is an ankle or a knee.The tendons and ligaments stretch excessively and may tear slightly. Edema, bruising and the inablility to bear weight are the most common symptoms. Interventions for care include RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation), activity restrictions and/or splints or crutches. The most important intervention is the use of RICE. In this process the ice is applied for 20-30 minutes and then removed for 60 minutes. This can be done for up to 48 hours. This causes vasoconstriction to decrease the pain and swelling. Bedrest is not required, only limiting activities.Compression dressings, such as an elastic wrap are used, but there is no time limit as to how long they are needed. It depends upon the amount of swelling decreases. NSAIDs may be taken for pain if needed but the ice will produce a better pain relief.

8. The nurse determines that it is necessary to implement airborne precautions for children with which infection? A. Measles B. Streptococcus group A C. Rubella D. Scarlet fever

Answer: A Rationale: Airborne precautions are designed to reduce the risk of infectious agents transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei or dust particles such as for children with measles, varicella, or tuberculosis. Droplet precautions would be used for children with streptococcal group A infections, rubella, and scarlet fever.

12. After teaching a class on the role of white blood cells in infection, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which type of white blood cells as important in combating bacterial infections? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes

Answer: A Rationale: Elevations in certain portions of the white blood cell count reflect different processes occurring in the body. Neutrophils function to combat bacterial infection. Eosinophils function in allergic disorders and parasitic infections. Basophils combat parasitic infections and some allergic disorders. Lymphocytes function in viral infections.

19. The parents of a 5-year-old have just found out that their child has head lice. Which statement by the parents would support the nursing diagnosis of deficient knowledge? A. "I can't believe it. We're not unclean, poor people." B. "We'll have to get that special shampoo." C. "Everybody in the house will need to be checked." D. "That explains his complaints of itching on his neck."

Answer: A Rationale: Head lice is not an indication of poor hygiene or poverty. It occurs in all socioeconomic groups. Thus, the parents' statement about being unclean and poor reflects a lack of knowledge about the infection. A pediculicide is used to wash the hair to treat the infestation. Household contacts need to be examined and treated if affected. Extreme pruritus is the most common symptom, with nits or lice especially behind the ears or at the nape of the neck.

6. The nurse is educating the parents of a 7-year-old boy with asthma about the medications that have been prescribed. Which drug would the nurse identify as an adjunct to a β2-adrenergic agonist for treatment of bronchospasm? A. Ipratropium B. Montelukast C. Cromolyn D. Theophylline

Answer: A Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic administered via inhalation to produce bronchodilation without systemic effects. It is generally used as an adjunct to a β2-adrenergic agonist. Montelukast decreases the inflammatory response by antagonizing the effects of leukotrienes. Cromolyn prevents release of histamine from sensitized mast cells. Theophylline provides for continuous airway relaxation.

10. A mother brings her 8-year-old son for evaluation because of a rash on his lower leg. Which finding would support the suspicion that the child has Lyme disease? A. Playing in the woods about a week ago B. Rash is papular and vesicular C. High fever occurring about 4 days before the rash D. Reports of extreme pruritus with visible nits

Answer: A Rationale: Lyme disease is caused by the bite of an infected tick, with a rash appearing 7 to 14 days after the tick bite. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas. Therefore, reports of the child playing in the woods about 7 days ago would support the diagnosis of Lyme disease. A papular and vesicular rash is commonly associated with varicella (chickenpox). A high fever for 3 to 5 days before a rash suggests roseola. Extreme pruritus with visible nits would suggest pediculosis.

9. When developing the plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy, which treatment would the nurse expect as least likely? A. Skeletal traction B. Physical therapy C. Orthotics D. Occupational therapy

Answer: A Rationale: Skeletal traction would be the least likely treatment for a child with cerebral palsy. Physical therapy, orthotics and braces, and occupational therapy are all common treatments used for cerebral palsy.

2. The nurse is providing postoperative care for a 14-month-old girl who has undergone a myelomeningocele repair. The girl's mother is extremely anxious and tells the nurse she is afraid she will never learn how to care for her daughter at home. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. "I will help you become comfortable in caring for your daughter." B. "You must learn how to care for your daughter at home." C. "You will need to learn to collaborate with all the caregivers." D. "There is a lot to learn, and you need a positive attitude."

Answer: A Rationale: The nurse needs to empower families to become the experts on their child's needs and conditions via education and participation in care. The most positive approach is to let the mother know the nurse will support her and help her become an expert on her daughter's care. Telling the mother that she must learn how to care for her daughter or that she must have a positive attitude is not helpful. Telling her that she needs to collaborate with the caregivers is true, but does not address her fears.

18. An 8-year-old girl was diagnosed with a closed fracture of the radius at approximately 2 p.m. The fracture was reduced in the emergency department and her arm placed in a cast. At 11 p.m. her mother brings her back to the emergency department due to unrelenting pain that has not been relieved by the prescribed narcotics. Which action would be the priority? A. Notifying the doctor immediately B. Applying ice C. Elevating the arm D. Giving additional pain medication as ordered

Answer: A Rationale: The nurse should notify the doctor immediately because the girl's symptoms are the classic sign of compartment syndrome. Immediate treatment is required to prevent excessive swelling and to detect neurovascular compromise as quickly as possible. The ice should be removed and the arm brought below the level of the heart to facilitate whatever circulation is present. Giving additional pain medication will not help in this situation.

27. A child is in the emergency department with an asthma exaccerbation. Upon asucultation the nurse is unable to hear air movement in the lungs. What action should the nurse take first? A. Administer a beta-2 adrenergic agonist B. Administer oxygen C. Start a peripheral IV D. Administer corticosteroids

Answer: A Rationale: When lungs sounds are unable to be heard in a child with asthma, the child is very ill. This means there is severe airway obstruction. The air movement is so severe wheezes cannot be heard. The priority treatment is to administer an inhaled short term bronchodilator (beta-2 adrenergic agonist). The child may require numerous inhalations until bronchodilation occurs and air can pass through the bronchi. Oxygen can be started but until the brochi are dilated no oxygen can get through to the lung fields. In IV would need to be started and IV steroids administered to reduce the inflammation, but the priority is bronchodilation.

41. The school nurse has performed scoliosis screening. Based on this assessment, which children require the nurse to implement a referral to the healthcare provider? Select all that apply. A. The child with asymetric shoulder elevation B. The child with a limb length discrepancy C. The child with a lateral curve of the spine D. The child with a one-sided hump upon bending over E. The child who's sibling had scoliosis surgically corrected F. The child who has uneven balance

Answer: A, B, C, D Rationale: Scoliosis is defined by a lateral curve of the spine greater than 10 degrees.This curve causes displacement of the ribs. The nurse would first inspect the back in a standing position and note any asymetric shoulder elevation, the prominence of one scapula, an uneven curve at the waistline, or a rib hump on one side. While standing the nurse could also assess for leg length discrepancy and this could be measured. The nurse would then have the child bend over and observe for a pronounced hump on one side. The nurse should notify the parents and refer the child to the healthcare provider for evaluation if any of these symptoms are found. The sibling with a scoliosis repair would not be a concern unless it was known the family had a genetic diagnosis. Most scoliosis is idiopathic. Uneven balance is not a sign of scoliosis. The nurse would have to complete further assessments for this child.

24. The nurse is teaching the parent of a child with cystic fibrosis about nutrition requirements for the child. What should be included in this teaching? A. "Give your child high-calorie foods and snacks." B. "Feed your child foods that are high in protein." C. "Administer water soluble vitamins." D. "Give panreatic enzymes with meals." E. "Give your child foods high in fat."

Answer: A, B, D Rationale: Children with cystic fibrosis (CF) have trouble digesting and absorbing nutrients. They tend to be underweight. For optimal health, their diets should be high in calories and high in protein, with the supplementation of fat soluble vitamins and pancreatic enzymes. This diet helps with growth and the optimal nutrients. The fat soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E and K) are needed, because children with CF have trouble absorbing fat and need the vitamin supplementation to aid in fat absorption. Water soluble vitamins (the B vitamins and vitamin C) do not aid in fat absorption. The child should not have a high-fat diet, because the extra fat is difficult to digest and be absorbed. Pancreatic enzymes are necessary because they are missing due to the disease process. They are necessary to aid in digestion. They should be ingested with meals.

26. A parent with a child who has cystic fibrosis asks the nurse how to determine if the child is receiving an adequate amount of pancreatic enzymes. How should the nurse respond? Select all that apply. A. "The dose is adequate when your child is only having 1 to 2 stools per day." B. "The dose is adequate when your child's weight is improving." C. "The dose prescribed is based on your child's pancreatic laboratory values so it should be correct." D. "When your child starts to eat more quantity of food you will need to adjust the amount of enzyme pills." E. "You will need to give your child less enzyme pills when high-fat foods are eaten."

Answer: A, B, D Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes are required for the child with cystic fibrosis (CF) to help absorb nutrients from the diet and to aid in digestion. They are given with each meal and snack the child eats. The number of capsules required at each dose depends upon the diagnosis of how the pancreas is functioning and the amount of food needing to be digested. The pancreatic laboratory values may detemine a baseline for the number of pills to start with, but the dosage is adjusted regularly. The dosage of pancreatic enzymes is adjusted until an adequate growth pattern is established and the child is having no more than 1 to 2 stools per day. The child should be given an increased number of enzyme pills when a meal with high-fat content is consumed, not fewer.

23. The parents of a 7-month-old child with an infection ask the nurse about how to treat their child's fever. After providing teaching, the parents voice understanding with which statements? Select all that apply. A. "If my child's fever is under 102°F , I don't need to make an appointment with the physician." B. "Having a temperature over 38°C puts my child at risk for the infection spreading to the bloodstream." C. "I can use acetaminophen to help with the symptoms of the infection but it won't get rid of the infection." D. "Even though people get frightened, fevers are not a bad thing during an infection unless it gets too high." E. "Any fever is dangerous and can cause serious damage to brain cells if it goes on too long."

Answer: A, C, D Rationale: In infants older than 3 months of age, fever less than 38.9°C (102°F) usually does not require treatment by a physician. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, provide symptomatic relief but do not change the course of the infection. A fever can actually enhance various components of the immune response. Infants younger than 3 months of age with a rectal temperature greater than 38°C should be seen by a physician or nurse practitioner because of increased risk of sepsis.

25. The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a child with suspected developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would help confirm this diagnosis? A. Abduction occurs to 75 degrees and adduction to within 30 degrees (with stable pelvis). B. A distinct "clunk" is heard with Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers. C. A high-pitched "click" is heard with hip flexion or extension. D. The thigh and gluteal folds are symmetric.

Answer: B Rationale: A distinct "clunk" while performing Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers is caused as the femoral head dislocates or reduces back in to the acetabulum. A higher-pitched "click" may occur with flexion or extension of the hip. This is a benign, adventitious sound that should not be confused with a true "clunk" when assessing for developmental dysplasia of the hip. Abduction to 75 degrees, adduction within 30 degrees, and symmetric thigh and gluteal folds are normal findings.

15. A group of nursing students are reviewing the medications used to treat asthma. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which agent as appropriate for an acute episode of bronchospasm? A. Salmeterol B. Albuterol C. Ipratropium D. Cromolyn

Answer: B Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting β2-adrenergic agonist that is used for treatment of acute bronchospasm. Salmeterol is a long-acting β2-adrenergic agonist used for long-term control or exercise-induced asthma. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic agent used as an adjunct to β2- adrenergic agonists for treatment of bronchospasm. Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer used prophylactically but not to relieve bronchospasm during an acute wheezing episode.

13. A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about the action of antipyretic agents in children. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the students identify which action as the primary action? A. Cause vasodilation to promote heat loss B. Decrease the temperature set point C. Block release of histamine D. Promote prostaglandin production

Answer: B Rationale: Antipyretics act to decrease the temperature set point in children with elevated temperatures by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which leads to heat loss through vasodilation and sweating. Antihistamines block the release of histamine.

17. A nursing instructor is preparing a class on chronic lung disease. What information would the instructor include when describing this disorder? A. It is a result of cystic fibrosis. B. It is seen most commonly in premature infants. C. It typically affects females more often than males. D. It is characterized by bradypnea.

Answer: B Rationale: Chronic lung disease, formerly known as bronchopulmonary dysplasia, is often diagnosed in infants who have experienced respiratory distress syndrome, most commonly seen in premature infants. Male gender is a risk factor for development. Tachypnea and increased work of breathing are characteristic of chronic lung disease.

4. After teaching a mother how to remove a tick from her 6-year-old boy's arm, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the mother makes what statement? A. "I'll protect my fingers with a paper towel." B. "I'll grasp the tick and pull it away quickly." C. "I should put the tick in a plastic bag in the freezer." D. "I need to grasp the tick close to the child's skin."

Answer: B Rationale: Grasping the tick and pulling it away quickly would indicate the need for additional teaching. When removing a tick, the mother should use fine-tipped tweezers while protecting her fingers with a tissue, paper towel, or latex gloves. The mother should grasp the tick as close to the skin as possible and pull upward with steady, even pressure. Once removed, the mother should place the tick in a sealable plastic bag in the freezer in case the child becomes sick and identification of the tick is needed.

1. The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with tachycardia and tachypnea. The nurse anticipates which test as most helpful in determining the extent of the child's hypoxia? A. Pulmonary function test B. Pulse oximetry C. Peak expiratory flow D. Chest radiograph

Answer: B Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a useful tool for determining the extent of hypoxia. It can be used by the nurse for continuous or intermittent monitoring. Pulmonary function testing measures respiratory flow and lung volumes and is indicated for asthma, cystic fibrosis, and chronic lung disease. Peak expiratory flow testing is used to monitor the adequacy of asthma control. Chest radiographs can show hyperinflation, atelectasis, pneumonia, foreign bodies, pleural effusion, and abnormal heart or lung size.

28. While hospitalized, a child develops scarlet fever. Isolation has been prescribed by the health care provider. The nurse would place this child in what type of isolation? A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Contact D. Reverse

Answer: B Rationale: Scarlet fever is produced by group A streptococcus. It is most seen in children ages 5 years to 15 years. It is spread by droplets from respiratory secretions by talking, coughing, or sneezing. These droplets can travel 3 feet (1 meter). Isolation recommendations require the use of a mask for care of the child. Airborne isolation is required for illness that also produce droplets but these are smaller, can travel further and stay suspended in air. An N95 mask and negative pressure room is required for this type of isolation. Contact isolation requires the use of gowns, masks and gloves for direct contact with an infected person. Reverse isolation occurs if the client is neutropenic.

3. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. As part of the plan of care, the nurse focuses on maintaining his cardiopulmonary function. Which intervention would the nurse implement to best promote maximum chest expansion? A. Deep-breathing exercises B. Upright positioning C. Coughing D. Chest percussion

Answer: B Rationale: The nurse should emphasize that the child's position should be arranged to promote maximum chest expansion. This is usually in the upright position. Deep-breathing exercises are for strengthening/maintaining respiratory muscles. Coughing helps clear the airways. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions in lungs.

16. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical examination of a child with asthma. Which technique would the nurse be least likely to perform? A. Inspection B. Palpation C. Percussion D. Auscultation

Answer: B Rationale: When examining the child with asthma, the nurse would inspect, auscultate, and percuss. Palpation would not be used.

21. A child is diagnosed with a helminthic infection. Which treatments would the nurse expect to be prescribed? Select all that apply. A. Erythromycin B. Albendazole C. Pyrantel pamoate D. Acyclovir E. Metronidazole F. Permethrin

Answer: B, C Rationale: Drugs used to treat helminthic infections include albendazole and pyrantel pamoate. Erythromycin is used to treat bacterial infections. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections. Metronidazole is used to treat trichomoniasis. Permethrin is used to treat pediculosis.

37. A nurse is providing instructions to the parents of a 3-month-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip who is being treated with a Pavlik harness. Which statement(s) by the parents demonstrates understanding of the instructions? Select all that apply. A. "We need to adjust the straps so that they are snug but not too tight." B. "We should change the diaper without taking our infant out of the harness." C. "We need to check the area behind our infant's knees for redness and irritation." D. "We need to send the harness to the dry cleaners to have it cleaned." E. "We need to call the health care provider if our infant is not able to actively kick the legs."

Answer: B, C, E Rationale: Instructions related to use of a Pavlik harness include changing the child's diaper while in the harness; checking the areas behind the knees and diaper area for redness, irritation, or breakdown; and calling the health care provider if the child is unable to actively kick the legs. The straps are not to be adjusted without checking with the health care provider first. The harness can be washed with mild detergent by hand and air dried. A hair dryer can be used to dry the harness but only if the air fluffing setting (no heat) is used.

7. The nurse is performing a physical examination on a 9-year-old boy who has experienced a tick bite on his lower leg and is suspected of having Lyme disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find? A. Swelling in the neck B. Confusion and anxiety C. Ring-like rash on lower leg D. Hypersalivation

Answer: C Rationale: A ring-like rash at the site of the tick bite is characteristic for Lyme disease. Swelling in the neck is a symptom of mumps. Confusion, anxiety, and hypersalivation are symptoms of rabies.

39. An 18-month-old was brought to the emergency department by her mother, who states, "I think she broke her arm." The child is sent for a radiograph to confirm the fracture. Additional assessment of the child leads the nurse to suspect possible child abuse. Which type of fracture would the radiograph most likely reveal? A. Plastic deformity B. Buckle fracture C. Spiral fracture D. Greenstick fracture

Answer: C Rationale: A spiral fracture is very rare in children. A spiral femoral or humeral fracture, particularly in a child younger than 2 years of age, should always be thoroughly investigated to rule out the possibility of child abuse. Plastic, buckle, and greenstick fractures are common in children and do not usually suggest child abuse.

14. A nurse is instructing a parent on how to obtain a stool culture for ova and parasites from a child with diarrhea. What would the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. "Give the child bismuth and then collect the next specimen." B. "Obtain the specimen from the toilet after the child has a bowel movement." C. "Keep the specimen from coming into contact with any urine." D. "Bring the specimen to the laboratory on the third day."

Answer: C Rationale: A stool specimen for culture must be free of urine, water, and toilet paper. Therefore, the parent needs to understand how to collect the specimen so that it does not come into contact with any these. In addition, the specimen should not be retrieved out of toilet water. Mineral oil, barium, and bismuth interfere with the detection of parasites. In such cases, specimen collection should be delayed for 7 to 10 days. Once the specimen is collected, it should be brought to the laboratory immediately.

19. The nurse is caring for an active 14-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with scoliosis. He is dismayed that a "jock" like himself could have this condition, and is afraid it will impact his spot on the water polo team. Which response by the nurse would best address the boy's concerns? A. "If you wear your brace properly, you may not need surgery." B. "The good news is that you have very minimal curvature of your spine." C. "Let's talk to another boy with scoliosis, who is winning trophies for his swim team." D. "Let's talk to the doctor about your treatment options."

Answer: C Rationale: Because this boy is concerned about limiting his participation in water polo and perceives scoliosis as a disease that does not affect "jocks," putting the child in contact with someone with the same problem would be helpful. Telling the adolescent about not needing surgery if he wears his brace or that his curvature is minimal may or may not be true in his case and thus would be false reassurance. Although these suggestions and also the suggestion about talking to the doctor about treatment options could be helpful by engaging his input in the treatment, these do not address his specific concerns about his body image.

24. The mother of a 4-year-old boy has contacted the physician's office. She reports her son was exposed to someone with chickenpox. She has inquired about when her son may show if he has gotten the disease. What information should be provided? A. The illness should be seen in a week if he has been exposed. B. Symptoms of the disease should show up within 24 to 48 hours of exposure. C. The incubation period for the disease is between 10 and 21 days. D. Younger children will have longer periods of incubation.

Answer: C Rationale: Chickenpox is the common name for varicella. This condition has an incubation period of 10 to 21 days.

19. When performing the physical examination of a child with cystic fibrosis, what would the nurse expect to assess? A. Dullness over the lung fields B. Increased diaphragmatic excursion C. Decreased tactile fremitus D. Hyperresonance over the liver

Answer: C Rationale: Examination of a child with cystic fibrosis typically reveals decreased tactile fremitus over areas of atelectasis, hyperresonance over the lung fields from air trapping, decreased diaphragmatic excursion, and dullness over the liver when enlarged.

2. The nurse is discussing discharge instructions with the parents of a 6-year-old who had a tonsillectomy. What is the most important thing to stress? A. Administer analgesics. B. Encourage the child to drink liquids. C. Inspect the throat for bleeding. D. Apply an ice collar.

Answer: C Rationale: Inspecting the throat for bleeding is the most important discharge information to give the parents. Hemorrhage is unusual postoperatively but may occur any time from the immediate postoperative period to as late as 10 days after surgery. The nurse should inspect the throat for bleeding. Mucus tinged with blood may be expected, but fresh blood in the secretions indicates bleeding. Administering analgesics, encouraging fluids and applying an ice color are important but not as important as assessing for bleeding.

4. A 6-year-old child with cerebral palsy has been admitted to the hospital for some tests. The child's condition is stable. A parent remains with the child, but the parent is obviously exhausted and stressed. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. "Would you like me to bring you a blanket and pillow?" B. "You are doing such a wonderful job with your child." C. "Your child is in good hands; consider going home to get some sleep." D. "Are you planning to spend the night or to go home?"

Answer: C Rationale: Providing daily, intense care can be quite demanding and tiring. When a child with cerebral palsy is admitted to the hospital, this may serve as a time of respite for family and primary caregivers. The nurse should remind the parent that the child is in good hands and urge the parent to go home. Asking whether the parent is planning to stay might make the parent feel obligated to stay. Asking if the parent wants a blanket or pillow does not encourage the parent to leave the hospital. Telling the parent he or she is doing a good job is nice, but does not encourage the parent to take a break.

3. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the mother of a 4-year-old girl with cold and fever. What would the nurse include in this teaching plan? A. Keeping the child covered and warm B. Calling the doctor if the child's fever lasts more than 36 hours C. Ensuring fluid intake to prevent dehydration D. Observing for changes in alertness resulting from brain damage

Answer: C Rationale: Teaching the mother to ensure fluid intake is important because fever can cause dehydration. The child should be dressed lightly. There is no need to call the doctor unless the child's fever lasts more than 3 to 5 days or the fever is greater than 105ºF. A rapid rise to a high fever can cause a febrile convulsion, but it does not lead to brain damage.

25. The nurse is providing education to the parents of a child diagnosed with pinworms. Which statement is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching? A. "Seal the child's clothing in a plastic bag for at least 10 days." B. "Be sure your child wears shoes at all times." C. "Make sure your child washes hands before eating." D. "After applying this special cream, leave it on for about 8 to 10 hours."

Answer: C Rationale: The most effective measure to prevent pinworms or a recurrence is good hand hygiene, especially after using the bathroom and before eating. Sealing the child's clothing in a plastic bag is appropriate for pediculosis capitis. Having the child wear shoes at all times is helpful in preventing hookworm. Use of a cream that remains on for a specified time is associated with scabies.

20. The nurse is caring for a female infant with torticollis and is providing instructions to the parents about how to help their daughter. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching? A. "We must encourage our daughter to turn her head both ways." B. "Flatness on one side of the head is a common side effect." C. "We must apply firm pressure and stretching every other day." D. "We will do a daily stretching regimen with multiple sessions."

Answer: C Rationale: The nurse needs to remind the parents that the stretching exercises should be done several times a day. The stretching is applied with gentle, not firm, pressure and should be done every day for multiple sessions. The statements about turning the head both ways, flatness on one side as common, and daily stretching with multiple sessions are correct.

16. The nurse is assessing the tympanic temperature of several children. The nurse documents that the child with which temperature reading has a fever? A. 98.2° F (36.8° C) B. 99.2° F (37.3° C) C. 100° F (37.8° C) D. 100.8° F (38.2° C)

Answer: D Rationale: A tympanic temperature greater than 100.4° F (greater than 38° C) is defined as fever. An oral temperature of 100° F (greater than 37.8° C) would identify a fever. An axillary temperature of 99° F (greater than 37.2° C) would identify a fever.

16. A child with cerebral palsy has undergone surgery for placement of a baclofen pump. Which instruction would the nurse include when teaching the parents about caring for their child? A. Wait 48 hours before allowing the child to take a tub bath. B. Do not allow the child to sleep on the left side for about 4 weeks. C. Call the helath care provider if the child's temperature is over 100.5°F (38°C). D. Discourage the child from stretching or bending forward for 4 weeks.

Answer: D Rationale: After insertion of a baclofen pump, the parents should discourage any twisting at the waist, reaching high overhead, stretching, or bending forward or backward for 4 weeks. The child would avoid tub baths for about 2 weeks and avoid sleeping on the stomach for 4 weeks. The parents should notify the health care provider if the child's temperature is greater than 101.5°F (38.6°C).

11. After teaching the parents of a child with chickenpox (varicella zoster), the nurse determines that the parents have understood the teaching when they state that their child can return to school at which time? A. After day 5 of the rash B. When the rash is completely healed C. Once the rash appears D. After the lesions have crusted

Answer: D Rationale: Children with chickenpox (varicella zoster) can return to school once the lesions have crusted.

18. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis about medication therapy. Which would the nurse instruct the parents to administer orally? A. Recombinant human DNase B. Bronchodilators C. Anti-inflammatory agents D. Pancreatic enzymes

Answer: D Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes are administered orally to promote adequate digestion and absorption of nutrients. Recombinant human DNase, bronchodilators, and anti-inflammatory agents are typically administered by inhalation.

6. The nurse has developed a plan of care for a 6-year-old with muscular dystrophy. He was recently injured when he fell out of bed at home. Which intervention would the nurse suggest to prevent further injury? A. Recommend the bed's side rails be raised throughout the day and night. B. Suggest a caregiver be present continuously to prevent falls from bed. C. Encourage a loose restraint to be used when he is in bed. D. Recommend raising the bed's side rails when a caregiver is not present.

Answer: D Rationale: The nurse should recommend that side rails on the bed be elevated when a caregiver is not present. The use of restraints should be avoided if at all possible. Suggesting that a caregiver be present at all times places undue stress on the family. Close observation is more appropriate. Recommending side rails be elevated at all times may be upsetting to the child and make him feel like a "baby."

A nurse is instituting neutropenic precautions for a child. What information would the nurse most likely include? Select all that apply. A)Placing the child in a semiprivate room B)Avoiding rectal exams, suppositories, and enemas C)Placing a mask on the child when outside the room D)Encouraging an intake of raw fruits and vegetables E)Discouraging fresh flowers in the child's room

B, C, E Generally, neutropenic precautions include placing the child in a private room; avoiding rectal suppositories, enemas, and examinations; placing a mask on the child when outside the room; avoiding the intake of raw fruits and vegetables; and not permitting fresh flowers or live plants in the room.

A nurse is leading a discussion with a group of new mothers about newborn nutrition and its importance for growth and development. One of the mothers asks, "Doesn't the baby get iron from me before birth?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A)"You give the baby some iron, but it is not enough to sustain him after birth." B)"Because the baby grows rapidly during the first months, he uses up what you gave him." C)"The iron you give him before birth is different from what he needs once he is born." D)"If the baby didn't use up what you gave him before birth, he excretes it soon after birth."

B. "Because the baby grows rapidly during the first months, he uses up what you gave him." In the term infant, a period of physiologic anemia occurs between the age of 2 and 6 months. This is due to the fact that the infant demonstrates rapid growth and an increase in blood volume over the first several months of life, and maternally derived iron stores are depleted by age 4 to 6 months of age. Sufficient iron intake is critical for the appropriate development of hemoglobin and RBCs. Therefore, the infant must ingest adequate quantities of iron either from breast milk or from iron-fortified formula in early infancy and other food sources in later infancy.

The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old boy with idiopathic thrombocytopenia. The nurse is providing discharge instructions about home care and safety recommendations to the boy and his parents. Which response indicates a need for further teaching? A)"We should avoid aspirin and drugs like ibuprofen." B)"He can resume participation in football in 2 weeks." C)"Swimming would be a great activity." D)"Our son cannot take any antihistamines."

B. "He can resume participation in football in 2 weeks." The nurse must emphasize to the parents that they need to prevent trauma to their son by avoiding activities that may cause injury. Participation in contact sports like football is not recommended. Aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and antihistamines should be avoided because they could precipitate anemia. Swimming, a noncontact sport, is an appropriate choice.

A child is scheduled to undergo radiation therapy as part of his treatment plan for newly diagnosed cancer. After teaching the child and parents about this treatment, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the parents state: A)"We should not wash off the markings on his skin." B)"He can use petroleum jelly if the skin becomes reddened." C)"He needs to use a sunscreen with an SPF of 30 or more." D)"He should not apply deodorant to the treatment site."

B. "He can use petroleum jelly if the skin becomes reddened." Aqueous creams and moisturizers may be used on the skin, but not petroleum jelly. Markings on the skin should not be removed or washed off. During and after radiation treatment, the skin will be more photosensitive so the child should use a high-SPF sunscreen of 30 or more. Deodorants and perfumed lotions should not be applied to the radiation treatment site.

The nurse is providing a class for a group of childcare providers. When discussing allergic reactions, which statement by a participant indicates the need for further instruction? A)"Most allergic reactions will happen within a few minutes of eating a problematic food." B)"If a child has previously eaten a food and not had a reaction they are not 'truly' allergic to it. C)"Allergic reactions can happen hours after eating something." D)"In addition to hives some children may also have vomiting and diarrhea when having an allergic reaction to a food."

B. "If a child has previously eaten a food and not had a reaction they are not 'truly' allergic to it." Previous exposure with no incident does not mean an individual cannot develop a hypersensitivity to a food or other substance. An allergy may develop at any time. The remaining statements are correct.

The nurse is talking to the parents of a child who has been diagnosed with severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). Which statement by the parents best indicates that they understand their child's condition? A)"He'll need to receive intravenous immunoglobulin routinely." B)"We'll need to prepare him and ourselves for a bone marrow transplant." C)"He'll need to receive several different types of antiviral medications." D)"We'll make sure that he has his EpiPen with him at all times."

B. "We'll need to prepare him and ourselves for a bone marrow transplant." SCID is a potentially fatal disorder requiring emergency intervention at the time of diagnosis. Gene therapy provides some promise for the future treatment of SCID, but until then bone marrow or stem cell transplantation is necessary. IVIG may be used to help decrease the number of infections until bone marrow or stem cell transplantation can be done. Antiviral medications are used to treat HIV infection. An EpiPen is used for anaphylaxis.

A child with suspected sickle cell disease is scheduled for a hemoglobin electrophoresis. When reviewing the child's history, what would the nurse identify as potentially interfering with the accuracy of the results? A)Use of iron supplementation B)Blood transfusion 1 month ago C)Lack of fasting for 12 hours D)History of recent infection

B. Blood transfusion 1 month ago Blood transfusion within the previous 12 weeks may alter the results of the hemoglobin electrophoresis. Iron supplements can increase serum ferritin levels. Children should fast for 12 hours before having a specimen obtained for iron levels. A history of infection might interfere with the white blood cell count results, not hemoglobin electrophoresis.

The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with leukemia and will have a variety of tests, including a lumbar puncture, before beginning chemotherapy. What action would be the priority? A)Applying EMLA to the lumbar puncture site B)Educating the child and family about the testing procedures C)Administering promethazine as ordered for nausea D)Educating the family about chemotherapy and its side effects

B. Educating the child and family about the testing procedures. The priority would be educating the child and family about the testing procedures so they know what to expect and understand why the tests are being performed. Applying EMLA to the lumbar puncture site will be done prior to the procedure. The family will be educated about chemotherapy and its side effects prior to the therapy beginning, and promethazine or other antiemetics will be administered once chemotherapy has begun.

The nurse is assessing a child with suspected thalassemia. What would the nurse expect to assess? A)Dactylitis B)Frontal bossing C)Presence of clubbing D)Presence of spooning

B. Frontal bossing The nurse would expect to find skeletal deformities such as frontal or maxillary bossing. Dactylitis is associated with sickle cell anemia. Clubbing and spooning are associated with chronic decreases in oxygen supply.

When teaching a group of new parents about newborn care and development, which immunoglobulin would the nurse explain as being primarily responsible for the passive immunity exhibited by newborns? A)IgA B)IgG C)IgM D)IgE

B. IgG IgG is acquired transplacentally, providing the newborn with passive immunity to antigens to which the mother had developed antibodies. IgA, IgD, IgE, and IgM do not cross the placenta and require an antigenic challenge for production.

The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old boy undergoing radiation treatment for a neuroblastoma. Which nursing diagnosis would be most applicable for this child? A)Activity intolerance related to anemia and weakness from medications B)Impaired skin integrity related to desquamation from cellular destruction C)Impaired oral mucosa related to the presence of oral lesions from malnutrition D)Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to nausea and vomiting

B. Impaired skin integrity related to desquamation from cellular destruction A nursing diagnosis for impaired skin integrity evidenced by desquamation of the radiation site would only be made for a child undergoing radiation therapy. Activity intolerance due to anemia and weakness, impaired oral mucosa evidenced by oral lesions, and malnutrition and anorexia due to nausea and vomiting are diagnoses that are common to both radiation and chemotherapy.

A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a child with a primary immunodeficiency. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority? A)Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to poor appetite B)Ineffective protection related to impaired humoral defenses C)Acute pain related to inflammatory processes D)Risk for delayed growth and development related to chronic illness

B. Ineffective protection related to impaired humoral defenses The child with a primary immunodeficiency lacks the necessary immune responses that provide protection from infection. Therefore, the priority nursing diagnosis would be ineffective protection. Imbalanced nutrition and risk for delayed growth and development may be appropriate, but these would not be the priority. Acute pain would be more appropriate for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis.

A nurse is providing care to a child with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura with a platelet count of 18,000/mm3. Which medication would the nurse most likely expect to be ordered? A)Folic acid B)Intravenous immune globulin C)Dimercaprol D)Deferoxamine

B. Intravenous immune globulin Intravenous immune globulin would be used to treat idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Folic acid is used to treat folic acid deficiency anemia. Dimercaprol is used to remove lead from the soft tissue and bone to allow for excretion by the kidneys. Deferoxamine is used to treat iron toxicity.

A child is receiving carboplatin as part of a chemotherapy protocol. What would be most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care? A)Monitoring for visual changes B)Maintaining adequate hydration C)Using prescribed eye drops to prevent conjunctivitis D)Avoiding administration with food or meals

B. Maintaining adequate hydration When fluorouracil is administered, the nurse must ensure adequate hydration. Monitoring for visual changes is appropriate when giving fludarabine. Eye drops are necessary to prevent conjunctivitis when high doses of cytarabine are administered. Oral mercaptopurine should not be given with meals or food.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a parent group about childhood cancers, focusing on brain tumors in children. What would the nurse describe as the most common type of brain tumor? A)Brain stem glioma B)Medulloblastoma C)Ependymoma D)Astrocytoma

B. Medulloblastoma Of all the types of brain tumors listed, a medulloblastoma is the most common type. It is invasive, is highly malignant, and grows rapidly.

A child is prescribed monthly injections of vitamin B12. When developing the teaching plan for the family, the nurse would focus on which type of anemia? A)Aplastic anemia B)Pernicious anemia C)Folic acid anemia D)Sickle cell anemia

B. Pernicious anemia Monthly injections of vitamin B12 are used to treat pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by a decrease in all blood cells necessitating a bone marrow transplant. Folic acid deficiency anemia is treated with dietary measures and possible folic acid supplementation. Sickle cell anemia is treated supportively with a focus on preventing sickling crisis, infection, and other complications.

In stage IV neuroblastoma, there is metastasis to the bone, bone marrow, other organs, or distant lymph nodes. Additionally, the tumor was located in the abdomen, which is associated with a poor prognosis. Therefore, the most important diagnosis would be grieving. Although infection, skin integrity, and imbalanced nutrition may be relevant, they would not be the most important. What would be most appropriate to include in the plan of care for a child who has undergone surgery for removal of an astrocytoma? A)Elevating the foot of the bed B)Positioning the child on his unaffected side C)Raising the head of the bed at least 45 degrees D)Administering large volumes of intravenous fluids

B. Positioning the child on his unaffected side Postoperatively, the nurse should position the child on his unaffected side, with the head of the bed flat or at the level prescribed by the neurosurgeon. The foot of the bed is not elevated to prevent increasing intracranial pressure and contributing to bleeding. Fluids are administered carefully to avoid excess fluid intake, which would cause or worsen cerebral edema.

The nurse is describing the phases of treatment to a child who was diagnosed with leukemia and his parents. How would the nurse describe the induction stage? A)Intense therapy to strengthen remission B)Rapid promotion of complete remission C)Elimination of all residual leukemic cells D)Reduction of risk for central nervous system (CNS) disease

B. Rapid promotion of complete remission Induction is done to rapidly produce a complete remission. Consolidation or intensification is the stage when remission is strengthened and leukemic cell burden is reduced. Maintenance attempts to eliminate all residual leukemic cells, and CNS prophylaxis is the stage that attempts to reduce the development of CNS disease.

The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old boy whose parents brought him to the clinic when they noticed that the right side of his abdomen was swollen. What finding would suggest this child has a neuroblastoma? A)The child has a maculopapular rash on his palms. B)The parents report that their son is vomiting and not eating well. C)The parents report that their son is irritable and not gaining weight. D)Auscultation reveals wheezing with diminished lung sounds.

B. The parents report that their son is vomiting and not eating well. Along with the swollen abdomen on one side, the parents reporting that the child is vomiting and anorexic points to the possibility of a neuroblastoma. Observing a maculopapular rash on the child's palms is a sign of graft-versus-host disease. The parents reporting that the child is irritable and not gaining weight suggests a possible brain tumor as well as malabsorption problems. Auscultation revealing wheezing with diminished lung sounds would suggest other problems, not a neuroblastoma.

The nurse is caring for a child who is taking corticosteroids for systemic lupus erythematosus. The nurse closely monitors the child based on the understanding that corticosteroids exert which major action? A)They increase liver enzymes. B)They can mask signs of infection. C)They cause bone marrow suppression. D)They decrease renal function.

B. They can mask signs of infection. The nurse understands that corticosteroids may mask signs of infection. Cytotoxic drugs cause bone marrow suppression. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can increase liver enzymes and decrease renal function.

A 16-year-old patient has just been diagnosed with HIV. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the diagnosis? A)"It is important for our child to get started on drug therapy for a better chance of a cure of the infection." B)"I must be infected with HIV and passed it to our child while in the uterus for the infection to have occurred." C)"We don't want to face the fact that it is likely our child contracted HIV through sexual contact or IV drug use." D)"Infections as a result of being HIV positive are a low risk since the diagnosis came early."

C. "We don't want to face the fact that it is likely our child contracted HIV through sexual contact or IV drug use." In teenagers, HIV is primarily contracted through sexual intercourse with an infected person or sharing of needles with an infected person during IV drug use. There is no cure for HIV, infants primarily contract the virus from their mothers, and infections as a result of having HIV are not dependent on when the diagnosis occurred.

The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old girl with von Willebrand disease. After teaching the adolescent and her parents about this disorder and care, which response by the parents indicates a need for additional teaching? A)"We need to administer Stimate prior to dental work." B)"We should be aware that she may suffer from menorrhagia." C)"We should administer desmopressin as often as needed." D)"We understand that she may have frequent nosebleeds."

C. "We should administer desmopressin as often as needed." The parents need to know that desmopressin spray Stimate is used for controlling bleeding; the other brands are used for homeostasis and enuresis. Additionally, Stimate should only be used 3 days in a row as lessening of the response (tachyphylaxis) occurs with frequent use. Stimate should be used before dental work. Menorrhagia and nosebleeds may occur.

A 5-year-old girl is diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia and is to receive iron supplements. The child has difficulty swallowing tablets, so a liquid formulation is prescribed. After teaching the parents about administering the iron supplement, which statement indicates the need for additional teaching? A)"She needs to eat foods that are high in fiber so she doesn't get constipated." B)"We'll try to get her to drink lots of fluids throughout the day." C)"We will place the liquid in the front of her gums, just below her teeth." D)"We need to measure the liquid carefully so that we give her the correct amount."

C. "We will place the liquid in the front of her gums, just below her teeth." When giving liquid iron supplements, the liquid should be placed behind the teeth because it can stain the teeth. Iron can lead to constipation, so increased fluid and fiber intake is appropriate. The dosage needs to be measured carefully to prevent overdosing the child, leading to iron toxicity.

The nurse is caring for a child who is having an anaphylactic reaction with bronchospasm. The nurse would expect to administer what medication for bronchospasm as ordered? A)Epinephrine B)Corticosteroid C)Albuterol D)Diphenhydramine

C. Albuterol The nurse would expect to administer bronchodilation inhalation treatment (albuterol) if bronchospasm is present. Epinephrine, diphenhydramine, and/or corticosteroids are administered to reverse the allergic process.

After teaching a class about humoral and cellular immunity, the nurse recognizes that the additional teaching is needed when the class states that: A)humoral immunity crosses the placenta. B)cellular immunity involves the T lymphocytes. C)cellular immunity recognizes antigens. D)humoral immunity does not destroy the foreign cell.

C. Cellular immunity recognizes antigens Humoral immunity recognizes antigens and cellular immunity does not. Humoral immunity crosses the placenta in the form of IgG. Cellular immunity involves the action of T lymphocytes, and humoral immunity does not destroy the foreign cell.

The nurse is caring for a 9-year-old boy who is having chemotherapy. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the child and family about nutrition. What instruction would the nurse be least likely to include? A)Emphasizing the intake of grains, fruits, and vegetables B)Featuring high-fiber foods if opioid analgesics are being taken C)Concentrating on consuming primarily high-calorie shakes and puddings D)Avoiding milk products if diarrhea is a problem

C. Concentrating on consuming primarily high-calorie shakes and puddings. Providing high-calorie shakes and puddings with diet restrictions can help with weight gain, if that is a problem. However, concentrating on high-calorie shakes and puddings is not a good strategy. It is best to provide a balanced diet emphasizing grains, fruits, and vegetables. If pain is being treated with opioid analgesics, featuring high-fiber foods is important to help relieve constipation. Avoiding milk products is a good idea if diarrhea is a problem because lactose can make diarrhea worse.

The school nurse is walking through the lunchroom when one of the children says she started to feel strange after trading lunches with a friend. Which assessment would be most important? A)Asking if she has a rash anywhere B)Checking if she has any nausea C)Determining if her throat itches D)Asking if she has abdominal pain

C. Determining if her throat itches. Asking if the child's throat itches is most important because this aids in determining airway patency, which is always the priority. Asking about a rash, nausea, or abdominal pain can be done after the nurse is certain the child's airway is not jeopardized.

The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old girl with a disseminated medulloblastoma. What intervention would be most appropriate for this situation? A)Providing emotional support to the parents and siblings of the child B)Recommending support groups for people whose children have cancer C)Encouraging the family to cry and express feelings away from the child D)Educating the family about the disease, its treatments, and side effects

C. Encouraging the family to cry and express feelings away from the child. The outcome of this highly malignant medulloblastoma is often not positive. Helping the family through anticipatory grieving by encouraging the family to cry and express feelings away from the child would be unique to this child's situation. Educating the family about the disease, its treatments, and side effects; recommending support groups; and providing emotional support to the parents and siblings would be appropriate for any child with cancer.

The nurse is reviewing the white blood cell differential of a 4-year-old girl. Which value would lead the nurse to be concerned? A)Bands: 8% B)Segs: 28% C)Eosinophils: 10% D)Basophils: 0%

C. Eosinophils: 10% For a 4-year-old, normally eosinophils range from 0% to 3%; therefore, a result of 10% would be abnormal and a cause for concern. Bands of 8%, segs of 28%, and basophils of 0% are normal values for this age.

The nurse is assessing a child with pauciarticular-type juvenile idiopathic arthritis. What would the nurse expect to assess? A)Fever B)Rash C)Eye inflammation D)Splenomegaly

C. Eye inflammation With pauciarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis, eye inflammation may be noted. Fever, rash, and enlarged spleen would be noted with systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis.

A child diagnosed with stage IV neuroblastoma has undergone abdominal surgery to remove the tumor. He is now receiving chemotherapy. Which nursing diagnosis would be most important? A)Risk for infection related to chemotherapy B)Impaired skin integrity related to abdominal surgery C)Grieving related to advanced disease and poor prognosis D)Imbalanced nutrition related to adverse effects of chemotherapy

C. Grieving related to advanced disease and poor prognosis In stage IV neuroblastoma, there is metastasis to the bone, bone marrow, other organs, or distant lymph nodes. Additionally, the tumor was located in the abdomen, which is associated with a poor prognosis. Therefore, the most important diagnosis would be grieving. Although infection, skin integrity, and imbalanced nutrition may be relevant, they would not be the most important.

A child with systemic lupus erythematosus is receiving high-dose corticosteroid therapy over the long term. The nurse would instruct the parents and child to report: A)difficulty urinating. B)visual changes. C)joint pain. D)rash.

C. Joint pain Avascular necrosis (lack of blood supply to a joint, resulting in tissue damage) may occur as an adverse effect of long-term or high-dose corticosteroid use. Teach families to report new onset of joint pain, particularly with weight bearing, or limited range of motion. Complications of systemic lupus erythematosus include nephritis manifested by urinary changes and visual changes. Rash may develop secondary to photosensitivity. These are unrelated to the long-term or high-dose corticosteroid use.

A child is receiving methotrexate as part of his chemotherapy protocol. The nurse would anticipate administering which agent to counteract the toxic effects of methotrexate? A)Mesna B)Cyclosporine C)Leucovorin D)Nystatin

C. Leucovorin Leucovorin is given as an antidote to methotrexate to reduce its toxic effects. Mesna is given when cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide are used to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant used to treat graft-versus-host disease after hematopoietic stem cell transplant. Nystatin is used to treat mucositis or systemic fungal infection.

The nurse is caring for a child who has undergone stem cell transplantation for severe combined immune deficiency. What finding would the nurse interpret as indicative of graft-versus-host disease? A)Presence of wheezing B)Splenomegaly C)Maculopapular rash D)Chronic or recurrent diarrhea

C. Maculopapular rash The nurse should monitor the stem cell transplant child closely for a maculopapular rash that usually starts on the palms and soles for indication that graft-versus-host disease is developing. Wheezing and recurrent diarrhea are not typical clinical manifestations of graft-versus-host disease. Splenomegaly is associated with hypogammaglobulinemia.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder? A)Shortened prothrombin time B)Increased fibrinogen level C)Positive fibrin split products D)Increased platelets

C. Positive fibrin split products Laboratory test results associated with DIC include positive fibrin split products; prolonged prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, bleeding time, and thrombin time; decreased fibrinogen levels, platelets, clotting factors II, V, VIII, and X, and antithrombin III; and increased levels of fibrinolysin, fibrinopeptide A, and positive D-dimers.

Which exercise would the nurse suggest as most helpful to maintain mobility in a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis? A)Jogging every other day B)Using a treadmill C)Swimming D)Playing basketball

C. Swimming Swimming is a particularly useful exercise to maintain joint mobility without placing pressure on the joints. Jogging, using a treadmill, and playing basketball would place pressure on the joints of the lower extremities.

While providing care to a 5-month-old girl whose family has a history of food allergies, the nurse instructs the parents about foods to be avoided in the first year of life. Which response by the parents indicates a need for further teaching? A)"She cannot have any cow's milk." B)"I should continue breastfeeding until at least 6 months." C)"Peanuts in any form should be avoided." D)"Any kind of fruit is acceptable."

D. "Any kind of fruit is acceptable." The nurse should caution the parents that kiwifruit should be avoided. Other foods to avoid include cow's milk, eggs, peanuts, tree nuts, sesame seeds, fish, and shellfish. Breastfeeding also is recommended for at least the first 6 months.

The mother of a 5-year-old child with allergies to a variety of foods including eggs, milk, peanuts and shellfish, asks if her child will "always have these problems". What response by the nurse is most accurate? A)"Sadly, allergies to foods will persist." B)"Most children with allergies will outgrow them." C)"We cannot be sure at this point but most children who are allergic to peanuts will not have this allergy in adulthood." D)"In most cases allergies to peanuts and shellfish persist into adulthood but the others may diminish and disappear."

D. "In most cases allergies to peanuts and shellfish persist into adulthood but the others may diminish and disappear." Foods such as peanuts, milk, soy, shellfish, tree nuts are common allergens. By adulthood many allergies will diminish or disappear. Allergies to shellfish, peanuts and tree nuts often persist into adulthood.

The nurse is caring for a child recently diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. The nurse is teaching the parents about triggers that may result in oxidative stress. Which response indicates a need for further teaching? A)"I doubt he will ever eat fava beans, but they could trigger hemolysis." B)"He must avoid exposure to naphthalene, an agent found in mothballs." C)"He must never take methylene blue for a urinary tract infection." D)"My son can never take penicillin for an infection."

D. "My son can never take penicillin for an infection." The nurse should emphasize that penicillin is not a known trigger that may result in oxidative stress and hemolysis. Fava beans, naphthalene, and methylene blue can trigger oxidative stress.

The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old boy with hemophilia. His parents are upset by the possibility that he will become infected with hepatitis or HIV from the clotting factor replacement therapy. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A)"Parents commonly fear the worst; however, the factor will help your child lead a normal life." B)"There are risks with any treatment including using blood products, but these are very minor." C)"Although factor replacement is expensive, there's more financial strain from missing work if he has a bleeding episode." D)"Since dry heat treatment of the factor began in 1986, there have been no reports of virus transmission."

D. "Since dry heat treatment of the factor began in 1986, there have been no reports of virus transmission." The nurse needs to emphasize that since 1986, there have been no reports of virus transmission from factor infusion since the inception of heat treatment of the factor. Telling the parents that there is a minor risk does not teach. Telling the parents that factor is expensive or that it is common to worry does not teach, nor does it address their concerns.

A group of nursing students are reviewing the various drug classes used for cancer chemotherapy. The students demonstrate an understanding of these classes when they identify which agent as an example of a nitrosourea? A)Busulfan B)Thiotepa C)Cisplatin D)Carmustine

D. Carmustine Carmustine is an example of a nitrosourea. Busulfan, thiotepa, and cisplatin are alkylating agents.

The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management? A)Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered. B)Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch. C)Administer meperidine as ordered. D)Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale. The nurse should first initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale upon admission and provide frequent evaluations of pain. Administering NSAIDs or meperidine and the use of nonpharmacologic pain management techniques are all appropriate. However, the first action is to assess the child's pain to provide a baseline for future comparison.

The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old girl who is undergoing a stem cell transplant. What information would the nurse include in the child's postoperative plan of care? A)Assessing for petechiae, purpura, bruising, or bleeding B)Limiting blood draws to the minimum volume required C)Administering antiemetics around the clock as ordered D)Monitoring for severe diarrhea and maculopapular rash

D. Monitoring for severe diarrhea and maculopapular rash In the posttransplant phase, monitor closely for symptoms of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) such as severe diarrhea and maculopapular rash progressing to redness or desquamation of the skin (especially on the palms of the hands or soles of the feet). During chemotherapy in the pretransplant phase, assess for petechiae, purpura, bruising, or bleeding to prevent hemorrhage; administer antiemetics around the clock as ordered to prevent the cycle of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia; and limit blood draws to the minimum volume required to prevent anemia.

The nurse is caring for a 16-year-old boy with acute myelogenous leukemia who is having chemotherapy and who has incomplete records for varicella zoster immunization. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis? A)Pain related to adverse effects of treatment verbalized by the child B)Nausea related to side effects of chemotherapy verbalized by the child C)Constipation related to the use of opioid analgesics for pain D)Risk for infection related to neutropenia and immunosuppression

D. Risk for infection related to neutropenia and immunosuppression. The priority nursing diagnosis is risk for infection related to neutropenia and immunosuppression. The incomplete records for varicella zoster immunization can cause a problem since exposure to chickenpox could cause sepsis, so the nurse should contact the oncologist for approval to administer the vaccine. Certain vaccines are not administered when the child is immunosuppressed, so timing is crucial. Diagnoses for pain and nausea are valid for this child because he is undergoing chemotherapy, but they are not a priority. Likewise, the need for constipation management would not be necessary unless opioid use begins.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about humoral and cellular immunity. The students demonstrate understanding of this material when they identify what as being involved in cellular immunity? A)B cells B)Antibodies C)Antigens D)T cells

D. T Cells Cellular immunity involves T cells, which do not recognize antigens. B cells, antibodies, and antigens are involved in humoral immunity.

The nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother is HIV positive. The nurse would expect to administer a 6-week course of which medication? A)Lopinavir B)Ritonavir C)Nevirapine D)Zidovudine

D. Zidovudine Children born to HIV-positive mothers should receive a 6-week course of zidovudine therapy. Lopinavir, ritonavir, and nevirapine are medications used for treatment of HIV-1 infections as part of a three-drug regimen.

A child is diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis and is receiving several different medications listed in the medication administration record. Which agent would the nurse identify as being used to prevent disease progression? A)Aspirin B)Prednisone C)Ibuprofen D)Methotrexate

D. methotrexate Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), such as methotrexate, are necessary to prevent disease progression. Other agents, such as aspirin and ibuprofen, are helpful with pain relief. Prednisone helps for relief of inflammation.

As a result of seizure activity, a computed tomography (CT) scan was performed and showed that an 18-month-old child has intracranial arteriovenous malformation. When developing the child's plan of care, what would the nurse expect to implement actions to prevent? A) Drug interactions B) Developmental disabilities C) Hemorrhagic stroke D) Respiratory paralysis

Hemorrhagic stroke Intracranial hemorrhage or hemorrhagic stroke is a risk for children with intracranial arteriovenous malformation. Drug interactions are a risk for children who are treated with combinations of anticonvulsants for epilepsy. Children with hydrocephalus are at an increased risk for developmental disabilities. Respiratory paralysis is a risk of botulism that typically affects infants younger than 6 months of age.

When providing care to a newborn infant who was born at 29 weeks' gestation, the nurse integrates knowledge of potential complications, being alert for signs and symptoms of what condition? A) Neonatal conjunctivitis B) Facial deformities C) Intracranial hemorrhage D) Incomplete myelinization

Intracranial hemorrhage Premature infants have more fragile capillaries in the periventricular area than term infants, which puts them at greater risk for intracranial hemorrhage. Neonatal conjunctivitis can occur in any newborn during birth and is caused by viruses, bacteria, or chemicals. Facial deformities are typical of babies of alcoholic mothers. Incomplete myelinization is present in all newborns.

Hydrocephalus is suspected in a 4-month-old infant. Which would the nurse expect to assess? A) Sunken fontanels B) Diminished reflexes C) Lower extremity spasticity D) Skull symmetry

Lower extremity spasticity Hydrocephalus is manifested by spasticity of lower extremities, bulging fontanels, brisk reflexes, and skull asymmetry.

A nurse is preparing a school-aged child for a lumbar puncture. The nurse would expect to position the child in which manner? A) On her side with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen B) Sitting upright with the head flexed forward to the chest C) Supine with arms and legs pronated and extended D) Prone with the arms flexed under the chest

On her side with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen When a lumbar puncture is performed on a child, the child is placed on his or her side with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen. An infant would be positioned sitting upright with the head flexed forward. A supine position with the arms and legs pronated and extended suggests decerebrate posturing. A prone position is not used for a lumbar puncture.

The nurse has developed a teaching plan for the family of a 2-year-old boy who holds his breath when he gets frustrated. What will be most important to include in this plan? A) Provide cuddle time whenever the child begins to act out. B) Explain the child's behavior to the parents. C) Encourage the parents to interact more with the child. D) Stay close to prevent injury when he gets frustrated.

Stay close to prevent injury when he gets frustrated. Encourage the parents to maintain a safe environment when an episode is occurring, but to avoid giving extra attention to the child after the event since this could encourage repetition of the behavior. It is important for the parents to understand what is happening, but rewarding the child with cuddle time when he is misbehaving provides incorrect reinforcement of behaviors. Encouraging the parents to interact more with the child may be helpful, but the priority is safety for the child.

A 16-year-old boy reports to the school nurse of headaches and a stiff neck. Which sign or symptom would alert the nurse that the child may have bacterial meningitis? A) Fixed and dilated pupils B) Frequent urination C) Sunset eyes D) Sunlight is "too bright"

Sunlight is "too bright" Photophobia, or intolerance of light, is another symptom of bacterial meningitis. Fixed and dilated pupils are a symptom of head trauma and warrant prompt intervention. Frequent urination is a symptom of a type I Arnold-Chiari malformation. Sunset eyes indicate increased intracranial pressure typical of hydrocephalus.

The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old boy who has chronic epilepsy. What would be most important to address when teaching the child and parents about living with this condition? A) Multiple corrective surgeries to slowly remove diseased parts of his brain B) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy to maximize his potential C) Support for maintaining self-esteem because of his altered lifestyle D) Hyperventilation therapy to counteract the periods of decreased oxygenation

Support for maintaining self-esteem because of his altered lifestyle The effects of living with a seizure disorder can be devastating, and it is essential for the child to receive support to maintain self-esteem. While corrective surgery is possible, it would only be performed once. Physical, occupational, speech, and hyperventilation therapy are not indicated for treatment of epilepsy.