Performance - Level 2

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Which factors might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA? i. large flap angles ii. small flap angles iii. high air pressure iv. low air pressure v. high aircraft weights vi. low aircraft weights

(i), (iii) and (vi)

In dry conditions, when landing at an alternate airport in a turbojet by what factor should the landing distance available changed to give landing distance?

0.6

The reduction to be applied to the gross gradient to obtain the net gradient for a twin-engine aeroplane is:

0.8 percent

If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by:

15%

What is the maximum angle of bank planned for in a curved flight path during climb out on aircraft over 5700 kg?

15°

An aircraft has a mass of 5700 kg, the drag at best climb speed is 6675 N and the thrust available is 15.6 kN. The gradient of climb would be:

16%

Commuter aircraft are propeller driven twin engine aircraft that have a seating configuration of... or fewer and a max. Certificated T.O.W. of... or less.

19, 19000 lb

Runway 30 is in use and the threshold elevation is 2139 feet, threshold elevation of runway 12 is 2289 feet. Take-off run available is 1720 metres and clearway is 280 metres. What is the slope of the runway in use?

2.65% uphill

The maximum reduction in thrust permitted, when performing a reduced thrust take-off, is... percent of that required for a normal take-off.

25

The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration:

30%

What is the minimum height to fly level at the beginning of the third segment?

400 ft

At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?

400 ft above field elevation

An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:

4500 metres

Which wind component are you allowed to use when determining the required runway length for landing?

50% head wind and 150 % tail wind

Assuming that the acceleration is constant during the take-off, if the take-off speed is increased by 3%, the Take-off distance will increase by:

6%

An aircraft has a descent gradient of 4.8% with the engine inoperative. For the purpose of compliance with the en-route requirements, the distance travelled during a height loss of 2000 ft would be (Class B single engine):

6.2 NM

At sea level ISA an aircraft has a rate of climb of 650ft/min at an indicated airspeed of 85kts. The climb gradient in still air is:

7.5 percent

An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle- corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:

90 m + 0.125 D

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?

Air temperature warmer than standard

Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?

Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components

Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?

Allowable take-off mass decreases

A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

An increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

Referring to the diagram 4-24 in CAP 698, why does the curve for an equivalent weight of 35,000 kg, only start 4 mins after engine failure?

At that weight the aircraft takes longer to slowdown to the optimum drift down speed

During a driftdown following engine failure, what would be the correct procedure to follow?

Begin fuel jettison immediately, commensurate with having required reserves at destination

During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.

By selecting a higher flap setting

Which of the equations below expresses approximately the un-accelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100

What is the effect of extending flaps on climb gradient and rate of climb?

Climb gradient decreases and rate of climb decreases

Which of the following is not affected by a wind component on take-off?

Climb limited TOM

Which of the following light twins will get more control difficulties if the left engine stops when airborne from the runway 36 and there is reported wind from 270/10 kt?

Clockwise rotation propellers

After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied?

Drift Down Procedure

Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?

Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads larger than 1

When does THRUST = DRAG?

Flying level at a constant IAS

Which of the following statements is true (single engine class B)?

For planning purposes the landing distance required should be based on the ISA temperature appropriate to the pressure altitude

How does airplane weight influence best angle of glide?

Glide angle is not affected by airplane weight

Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?

High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature

The temperature at an airfield at 3 000 ft AMSL is 84° F. This represents:

ISA +20° C

For jet-engine aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?

Increases

What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope?

It increases with a downhill slope

The minimum acceptable performance requirements for a Class A aeroplane are contained in the following document:

JAR25

The operational regulations regarding scheduled performance are contained in the following document:

Joint Airworthiness Requirements - Operations (JAR-OPS)

A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?

Maximum Operating Speed

Descending at a constant IAS and a constant gradient of descent, the pitch angle must be:

Progressively decreased

Maximum abandonment speed is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can:

Safely abandon the take-off in the event of an engine failure or with all engines operating

A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?

Straight flight

Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?

Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed

The purpose of the MAT limited TOM is to ensure that in the event of the critical engine failing:

The aircraft can comply with the most severe gradient requirement of the Net Take-off Flight Path

Which is true about flight on the back end of the 'power curve/drag curve'?

The aircraft is speed unstable

Pressure altitude is:

The altimeter indication when 1013.25 Hpa is set on the sub-scale

Which of the following statements is correct?

The increased V2 procedure would only be used if the climb limited take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass

With regard to a un-accelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement is correct?

The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass

What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?

The speed for best angle of descent increases

What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?

The speed is unstable

During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1?

The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available

Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?

The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes

What is the effect of an increased flap setting on VDmin (minimum drag speed)?

VDmin decreases

The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:

VLOF in terms of ground speed

If not VMBE or Vmcg limited, what would V1 be limited by:

VR

Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by:

VR and VMCG

What is the effect of extending flaps on VX and VY?

VX decreases and VY decreases

Which speed represents the manoeuvring speed?

Va

Which speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

Vfe

Which airspeed provides the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

Vx

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

Vx

Which airspeed provides the greatest gain in altitude in a given period of time?

Vy

Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?

Weight, drag and thrust

The maximum level flight speed will be obtained:

When the power required equals the maximum available power

Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:

a longer take-off distance and a better climb

The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:

a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2

It may be advantageous to fly below the optimum range altitude because:

a more favourable wind may give a greater ground distance

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35° . If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25° , the aircraft will have:

a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:

decrease

In a glide (power off descent) if pitch angle is increased, glide distance will:

decrease

The effect of a runway contaminated with 0.5 cm of slush on take-off calculations would be to decrease the TOM,...

decrease V1 and decrease VR

During climb, the maximum rate of climb:

decreases

The aquaplaning speed :

decreases if contaminant density increases, and tyre pressure decreases

Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:

decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb

The induced drag of an aeroplane:

decreases with increasing airspeed

If the flap angle is reduced below the optimum take-off setting, the field limited take-off mass... and the climb gradient limited mass...

decreases, increases

V1 has to be:

equal to or higher than VMCG

With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:

equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio

Stalling speed in landing configuration are certified with:

flaps in landing configuration and gear down

A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):

has no effect on rate of climb

Balanced V1 is selected:

if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance

The optimum cruise altitude increases:

if the aeroplane mass is decreased

If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:

increase the maximum mass for take-off

Uphill slope:

increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance

The aerodynamic ceiling:

is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same

The speed VR:

is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated

In high density the landing TAS and distance will be:

lower / shorter

If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:

lower with a forward centre of gravity position

All other factors being equal minimum drag speed is...

proportional to weight

Descending from cruising altitude to ground level at a constant IAS in a headwind, compared to still air conditions, will:

reduce the ground distance taken

At an airfield which has a high absolute humidity compared to an airfield with low absolute humidity:

the aircraft will produce less thrust because the density is reduced

For a multi engine aircraft not certified under JAR 25 and in Performance Class B, service ceiling is defined as:

the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 100ft per minute

A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. The speed corresponds to:

the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve

To determine the landing distance required (Class B single engine):

the reported headwind component must be factored by 0.5 and the reported tailwind component by 1.5

For an aircraft powered by turbo-prop engines the landing distance required at an alternate will be:

the same as that required at a destination aerodrome

During the landing run with wheel brakes applied and engines in reverse thrust, as the speed decreases :

the wheel brakes become more effective, reverse thrust becomes less effective

The maximum speed that can be achieved in level flight will occur :

when the drag is equal to the maximum thrust available

For a given flight level the speed range determined by the buffet onset boundary will decrease with:

with a more forward centre of gravity


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