Pharm 2 Exam 5
The nurse will be giving ophthalmic drugs to a patient with glaucoma. Which drug is used to reduce intraocular pressure? A. mannitol B. bacitracin C. tobramycin D. ketorolac
A. mannitol
A few months later, it is determined that Jane is not responding to treatment and is now prescribed isotretinoin. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching Jane about isotretinoin therapy? A. "Call your prescriber immediately if you experience any signs of depression." B. "If you should become pregnant, the dose of isotretinoin will be cut in half." C. "Isotretinoin is administered by subcutaneous injection directly into the acne areas." D. "Isotretinoin should not be used with any form of birth control."
A. "Call your prescriber immediately if you experience any signs of depression."
A father calls because his son has head lice. He reports that he used "that special medicated shampoo three times, but nothing happened." He wants to know what to do now. What will the nurse advise first? A. "Use a nit comb to remove nits from the hair shafts." B. "It sounds like you need a prescription for a second product, malathion." C. "Try combing through the hair with mineral oil to loosen the lice from the hair shafts." D. "Try one of the lotion products instead."
A. "Use a nit comb to remove nits from the hair shafts."
The order for a patient who has a severely infected skin wound reads, "Administer clindamycin (Cleocin) 300 mg diluted in 50 mL 0.9% NS IVPB every 6 hours. Infuse over 30 minutes". When calculating the rate for this IVPB, the nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate? A. 100 mL/hr B. 50 mL/hr C. 75 mL/hr D. 150 mL/hr
A. 100 mL/hr 50/30x60=100 mL/hr
A patient has an order for an IV to infuse at 75 mL/hr. The IV will infuse by gravity drip; the administration set delivers 15 gtt/mL. What is the gtt/min that the nurse will need to use for this infusion? A. 19 gtt/min B. 37 gtt/min C. 29 gtt/min D. 15 gtt/min
A. 19 gtt/min
A nurse is working in an immunization clinic. A new colleague asks, "When is the first dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DtaP, Daptacel) given?" The nurse knows that this series is started at what age? A. 6 weeks B. 3 months C. At birth D. 1 year
A. 6 weeks
The nurse is preparing to administer an injection of monoclonal antibodies. Which additional drug will the nurse administer to minimize adverse reactions to the monoclonal antibodies? A. A corticosteroid B. A benzodiazepine C. An opioid pain reliever D. A nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)
A. A corticosteroid
A patient has a painful sunburn that covers a large area of her body and has asked the nurse for "something to make it feel better". The nurse keeps in mind that which formulation of topical medication will be easiest to use to cover this large area? A. Aerosol spray B. Gel C. Oil D. Cream
A. Aerosol spray
During the assessment of a glaucoma patient who has newly prescribed carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eyedrops, the nurse would report a history of which condition? A. Allergy to sulfa drugs. B. Decreased renal function. C. Diabetes mellitus. D. Hypertension.
A. Allergy to sulfa drugs.
A patient will be receiving testosterone therapy for male hypogonadism and has a new prescription for transdermal testosterone (Testoderm). The nurse needs to include which teaching about the use of this medication? A. Apply the patch only to the scrotum. B. Apply the patch to the chest, back, or shoulders. C. If the adverse effects become bothersome, the patient should stop using the patch. D. The patch should be applied to a different area of the upper body each day.
A. Apply the patch only to the scrotum.
The clear, watery fluid that circulates in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye is called ______________. A. Aqueous humor B. Mydriatics C. Vitreous humor D. Miosis
A. Aqueous humor
Methotrexate is ordered for a patient with a malignant tumor, and the nurse is providing education about self-care after the chemotherapy is given. Which statements by the nurse are appropriate for the patient receiving methotrexate? (Select all that apply. A. Avoid foods that are too hot or too cold or rough in texture. B. Prepare for hair loss. C. Hair loss is not expected with this drug. D. Avoid straight-edged razors. E. Restrict fluid intake to reduce nausea and vomiting. F. Report unusual bleeding or bruising.
A. Avoid foods that are too hot or too cold or rough in texture. B. Prepare for hair loss. D. Avoid straight-edged razors. F. Report unusual bleeding or bruising.
The nurse is reviewing the medication list for a patient who will be receiving mitotane (Lysodren) treatments. A drug from which class would cause the most concern if administered along with the mitotane? A. Benzodiazepine B. Thyroid replacement hormone C. Insulin D. Beta blocker
A. Benzodiazepine
While administering bevacizumab (Avastin), what will the nurse assess to look for drug-related toxicities? (Select all that apply). A. Blood pressure B. Color of the skin and sclera of the eye (for jaundice) C. Blood glucose level D. Urine protein level E. Hearing F. Weight
A. Blood pressure D. Urine protein level F. Weight
When administering antineoplastic drugs, the nurse needs to keep in mind that the general adverse effects of these drugs include (Select all that apply). A. Bone marrow suppression B. Infertility C. Diarrhea D. Urinary retention E. Nausea and vomiting F. Stomatitis
A. Bone marrow suppression B. Infertility C. Diarrhea E. Nausea and vomiting F. Stomatitis
The nurse is monitoring a patient who has developed thrombocytopenia after 2 rounds of chemotherapy. Which signs or symptoms will the nurse look for in this patient? (Select all that apply). A. Bruising B. Increased fatigue C. Ulcerations on mucous membranes inside the mouth. D. Temperature above 100.5°F (38.1°C) E. Increased bleeding from venipuncture
A. Bruising E. Increased bleeding from venipuncture
Abatacept is prescribed for a patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication would need to be used cautiously if which condition is present? A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Coronary artery disease C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus
A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
A patient is experiencing stomatitis after a round of chemotherapy. Which intervention by the nurse is correct? A. Clean the mouth with a soft bristle toothbrush and warm saline solution. B. Rinse the mouth with commercial mouthwash twice a day. C. Use lemon-glycerin swabs to keep the mouth moist. D. Keep dentures in mouth between meals.
A. Clean the mouth with a soft bristle toothbrush and warm saline solution.
The nurse is administering topical antiviral drugs. Which statements about these drugs are true? (Select all that apply). A. Common adverse effects include stinging, itching, and rash. B. Topically applied acyclovir (Zovirax) does not cure viral skin infections but does seem to decrease the healing time and pain. C. Topically applied acyclovir can cure viral skin infections if applied as soon as symptoms appear. D. Antiviral drugs are applied topically for the treatment of both initial and recurrent herpes simplex infections. E. Topical antiviral drugs are used more often than systemic antiviral drugs for the treatment of viral skin conditions.
A. Common adverse effects include stinging, itching, and rash. B. Topically applied acyclovir (Zovirax) does not cure viral skin infections but does seem to decrease the healing time and pain. D. Antiviral drugs are applied topically for the treatment of both initial and recurrent herpes simplex infections.
A nurse is administering doxorubicin to a patient in the outpatient oncology clinic. Which information would be most important for the nurse to include in patient teaching plan? A. Contact physician if there is any chest pain or shortness of breath B. Blood counts will most likely remain normal C. Complete alopecia rarely occurs with this drug D. The pregnancy risk category is B
A. Contact physician if there is any chest pain or shortness of breath
Which adverse effects will the nurse expect in a teenage patient who is using topical tretinoin? (Select all that apply.) A. Crusted skin B. Rosacea C. Altered skin pigmentation D. Red and edematous blisters E. Itching
A. Crusted skin C. Altered skin pigmentation D. Red and edematous blisters
A patient has undergone an eye procedure during which ophthalmic mydriatics and anesthetic drops were used. The nurse gives which instructions to the patient prior to discharge? (Select all that apply). A. Do not rub or touch the numb eye. B. You may reinsert your contact lenses before you leave. C. Be sure to wear sunglasses when you go outside. D. Your pupils will appear very tiny until the medication wears off. E. Report any increase in eye pain or drainage to the ophthalmologist immediately.
A. Do not rub or touch the numb eye. C. Be sure to wear sunglasses when you go outside. E. Report any increase in eye pain or drainage to the ophthalmologist immediately.
Before giving eardrops, the nurse checks for potential contraindications to the use of otic preparations, such as which of these conditions? A. Eardrum perforation B. Infection C. Presence of cerumen D. Mastoiditis
A. Eardrum perforation
The nurse is preparing to give a 2nd dose of DTaP vaccine to a 6-month-old infant. The infant's mother tells the nurse that the last time he received this vaccination, the injection site on his leg became warm and slightly reddened. What is the nurse's best action? A. Explain that these effects are expected and give the medication. B. Give half the prescribed dose this week and half next week if tolerated well. C. Skip the dose and notify the MD. D. Wait 6 months and then administer the dose.
A. Explain that these effects are expected and give the medication.
When planning care for a patient who is receiving interferon therapy, the nurse must keep in mind that the major dose-limiting factor is: A. Fatigue B. Bone marrow suppression C. Fever D. Nausea and vomiting
A. Fatigue
The nurse is monitoring a patient who has severe bone marrow suppression following antineoplastic drug therapy. Which is considered the principal early sign of infection? A. Fever B. Tachycardia C. Elevated white blood cell count D. Diaphoresis
A. Fever
During drug therapy with basiliximab, the nurse monitors for signs of cytokine release syndrome, which results in: A. Fever, dyspnea, and general malaise. B. Neurotoxicity and peripheral neuropathy. C. Hepatotoxicity and jaundice. D. Thrombocytopenia with increased bleeding tendencies.
A. Fever, dyspnea, and general malaise.
A patient must be treated immediately for acute organ transplant rejection. The nurse anticipates that muromonab-CD3 will be ordered. What is the priority assessment before beginning drug therapy with muromonab-CD3? A. Fluid volume status B. Blood glucose level C. Serum potassium level D. Electrocardiogram
A. Fluid volume status
Excessive intraocular pressure caused by obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor is called ___________. A. Glaucoma B. Cataract C. Conjunctivitis D. Cycloplegia
A. Glaucoma
A patient calls the clinic because she realized she missed one dose of an oral contraceptive. Which statement from the nurse is appropriate? (Select all that apply). A. Go ahead and take the missed dose now, along with today's dose. B. Don't worry, you are still protected from pregnancy. C. Please come to the clinic for reevaluation of your therapy. D. Wait 7 days, then start a new pack of pills. E. You will need to use a backup form of contraception concurrently for 7 days.
A. Go ahead and take the missed dose now, along with today's dose. E. You will need to use a backup form of contraception concurrently for 7 days.
A patient will be taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune) after transplant surgery. Which of thess are potential adverse effects of cyclosporine therapy? (Select all that apply) A. HTN B. Fever C. Nephrotoxicity D. Fluid retention E. Hypotension F. Posttransplant DM
A. HTN C. Nephrotoxicity F. Posttransplant DM
The nurse is preparing to administer carbamide peroxide (Debrox) to an adult patient with impacted cerumen. Which actions by the nurse are correct? (Select all that apply). A. Have the patient lie on his or her side with the affected ear up. B. Chill the medication before administering it. C. Pull the pinna of the ear up and back. D. Pull the pinna of the ear down and back. E. Gently irrigate the ear with warm water to remove the softened earwax.
A. Have the patient lie on his or her side with the affected ear up. C. Pull the pinna of the ear up and back. E. Gently irrigate the ear with warm water to remove the softened earwax.
During therapy with hematopoietic drugs, the nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) A. Headache B. Black, tarry stools C. Edema D. Diarrhea E. Hypotension
A. Headache C. Edema D. Diarrhea
When chemotherapy with alkylating drugs is planned, the nurse expects to implement which intervention to prevent nephrotoxicity? A. Hydrating the patient with IV fluids before chemotherapy. B. Limiting fluids before chemotherapy. C. Monitoring drug levels during chemotherapy. D. Assessing creatinine clearance during chemotherapy.
A. Hydrating the patient with IV fluids before chemotherapy.
Which condition does the nurse anticipate when assessing a patient with tumor lysis syndrome? A. Hyperuricemia B. Hypophosphatemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia
A. Hyperuricemia
The nurse is assessing a patient who has developed anemia after 2 rounds of chemotherapy. Which of these may be indications of anemia? (Select all that apply). A. Hypoxia B. Fever C. Infection D. Bleeding E. Fatigue
A. Hypoxia E. Fatigue
The nurse is instructing a parent on the use of lindane (Kwell) shampoo for treatment of a child's head lice. Which statement by the patent indicates a need for further education? A. I will wash his hair, and then rinse our the shampoo immediately. B. I will leave the shampoo on his hair for 4 minutes before rinsing. C. After shampooing, I will rinse and dry his hair. D. When the hair is dry, I will comb the hair to remove the nits.
A. I will wash his hair, and then rinse our the shampoo immediately.
When the nurse is teaching patients about postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy, which statement is correct? A. It is not recommended in patients with a history of endometrial cancer. B. Use is recommended and beneficial in older women. C. Estrogen therapy should be long term to prevent menopausal symptoms. D. If estrogen is taken, supplemental calcium will not be needed.
A. It is not recommended in patients with a history of endometrial cancer.
A patient will be starting therapy with etanercept (Enbrel) as part of treatment for severe RA. Which conditions, if present, may be a contraindication for this drug? (Select all that apply) A. Latex allergy B. Active bacterial infection C. DM D. Latent TB E. Acute Hep B F. Peanut allergy
A. Latex allergy B. Active bacterial infection D. Latent TB E. Acute Hep B
A patient is beginning a new prescription for raloxifene (Evista). The nurse will teach the patient to expect which potential adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A. Leg cramps B. Loss of appetite C. Diarrhea D. Hot flashes E. Drowsiness
A. Leg cramps D. Hot flashes
A patient has a new prescription for finasteride (Proscar). The nurse will instruct the patient about which potential adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A. Loss of erection B. Gynecomastia C. Headaches D. Increased libido E. Ejaculatory dysfunction
A. Loss of erection B. Gynecomastia E. Ejaculatory dysfunction
While teaching a patient about treatment of otitis media, the nurse should mention that untreated otitis media may lead to: A. Mastoiditis B. Throat infections C. Fungal ear infections D. Decreased cerumen production
A. Mastoiditis
Drugs that constrict the pupil are called ___________. A. Miotics B. Mydriatics C. Antibiotics D. Bacteriostatics
A. Miotics
The nurse notes in the patient's medication history that the patient is taking natalizumab (Tysabri). Based on this finding the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Crohn's disease
A. Multiple sclerosis
While teaching a patient about the possible adverse effects of the interferons, the nurse should mention which effects? (Select all that appy) A. Myalgia B. Fever C. Diarrhea D. Fatigue E. Chills F. Dizziness
A. Myalgia B. Fever C. Diarrhea D. Fatigue E. Chills
When assessing for otitis media, the nurse remembers that common symptoms of this condition include which of the following? (Select all that apply). A. Pain B. Malaise C. Ear drainage D. Hearing loss E. Fever
A. Pain B. Malaise D. Hearing loss E. Fever
During a counseling session for a group of teenage athletes, the use of androgenic steroids is discussed. The nurse will explain that which problem is a rare but devastating effect of androgenic steroid use? A. Peliosis of the liver B. Bradycardia C. Kidney failure D. Tachydysrhythmias
A. Peliosis of the liver
When assessing a patient who is to begin therapy with an immunosuppressant drug, the nurse recognizes that such drugs should be used cautiously in patients with which conditions? (Select all that apply). A. Pregnancy B. Glaucoma C. Anemia D. Myalgia E. Renal dysfunction F. Hepatic dysfunction
A. Pregnancy E. Renal dysfunction F. Hepatic dysfunction
The nurse identifies which description as the method of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma? A. Producing miosis increasing outflow of aqueous humor. B. Decreasing the production and formation of aqueous humor. C. Vasoconstriction, thereby inhibiting the flow of aqueous humor. D. Producing cycloplegia, decreasing pupillary response.
A. Producing miosis increasing outflow if aqueous humor.
Which antiglaucoma drug works by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor between the uvea and sclera as well as via the usual exit through the trabecular meshwork? A. Prostaglandins B. Osmotic diuretics C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors D. Ophthalmic beta blockers
A. Prostaglandins
As the nurse is preparing to give the patient chemotherapy, the patient asks the nurse why more than one drug is used. The nurse will explain that combinations of chemotherapeutic drugs are used to: A. Reduce drug resistance. B. Reduce the incidence of adverse effects. C. Decrease the cost of treatment. D. Reduce treatment time.
A. Reduce drug resistance.
A 45-year-old man has received a series of immunizing drugs in preparation for a trip to a developing country. Within hours, his wife brings him to the emergency department because he has developed edema of the face, tongue, and throat and is having trouble breathing. The nurse suspects that, based on the patient's history and symptoms, he is experiencing which condition? A. Serum sickness B. Cross-sensitivity C. Adenopathy D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
A. Serum sickness
Before using povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution to prepare skin for surgery, the nurse will ask the patient about allergies to which substance? A. Shellfish B. Penicillin C. Mercury D. Milk
A. Shellfish
After administering an ophthalmic anesthetic drug, which adverse effects does the nurse anticipate as possibly developing in the patient? (Select all that apply.) A. Stinging B. Burning C. Redness D. Lacrimation E. Blurred vision
A. Stinging B. Burning C. Redness D. Lacrimation E. Blurred vision
What is the nurse's priority action if extravasation of an antineoplastic drug occurs during intravenous (IV) administration? A. Stop the infusion immediately, but leave the IV catheter in place. B. Reduce the infusion rate. C. Change the infusion to normal saline, and inject the area with hydrocortisone. D. Discontinue the IV, and apply warm compresses.
A. Stop the infusion immediately, but leave the IV catheter in place.
A woman who is taking isotretinoin calls the office to say that she thinks she may be pregnant. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do first? A. Stop the isotretinoin immediately. B. Reduce the dosage of the isotretinoin to every other day. C. Switch to tretinoin (retinoic acid). D. Consult an obstetrician.
A. Stop the isotretinoin immediately.
A patient will be receiving fluorouracil (Efudex) cream as part of treatment for basal cell carcinoma of skin on her nose. The nurse will instruct the patient about which possible adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A. Swelling B. Scaling C. Pallor D. Burning E. Tenderness
A. Swelling B. Scaling D. Burning E. Tenderness
When teaching a patient who is receiving outpatient chemo about potential problems, the nurse needs to mention s/s of an oncologic emergency, which include which of the following? A. Swollen tongue B. Alopecia C. Blood in the urine D. Temp of 100.5 F or higher E. Chills F. Nausea and vomiting
A. Swollen tongue C. Blood in the urine D. Temp of 100.5 F or higher E. Chills
The day before a third round of chemotherapy, the nurse reads that a patient's neutrophil count is 1650 cells/mm3. The nurse expects that the oncologist will follow which course of treatment? A. The chemotherapy will be started as scheduled. B. The chemotherapy will be given at a lower dosage rate. C. The oncologist will order a neutrophil transfusion to be given first. D. The chemotherapy will not be given today.
A. The chemotherapy will be started as scheduled.
Which statement accurately describes antifungal therapy for topical infections? A. The length of treatment required to eradicate the organism may be from several weeks to as long as 1 year. B. Antifungal therapy works best when the affected area is exposed to sunlight. C. Oral drugs are the preferred drugs for treating topical fungal infections. D. Antifungal therapy is palliative only; fungi are rarely eradicated from topical areas.
A. The length of treatment required to eradicate the organism may be from several weeks to as long as 1 year.
The nurse is providing teaching for patients taking immunosuppressants will include which information? (Select all that apply) A. The mouth and tongue should be inspected carefully for white patches. B. Allergic reactions to these drugs are rare. C. Patients should avoid crowds to minimize the risk of infection. D. Patients should report any fever, sore throat, chills, or joint pain. E. Patients should take oral forms with food to avoid GI upset.
A. The mouth and tongue should be inspected carefully for white patches. C. Patients should avoid crowds to minimize the risk of infection. D. Patients should report any fever, sore throat, chills, or joint pain. E. Patients should take oral forms with food to avoid GI upset.
The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient who is to receive wound care with topical silver sulfadiazine. Which finding, if noted, would be a potential contraindication? A. The patient is allergic to sulfa drugs. B. The patient's burn wound has been debrided. C. The patient is allergic to shellfish. D. The patient has an open wound from a burn on her arm.
A. The patient is allergic to sulfa drugs.
The nursing student would correctly identify which description as the method of action of the alkylating agents? A. These agents alter the chemical structure of the cells' DNA. B. These agents interfere with the ability of the cell to initiate angiogenesis. C. These agents enhance the host's immune response. D. These agents disrupt cellular cytoplasm, and the cell dies.
A. These agents alter the chemical structure of the cells' DNA.
The nurse recognizes that use of estrogen drugs is contraindicated in which patient? A. history of thrombophlebitis B. diagnosed with inoperable prostate cancer C. has atrophic vaginitis D. a woman wanting to prevent postpartum lactation
A. history of thrombophlebitis
When combination oral contraceptives are given to provide postcoital emergency contraception, the nurse must remember which fact? A. They are not effective if the woman is already pregnant. B. They should be taken within 12 hours of unprotected intercourse. C. They are given in one dose. D. They are intended to terminate pregnancy.
A. They are not effective if the woman is already pregnant.
Which statement about use of corticosteroids for ocular inflammation does the nurse identify as being true? A. They are used during the acute phase of the injury process to prevent fibrosis and scarring, which result in visual impairment. B. Corticosteroids produce a lesser immunosuppressant effect than the NSAIDs. C. They are used for the treatment of minor abrasions and wounds of the eye. D. Use of corticosteroids for ocular inflammation results in discoloration of the iris.
A. They are used during the acute phase of the injury process to prevent fibrosis and scarring, which result in visual impairment.
When the nurse is providing wound care with Dakin's solution for a patient who has a stage III pressure ulcer, the patient exclaims, "I smell bleach! Why are you putting bleach on me?" What is the nurse's best explanation? A. This is a very dilute solution and acts to reduce the bacteria in the wound so that it can heal. B. This solution is used instead of medication to promote wound healing. C. This solution is used to dissolve the dead tissue in your wound. D. Don't worry; we would never use bleach on a patient!
A. This is a very dilute solution and acts to reduce the bacteria in the wound so that it can heal.
The nurse is providing patient teaching to a 24 year old women regarding the HPV vaccine. Which statement by the woman indicates that more teaching is necessary? A. This vaccine only takes one injection. B. I need to have this vaccine before I turn 26. C. It is safe to take this vaccine if I am pregnant. D. This vaccination prevents the virus that commonly causes genital warts. E. My 13 year old sister should take this vaccine too.
A. This vaccine only takes one injection. C. It is safe to take this vaccine if I am pregnant.
A patient has started azathioprine therapy as part of renal transplant surgery. The nurse will monitor for which expected adverse effect of azathioprine therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. Thrombocytopenia B. Tremors C. Diarrhea D. Hepatotoxicity E. Leukopenia
A. Thrombocytopenia D. Hepatotoxicity E. Leukopenia
When reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes an order for carbamide peroxide eardrops. Based on this information, the nurse interprets that these eardrops are being used for which purpose? A. To loosen the cerumen for easier removal B. To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal C. To reduce inflammation D. To reduce production of cerumen
A. To loosen the cerumen for easier removal
A 48-year-old man asks the nurse practitioner for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He is currently taking transdermal nitroglycerin, hydrochlorothiazide, and potassium supplements for cardiac problems, as well as a multivitamin with iron. Which medication would be a cause for concern if taken with the sildenafil? A. Transdermal nitroglycerin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Potassium D. Multivitamin with iron
A. Transdermal nitroglycerin
The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a patient wo is about to receive therapy with etanercept (Enbrel). Which conditions, if present, would be a contraindication or caution for therapy with this drug? (Select all that apply). A. Urinary tract infection B. Psoriasis C. Heart failure D. Glaucoma E. Latex allergy
A. Urinary tract infection C. Heart failure E. Latex allergy
The nurse has provided patient education regarding therapy with the SERM raloxifene (Evista). Which statement from the patient reflects a good understanding of the instructions? A. When I take that long flight to Asia, I will need to stop taking this drug at least 3 days before I travel. B. I can continue this drug even while traveling as long as I take it with a full glass of water each time. C. After I take this drug, I must sit upright for at least 30 minutes. D. One advantage of this drug is that it will reduce my hot flashes.
A. When I take that long flight to Asia, I will need to stop taking this drug at least 3 days before I travel.
The patient improved within the first three months of treatment with methotrexate. Six months later, the patient experienced worsening of symptoms. The prescriber will most likely order which monoclonial antibody for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? A. adalimumab (Humira) B. trastuzumab (Herceptin) C. rituximab (Rituxan) D. cetuximab (Erbitux)
A. adalimumab (Humira)
A 2-year-old is seen in the pediatrician's office with a bacterial middle ear infection. Which medication does the nurse anticipate being prescribed for the child? A. amoxicillin B. Cortic C. carbamide peroxide (Debrox) D. Acetasol HC
A. amoxicillin
When handling and administering vesicant drugs the nurse will: A. double-flush the patient's bodily secretions in the commode. B. use sterile towels to clean up after chemotherapy spills. C. mix chemotherapeutic drugs in the patient's room. D. teach the patient how to administer parenteral chemotherapeutic drugs.
A. double-flush the patient's bodily secretions in the commode.
A male patient wants to know if there are any drugs that can be used for baldness. The nurse knows that which drug, in low dosages, is used for androgenic alopecia in men? A. finasteride (Proscar) B. vardenafil (Levitra) C. danazol (Danocrine) D. oxandrolone (Oxandrin)
A. finasteride (Proscar)
Which drugs are indicated for the treatment of MS? Select all that apply A. glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) B. azathioprine (Imuran) C. basiliximab (Simulect) D. daclizumab (Zenapax) E. fingolimod (Gilenya)
A. glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) E. fingolimod (Gilenya)
A 40-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic. She has been newly diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication does the nurse anticipate being ordered for the patient? A. methotrexate B. adalimumab C. infliximab D. Etanercept
A. methotrexate
A 60-year-old male with a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy and hypertension is seen in the Emergency Department because he was trimming his shrubs and got something in his right eye. He complains of a pain rating of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10 in the right eye. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering via eyedrop to help control the patient's pain? A. tetracaine B. atropine C. morphine D. Lidocaine
A. tetracaine
The client diagnosed with bilateral conjunctivitis is prescribed antibiotic ophthalmic ointment. What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. tilt the patient's head back and have him or her look up at the ceiling. B. Apply ointments and any other ophthalmic topical drug dosage form to the conjunctival sac and never directly onto the eye itself (cornea) C. Touch the eye with the tip of the dropper when administering medication D. Applying pressure to the inner canthus after instillation of medication E. Don sterile gloves prior to administrating the medication.
A. tilt the patient's head back and have him or her look up at the ceiling. B. Apply ointments and any other ophthalmic topical drug dosage form to the conjunctival sac and never directly onto the eye itself (cornea) D. Applying pressure to the inner canthus after instillation of medication
A patient has an order for the varicella vaccine. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for A. use of high dose systemic steroids in the past month. B. allergy to aspirin. C. allergy to eggs. D. history of hypertension.
A. use of high dose systemic steroids in the past month.
During a patient's therapy with interleukins, the nurse monitors the patient for capillary leak syndrome. Which assessment finding, if present, would indicate this problem? A. Bradycardia B. A sudden, 15-pound weight gain C. A dry cough D. Bruising on the skin
B. A sudden, 15-pound weight gain
A 16-year-old male is to receive testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone), 50 mg IM every 2 weeks. The medication is available in 100 mg/mL containers. How many mL will the nurse draw up in the syringe to administer for each dose? A. 1 mL B. 0.5 mL C. 1.5 mL D. 0.3 mL
B. 0.5 mL
A patient is to receive megestrol (Megace) 400 mg each morning as an appetite stimulant. The medication is available in an oral suspension with a concentration of 40 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer for this dose? A. 1 mL B. 10 mL C. 15 mL D. 5 mL
B. 10 mL
A patient will be receiving IV amphotericin B (Fungizone) for a severe fungal infection that has not responded to other medications. The order reads, "75 mg in 1000 mL D5W to infuse over 6 hours". The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate? A. 107 mL/hr B. 167 mL/hr C. 17 mL/hr D. 180 mL/hr
B. 167 mL/hr 1000/6= 167
The order for chemotherapy reads, "Give asparginase (Elspar) IV 200 units/kg/day". The patient weighs 297 lb. The pharmacy department will prepare the medication for IV infusion. How much drug will be given per dose? A. 23,760 units B. 27,000 units C. 24,570 units D. 25,000 units
B. 27,000 units
Adjustment of the lens of the eye for variations in distance is called ________________. A. Cycloplegia B. Accomodation C. Reactive D. Miotic
B. Accomodation
Aldesleukin [IL-2] is prescribed for a patient. The nurse reviews the patient's medication list and would note a potential drug interaction if which drug class is also ordered? A. Oral hypoglycemic drugs B. Antihypertensive drugs C. Anticoagulants D. Antiepileptic drugs
B. Antihypertensive drugs
When applying ophthalmic drugs, the nurse will follow which instructions? (Select all that apply). A. Apply drops directly into cornea. B. Apply drops into the conjunctival sac. C. Apply pressure to the inner canthus for 1 minute after medication administration. D. Apply ointments in a thin layer. E. Avoid touching the eye with the tip of the medication dropper.
B. Apply drops into the conjunctival sac. C. Apply pressure to the inner canthus for 1 minute after medication administration. D. Apply ointments in a thin layer. E. Avoid touching the eye with the tip of the medication dropper.
A pregnant woman is experiencing contractions. The nurse remembers that pharmacologic measures to stop contractions are used during which time frame? A. Before the 20th week of gestation. B. Between the 20th and 37th weeks. C. After the 37th week. D. At any time during the pregnancy if delivery is not desired.
B. Between the 20th and 37th weeks.
The nurse is assessing the skin of a teenage patient who has been using a benzoyl peroxide treatment for 2 weeks as part of treatment for acne. Which assessment findings indicate that the patient is having an allergic reaction and will need to stop treatment? A. Reddened skin over the treatment area. B. Blistering skin over the treatment area. C. Peeling skin over the treatment area. D. Sensation of warmth when the product is applied.
B. Blistering skin over the treatment area.
An abnormal condition of the lens of the eye, characterized by loss of transparency is called _________. A. Glaucoma B. Cataract C. Conjunctivitis D. Cycloplegia
B. Cataract
The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and the exposed anterior surface of the eye is called _______________. A. Uvea B. Conjunctiva C. Sclera D. Cornea
B. Conjunctiva
Paralysis of the ciliary muscles, which prevents accommodation of the lens for variation in distance is called ________________. A. Mydriatics B. Cycloplegia C. Glaucoma D. Cataract
B. Cycloplegia
During a routine checkup, a 72-year-old patient is advised to receive an influenza vaccine injection. He questions this, saying, "I had one last year. Why do I need another one?" What is the nurse's best response? A. The effectiveness of the vaccine wears off after 6 months. B. Each year a new vaccine is developed based on the flu strains that are likely to be in circulation. C. When you reach 65 years of age, you need boosters on an annual basis. D. Taking the flu vaccine each year allows you to build your immunity to a higher level each time.
B. Each year a new vaccine is developed based on the flu strains that are likely to be in circulation.
A patient is receiving cisplatin chemotherapy. What adverse effects will the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.) A. Elevated glucose B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels C. Hearing loss D. Tinnitus E. Heart failure F. Numbness or tingling in the extremities
B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels C. Hearing loss D. Tinnitus F. Numbness or tingling in the extremities
The nurse is assessing a patient who has experienced severe neutropenia after chemotherapy and will monitor for which possible signs of infection? (Select all that apply). A. Elevated WBC count B. Fever C. Nausea D. Sore throat E. Chills
B. Fever D. Sore throat E. Chills
In which situations would androgens be prescribed for a woman? (Select all that apply). A. Development of secondary sex characteristics. B. Fibrocystic breast disease. C. Ovarian cancer. D. Treatment of endometriosis. E. Postmenopausal osteoporosis prevention. F. Inoperable breast cancer.
B. Fibrocystic breast disease. D. Treatment of endometriosis. F. Inoperable breast cancer.
While assessing a patient who is to receive muromonab-CD3, the nurse knows that which condition would be a contraindication for this drug? A. Acute myalgia B. Fluid overload C. Polycythemia D. Diabetes mellitus
B. Fluid overload
When giving chemotherapy as cancer treatment, the nurse recognizes that toxicity to rapidly growing normal cells also occurs. Which rapidly growing normal cells are also harmed by chemotherapy? (Select all that apply.) A. Retinal cells B. Gastrointestinal (GI) mucous membrane cells C. Hair follicle cells D. Bone marrow cells E. Nerve myelin cells
B. Gastrointestinal (GI) mucous membrane cells C. Hair follicle cells D. Bone marrow cells
The nurse is performing wound care on a burned area using silver sulfadiazine cream in a patient with an arm wound. Which actions by the nurse are correct? (Select all that apply). A. Applying the cream over the previous layer to avoid disturbing the wound. B. Gently cleansing the wound to remove the previous layer of cream and wound debris. C. Use clean gloves to apply the ointment. D. Use sterile gloves to apply the ointment. E. Always covering the wound with a dressing after applying the cream. F. Washing hands before and after the procedure.
B. Gently cleansing the wound to remove the previous layer of cream and wound debris. D. Use sterile gloves to apply the ointment. F. Washing hands before and after the procedure.
A male patient who received a kidney transplant 6 months ago is taking cyclosporine. The patient tells the nurse that he has started to take several herbal preparations. Which does not pose a possible problem for the patient? A. St. John's wort B. Ginkgo C. Cat's claw D. Echinacea
B. Gingko
A client is taking Sildenafil. What adverse effects should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan? Select All That Apply A. Hypertension B. Headache C. Priapism D. Hair loss E. GI disturbances
B. Headache C. Priapism E. GI disturbances
In addition to their many other effect on body systems, the nurse would be correct in identifying which of the following as an outcome of androgen therapy? A. Increased sperm production and enhanced fertility. B. Increased RBC production. C. Weight loss. D. Bone resorption.
B. Increased RBC production.
Which potential problem is of most concern for the patient receiving immunosuppressant drugs? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Increased susceptibility to infections C. Neurotoxicity D. Peripheral edema
B. Increased susceptibility to infections
When monitoring patients on immunosuppressant therapy, the nurse must keep in mind that the major risk factor for patients taking these drugs is which condition? A. Severe hypotension with potential renal failure B. Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections C. Decreased platelet aggregation D. Increased bleeding tendencies
B. Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections
When instructing a patient on how to use miconazole (Monistat) vaginal cream for vaginal yeast infections, the nurse will keep in mind that this medication will be given in which manner? A. Insert once every other day at bedtime for 1 week. B. Insert once daily at bedtime for 7 consecutive days. C. A one-time dose is administered in the morning. D. Insert every night at bedtime until symptoms stop.
B. Insert once daily at bedtime for 7 consecutive days.
The nurse is conducting a class on drugs for malignant tumors for a group of new oncology staff members. Which best describes the action of interferons in the management of malignant tumors? A. Interferons increase the production of specific anticancer enzymes. B. Interferons have antiviral and antitumor properties and strengthen the immune system. C. Interferons stimulate the production and activation of T lymphocytes and cytotoxic T cells. D. Interferons help improve the cell-killing action of T cells because they are retrieved from healthy donors.
B. Interferons have antiviral and antitumor properties and strengthen the immune system.
When assessing a patient who is receiving a direct-acting cholinergic eyedrop as part of the treatment for glaucoma, the nurse anticipates that the drug affects the pupil in which way? A. It causes mydriasis, or pupil dilation. B. It causes miosis, or pupil constriction. C. It changes the color of the pupil. D. It causes no change in pupil size.
B. It causes miosis, or pupil constriction.
Bevacizumab (Avastin) is an angiogenesis inhibitor. Which statement correctly describes the mechanism of action of an angiogenesis inhibitor? A. It inhibits the formation of blood cells. B. It inhibits the creation of new blood vessels in the tumor mass. C. It interferes with the synthesis of DNA in the cancer tumor. D. It causes cell death by inhibiting enzymes.
B. It inhibits the creation of new blood vessels in the tumor mass.
A patient receiving chemo for a testicular tumor complains of hearing a loud ringing sound in his ears. The nurse expects what to happen next regarding the chemo? A. It will continue as ordered. B. It will be stopped until the patient's hearing is evaluated. C. It will be withheld for a day then continued. D. It will be stopped until renal studies are performed.
B. It will be stopped until the patient's hearing is evaluated.
The most serious side effects of progestins include which of the following? A. Menopause B. Liver dysfunction C. Myocardial infarction D. Pancreatic insufficiency
B. Liver dysfunction
A 19-year-old college football player asks a nurse about taking steroids to help him "beef-up" his muscles. Which statement is true? A. There should be no problems as long as he does not exceed the recommended dosage. B. Long-term use may cause a life-threatening liver condition. C. He would need to be careful to watch for excessive weight loss. D. These drugs also tend to increase the male's sperm count.
B. Long-term use may cause a life-threatening liver condition.
A client diagnosed with glaucoma is receiving a dipivefrin, a sympathomimetic eyedrop. What assessment finding would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication? A. Miosis B. Mydriasis C. The eye changes color. D. Size of the pupil is not affected.
B. Mydriasis
What type of immunization occurs when antibodies pass from mother to infant during breastfeeding or through the placenta during pregnancy? A. Artificial active immunization B. Natural passive immunization C. Artificial passive immunization D. Attenuating immunization
B. Natural passive immunization
When teaching a patient who is taking oral contraceptive therapy for the first time, the nurse relates that adverse effects may include which of the following? A. Dizziness B. Nausea C. Tingling in the extremities D. Polyuria
B. Nausea
Which of the following are common adverse effects of estrogen therapy? Select all that apply A. Weight loss B. Nausea C. Dehydration D. Chloasma E. Photosensitivity
B. Nausea D. Chloasma E. Photosensitivity
A patient needs a medication that has excellent emollient properties. Because she works as a swimming coach, the medication prescribed should not wash off when it comes in contact with water. If each has the same healing properties, which formulation would be best for this patient? A. Aerosol spray B. Oil C. Gel D. Cream
B. Oil
What drug classification, when taken with androgens, can cause a negative interaction? A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Oral anticoagulants C. Beta-blockers D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B. Oral anticoagulants
A patient has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for almost 1 year. The nurse knows that which is most important to evaluate at this time? A. CBC B. PSA levels C. Blood Pressue D. Fluid retention
B. PSA levels
When giving latanoprost (Xalatan) eyedrops, the nurse will advise the patient of which possible adverse effects? A. Temporary color changes, from light eye colors to brown. B. Permanent eye color changes, from light eye colors to brown. C. Photosensitivity D. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Permanent eye color changes, from light eye colors to brown.
When the Testoderm form of testosterone is ordered to treat hypogonadism in a teenage boy, which instructions by the nurse are correct? (Select all that apply). A. Place the patch on clean, dry skin on the back, upper arms, abdomen, or thighs. B. Place the patch on clean, dry scrotal skin that has been shaved. C. Place the patch on clean, dry scrotal skin, but do not shave the skin first. D. Place the patch on any clean, dry, nonhairy area of the body. E. Remove the old patch before applying the new patch.
B. Place the patch on clean, dry scrotal skin that has been shaved. E. Remove the old patch before applying the new patch.
When assessing a patient who will be receiving a measles vaccine, the nurse will consider which condition to be a possible contraindication? A. Anemia B. Pregnancy C. Ear infection D. Common cold
B. Pregnancy
When reviewing the health history of a patient who wants to begin taking oral contraceptives, the nurse recalls that which conditions are contraindications to this drug therapy? (Select all that apply). A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pregnancy C. Thrombophlebitic disorders D. Hypothyroidism E. Estrogen-dependent cancers
B. Pregnancy C. Thrombophlebitic disorders E. Estrogen-dependent cancers
A patient has been prescribed finasteride. What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Consume large amounts of liver, egg yolks while on this medication B. Pregnant women should not handle crushed or broken medication C. Protect the drug from exposure to light and heat D. Treatment of B-12 deficiency E. Therapeutic effects may take up to 6 months
B. Pregnant women should not handle crushed or broken medication C. Protect the drug from exposure to light and heat E. Therapeutic effects may take up to 6 months
The nurse is caring for a patient who becomes severely nauseated during chemotherapy. Which intervention is most appropriate? A. Encourage light activity during chemotherapy as a distraction. B. Provide antiemetic medication 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy begins. C. Provide antiemetic medications only upon the request of the patient. D. Hold fluids during chemotherapy to avoid vomiting.
B. Provide antiemetic medication 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy begins.
The nurse is administering sympathomimetic ophthalmic drops. Which therapeutic drug effect will these drops have on the patient's eye? A. Miosis B. Reduced intraocular pressure C. Reduced inflammation D. Increased lubrication
B. Reduced intraocular pressure
A patient receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe bone marrow suppression. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate at this time? A. Activity intolerance B. Risk for infection C. Disturbed body image D. Impaired physical mobility
B. Risk for infection
A woman who lives in New York City is preparing to take a plane trip to China. She has been taking the SERM raloxifene for 6 months. The nurse will provide which instructions to this patient? A. She will not take the drug while traveling on the plane. B. She needs to stop taking the drug at least 72 hours before the trip. C. She must remember to take this drug with a full glass of water each morning. D. No change in how the drug is taken will be needed.
B. She needs to stop taking the drug at least 72 hours before the trip.
If extravasation of an antineoplastic drug occurs, what will the nurse do first? A. Remove the IV catheter immediately. B. Stop the drug infusion without removing the IV catheter. C. Aspirate residual drug or blood from the tube if possible. D. Administer the appropriate antidote.
B. Stop the drug infusion without removing the IV catheter.
A foreign particle is removed from the patient's eye. He tells the nurse that he previously forgot to mention that he takes eyedrops for glaucoma. He can't remember the name of the drug, but he knows the eyedrop bottle has a purple lid. The nurse identifies a purple lid as most likely containing which type of antiglaucoma drug? A. Direct-acting cholinergic B. Sympathomimetics C. Prostaglandin agonist D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B. Sympathomimetics
A patient with AIDS was cut by a rusty piece of metal while walking outside. He recalls that his last tetanus booster was over 20 years ago. Which immunization therapy will he receive at this time? A. He cannot receive any type of immunization therapy. B. Tetanus immunoglobulin C. Tetanus toxoid, adsorbed D. Tetanus and diphtheria toxoid (Td) booster
B. Tetanus immunoglobulin
Which statement regarding possible bioterrorism agents does the nurse identify as being true? A. Gentamicin and tetracycline are useful in the treatment of botulism. B. Tetracycline and ciprofloxacin are indicated in the treatment of tularemia. C. Vaccination for plague is recommended for public defense personnel in the United States. D. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of smallpox.
B. Tetracycline and ciprofloxacin are indicated in the treatment of tularemia.
During a teaching session about eardrops, the patient tells the nurse, "I know why an antibiotic is in this medicine, but why is hydrocortisone in these eardrops?" What is the nurse's best response? A. The hydrocortisone will help to soften the cerumen. B. The hydrocortisone reduces itching and inflammation. C. The hydrocortisone also has an antifungal effect. D. This medication helps to anesthetize the area to decrease pain.
B. The hydrocortisone reduces itching and inflammation.
When the nurse is teaching a patient about the mechanism of action of tretinoin, which statement by the nurse is correct? A. This medication acts by killing the bacteria that cause acne. B. The medication actually causes skin peeling. C. This medications acts by protecting your skin from UV sunlight. D. This medication has anti-inflammatory actions.
B. The medication actually causes skin peeling.
While taking a history of a 68-year-old female patient who is receiving estrogen therapy as part of palliative treatment for advanced breast cancer, which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse? A. The patient is on transdermal opioids for cancer pain. B. The patient smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day. C. The patient drinks a glass of wine one evening a week. D. The patient has a history of osteoporosis.
B. The patient smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day.
Which statement correctly describes the method of action of the immunosuppressants? A. These agents inhibit the antigen antibody relationship. B. These agents suppress the action of T-lymphocytes, compromising the immune system C. These agents inhibit prostaglandins, rendering them ineffective in the immune response. D. These agents alter the ability of the body to manufacture albumin, and cells lose their integrity and die.
B. These agents suppress the action of T-lymphocytes, compromising the immune system
The nurse is discussing treatment of earwax buildup with a patient. Which statement about earwax emulsifiers is correct? A. These drugs are useful for treatment of ear infections. B. They loosen impacted cerumen so that it may be removed by irrigation. C. They are used to rinse out excessive earwax. D. They enhance the secretion of earwax.
B. They loosen impacted cerumen so that it may be removed by irrigation.
When reviewing an order for dinoprostone cervical gel (Prepidil), the nurse recalls that this drug is used for which purpose? A. To induce abortion during the third trimester. B. To improve cervical ripening near term for labor induction. C. To soften the cervix in women who are experiencing infertility problems. D. To reduce postpartum uterine atony and hemorrhage.
B. To improve cervical ripening near term for labor induction.
During an ophthalmic procedure, the patient receives ophthalmic acetylcholine. The nurse is aware that which effect is the purpose of administering this drug? A. To produce mydriasis for ophthalmic exam. B. To produce immediate miosis during ophthalmic surgery. C. To cause cycloplegia to allow for measurement if intraocular pressure. D. To provide topical anesthesia during ophthalmic surgery.
B. To produce immediate miosis during ophthalmic surgery.
The nurse is preparing to administer Carbamide peroxide to an adult client with an impacted cerumen. Which actions by the nurse are correct? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY). A. Pull the pinna of the ear down and back B. Vigorously irrigate the ear with warm water to remove the softened ear wax. C. Chill the medication before administering it D. Pull the pinna of the ear up and back E. Have the client lie on his side with the affected ear up.
B. Vigorously irrigate the ear with warm water to remove the softened ear wax. D. Pull the pinna of the ear up and back E. Have the client lie on his side with the affected ear up.
An older adult patient has a buildup of cerumen in his left ear. The nurse expects that this patient will receive which type of drug for this problem? A. Antifungal B. Wax emulsifier C. Steroid D. Local analgesic
B. Wax emulsifier
A student nurse was informed of the need for a "booster" injection for Hep B. The student asks the health center nurse why another injection is indicated because the series of 3 injections was completed. Select the nurse's best response. A. Too much time has elapsed between the 2nd and 3rd injections and you need a second 3rd shot. B. With the 3 injections your body did not manufacture enough antibodies, and to be therapeutic you need another injection. C. You have an altered immune response and may never be protected from Hep B. D. One of the initial injections you received must have been ineffective.
B. With the 3 injections your body did not manufacture enough antibodies, and to be therapeutic you need another injection.
During a regular follow-up visit, Jane points out a sore that she has developed in her mouth. She is diagnosed with herpes simplex. Which medication does the nurse anticipate Jane will receive? A. miconazole (Monistat) B. acyclovir (Zovirax) C. clotrimazole (Lotrimin) D. anthralin (Anthra-Derm)
B. acyclovir (Zovirax)
The nurse monitors very closely for signs of renal toxicity when which of these antineoplastic drugs is given? A. doxorubicin (Adriamycin) B. cisplatin (Platinol) C. bevacizumab (Avastin) D. mitotane (Lysodren)
B. cisplatin (Platinol)
When administering eyedrops for glaucoma, the nurse understands the desired drug effect causes: A. increased intraocular pressure. B. decreased intraocular pressure. C. reduced cycloplegia. D. decreased inflammation.
B. decreased intraocular pressure.
While teaching a patient who is about to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) chemotherapy, the nurse will instruct the patient to watch for potential adverse effects, such as: A. cholinergic crisis B. hemorrhagic cystitis C. peripheral neuropathy D. ototoxicity
B. hemorrhagic cystitis
A patient will be receiving mitotane (Lysodren), and the nurse is reviewing the patient's medication list for potential interactions. Which drugs may interact with mitotane? (Select all that apply) A. digoxin (Lanoxin) B. warfarin (Coumadin) C. phenytoin (Dilantin) D. Glucophage (Metformin) E. spironolactone (Aldactone)
B. warfarin (Coumadin) C. phenytoin (Dilantin) E. spironolactone (Aldactone)
Inflammation of the eyelids is called _______________. A. Glaucoma B. Cataract C. Blepharitis D. Conjunctivitis
C. Blepharitis
During treatment with doxorubicin (Adriamycin), the nurse must monitor closely for which potentially life-threatening adverse effect? A. Nephrotoxicity B. Peripheral neuritis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Ototoxicity
C. Cardiomyopathy
The ophthalmologist has given a client a dose of ocular atropine drops. Which statement by the nurse explains to the client the reason for this medication? A. "The surface of the eye will change color" B. "Your pupils will constrict" C. "It causes the pupils to dilate" D. "To check for any possible foreign bodies"
C. "It causes the pupils to dilate"
Jane is a 17-year-old patient who is being seen in the dermatology clinic for treatment of acne vulgaris. The nurse practitioner prescribes benzoyl peroxide topically four times a day. Jane tells the nurse that she wants take the drug more frequently so the acne will go away quickly. What information will the nurse provide to Jane? A. "Improvement is usually seen in 1 week." B. "If you want faster results, a pill form of benzoyl peroxide will be used." C. "Overuse of this drug can result in painful, reddened skin." D. "Benzoyl peroxide causes the skin to blister or swell to clear the acne."
C. "Overuse of this drug can result in painful, reddened skin."
A patient is to receive testosterone therapy via a transdermal patch. He asks the nurse, "Why am I getting a patch? Can't I just take a pill?" What is the best response by the nurse? A. "You will only have to change the patch weekly." B. "The patch reduces the incidence of side effects." C. "The patch allows for better absorption of the medication." D. "If you don't take the patch, you will have to have injections instead."
C. "The patch allows for better absorption of the medication."
The patient is to receive medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) 500 mg weekly on Mondays for four weeks. The medication is available in vials of 400 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer with each injection? (Record answer using one decimal place. A. 1 mL B. 1.25 mL C. 1.3 mL D. 1.6 mL
C. 1.3 mL
A patient's chemotherapy has ended at 1800 on a Tuesday afternoon. When is it appropriate to start therapy with filgrastim? A. 1800 on Tuesday B. 0600 on Wednesday C. 1800 on Wednesday D. 1 week later, 1800 the next Tuesday
C. 1800 on Wednesday
When instructing a patient about the actions and uses of benzoyl peroxide, the patient asks when positive results from the medication can be expected. Which statement indicates the nurse's best response? A. 7 days B. 2-3 weeks C. 3-4 weeks D. 4-6 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
The nurse is preparing to add a dose of bevacizumab (Avastin) to a patient's IV infusion. The infusion bad prepared by the pharmacy has 70 mg of bevacizumab in 100 mL of NS, and it is to infuse over 90 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate for this dose? A. 66 mL/hr B. 72 mL/hr C. 67 mL/hr D. 100 mL/hr
C. 67 mL/hr 100/90x60= 66.666 round to 67
Which statement is true regarding cancer chemotherapy? A. Only selected antineoplastic drugs are effective against all types of cancer. B. Most cancer drugs have a high therapeutic index. C. A combination of drugs is usually more effective than single-drug therapy. D. Side effects can be eliminated with appropriate administration times.
C. A combination of drugs is usually more effective than single-drug therapy.
While administering medications, the nurse finds a patient's eardrops in the medication refrigerator. If the nurse gives the eardrops immediately, what response might the patient have? A. No unusual response B. Immediate relief of ear discomfort C. A vestibular-type reaction D. Increased ear pain
C. A vestibular-type reaction
When reviewing the medical record of a patient with a new order for a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, the nurse knows that which condition would be a potential problem for a patient taking this drug? A. Glaucoma B. Ocular HTN C. Allergy to sulfa drugs D. Allergy to penicillin
C. Allergy to sulfa drugs
The nurse is reviewing the medication list for a patient and notes that finasteride (Propecia) 1 mg daily is on the list. This drug is for which of these problems? A. Benign prostatis hyperplasia (BPH) B. Eerectile dysfunction C. Alopecia in male patients D. Alopecia in male and female patients
C. Alopecia in male patients
During patient teaching regarding self-administration of ophthalmic drops, which statement by the nurse is correct? A. Hold the eyedrops over the cornea, and squeeze out the drop. B. Apply pressure to the lacrimal duct area for 5 minutes after administration. C. Be sure to place the drop in the conjunctival sac of the lower eyelid. D. Squeeze your eyelid closed tightly after placing the drop into your eye.
C. Be sure to place the drop in the conjunctival sac of the lower eyelid.
A pregnant woman has been diagnosed with cancer and is meeting with her oncologist to plan treatment. Which statement about chemotherapy and pregnancy is true? A. She will have to wait until the baby is born before starting chemotherapy. B. The greatest risk of fetal harm from chemotherapy is during the third trimester. C. Chemotherapy treatment during the second or third trimester poses less risk to the fetus. D. Chemotherapy is unsafe during pregnancy, but radiation therapy is safe in low doses.
C. Chemotherapy treatment during the second or third trimester poses less risk to the fetus.
Just before the second course of chemotherapy, the laboratory calls to report that the patient's neutrophil count is 450 cells/mm3. The nurse expects that the oncologist will follow which course of treatment? A. Chemotherapy will resume with a lowered dosage. B. Chemotherapy will resume after a transfusion of neutrophils. C. Chemotherapy will be withheld until the neutrophil count returns toward normal levels. D. Chemotherapy will continue as scheduled.
C. Chemotherapy will be withheld until the neutrophil count returns toward normal levels.
The nurse is assessing a patient who is to receive dinoprostone (Prostin E2). Which conditions would be a contraindication to the use of this drug? A. Pregnancy at 15 weeks gestation. B. GI upset or ulcer disease. C. Ectopic pregnancy. D. Incomplete abortion.
C. Ectopic pregnancy.
A newborn infant is about to receive medication that prevents gonorrheal eye infection. The nurse will prepare to administer which drug? A. Dexamethasone (Maxidex) ointment. B. Gentamicin (Genoptic) solution. C. Erythromycin ointment. D. Sulfacetamide (Cetamide) solution.
C. Erythromycin ointment.
The nurse is caring for a patient who received chemotherapy 24 hours ago. The patient's white blood cell count is 4,400 mcL. Which symptom, if experienced by the patient, should the nurse report to the prescriber immediately? A. Fatigue B. Diarrhea C. Fever D. Nausea and vomiting
C. Fever
The nuse is discussing drug therapy with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which food product inhibits metabolism enzymes and possibly increases the activity of cyclosporine? A. Dairy B. OJ C. Grapefruit juice D. Red wine
C. Grapefruit juice
Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the medication therapy for a client diagnosed with osteoporosis is effective? A. Has adequate urinary output B. Serum calcium level is 7-5 mg/dl C. Has no pathological fractures D. Loses one inch in height
C. Has no pathological fractures
A nurse has been stuck by a used needle while starting an IV line. Which preparation is used as prophylaxis against disease after exposure to blood and body fluids? A. Hib vaccine B. RhoD immune globulin C. Hep B immune globulin D. Hepatitis antitoxin
C. Hep B immune globulin
A sanitation worker has experienced a needle stick by a contaminated needle that was placed in a trash can. The employee health nurse expects that which drug will be used to provide passive immunity to hepatitis B infection? A. Varicella virus vaccine (Varivax) B. Hepatitis B virus vaccine (inactivated) (Recombivax HB) C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B) D. Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B)
During an exam, the nurse notes that a patient has a perforated tympanic membrane. There is an order for eardrops. Which is the nurse's most appropriate action at this time? A. Give the medication as ordered. B. Check the patient's hearing, and then give the drops. C. Hold the medication, and check with the prescriber. D. Administer the drops with a cotton wick.
C. Hold the medication, and check with the prescriber.
A woman comes to the emergency department. She says that she is pregnant and that she is having contractions every 3 minutes, but she is "not due yet". She is very upset. While assessing her vital signs and fetal heart tones, what is the most important question the nurse must ask the patient? A. What were you doing when the contractions started? B. Are you preregistered at the hospital to give birth? C. How many weeks have you been pregnant? D. Have you felt the baby move today?
C. How many weeks have you been pregnant?
The nurse is administering methotrexate as part of treatment for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and will monitor for which sign of bone marrow suppression? A. Edema B. Tinnitus C. Increased bleeding tendencies D. Tingling in the extremities
C. Increased bleeding tendencies
When administering cyclosporine, the nurse notes that allopurinol is also ordered for the patient. What is a potential result of this drug interaction? A. Reduced uric acid levels B. Reduced nephrotoxic effects of cyclosporine C. Increased levels of cyclosporine and toxicity D. Reduced adverse effects of the cyclosporine
C. Increased levels of cyclosporine and toxicity
The nurse is reviewing cyclosporine and recognizes that this drug works by which mechanism of action? A. Suppressing viral replication. B. Enhancing the action of macrophages. C. Inhibiting the activation of T-lymphocyte cells. D. Increasing the number of T-lymphocyte cells.
C. Inhibiting the activation of T-lymphocyte cells.
During a teaching session for a patient receiving an immunosuppressant drug, the nurse will include which statement? A. It is better to use oral forms of these drugs to prevent the occurrence of thrush. B. You will remain on antibiotics to prevent infections. C. It is important to use some form of contraception during treatment and for up to 12 weeks after the end of therapy. D. Be sure to take your medication with grapefruit juice to increase absorption.
C. It is important to use some form of contraception during treatment and for up to 12 weeks after the end of therapy.
A male patient tells the nurse he has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 3 months and has seen little relief of symptoms. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? A. You will need surgical intervention. B. Tell me how you are taking the medication. C. It may take up to 6 months for full effect. D. A second drug will need to be added to your medications.
C. It may take up to 6 months for full effect.
In caring for a patient receiving therapy with a myelosuppressive antineoplastic drug, the nurse notes an order to begin filgrastim after the chemotherapy is completed. Which statement correctly describes when the nurse will begin the filgrastim therapy? A. It can be started during the chemotherapy. B. It will begin immediately after the chemotherapy is completed. C. It will be initiated 24 hours after the chemotherapy is completed. D. It will not be started until at least 72 hours after the chemotherapy is completed.
C. It will be initiated 24 hours after the chemotherapy is completed.
The nurse is monitoring for an allergic reaction to topical bacitracin, which would be evident by the presence of: A. Petechia B. Thickened skin C. Itching and burning D. Purulent drainage
C. Itching and burning
The nurse is providing teaching after an adult receives a booster immunization. Which adverse reactions will the nurse immediately report to the provider? (Select all that apply). A. Swelling and redness at the injection site B. Fever of 100°F (37.8°C) C. Joint pain D. Heat over the injection site E. Rash over the arms, back, and chest F. Shortness of breath
C. Joint pain E. Rash over the arms, back, and chest F. Shortness of breath
The nurse is performing an assessment of a patient who is asking for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Which finding would be a contraindication to its use? A. 65 years of age B. History of thyroid disease C. Medication list that includes nitrates D. Medication list that includes saw palmetto
C. Medication list that includes nitrates
The nurse is discussing therapy with clomiphene (Clomid), with a husband and wife who are considering trying this drug as part of treatment for infertility. It is important that they be informed of which possible side effect of this drug? A. Increased menstrual flow. B. Increased menstrual cramping. C. Multiple pregnancy (twins or more). D. Sedation.
C. Multiple pregnancy (twins or more).
Drugs that dilate the pupil are called ______________. A. Antibiotics B. Bacteriostatics C. Mydriatics D. Miotics
C. Mydriatics
During chemotherapy, the nurse will monitor the patient for which symptoms of stomatitis? A. Indigestion and heartburn B. Severe vomiting and anorexia C. Pain or soreness of the mouth D. Diarrhea and perianal irritation
C. Pain or soreness of the mouth
When working with a patient who is neutropenic, the nurse identifies which as the most effective measure to prevent the patient from developing an infection? A. Administer prophylactic antibiotics B. Stop administration of the chemotherapeutic drug C. Perform hand hygiene D. Vaccinate the patient to prevent bacterial infection
C. Perform hand hygiene
A child is diagnosed with impetigo and is prescribed topical muciprocin. What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. Scrape the lesion before application B. Cleanse the affected areas with hydrogen peroxide C. Report burning and pain to the physician D. Apply ointment with ungloved hand
C. Report burning and pain to the physician
During therapy with the cytotoxic antibiotic bleomycin, the nurse will assess for a potentially serious adverse effect by monitoring: A. BUN and creatinine levels B. Cardiac ejection fraction C. Respiratory function D. Cranial nerve function
C. Respiratory function
When reviewing various immunizing drugs, the nurse recalls that one product is purposefully administered to pregnant women. Which is an example of this type of product? A. Poliovirus vaccine B. Tetanus immune globulin C. RhoD immune globulin D. Black widow spider antivenin
C. RhoD immune globulin
A patient is starting therapy with adalimumab (Humira) after a course of therapy with methotrexate (Trexall) failed to improve the patient's condition. The nurse recognizes that this patient is being treated for which condition? A. Advanced stage cancer B. Multiple sclerosis C. Severe RA D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Severe RA
The preoperative nurse is ready to perform a skin prep with povidone-iodine on a patient who is about to have abdominal surgery. Which allergies, if present, would be a contraindication to the povidone-iodine prep? A. Peanuts B. Latex C. Shellfish D. Adhesives
C. Shellfish
When giving a vaccination to an infant, the nurse will tell the mother to expect which adverse effect? A. Fever over 101°F (38.3°C) B. Rash C. Soreness at the injection site D. Chills
C. Soreness at the injection site
If extravasation of an antineoplastic medication occurs, which intervention will the nurse perform first? A. Apply cold compresses to the site while elevating the arm. B. Inject subcutaneous doses of epinephrine around the IV site every 2 hours. C. Stop the infusion immediately while leaving the catheter in place. D. Inject the appropriate antidote through the IV catheter.
C. Stop the infusion immediately while leaving the catheter in place.
A female patient has been prescribed Alendronate. What information should the nurse provide related to administration of the medication? A. In the evening before bedtime B. Between meals with a snack C. Take in the morning with 8 oz. of water D. Lie down after taking
C. Take in the morning with 8 oz. of water
What patient teaching is appropriate for a patient taking alendronate (Fosamax)? (Select all that apply). A. Take with food. B. Take at night just before going to bed. C. Take with an 8-oz. glass of water. D. Take with a sip of water. E. Take first thing in the morning upon rising. F. Do not lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking.
C. Take with an 8-oz. glass of water. E. Take first thing in the morning upon rising. F. Do not lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking.
A 28-year-old patient is in the urgent care center after stepping on a rusty tent nail. The nurse evaluates the patient's immunity status and notes that the patient thinks she had her last tetanus booster about 10 years ago, just before starting college. Which immunization would be most appropriate at this time? A. Immunoglobulin IV (Gammar-P IV) B. DTap (Daptacel) (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis) C. Tdap (Adacel) (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis) D. No immunizations are necessary at this time
C. Tdap (Adacel) (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis)
A client diagnosed with glaucoma is prescribed a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (CAI). Which of the following would be a contraindication related to the medication? A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Allergy to sulfa drugs.
D. Allergy to sulfa drugs.
After immunizations at a well-baby check-up, a mother notes that her infant has redness and swelling at the injection site, is irritable, and has a fever of 99.9° F. She calls the clinic and is worried about her baby. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A. Tell the mother there's nothing to worry about and that these symptoms are normal and will go away B. Tell the mother that she should bring her baby in to the office for an examination C. Tell the mother that acetaminophen and rest should help to alleviate these symptoms, which are not unusual after immunizations. D. Complete a Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System form (VAERS).
C. Tell the mother that acetaminophen and rest should help to alleviate these symptoms, which are not unusual after immunizations.
The patient reports to the nurse that the medication infliximab prescribed for RA is not working. On further questioning, the nurse determines that the patient has been taking the drug for 7 days. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? A. The medication muse be ineffective for you, call the office, and the provider will make a change in drug selection. B. Increase the dosage to 2 tablets instead of 1. C. This medication may take up to 4-6 weeks for full response to occur. D. Are you taking the medication with food?
C. This medication may take up to 4-6 weeks for full response to occur.
A patient has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). His wife, who is 3 months pregnant, is worried about the adverse effects that occur with this drug. Which statements by the nurse is the most important at this time? A. Gastric upset may be reduced if he takes the drug on an empty stomach. B. He should notice therapeutic effects of increased libido within 1 month. C. This medication should not even be handled by pregnant women because it may harm the fetus. D. He may experience transient hair loss while taking this medication.
C. This medication should not even be handled by pregnant women because it may harm the fetus.
A child has a case of otitis media. The nurse knows that otitis media in children is usually preceded by: A. Participation on a swim team. B. Injury with a foreign object C. Upper respiratory tract infection D. Mastoiditis
C. Upper respiratory tract infection
When hanging a new infusion bag of a chemotherapy drug, the nurse accidentally spills a small amount of the solution onto the floor. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A. Ask the housekeeping department to clean the floor. B. Wipe the area with a disposable paper towel. C. Use a spill kit to clean the area. D. Let it dry, and then mop the floor.
C. Use a spill kit to clean the area.
A patient who had a kidney transplant is receiving cyclosporine PO in maintenance doses. What action would decrease the potency of this drug? A. Taking it with orange juice B. Taking it with milk C. Using a Styrofoam container to administer the drug D. Mixing it with chocolate milk
C. Using a Styrofoam container to administer the drug
The vascular middle layer of the eye, containing the iris, ciliary body, and choroid is called the _______. A. Sclera B. Cornea C. Uvea D. Conjunctiva
C. Uvea
A child is in the clinic with a severe case of otitis media. The prescriber has decided to treat it with an antibiotic, and the nurse anticipates that which antibiotic will be prescribed as a first-line drug for this condition? A. tetracycline B. penicillin C. amoxicillin D. ciprofloxacin
C. amoxicillin
A patient has an infected stage II pressure ulcer that contains some necrotic tissue and some normal, healing granulation tissue. The patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which product would be most appropriate for wound care? A. sodium hypochlorite (Dakin's solution) B. hydrogen peroxide C. collagenase (Santyl) D. Sterile water
C. collagenase (Santyl)
Gentle massage of the tragus area of the ear after administering eardrops results in A. decreased absorption of the medication. B. softening of the cerumen in the ear canal. C. increased coverage of the medication in the ear canal. D. reduced pain in the ear.
C. increased coverage of the medication in the ear canal.
When administering eyedrops to a patient, the nurse places the drop A. directly onto the cornea. B. in the inner canthus. C. into the lower conjunctival sac. D. onto the sclera.
C. into the lower conjunctival sac.
Prior to administering methotrexate, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for A. allergy to eggs. B. congestive heart failure. C. latent tuberculosis. D. hypothyroidism.
C. latent tuberculosis.
Which statement regarding use of monoclonal antibodies in the treatment of cancer does the nurse identify as being true? Monoclonal antibodies A. are not as effective as other chemotherapy drugs. B. have few adverse effects. C. may cause flulike effects but do not cause the typical adverse effects associated with chemotherapy. D. are only used in cases of last resort when other chemotherapy drugs have failed.
C. may cause flulike effects but do not cause the typical adverse effects associated with chemotherapy.
A patient is experiencing rejection of a transplanted organ. The nurse expects which drug to be given to manage this? A. azathioprine (Imuran) B. cyclosporine (Sandimmune) C. muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) D. glatiramer acetate (Copaxone)
C. muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
A patient is asking about the use of saw palmetto for prostate health. The nurse tells him that drugs that interact with saw palmetto include: A. acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. nitrates C. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs D. antihypertensive drugs
C. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
A patient receiving tetrahydrozoline asks how the drug works. The best response by the nurse will include that the drug works by A. pulling fluid from the eye tissue to the blood stream. B. decreasing the amount of fluid produced by the eye. C. promoting vasoconstriction of blood vessels in and around the eye. D. causing the pupil to constrict.
C. promoting vasoconstriction of blood vessels in and around the eye.
A woman in labor is on an oxytocin infusion. The nurse notes that her contractions are close to 100 seconds apart and are lasting 1.25 seconds. The mother's blood pressure has increased to 130/98, and the fetal heart rate decreases during the contractions. The woman states, "Wow, this medicine is sure hurrying things along!" The nurse's next action(s) will be to: A. continue to monitor the labor, which is progressing nicely. B. offer comfort measures during the contractions. C. stop the infusion, administer oxygen, have her lie on her left side, and notify the physician immediately. D. take the patient to the delivery area because delivery is imminent.
C. stop the infusion, administer oxygen, have her lie on her left side, and notify the physician immediately.
The nurse identifies which of the following as the most significant neurotoxin of the cytotoxic drug class? A. paclitaxel (Taxol) B. docetaxel (Taxotere) C. vincristine (Vincasar PFS) D. etoposide (Toposar)
C. vincristine (Vincasar PFS)
A patient is receiving her third course of 5-fluorouracil therapy and knows that stomatitis is a potential adverse effect of antineoplastic therapy. What will the nurse teach her about managing this problem? A. "Be sure to watch for and report black, tarry stools immediately." B. "You can take aspirin to prevent stomatitis." C. "You need to increase your intake of foods containing fiber and citric acid." D. "Be sure to examine your mouth daily for bleeding, painful areas, and ulcerations."
D. "Be sure to examine your mouth daily for bleeding, painful areas, and ulcerations."
The nurse is reviewing infection-prevention measures with a patient who is receiving antineoplastic drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? A. "I will report a sore throat, cough, or low-grade temperature." B. "I will avoid those who have recently had a vaccination." C. "It is important for both my family and me to practice good hand washing." D. "I will eat only fresh fruits and vegetables."
D. "I will eat only fresh fruits and vegetables."
When teaching an adult patient about eardrops, which statement will the nurse include? A. "Hold your ear down and back to instill the drops." B. "If you feel dizzy after instilling the ear drops, stand up and walk around the room." C. "Warm the ear drops up for 30 seconds in the microwave before using them." D. "Lie on the opposite side of that of your affected ear for about 5 minutes after instilling the drug."
D. "Lie on the opposite side of that of your affected ear for about 5 minutes after instilling the drug."
At 1300 the nurse assesses a patient who has just returned to the oncology unit after receiving radiation therapy. The patient tells the nurse that his skin "burns a little" in the area that was radiated. The nurse notes an order for biafine topical emulsion. When will the nurse apply the biafine? A. 1315 B. 1400 C. 1530 D. 1700
D. 1700
A patient has come to the ED with an eye injury. After fluorescein (AK-Fluor) is applied, the physician sees an area with a green halo. This indicates which condition? A. A corneal defect B. A conjunctival lesion C. The presence of a hard contact lens D. A foreign object
D. A foreign object
The patient is scheduled for discharge. Which information does the nurse include when teaching the patient about methotrexate therapy? A. You can expect to develop mouth sores that will improve with time when taking this medication. B. Administer the methotrexate injection daily in the early morning. C. Mix the methotrexate with sterile saline prior to administration. D. Administer the methotrexate subcutaneously into the thigh, abdomen, or upper arm, rotating injection sites.
D. Administer the methotrexate subcutaneously into the thigh, abdomen, or upper arm, rotating injection sites.
A patient who is receiving chemotherapy with cisplatin (Platinol) has developed pneumonia. The nurse would be concerned about nephrotoxicity if which type of antibiotic was ordered as treatment for pneumonia at this time? A. Penicillin B. Sulfa drug C. Fluoroquinolone D. Aminoglycoside
D. Aminoglycoside
A patient is in the urgent care center after experiencing a poisonous snake bite. The nurse prepares to give which product to treat this injury? A. Live vaccine B. Tetanus immune globulin C. Active immunizing drug D. Antivenins
D. Antivenins
Which cytotoxic antibiotic does the nurse identify as most likely to cause pulmonary fibrosis? A. plicamycin B. mitoxantrone C. mitomycin D. Bleomycin
D. Bleomycin
A patient who has cancer is to receive a course of chemo with doxorubicin (Adriamycin). Which coexisting condition will require very close monitoring while the patient is taking this drug? A. HTN B. DM C. Gout D. Cardiomyopathy
D. Cardiomyopathy
The nurse monitors a patient who is experiencing thrombocytopenia from severe bone marrow suppression by looking for: A. Severe weakness and fatigue. B. Elevated body temperature. C. Decreased skin turgor. D. Excessive bleeding and bruising.
D. Excessive bleeding and bruising.
When monitoring a patient's response to interferon therapy, the nurse notes that the major dose-limiting factor for interferon therapy is which condition? A. Diarrhea B. Anxiety C. Nausea and vomiting D. Fatigue
D. Fatigue
The nurse is monitoring a patient who has been receiving aldesleukin (IL-2) (Proleukin) for treatment of malignant melanoma. Which adverse effect, if noted on assessment, is of primary concern? A. Chills B. Fatigue C. Headache D. Fluid retention
D. Fluid retention
The nurse is preparing to administer eardrops. Which technique for administering eardrops is correct? A. Warm the solution to 100°F (37.7°C) before using. B. Position the patient so that the unaffected ear is accessible. C. Massage the tragus before administering the eardrops. D. Gently insert a cotton ball into the outer ear canal after the drops are given.
D. Gently insert a cotton ball into the outer ear canal after the drops are given.
The nurse is teaching a patient about the adverse effects of fertility drugs such as clomiphene. Which is a potential adverse effect of this drug? A. Drowsiness B. Dysmenorrhea C. Hypertension D. Headache
D. Headache
A client is diagnosed with recurrent otitis media. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse a complication has developed? A. Dizziness on rising B. Inflamation of the external auditory canal C. White blood cell (WBC) count of 9,000/cu D. Hearing loss
D. Hearing loss
The nurse is reviewing the use of obstetric drugs. Which situation is an indication for an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion? A. Termination of pregnancy at 12 weeks. B. Hypertonic uterus. C. Cervical stenosis in a patient who is in labor. D. Induction of labor at full term.
D. Induction of labor at full term.
When assessing a patient taking testosterone, which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to review? A. Hemoglobin A1C B. Triglycerides C. Potassium D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
The nurse should question the prescriber regarding use of cyclosporine for the treatment of which disease? A. Arthritis B. Psoriasis C. Irritable bowel disease D. Multiple sclerosis
D. Multiple sclerosis
When considering the variety of OTC topical corticosteroid products, the nurse is aware that which type of preparation is generally most penetrating and effective? A. Gel B. Lotion C. Spray D. Ointment
D. Ointment
A patient will be receiving chemotherapy with paclitaxel (Taxol). What will the nurse expect to do along with administering this drug? A. Administer platelet infusions. B. Provide acetaminophen (Tylenol) as needed. C. Keep the patient on "NPO" status because of expected nausea and vomiting. D. Premedicate with a steroid, H2 receptor antagonist, and antihistamine.
D. Premedicate with a steroid, H2 receptor antagonist, and antihistamine.
Before a patient beings therapy with finasteride (Proscar), the nurse should make sure that which laboratory test has been performed? A. Blood glucose level. B. Complete blood count. C. Urinalysis. D. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level.
D. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level.
A patient has a new order for glatiramer acetate. The patient has not had an organ transplant. The nurse knows that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition? A. Psoriasis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Relapse-remitting multiple sclerosis
D. Relapse-remitting multiple sclerosis
The nurse is preparing to administer eardrops and finds that the bottle has been stored in the medication room refrigerator. Which is the nurse's best action at this time? A. Remove the bottle from the refrigerator, and administer the drops. B. Heat the bottle for 5 seconds in the microwave oven before administering the drops. C. Let the bottle sit in a cup of hot water for 15 minutes before administering the drops. D. Remove the bottle from the refrigerator 1 hour before the drops are due to be given.
D. Remove the bottle from the refrigerator 1 hour before the drops are due to be given.
A woman has not taken her oral contraceptive since Monday. It is now Wednesday morning. What should she do now to prevent pregnancy? A. Take the two missing doses as soon as possible. B. Continue the drug as if no doses were missed. C. Start over with a new monthly pack of oral contraceptives. D. Resume the drug but also use a second form of birth control.
D. Resume the drug but also use a second form of birth control.
The nurse is teaching a patient about the possible adverse effect of priapism, which may occur when taking erectile dysfunction drugs. The nurse emphasizes that, if this occurs, the most important action is to: A. Stay in bed until the erection ceases. B. Apply an ice pack for 30 minutes. C. Turn toward his left side and rest. D. Seek medical attention immediately.
D. Seek medical attention immediately.
A 22-year-old woman is taking isotretinoin (Amnesteem) as part of the treatment for severe cystic acne. Which statement about isotretinoin therapy is true? A. This drug reduces acne by causing skin peeling. B. She will need to apply it twice a day to her face after washing thoroughly. C. Its use is contraindicated if she is allergic to erythromycin. D. She will need to use two forms of birth control while taking this medication.
D. She will need to use two forms of birth control while taking this medication.
The nurse is reviewing the CDC recommendations for vaccines. The pneumococcal vaccine (Pneumovax 23) is recommended for which group? A. Newborn infants B. Patients who are immunosuppressed C. Patients who are transplant candidates D. Smokers between the ages of 19 and 64 years of age
D. Smokers between the ages of 19 and 64 years of age
A patient with a severe middle ear infection will generally require treatment with which type of drug? A. Topical steroids B. Systemic steroids C. Topical antibiotics D. Systemic antibiotics
D. Systemic antibiotics
The patient with external otitis asks the nurse why the physician placed a small piece of cotton in the patient's ear and told the patient to leave it in place. How should the nurse respond? A. The physician made an error, I will remove the cotton. B. The cotton traps medication and doesn't allow it to exit the ear. C. The cotton is designed to gradually reabsorb over the next 24 hours. D. The cotton is called a wick and enables the medication to get to the infected area more effectively.
D. The cotton is called a wick and enables the medication to get to the infected area more effectively.
The ophthalmologist has given a patient a dose of ocular atropine drops before an eye examination. Which statement by the nurse accurately explains to the patient the reason for these drops? A. These drops will cause the surface of your eye to become numb so that the doctor can do the exam. B. These drops are used to check for any possible foreign bodies or corneal defects that may be in your eye. C. These drops will reduce your tear production for the eye exam. D. These drops will cause your pupils to dilate, which makes the eye exam easier.
D. These drops will cause your pupils to dilate, which makes the eye exam easier.
The nurse is preparing to administer ketorolac (Acular) eyedrops. The patient asks, "Why am I getting these eyedrops". What is the nurse's correct response? A. These drops will reduce the pressure inside your eye as part of treatment for glaucoma. B. These drops are for a bacterial eye infection. C. These drops will relieve your dry eyes. D. These drops work to reduce the inflammation in your eyes.
D. These drops work to reduce the inflammation in your eyes.
The nursing student asks the pharmacist what it means that an agent is "cell-cycle specific". Which statement is correct? A. These drugs are effective in only certain types of cancers. B. These drugs are effective throughout all stages of cancer reproduction. C. These drugs are effective on slower growing cells because they target one phase of reproduction. D. These drugs are cytotoxic during a specific cycle phase of cancer growth.
D. These drugs are cytotoxic during a specific cycle phase of cancer growth.
During therapy with azathioprine (Imuran), the nurse must monitor for which common adverse effect? A. Bradycardia B. Diarrhea C. Vomiting D. Thrombocytopenia
D. Thrombocytopenia
The zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is used in which situation? A. To prevent chickenpox in children B. To prevent chickenpox in children who have been exposed to herpes zoster C. To prevent postherpetic neuralgia in patients who have shingles D. To prevent reactivation of the zoster virus that causes shingles in patients age 60 or older
D. To prevent reactivation of the zoster virus that causes shingles in patients age 60 or older
The nurse is reviewing the use of topical anesthetic drugs. Which of these is an appropriate use for the lidocaine/prilocaine combination cream known as EMLA? A. To reduce the discomfort of insect bites. B. To reduce the pain of a sunburn. C. To relieve the itching associated with poison ivy. D. To reduce pain before a needle insertion.
D. To reduce pain before a needle insertion.
Which substance contains microorganisms that trigger the formation of antibodies against specific pathogens? A. Antivenin B. Serum C. Toxoid D. Vaccine
D. Vaccine
An animal control officer was bitten by a stray dog that showed signs of rabies. Which statement by the nurse is correct regarding the treatment for rabies prophylaxis? A. You will receive treatment if you begin to show symptoms. B. You will receive one oral dose of medication today, and one more in 1 week. C. You will need to receive 3 subcutaneous injections over the next week. D. You will need to receive 5 intramuscular injections over the next 28 days.
D. You will need to receive 5 intramuscular injections over the next 28 days.
The ophthamologist tells the patient that she is going to place a dye onto the patient's eye to help identify the location of the foreign object. Which drug does the nurse anticipate the ophthamologist will use? A. olopatadine (Patanol) B. cromolyn sodium (Crolom) C. tetrahydrozoline D. fluorescein (AK-Fluor)
D. fluorescein (AK-Fluor)
A patient tells the nurse that he takes saw palmetto because he thinks his prostate gland is enlarged. The patient informs the nurse of the medications he takes on a regular basis. Which medication will be of most concern to the nurse? A. Calcium with vitamin D B. acetaminophen (Tylenol) C. St. John's wort D. ibuprofen (Motrin)
D. ibuprofen (Motrin)
A patient has asked for a new prescription for sildenafil (Viagra), an erectile dysfunction drug. As the nurse reviews his current medications, which drug, if taken by the patient, would cause a significant interaction? A. warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. B. amoxicillin (Amoxil), an antibiotic. C. esomeprazole (Nexium), a proton pump inhibitor. D. isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil), a nitrate.
D. isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil), a nitrate.
A patient is receiving leucovorin as part of his chemotherapy regimen. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving which antineoplastic drug? A. cladribine (Leustatin) B. fluorouracil (Adrucil) C. vincristine (Vincasar PFS) D. methotrexate (Trexall)
D. methotrexate (Trexall)
The nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with MRSA on the right arm. The nurse anticipates use of which medication to treat the MRSA? A. bacitracin B. neomycin C. polymyxin B D. mupirocin (Bactroban)
D. mupirocin (Bactroban)
A patient who is receiving high-dose chemotherapy with methotrexate is also receiving leucovorin. The purpose of the leucovorin is to: A. produce an additive effect with the methotrexate by increasing its potency against the cancer cells. B. reduce the incidence of cardiomyopathy caused by the methotrexate. C. add its antiinflammatory effects to the treatment regimen. D. reduce the bone marrow suppression caused by the methotrexate.
D. reduce the bone marrow suppression caused by the methotrexate.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with cyanide toxicity. Which antidote drugs does the nurse expect to administer? A. atropine B. pralidoxime C. pyridostigmine D. sodium nitrite
D. sodium nitrite
A 60-year-old woman is taking a bisphosphonate. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse that her stomach has been bothering her and wants to know what she should do. The nurse will instruct her to: A. take this medication with milk. B. take this medication with breakfast. C. remain upright in a sitting position for at least 10 minutes after taking this medication. D. stop the medication and to come in for an evaluation.
D. stop the medication and to come in for an evaluation.
A patient will be receiving daily doses of asparaginase (Elspar). The order is for 200 units/kg/day up to 40,000 units per dose IV. The patient weighs 275 lb. 1) How many units will the patient receive per dose? A. 25,000 units B. 2,500 units C. 35,000 units D. 3,500 units 2) Is this a safe dose? A. Yes B. No
Part 1) A. 25,000 units Part 2) A. Yes
A patient is to receive testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone) 300 mg every 2 weeks as an IM injection. The medication is available in 2 strengths: 100 mg/mL and 200 mg/mL. 1) Which is the most appropriate strength? A. 100 mg/mL B. 200 mg/mL 2) How many mL will the nurse administer? A. 1 mL B. 2 mL C. 1.5 mL D. 3 mL
Part 1) B. 200 mg/mL Part 2) C. 1.5 mL
