Pharm final bank pt 2

Which treatment option(s) may promote comfort for a patient who is undergoing bone marrow transplantation has developed severe mucositis? (Select all that apply.) a. 2% viscous lidocaine (Xylocaine) before meals b. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) therapy as needed c. Commercially prepared mouthwashes d. Docosanol (Abreva) therapy e. Milk of Magnesia mouth rinses

a. 2% viscous lidocaine (Xylocaine) before meals e. Milk of Magnesia mouth rinses

Which is the priority problem when caring for a patient on a ventilator and receiving succinylcholine (Anectine)? a. Pain b. Body image issues c. Injury risk d. Deficit in self-care

a. Pain

A third subclass of diabetes mellitus includes additional types of diabetes that are part of other diseases having features not generally associated with the diabetic state. Which disorder(s) may have an associated diabetic component? (Select all that apply.) a. Patients receiving high-dose corticosteroid therapy for disease maintenance b. Cushing's syndrome c. Alzheimer's disease d. Acromegaly e. Malnutrition

a. Patients receiving high-dose corticosteroid therapy for disease maintenance b. Cushing's syndrome d. Acromegaly e. Malnutrition

Which type of drug is most effective in the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)? a. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors b. Antiandrogen agents c. Sympathomimetic agents d. Alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agents

a. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

Which medication will alert the nurse to monitor closely for adverse effects when assessing a client recently prescribed pentoxifylline (Trental)? a. Antilipemic b. Antihypertensive c. Antibiotic d. Antipsychotic

b. Antihypertensive

Which action(s) will the nurse take when caring for a patient with heart failure? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer diuretics at bedtime. b. Assess electrolyte levels. c. Report daily weight fluctuations. d. Encourage sodium intake. e. Maintain skin hygiene.

b. Assess electrolyte levels. c. Report daily weight fluctuations. e. Maintain skin hygiene.

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding valsartan-sacubitril (Entresto)? (Select all that apply.) a. Increases preload b. Blocks angiotensin-mediated peripheral vasoconstriction c. Suppresses aldosterone d. It promotes norepinephrine secretion e. Causes vasodilation

b. Blocks angiotensin-mediated peripheral vasoconstriction c. Suppresses aldosterone e. Causes vasodilation

Which treatment(s) would be considered safe for an infant? (Select all that apply.) a. Saline laxatives b. Bulk-forming laxatives c. Malt soup extract d. Stimulant laxatives

b. Bulk-forming laxatives c. Malt soup extract

. The nurse is administering sulfonylurea drugs to four different patients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which patient should not receive the medication as ordered? a. A 42-year-old man with hypertension b. A 50-year-old woman with shingles c. An 80-year-old woman with an allergy to sulfa d. A 37-year-old man with a blood glucose level of 140

c. An 80-year-old woman with an allergy to sulfa

Which condition is albuterol (Proventil) used to treat? a. Acute bronchospasm b. Acute allergies c. Nasal congestion d. Dyspnea on exertion

a. Acute bronchospasm

Which natural estrogenic hormones produced in the ovaries is the most potent? a. Estradiol b. Estrone c. Estriol d. Estrogen

a. Estradiol

Which physical assessment(s) would be pertinent to the patient with asthma? (Select all that apply.) a. Lung sounds b. Patient color c. Respiratory rate and effort d. Peak expiratory flow e. Pulse oximetry reading f. Bowel sounds

a. Lung sounds b. Patient color c. Respiratory rate and effort d. Peak expiratory flow e. Pulse oximetry reading

Which assessment information is pertinent to oral health? (Select all that apply.) a. Medication history b. Dental history, visit frequency c. Presence of halitosis d. Amount of saliva present e. Bowel sound

a. Medication history b. Dental history, visit frequency c. Presence of halitosis d. Amount of saliva present

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving palliative care with opioid-induced constipation. Laxative therapy has been unsuccessful in treating this patient. Which PRN medication should the nurse provide to best alleviate this type of constipation? a. Methylnaltrexone b. Bisacodyl c. Mineral oil d. Docusate

a. Methylnaltrexone

Which medication is used in the treatment of gastric reflux esophagitis and diabetic gastroparesis? a. Metoclopramide b. Misoprostol c. Pantoprazole d. Ranitidine

a. Metoclopramide

Which rationale explains when allergic rhinitis occurs? (Select all that apply.) a. Nasal mucosa become inflamed. b. Exposure as a result of an allergen produces inflammation. c. Histamine is released following allergen exposure. d. The weather is cold during the winter. e. A person has an initial exposure to an antigen.

a. Nasal mucosa become inflamed. b. Exposure as a result of an allergen produces inflammation. c. Histamine is released following allergen exposure.

A patient at sports camp is complaining of itchy and watery eyes, coughing, and sneezing when outdoors. The patient's chart states that he has an allergy to grasses. Which medication will the nurse administer? a. Antitussive b. Expectorant c. Antihistamine d. Decongestant

c. Antihistamine

Which information provided by the nurse is accurate when teaching a patient with a history of COPD to self-administer tiotropium (Spiriva) by dry powder inhalation? a. The medication capsules can be used multiple times. b. Press on the canister while inhaling. c. Avoid breathing into the mouthpiece. d. Wash the device with cold water.

c. Avoid breathing into the mouthpiece.

Which drug therapy is aimed at reducing gastric acid secretions? (Select all that apply.) a. Prokinetic agents b. Antacids c. H2 antagonists d. Proton pump inhibitors e. Coating agents

c. H2 antagonists d. Proton pump inhibitors

Which class of drug is cimetidine (Tagamet)? a. Protokinetic agent b. Proton pump inhibitor c. Histamine (H2) receptor antagonist d. Coating agent

c. Histamine (H2) receptor antagonist

Which effect would the nurse anticipate if a patient with a history of type 2 diabetes is prescribed a thiazide diuretic? a. No change in the antidiabetic regimen b. Decreased need for antidiabetic medication c. Increased blood sugar levels d. Less frequent monitoring of blood sugar level

c. Increased blood sugar levels

Which statement about ranolazine (Ranexa), a fatty oxidase enzyme inhibitor, is true? a. It causes coronary artery vasodilation. b. It causes no gastrointestinal (GI) side effects. c. It causes Q-T interval prolongation. d. It elevates LDL levels.

c. It causes Q-T interval prolongation.

Which drug would assist in relieving symptoms for a patient that reports moderate bladder pain and spasms secondary to a UTI? a. Tolterodine (Detrol) b. Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin) c. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) d. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan)

c. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium)

Which condition will neostigmine be used to treat? a. OAB b. UTI c. Postoperative or postdelivery urinary retention d. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

c. Postoperative or postdelivery urinary retention

Which rationale applies to administering glucocorticoid therapy as an adjunct to chemotherapeutic agents? a. Assists with pain control. b. Raises blood sugar to meet the increased metabolic needs. c. Produces immunosuppression effects. d. Reduces mucositis

c. Produces immunosuppression effects.

Which reason indicates the reason that betamethasone IM will be administered to the mother in premature labor? a. Stops uterine contractions b. Prevents precipitous labor c. Stimulates lung maturity in the fetus d. Stimulates prolactin to enhance breastfeeding

c. Stimulates lung maturity in the fetus

The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old girl who has a congenital heart anomaly. The patient's current medications include digoxin and furosemide (Lasix). The apical pulse rate is 100 beats/min. Which action will the nurse take? a. Administer the medication. b. Contact the pediatric cardiologist for further orders. c. Hold the digoxin. d. Request that another unit nurse assess the child.

a. Administer the medication.

Which agents are considered major chemotherapeutic agents? (Select all that apply.) a. Alkylating agents b. Antineoplastic antibiotics c. Hormones d. Antimetabolites e. Antinuclear antibodies f. Chelating agents

a. Alkylating agents b. Antineoplastic antibiotics c. Hormones d. Antimetabolites

The nurse in a long-term care facility is preparing to pass medications to the residents. Which residents should be administered an antidiarrheal? (Select all that apply.) a. An 80-year-old woman with diarrhea of sudden onset that has lasted 3 days b. A 76-year-old man with infectious diarrhea c. A 92-year-old man with diarrhea secondary to inflammatory bowel disease d. A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic diarrhea from GI surgery e. An 88-year-old man that has had two episodes of stress-induced diarrhea

a. An 80-year-old woman with diarrhea of sudden onset that has lasted 3 days b. A 76-year-old man with infectious diarrhea d. A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic diarrhea from GI surgery

Which consideration will the nurse take into account when caring for a 27-year-old patient taking a cannabinoid during chemotherapy? a. Antihistamines may potentiate the effects. b. Monitor the patient for fluid volume excess. c. Previous use of marijuana requires increased dosage. d. Inform the patient to avoid the intake of potassium.

a. Antihistamines may potentiate the effects.

Which action(s) will the nurse perform when a patient is receiving total parenteral nutrition? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for electrolyte imbalance. b. Check residual volume qid. c. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position. d. Monitor blood glucose levels. e. Discard the solution every 24 hours.

a. Assess for electrolyte imbalance. d. Monitor blood glucose levels. e. Discard the solution every 24 hours

Which nursing intervention(s) would be performed for a patient who is on diuretic therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Auscultation of lung sounds b. Assessment of skin turgor c. Initiation of electrolyte supplements d. Positioning techniques e. Monitoring of intake and output

a. Auscultation of lung sounds b. Assessment of skin turgor d. Positioning techniques e. Monitoring of intake and output

The nurse is completing education for a patient who will be undergoing chemotherapy next week. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan in anticipation of adverse effects associated with oral mucositis resulting from chemotherapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid acidic and spicy foods. b. Using docosanol (Abreva) will decrease the pain. c. Milk of Magnesia can be used to rinse the mouth and coat mucous membranes. d. Nystatin liquid can be taken orally to eliminate fungal infections. e. Cleanse the oral cavity before applying topical agents. f. Rinse the mouth with an over-the-counter (OTC) mouthwash.

a. Avoid acidic and spicy foods. c. Milk of Magnesia can be used to rinse the mouth and coat mucous membranes. d. Nystatin liquid can be taken orally to eliminate fungal infections. e. Cleanse the oral cavity before applying topical agents.

Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing, nasal itching, stuffiness, and rhinorrhea? (Select all that apply.) a. Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ) b. Prednisone (Deltasone) c. Fluticasone (Flonase) d. Flunisolide (Nasarel) e. Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)

a. Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ) c. Fluticasone (Flonase) d. Flunisolide (Nasarel) e. Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)

Which laboratory study result(s) should the nurse ensure is/are available before initiating a new order for ranolazine (Ranexa)? (Select all that apply.) a. Electrocardiography b. BUN c. Creatinine d. Electrolyte levels e. CBC

a. Electrocardiography b. BUN c. Creatinine d. Electrolyte levels e. CBC

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient with Raynaud's disease who is soon to be discharged. Which information will be included to improve circulation and prevent complications when preparing a teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with Raynaud's disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Begin a daily exercise program. b. Keep hands and feet warm. c. Surgery is often the most effective treatment. d. Elevate the lower extremities when reclining. e. Smoking cessation will improve outcomes.

a. Begin a daily exercise program. b. Keep hands and feet warm. e. Smoking cessation will improve outcomes.

Which steps are necessary in the assessment of the patient preparing for treatment PVD with pentoxifylline (Trental)? (Select all that apply.) a. Check for intolerance to caffeine. b. Obtain baseline data on pain that may be present. c. Obtain test results for PT and aPTT. d. Perform baseline gastrointestinal assessment to determine if the patient has nausea, vomiting, or dyspepsia. e. Ask specifically if the patient has any cardiac symptoms or dizziness. f. Schedule the patient for an exercise stress test.

a. Check for intolerance to caffeine. b. Obtain baseline data on pain that may be present. d. Perform baseline gastrointestinal assessment to determine if the patient has nausea, vomiting, or dyspepsia. e. Ask specifically if the patient has any cardiac symptoms or dizziness.

Which important point(s) will the nurse include when preparing discharge education for a patient who will be receiving warfarin (Coumadin) at home? (Select all that apply.) a. Do not make any major changes to your diet without discussing it with your healthcare provider. b. Keep outpatient laboratory appointments for monitoring of therapy. c. Take the medication after meals. d. Report signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider, including observing skin for bruising; petechiae; blood in emesis, urine, or stools; bleeding gums; cold, clammy skin; faintness; or altered sensorium. e. Avoid aspirin products.

a. Do not make any major changes to your diet without discussing it with your healthcare provider. b. Keep outpatient laboratory appointments for monitoring of therapy. c. Take the medication after meals. d. Report signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider, including observing skin for bruising; petechiae; blood in emesis, urine, or stools; bleeding gums; cold, clammy skin; faintness; or altered sensorium.

Which information will the nurse include when preparing education for a patient who has developed rebound nasal congestion resulting from use of topical decongestants? (Select all that apply.) a. For future topical decongestant use, follow the dosage directions daily. Do not overuse. b. Stop the topical decongestant at once. c. A decrease in congestion will occur immediately. d. Nasal steroid solutions can be used but may take several days to reduce inflammation and congestion. e. Use nasal saline spray to moisturize irritated mucosa.

a. For future topical decongestant use, follow the dosage directions daily. Do not overuse. b. Stop the topical decongestant at once. d. Nasal steroid solutions can be used but may take several days to reduce inflammation and congestion. e. Use nasal saline spray to moisturize irritated mucosa.

Which principle(s) would be when teaching a patient to use a steroid inhaler? (Select all that apply.) a. Frequent oral hygiene is necessary. b. The inhaler should be used on a PRN basis only. c. Rinse and spit after inhalation of the medication. d. When taking a steroid drug as well as a bronchodilator, the bronchodilator should be administered first. e. Hold the breath for 10 seconds during inhalation of the medication.

a. Frequent oral hygiene is necessary. c. Rinse and spit after inhalation of the medication. d. When taking a steroid drug as well as a bronchodilator, the bronchodilator should be administered first. e. Hold the breath for 10 seconds during inhalation of the medication.

Which drug is incompatible with heparin? a. Gentamicin b. Ampicillin (Unasyn) c. Ticarcillin (Timentin) d. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

a. Gentamicin

Which organism or disorder is responsible for many cases of PUD? a. H. pylori b. Candida albicans c. Escherichia coli d. Herpes zoster

a. H. pylori

Which disorder(s) contribute to the development of electrolyte disturbances during diuretic therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. History of cardiac disease b. History of renal disease c. History of hormonal disorders d. History of psychiatric illness e. Massive trauma f. Serious burns g. Overhydration

a. History of cardiac disease b. History of renal disease c. History of hormonal disorders d. History of psychiatric illness e. Massive trauma f. Serious burns g. Overhydration

Which assessments are included in the baseline assessment of PVD? (Select all that apply.) a. History of heart disease b. Smoking and dietary habits c. Current medications d. Weight e. Limb pain f. Mental status

a. History of heart disease b. Smoking and dietary habits c. Current medications d. Weight e. Limb pain f. Mental status

Which contributing factor(s) to heart failure is/are modifiable? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Addiction to smoking c. Genetic history d. Exercise tolerance e. Age

a. Hypertension b. Addiction to smoking d. Exercise tolerance

Which medical condition(s) may contribute to fluid volume excess? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Liver disease c. Pregnancy d. Use of corticosteroids e. Skin disorders

a. Hypertension b. Liver disease c. Pregnancy d. Use of corticosteroids

Which sign(s) and symptom(s) is/are consistent with dehydration? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit b. Decreased urine specific gravity c. Mental confusion and excessive thirst d. Periorbital edema and increased blood pressure e. Nonelastic skin turgor and delayed capillary filling

a. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit c. Mental confusion and excessive thirst e. Nonelastic skin turgor and delayed capillary filling

Which agents stimulate the heart to increase the force of contractions, thereby increasing cardiac output? a. Inotropic b. Chronotropic c. Isotonic d. Isopropyl

a. Inotropic

Which rationale explains why a paraplegic patient would receive baclofen (Lioresal)? a. Interruption of reflexes at the level of the spinal cord. b. Acts directly on the skeletal muscles to reduce spasticity. c. Interruption of the transmission of impulses from motor nerves to muscles at the skeletal neuromuscular junction. d. Production of generalized mild weak

a. Interruption of reflexes at the level of the spinal cord.

Which statement(s) about ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is/are true? (Select all that apply.) a. It is administered by aerosol inhalation. b. It relieves nasal congestion. c. It decreases mucus secretion. d. It has minimal effect on ciliary activity. e. It is used for short-term treatment of bronchospasm. f. It may cause tachycardia or urinary retention.

a. It is administered by aerosol inhalation. d. It has minimal effect on ciliary activity. f. It may cause tachycardia or urinary retention.

Which serum potassium level is expected in a patient who has severe vomiting and diarrhea? a. Less than 3.5 mEq/L b. Between 3.5 and 4.5 mEq/L c. Between 4.6 and 5 mEq/L d. Higher than 5.5 mEq/L

a. Less than 3.5 mEq/L

Which medication is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism? a. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) b. Radioactive iodine c. Propylthiouracil (Propacil) d. Methimazole (Tapazole)

a. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

A patient going on vacation asks the nurse what can given to a 3-year-old child who becomes car sick. Which response(s) would be accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. Positioning techniques such as placing the child facing forward and blocking out scenery through the side windows can be helpful. b. There is no such thing as car sickness. c. If your child does vomit, give over-the-counter Benadryl.‖ d. I would check with the pharmacist regarding over-the-counter products available for young children.

a. Positioning techniques such as placing the child facing forward and blocking out scenery through the side windows can be helpful. d. I would check with the pharmacist regarding over-the-counter products available for young children.

Which way(s) describe(s) the action(s) of pharmacologic agents used to treat DVT? (Select all that apply.) a. Prevent platelet aggregation. b. Prevent the extension of existing clots. c. Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade. d. Prolong bleeding time. e. Lower serum triglycerides.

a. Prevent platelet aggregation. b. Prevent the extension of existing clots. c. Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade. d. Prolong bleeding time.

Which action will be implemented when assisting with the care of a patient with hyperthyroidism? a. Provide a cool environment. b. Anticipate ordering a low-calorie diet. c. Limit daily caffeine intake. d. Encourage intake of bran products.

a. Provide a cool environment.

Which physical assessment(s) indicate(s) fluid volume excess? (Select all that apply.) a. Rapid, bounding, irregular pulse rate b. Clear lung sounds c. 3+ pitting ankle edema d. Neck vein engorgement e. Shortness of breath

a. Rapid, bounding, irregular pulse rate c. 3+ pitting ankle edema d. Neck vein engorgement e. Shortness of breath

Which instruction by the nurse will be included when teaching an adult patient about digoxin (Lanoxin) for management of heart failure? a. Report nausea and vomiting to your healthcare provider. b. Decrease the amount of high potassium foods you eat. c. Omit your dose of digoxin if your pulse is 60 beats/min. d. Visual disturbances are common adverse effects.

a. Report nausea and vomiting to your healthcare provider.

Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse takes the adult patient's apical pulse for 1 full minute. Which additional nursing consideration(s) will be taken before administration of the medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Review of the digoxin blood level b. Administration of the medication with pulse less than 60 beats/min c. Review of serum electrolytes, liver, and kidney function studies d. Administration of the medication with a pulse of 110 beats/min e. Obtaining baseline patient assessment data, including lung sounds, vital signs, and weight

a. Review of the digoxin blood level c. Review of serum electrolytes, liver, and kidney function studies e. Obtaining baseline patient assessment data, including lung sounds, vital signs, and weight

Which premedication assessment(s) would the nurse obtain prior to the initiation of bumetanide (Bumex)? (Select all that apply.) a. Serum potassium b. Bowel sounds c. Lung sounds d. Orientation level e. Blood pressure

a. Serum potassium c. Lung sounds d. Orientation level e. Blood pressure

Which lab value will alert the nurse to notify the physician when reviewing lab work received on a patient admitted with the diagnosis of dehydration? a. Serum sodium level: 115 mEq/L b. Serum potassium level: 5.0 mEq/L c. Serum sodium level: 140 mEq/L d. Serum potassium level: 3.5 mEq/L

a. Serum sodium level: 115 mEq/L

Which assessments would be most important to include in obtaining the history on an older adult patient with a history of COPD whose diagnosis is pneumonia? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking history and exposure to secondhand smoke b. Current medications c. Chief complaint and onset of symptoms d. Support system e. Home oxygen use f. Liver function

a. Smoking history and exposure to secondhand smoke b. Current medications c. Chief complaint and onset of symptoms d. Support system e. Home oxygen use f. Liver function

. Which explanation describes where fluids of the respiratory tract originate? a. Specialized mucous glands called goblet cells b. Lymph fluid drawn across nasal membranes by osmosis c. Specialized beta cells in the islets of Langerhans d. Cells that produce aqueous humor

a. Specialized mucous glands called goblet cells

Which response by the nurse is correct when a patient asks the nurse how sulfonylureas normalize glucose levels? a. Stimulates pancreatic secretion of insulin b. Inhibits secretion of insulin by the pancreas c. Increases glucose production in the liver d. Increases insulin metabolism in the liver

a. Stimulates pancreatic secretion of insulin

Which medication would be prescribed to a patient who has had a myocardial infarction is advised to avoid straining with defecation? a. Stool softeners b. Bulk-forming laxatives c. Stimulants d. Emollients

a. Stool softeners

Which food is a good source of vitamin A? a. Sweet potatoes b. Apples c. Bananas d. Whole-grain bread

a. Sweet potatoes

Which statement is true about arterial blood gases (ABGs)? (Select all that apply.) a. They are measured from an arterial sample. b. They measure partial pressures of carbon dioxide. c. They measure blood pH. d. They measure partial pressures of sodium. e. They measure partial pressures of oxygen.

a. They are measured from an arterial sample. b. They measure partial pressures of carbon dioxide. c. They measure blood pH. e. They measure partial pressures of oxygen.

Which condition is present when white, milk curd-appearing plaques are observed attached to the oral mucosa? a. Thrush b. Canker sores c. Cold sores d. Mucositis

a. Thrush

Which situation(s) will the use of anticoagulant therapy be anticipated? (Select all that apply.) a. To prevent stroke in patients at high risk b. Following a myocardial infarction c. Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery d. With DVT e. To prevent thrombosis in immobilized patients f. Peptic ulcer disease

a. To prevent stroke in patients at high risk b. Following a myocardial infarction c. Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery d. With DVT e. To prevent thrombosis in immobilized patients f. Peptic ulcer disease

Which statement(s) regarding type 2 diabetes mellitus would be correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in overweight people older than 45 years. b. A genetic predisposition exists for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. c. Type 2 diabetes requires lifelong insulin replacement. d. Type 2 diabetes is often diagnosed after complications have resulted. e. Women have a higher incidence of type 2 diabetes.

a. Type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in overweight people older than 45 years. b. A genetic predisposition exists for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. d. Type 2 diabetes is often diagnosed after complications have resulted. e. Women have a higher incidence of type 2 diabetes.

Which lifestyle modification(s) will the nurse include when educating the patient with angina pectoris? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight-reduction therapy b. Low-potassium diet c. Smoking cessation d. Stress management e. Independent exercise

a. Weight-reduction therapy c. Smoking cessation d. Stress management

Which information will the nurse include when instructing a patient on the correct method of instilling eyedrops? (Select all that apply.) a. With an infection, prevent cross-contamination and use a separate source of medication and droppers for each eye. b. Wash hands before and after administration. c. Place the lid on the surface area as instructed to avoid contamination. d. Never touch the tip of the dropper or opening of the ointment container. e. Wipe eye from the outer to inner canthus.

a. With an infection, prevent cross-contamination and use a separate source of medication and droppers for each eye. b. Wash hands before and after administration. c. Place the lid on the surface area as instructed to avoid contamination. d. Never touch the tip of the dropper or opening of the ointment container. e. Wipe eye from the outer to inner canthus.

Which time will symptoms of hypoglycemia likely occur if a patient received the evening dose of Lispro subcutaneously at 1630 PM? a. 1900 b. 1830 c. 0130 d. 0600

b. 1830

Which local anesthetic is used for inflammation of oral mucous membranes? a. Chlorhexidine (Peridex) b. 2% viscous lidocaine c. Nystatin (Mycostatin) d. Hydrogen peroxide

b. 2% viscous lidocaine

The recovery room nurse is preparing to assist with the care of several postoperative patients. Which patient would the nurse prioritize care for regarding the potential for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)? a. A 5-year-old child undergoing a closed reduction procedure with regional anesthesia b. A 50-year-old woman undergoing a total hysterectomy with general anesthesia c. A 27-year-old man undergoing a middle ear manipulation with general anesthesia d. An 80-year-old man undergoing a total hip replacement with spinal anesthesia

b. A 50-year-old woman undergoing a total hysterectomy with general anesthesia

Which drug is used to obtain vasodilation in the treatment of chronic heart failure? a. ACTH b. ACE inhibitors c. ARBs d. ANB agents

b. ACE inhibitors

A patient admitted 48 hours ago has a diagnosis of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and is receiving IV hydration and transfusions. When making rounds, the nurse observes the patient to be having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which cause may apply to this seizure? a. Low blood counts as a result of bleeding b. Alcohol withdrawal c. Alkalosis d. Inadequate nutrition

b. Alcohol withdrawal

. Which statement is true regarding androgen therapy? a. Androgen use may cause hyperglycemia. b. Androgens should be administered with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation. c. Signs of masculinization will appear and are reversible. d. Electrolyte imbalances are extremely rare.

b. Androgens should be administered with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation.

Which laboratory values will the nurse review prior to beginning medication therapy for skeletal and muscle disorders? a. Sodium, magnesium, and chloride b. C-reactive protein (CRP), human leukocyte antigen (HLA), and liver function tests c. Arterial blood gases (ABGs), complete blood count (CBC), and electrolytes d. Glucose, high-density lipoproteins (HDL), and prothrombin time (PT)

b. C-reactive protein (CRP), human leukocyte antigen (HLA), and liver function tests

Which emergency drug must be available when caring for a patient receiving magnesium sulfate? a. Naloxone b. Calcium gluconate c. Dextrose d. Dopamine

b. Calcium gluconate

Which infection is often called the 'disease of the diseased' because it appears in debilitated patients? a. Aspergillosis b. Candidiasis c. Trichomoniasis d. Brucellosis

b. Candidiasis

Which medication, if administered with spironolactone (Aldactone), will alert the nurse to assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia? a. Propranolol (Inderal) b. Captopril (Capoten) c. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Ibuprofen (Motrin)

b. Captopril (Capoten)

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding the nursing assessment of a patient with a respiratory disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Central cyanosis typically is observed on the fingers and earlobes. b. Clubbing of the fingernails is a sign of hypoxia. c. As oxygen levels diminish, mental alertness will progressively deteriorate. d. The normal respiratory rate in an adult is 10 breaths/min. e. Episodes of apnea are present in Cheyne-Stokes.

b. Clubbing of the fingernails is a sign of hypoxia. c. As oxygen levels diminish, mental alertness will progressively deteriorate. e. Episodes of apnea are present in Cheyne-Stokes.

Which statement about dietary supplements is true? a. Dietary supplements are considered safe and effective. b. Dietary supplements have not been tested for safety or efficacy. c. There are no serious adverse effects to taking dietary supplements. d. Dietary supplements have full FDA and USP approval.

b. Dietary supplements have not been tested for safety or efficacy.

Which medication when given with digoxin increases the risk for toxicity? a. Potassium supplements b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) d. Antibiotics

b. Furosemide (Lasix)

A patient receiving IV heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his right calf asks why his calf remains painful, edematous, and warm to touch after 2 days of anticoagulant therapy. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. It takes at least 3 days for the symptoms to resolve once the clot dissolves. b. Heparin does not dissolve blood clots but neutralizes clotting factors, preventing extension of the clot and the possibility of it traveling elsewhere in your body. c. I will report this to your healthcare provider because there may be a need to look at alternative treatments. d. You appear anxious. The healthcare provider will eventually put you on ticlopidine, which allows for an earlier discharge.

b. Heparin does not dissolve blood clots but neutralizes clotting factors, preventing extension of the clot and the possibility of it traveling elsewhere in your body.

Which conditions present in patients must be carefully assessed to determine whether they would tolerate treatment with a neuromuscular-blocking agent? (Select all that apply.) a. Pregnancy b. Hepatic disease c. Pulmonary disease d. Renal disease e. Neurologic disorders f. Psychiatric disorders

b. Hepatic disease c. Pulmonary disease d. Renal disease e. Neurologic disorders

The health of a patient receiving androgen therapy for breast cancer declines and she becomes bedbound. Which condition will this patient be at risk of developing? a. Electrolyte imbalances b. Hypercalcemia c. Hyperglycemia d. Fluid overload

b. Hypercalcemia

Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants? a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Orbital edema d. Facial flushing

b. Hypertension

A patient is being treated with topical amlexanox paste 5% (Zilactin). Which statement by the patient indicates a knowledge deficit? a. This medicine will help control discomfort. b. I will apply the paste before meals. c. The paste will be applied to each lesion. d. Healing will be promoted.

b. I will apply the paste before meals.

Which action(s) will the nurse implement when providing care to a resident of a long-term care facility diagnosed with PVD? (Select all that apply.) a. Initiate elevation of lower extremities. b. Implement pain management as ordered. c. Assess skin temperature. d. Vigorously dry feet after washing. e. Palpate pedal pulses.

b. Implement pain management as ordered. c. Assess skin temperature. e. Palpate pedal pulses.

. A 65-year-old man is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which patient symptom(s) would indicate type 1 diabetes mellitus and not type 2? (Select all that apply.) a. Impotence b. Increased thirst over the past week c. A 10-lb weight loss within the past month d. Polyphagia e. Ketoacidosis

b. Increased thirst over the past week c. A 10-lb weight loss within the past month d. Polyphagia e. Ketoacidosis

Which action(s) will be taken when preparing to administer dalteparin (Fragmin) to a patient in order to prevent DVT following a hip replacement? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer intramuscularly. b. Inject slowly. c. Remove needle immediately after injection. d. Rub injection site following administration. e. Alternate injection sites every 24 hours.

b. Inject slowly. e. Alternate injection sites every 24 hours.

Which response by the nurse is the best when a patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent? a. It will eliminate your cough at night. b. It will reduce the frequency of your cough. c. It should be used in the morning. d. It should be taken before sleep.

b. It will reduce the frequency of your cough.

Which instructions will be provided to the patient when administering two inhalations of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)? (Select all that apply.) a. Hold the canister horizontally. b. Keep the eyes closed. c. Exhale through the mouthpiece. d. Wait 15 seconds before the second inhalation. e. Shake the canister thoroughly prior to use.

b. Keep the eyes closed. d. Wait 15 seconds before the second inhalation. e. Shake the canister thoroughly prior to use.

Which is an accurate nursing action when administering subcutaneous enoxaparin, a low-molecular-weight heparin product? a. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe. b. Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds after injection. c. Administer the medication into the deltoid muscle. d. Massage the site after injection to increase absorption.

b. Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds after injection.

Which drug would be most effective for an obstetric patient who is complaining of constipation as a result of her enlarging uterus and use of prenatal vitamins? a. Saline laxative b. Lubricant laxative c. Stimulant laxative d. Mineral oil

b. Lubricant laxative

Which intervention(s) will the nurse perform when assessing peripheral perfusion while performing a head-to-toe assessment on a resident in a long-term care facility with a history of angina pectoris? (Select all that apply.) a. Count heart rate and describe rhythm. b. Note any loss of hair on lower legs. c. Auscultate blood pressure. d. Check pedal pulses. e. Assess pupil reaction.

b. Note any loss of hair on lower legs. d. Check pedal pulses.

Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about insulin administration? a. I may need more insulin if I have surgery. b. Once I open my insulin, I will store it in the refrigerator. c. I will date the insulin bottle when I open it. d. I will keep a spare bottle of insulin on hand.

b. Once I open my insulin, I will store it in the refrigerator.

The nurse is assessing a patient with nausea and vomiting. Which additional autonomic symptoms that often accompany vomiting will the nurse observe? a. Bradycardia, diarrhea, and flushing b. Pallor, sweating, and tachycardia c. Urinary urgency, chills, and dizziness d. Fever, hyperventilation, and bradycardia

b. Pallor, sweating, and tachycardia

The nurse is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which goal set by the patient will require revision? a. Patient will participate in 20 minutes of cardiovascular exercise 5 days a week. b. Patient will discontinue insulin use within 1 year. c. Patient will consume 20% of caloric intake from fat. d. Patient will demonstrate accurate self-glucose testing skills.

b. Patient will discontinue insulin use within 1 year.

Which patient would use of a laxative be contraindicated? a. Patient with quadriplegia b. Patient with appendicitis c. Geriatric patient d . Patient with fractured femur

b. Patient with appendicitis

Which explanation by the nurse is accurate to include when teaching a patient who is beginning therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with metoclopramide? a. This medication decreases esophageal muscle tone to reduce reflux. b. Peristalsis is increased, so food is digested more quickly. c. Gastric emptying is delayed, so you may feel full for longer intervals. d. This medication is an antikinetic agent, so you may have difficulty with motor skills.

b. Peristalsis is increased, so food is digested more quickly.

Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)? a. Bradycardia b. Petechiae c. Increased urinary output d. Dry skin

b. Petechiae

Which factor(s) prevent(s) breakdown of the body's normal defense barriers that protect against ulcer formation? (Select all that apply.) a. Stomach pH b. Prostaglandins c. Intrinsic factor d. Mucous cells .e. Hydrochloric acid

b. Prostaglandins d. Mucous cells

Which information will be included when reviewing necessary dietary modifications and lifestyle changes with a patient diagnosed with GERD? (Select all that apply.) a. Regarding limiting coffee intake to 2 cups/day b. Regarding smoking cessation c. Regarding avoiding NSAIDs d. Regarding decreasing protein foods e. Regarding using nonfat milk

b. Regarding smoking cessation c. Regarding avoiding NSAIDs e. Regarding using nonfat milk

Which information will the nurse include in discharge teaching for patients on nitrate therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase caffeine in diet b. Relaxation techniques c. Proper storage of medications d. Pain assessment e. Isometric exercise program

b. Relaxation techniques c. Proper storage of medications d. Pain assessment

Which medication is a potassium sparing diuretic? a. Acetazolamide (Diamox) b. Spironolactone (Aldactone) c. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Bumetanide (Bumex)

b. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

Which intervention is most important for the successful management of diabetes mellitus? a. A network of community resources b. The level of self-management c. Preventative education d. Frequent follow-up with the healthcare provider

b. The level of self-management

Which information should be relayed to the patient when providing counseling on cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom) nasal spray? (Select all that apply.) a. Cromolyn must be taken immediately following exposure to the stimulus. b. The patient should blow the nose before nasal instillation. c. Therapeutic effects are immediate. d. Inhalation will cause coughing. e. The maximum is six sprays in each nostril daily.

b. The patient should blow the nose before nasal instillation. e. The maximum is six sprays in each nostril daily.

Which statement by a mother whose child has been diagnosed with asthma indicates a need for further teaching? a. I will place the stuffed animals in the freezer overnight. b. We will confine our dog to the kitchen area. c. I should wash bedding in hot water. d. A damp cloth should be used when I dust.

b. We will confine our dog to the kitchen area.

Which time is best for the nurse to administer Lispro? a. After the patient has started eating b. Within 10 to 15 minutes of eating c. 30 minutes before a meal d. 45 to 60 minutes before a meal

b. Within 10 to 15 minutes of eating

Which symptom should the nurse report to the healthcare provider when caring for a patient taking Pyridium for the diagnosis of UTI? (Select all that apply.) a. Orange-colored urine b. Yellow sclera c. Flushing of the skin d. Headache e. Increased pain and burning

b. Yellow sclera e. Increased pain and burning

The nurse is to administer digoxin to an 18-month-old patient who weighs 16.5 lb. Guidelines for administration read as follows: 0.0075 to 0.010 mg/kg/day. Which is a safe medication dosage? a. 0.05 mg b. 0.12 mg c. 0.074 mg d. 0.75 mg

c. 0.074 mg

The nurse is planning to administer an antacid to a patient diagnosed with PUD who will receive an H2 antagonist at 8:00 AM. Which time is most appropriate for the nurse to provide the antacid to this patient? a. With the H2 antagonist b. 30 minutes prior to the H2 antagonist c. 2 hours after the H2 antagonist d. Within an hour after the H2 antagonist

c. 2 hours after the H2 antagonist

Which number indicates the correct calculation of the pack years when a patient reports smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40

c. 20

Which time should antihistamines be administered? a. PRN throughout the day b. After contact with an allergen c. 45 minutes before exposure to an allergen d. Once nasal congestion begins

c. 45 minutes before exposure to an allergen

Which patient would be a candidate for radioactive iodine therapy? a. A 17-year-old woman with Graves' disease b. A 64-year-old woman with hypothyroidism c. A 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer d. An 82-year-old man with myxedema crisis

c. A 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer

A postoperative appendectomy patient has a nasogastric tube and wonders why the previous nurse told him that he was receiving an IV "ulcer-preventing" medication called ranitidine. The patient states that he has never had any stomach problems in his life. Which response is best by the nurse? a. This medication will cause the pH in your stomach to drop. b. This medication helps coat your stomach while the nasogastric tube is in place. c. Because you are not eating after surgery, this medication will help reduce the hydrochloric acid your stomach is still secreting. d. The nasogastric tube will cause peptic ulcer disease. This medication will help prevent that.‖

c. Because you are not eating after surgery, this medication will help reduce the hydrochloric acid your stomach is still secreting.

Dipyridamole (Persantine) has been used extensively in combination with warfarin to prevent the formation of thromboembolism after which type of event? a. Myocardial infarction b. Transient ischemic attack c. Cardiac valve replacement d. Heart transplant

c. Cardiac valve replacement

Which structures in the respiratory tract assist in removing foreign bodies such as smoke and bacteria? a. Villi b. Golgi bodies c. Ciliary hairs d. Erector pili

c. Ciliary hairs

A patient is admitted with complaints of dysuria, frequency, and lower back pain. The urinalysis report is positive for red blood cells, and the blood work shows an elevated white blood cell count. Which medication will the nurse anticipate that the healthcare provider will order? a. Meperidine (Demerol) b. Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) c. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) d. Metronidazole (Flagyl)

c. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

Which medication may be given to patients with allergic seasonal rhinitis who do not respond to antihistamines and sympathomimetics? a. Leukotrienes b. Mineralocorticoids c. Corticosteroids d. Cortisol

c. Corticosteroids

Which medical issue is St. John's wort used to treat? a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Asthma c. Depression d. Viral infections

c. Depression

The nurse is providing instruction to a patient recently prescribed a radioactive iodine isotope. Which action applies to this medication? a. Stimulates the synthesis of T3 and T4 hormones. b. Increases the storage of thyroxine before thyroid surgery. c. Destroys hyperactive thyroid tissue. d. Replaces deficient thyroid hormone

c. Destroys hyperactive thyroid tissue.

Which drug will be administered to a patient being admitted with severe digoxin intoxication? a. Amiodarone (Cordarone) b. Spironolactone (Aldactone) c. Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) d. Digitalis glycoside

c. Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)

Which statement(s) regarding gestational diabetes would be true? (Select all that apply.) a. It is diagnosed in about 2% of all pregnancies in the United States. b. It includes diabetic women who become pregnant. c. Fetal development may be complicated as a result of gestational diabetes. d. The risk of developing diabetes after pregnancy is increased. e. Most women with gestational diabetes have normal glucose tolerance postpartum. f. Women need to be reevaluated postpartum to determine their classification with respect to glucose tolerance.

c. Fetal development may be complicated as a result of gestational diabetes. d. The risk of developing diabetes after pregnancy is increased. e. Most women with gestational diabetes have normal glucose tolerance postpartum. f. Women need to be reevaluated postpartum to determine their classification with respect to glucose tolerance

The nurse has completed teaching to a patient recently prescribed cilostazol (Pletal). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. I will sit down if I feel lightheaded or faint. b. Because this medication helps my circulation, I will try to quit smoking. c. Grapefruit juice will increase the effects of this medication. d. Diarrhea may occur but likely will stop with continued therapy.

c. Grapefruit juice will increase the effects of this medication.

Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications? a. Dextromethorphan b. Diphenhydramine c. Guaifenesin d. Codeine

c. Guaifenesin

A resident in a long-term care facility diagnosed with COPD has a new medication order for indacaterol. Which information will be included when the nurse is providing medication education to the resident? a. It is a short-acting beta antagonist. b. The patient should wait approximately 5 minutes between inhalations. c. Onset of action is within 5 minutes. d. Duration of action is about 12 hours.

c. Onset of action is within 5 minutes.

Which electrolyte should the patient prescribed thiazide diuretics be instructed to increase the intake of? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium

c. Potassium

Which foods will the nurse recommend for a patient taking loop diuretics? a. Protein-rich foods such as poultry, whole grains, and fish b. Fiber-rich foods such as yellow vegetables, nuts, and lentils c. Potassium-rich foods such as raisins, figs, and bananas d. Sodium-rich foods such as canned vegetables and processed foods

c. Potassium-rich foods such as raisins, figs, and bananas

Which reaction occurs in the nasal structures when cholinergic fibers are stimulated? a. Dryness of mucous membranes in the nostrils b. Bleeding in the mucous membranes in the nostrils c. Production of serous and mucous secretions in the nostrils d. Enhanced olfactory perception in the mucous membranes of the nostrils

c. Production of serous and mucous secretions in the nostrils

Which medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism? a. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) b. Liotrix (Thyrolar) c. Propylthiouracil (Propacil) d. Liothyronine (Cytomel)

c. Propylthiouracil (Propacil)

A trauma patient arrives in the emergency department via EMS. He is bleeding profusely. A medical alert bracelet indicates that he is on heparin therapy. Which medication will the nurse most likely administer to counteract the action of heparin? a. Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) b. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) c. Protamine sulfate d. Vitamin K

c. Protamine sulfate

Which patient assessment would alert the nurse to withhold a loop diuretic? a. Crackles in the lung bases b. +2 pitting peripheral edema c. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L d. Weight gain of 2 lb in 2 days

c. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L

A patient is seen in the emergency department. The patient had been maintained on theophylline (Theo Dur), and a blood sample reveals the serum theophylline level is subtherapeutic. Which may cause a subtherapeutic serum level? a. Cimetidine use b. Drug tolerance c. Smoking d. Overuse of the inhaler

c. Smoking

A patient is receiving morphine for pain control. Which patient education information will the nurse emphasize about preventing constipation? a. Adequate hydration consists of four full glasses of water every day. b. Laxatives should be given on a daily basis. c. Stool softeners are taken on a regular basis during opioid use. d. Enemas should be given on a weekly basis.

c. Stool softeners are taken on a regular basis during opioid use.

Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seasonal rhinitis and blocked nasal passages about intranasal corticosteroid therapy? a. Clear your nasal passage after administration. b. Anticipate a therapeutic benefit within 24 hours. c. Use a decongestant prior to administration. d. Report nasal burning to your healthcare provider.

c. Use a decongestant prior to administration.

A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which was previously controlled with an oral antidiabetic agent, is hospitalized for treatment of a leg ulcer. The healthcare provider has ordered sliding scale insulin coverage with regular insulin for hyperglycemia. The nurse brings the injection into the room, and the patient becomes upset, stating ―I don't want to start taking that drug! I'll need it the rest of my life.‖ Which response is best? a. This is the same drug as the oral medication you were taking. It's a stronger dose while you are in the hospital. b. Don't worry. You shouldn't need this too often. As you feel better, your blood glucose level will drop. c. Your body is under stress right now, which raises your blood glucose level. This does not mean you will be on this drug permanently. Once you're feeling better, your provider will determine if your oral medication is all you will need. d. Your disease is progressing and your pancreas is producing less insulin. I know this is a hard time for you. Do you want to talk about it?

c. Your body is under stress right now, which raises your blood glucose level. This does not mean you will be on this drug permanently. Once you're feeling better, your provider will determine if your oral medication is all you will need.

Which patient can safely be treated with a fluoroquinolone medication? a. A 40 year old on steroid therapy b. A 15 year old with a sore throat c. A 70 year old with a gait abnormality d. A 30 year old with a fractured tibia

d. A 30 year old with a fractured tibia

Which test determines glycemic control over the previous 8 to 10 weeks? a. 24-hour glucose clearance test (GTT) b. Fructosamine test c. Fasting blood sugar (FBS) d. A1c test

d. A1c test

The nurse is preparing to administer medroxyprogesterone acetate as prescribed to a patient diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma. Which supply will the nurse obtain when preparing to provide this medication? a. A plastic medication cup b. A medicine dropper c. A subcutaneous needle and syringe d. An intramuscular (IM) needle and syringe

d. An intramuscular (IM) needle and syring

Which medication is most effective in preventing motion sickness? a. Serotonin antagonists b. Phenothiazines c. Corticosteroids d. Anticholinergics

d. Anticholinergics

Which condition is occurring when a patient experiences nausea immediately on entering the clinic to receive another course of chemotherapy? a. Psychogenic b. Chemotherapy induced c. Hyperemesis gravidarum d. Anticipatory nausea and vomiting

d. Anticipatory nausea and vomiting

A patient diagnosed with diabetes, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and angina reports to the nurse that she is taking an aloe juice drink to treat constipation. Which potential adverse reaction will the nurse prioritize when assessing this patient? a. Pulse rate b. Blood pressure c. Lung sounds d. Blood glucose monitoring

d. Blood glucose monitoring

Which type of laxative is the best choice for an older patient who is in the end stage of Alzheimer's disease and requires a daily laxative? a. Emollient b. Stimulant c. Fecal softener d. Bulk forming

d. Bulk forming

Which adverse effect is associated with the use of a corticosteroid inhaler? a. Mucositis b. Plaque c. Xerostomia d. Candidiasis

d. Candidiasis

Which action will the nurse take when providing foot care to a patient diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease? a. Assist the patient to a supine position. b. Keep feet moistened with lotion. c. Trim toenails daily. d. Change socks daily

d. Change socks daily

Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has a good understanding of PVD? a. Symptoms are warning signs of the increased potential to develop diseases. b. Pharmacologic treatments can reverse the disease process. c. Surgical interventions will cure the disease. d. Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease.

d. Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease.

Which condition can occur if congenital hypothyroidism is not treated? a. Diabetes b. Impaired vision c. Periorbital edema d. Cretinism

d. Cretinism

Which effect will the nurse expect when a patient is taking psyllium while on digoxin? a. Decreased effectiveness of the laxative b. Increased laxative effect c. Increased absorption of the digoxin d. Decreased absorption of the digoxin

d. Decreased absorption of the digoxin

. After a blood glucose reading, it is determined that the patient should receive 4 units of Lispro and 8 units of NPH. Which action will the nurse take to administer these medications? a. Draw up each insulin in separate syringes and administer two injections. b. Draw up the NPH first and then the Lispro using the same syringe. c. Administer the Lispro before the meal and the NPH after the meal. d. Draw up the Lispro first and then the NPH using the same syringe.

d. Draw up the Lispro first and then the NPH using the same syringe.

Which position is best for the patient diagnosed with altered cardiac function when auscultating their lung sounds? a. Prone b. Supine c. Sims' d. Fowler's

d. Fowler's

On admission, a patient with a history of cardiac insufficiency complains of shortness of breath. The nurse auscultates the lungs and notes bilateral crackles throughout both fields. In addition, there is bilateral +2 edema of the lower extremities. Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the healthcare provider will prescribe? a. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) c. Mannitol d. Furosemide (Lasix)

d. Furosemide (Lasix)

Which herbal medicine may improve a patient's short-term memory loss and cognitive function? a. Ginger b. Green tea c. Feverfew d. Ginkgo biloba extract

d. Ginkgo biloba extract

Which condition will premedication assessments before the use of anticholinergic bronchodilating agents verify that the patient does not have in their history? a. Diabetes b. Hypertension c. Liver disease d. Glaucoma

d. Glaucoma

Which statement by a patient recently prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) indicates the need for further teaching? a. I will always wear a medical alert bracelet. b. I will check with my healthcare provider before I take any OTC medications. c. I will be careful when I use a knife or other sharp objects. d. I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash instead of brushing my teeth.

d. I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash instead of brushing my teeth.

Which statement by a patient indicates the need for further teaching about potassium sparing diuretic therapy? a. I will take my medication in the morning. b. I will report a weight gain of 2 lb in 2 days. c. I will rise slowly when I get up from a sitting position. d. I will use a salt substitute because I limit my salt intake.‖

d. I will use a salt substitute because I limit my salt intake.

Which action will the nurse take when caring for a 27-year-old woman on the postpartum unit one day following a C-section to prevent clot formation? a. Position the patient with knees flexed. b. Initiate use of fitted thromboembolic disease deterrent (TED) stockings. c. Maintain complete bed rest. d. Implement deep breathing and coughing exercises.

d. Implement deep breathing and coughing exercises.

Which drug would the nurse expect to administer when treating hyperemesis gravidarum? a. THC (Marinol) b. Haloperidol (Haldol) c. Dexamethasone (Prednisone) d. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

d. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Which action will the nurse take first when assessing a patient's leg for peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and unable to palpate the pedal pulse in either foot? a. Contact the healthcare provider for further orders. b. Request x-ray studies of the lower extremities. c. Request that the patient lie flat. d. Obtain a Doppler ultrasound device for auscultation.

d. Obtain a Doppler ultrasound device for auscultation.

The nurse is assisting with care of a patient on chemotherapy with severe mucositis. The patient reports mucous membrane pain level to be "8" on the pain scale. Which priority nursing problem exists for this patient? a. Decreased nutrition b. Potential aspiration risk c. Dehydration d. Pain.

d. Pain.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cold sores? a. Use of drying agents prevents the spread of secretions. b. Erupted lesions are not contagious. c. Eruptions are related to breaks in personal hygiene. d. Pus-filled lesions indicate a secondary bacterial infection.

d. Pus-filled lesions indicate a secondary bacterial infection.

Which example best identifies normal bowel elimination? a. Daily bowel movements b. Multiple soft stools daily c. Daily liquid stools d. Regular bowel elimination pattern of soft stool

d. Regular bowel elimination pattern of soft stool

Which treatment will the nurse encourage when a patient using carbamide peroxide (Gly-Oxide) to treat multiple canker sores develops tissue irritation, a black hairy tongue and asks what can be done to soothe the pain? a. Milk of Magnesia b. Viscous lidocaine 2% c. Salivart d. Saline rinses

d. Saline rinses

The nurse is teaching a patient about dietary implications while on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which salad is highest in vitamin K? a. Fruit b. Pasta c. Potato d. Spinach

d. Spinach

Which action will the nurse take when within minutes of the initiation of a nebulizer treatment with a sympathomimetic bronchodilator, the patient turns on their call light and states that they feels panicky and their heart is racing? a. Reassure the patient this is expected. b. Add more diluents to the nebulizer. c. Administer a sedative. d. Stop treatment and notify the healthcare provider.

d. Stop treatment and notify the healthcare provider.

Which action should be encouraged for a patient taking misoprostol (Cytotec) to treat a gastric ulcer reports recurrent diarrhea? a. Immediately discontinue misoprostol (Cytotec). b. Take with a magnesium-containing antacid. c. Omit fresh fruits from diet. d. Take medication with meals.

d. Take medication with meals.

The nurse is instructing a patient on use of a transdermal contraceptive. Which statement by the patient identifies a need for further education? a. Apply the first patch during the first 24 hours of the menstrual period. b. Use a backup contraceptive concurrently for the first 7 days of the first cycle. c. Fold the used patch over on itself before discarding. d. Trim the patch carefully prior to application.

d. Trim the patch carefully prior to application.

Which assessment is correct when a urinalysis is positive for the drug tested? a. Indicates illegal drug use b. Verifies drug dependency c. Is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights d. Verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen

d. Verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen

Which prescription must be administered before glucose infusions for a patient in alcohol withdrawal to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy? a. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) b. Thiamine c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)

b. Thiamine

Which drugs may reach toxic blood levels if administered with macrolide antibiotics? (Select all that apply.) a. Benzodiazepines b. Digoxin c. NSAIDs d. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors e. Diuretics f. Theophylline

a. Benzodiazepines b. Digoxin c. NSAIDs f. Theophylline

Which rationale explains how essential fatty acids are used in the body? (Select all that apply.) a. Build cell membranes b. Produce energy c. Produce prostaglandin d. Catalyze metabolic reactions e. Eicosanoid production f. Stimulate growth hormone

a. Build cell membranes c. Produce prostaglandin e. Eicosanoid production

A patient allergic to penicillin is being evaluated for a gram-negative infection. Which antimicrobial drug class would the healthcare provider be cautious in prescribing because of a possible cross sensitivity and/or allergic reaction? a. Cephalosporins b. Aminoglycosides c. Sulfonamides d. Quinolones

a. Cephalosporins

A patient states that she has a difficult time remembering when to resume her triphasic contraceptive pills following her menses. Which alternative plan will the nurse suggest that she discuss with her healthcare provider? a. Changing to the 28-day packet b. Using the inert pills every other month c. Changing her prescription to the mini pill d. Calling the healthcare provider whenever she forgets to get appropriate instruction

a. Changing to the 28-day packet

. Which information will the nurse include in discharge teaching provided to a postoperative total thyroidectomy patient is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid) daily? (Select all that apply.) a. Close follow-up with your healthcare provider is important. b. Notify your healthcare provider if you experience any palpitations or tachycardia. c. A variation in emotions and personality is normal during this adjustment period. d. Synthroid may be stopped as soon as the thyroid gland resumes functioning. e. When energy levels have returned, Synthroid will be gradually tapered.

a. Close follow-up with your healthcare provider is important. b. Notify your healthcare provider if you experience any palpitations or tachycardia. c. A variation in emotions and personality is normal during this adjustment period.

Which instruction is the most important for the nurse to remember when instructing the patient about treatment with gonadal hormones? a. Dosage, schedule, and adverse effects b. Cost, storage, and route of administration c. Drug interactions and food interactions d. Scheduling follow-up appointments and lab studies

a. Dosage, schedule, and adverse effects

Which explanation(s) by the nurse is accurate regarding fiber intake? (Select all that apply.) a. It adds bulk to fecal content. b. It enhances gastric emptying. c. It decreases blood cholesterol concentration. d. It decreases postprandial blood glucose concentration. e. It stimulates the appetite.

a. It adds bulk to fecal content. c. It decreases blood cholesterol concentration. e. It stimulates the appetite.

A patient is admitted with glomerulonephritis. IV gentamicin therapy is started after cultures indicate gram-negative bacilli in the blood. The patient also receives IV furosemide (Lasix). Which organ monitored for signs and symptoms of toxicity? a. Kidneys b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Brain

a. Kidneys

Which effect(s) can be attributed to green tea? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower cholesterol b. Lower triglycerides and LDLs c. Raise HDLs d. Lower blood glucose e. Preventing calcium loss f. Preventing viral infection

a. Lower cholesterol b. Lower triglycerides and LDLs c. Raise HDLs

Which drug is administered after delivery to reduce the risk of postpartum hemorrhage after the placenta has been delivered? a. Oxytocin (Pitocin) b. Magnesium sulfate c. Vitamin K d. Dopamine

a. Oxytocin (Pitocin)

A patient has been receiving home healthcare and IV antimicrobial therapy for osteomyelitis (infection of the bone) of the lower right leg for the past 4 weeks. Which assessment(s) will evaluate the effectiveness of the antimicrobial agent? (Select all that apply.) a. Pain of the right leg b. Patient temperature c. Presence of edema, redness, or swelling in the right lower leg d. Culture and sensitivity parameters at the drug completion e. Complete blood count (CBC) and sedimentation rate laboratory values

a. Pain of the right leg b. Patient temperature c. Presence of edema, redness, or swelling in the right lower leg e. Complete blood count (CBC) and sedimentation rate laboratory values

Which sign(s) and symptom(s) assessed by the nurse would indicate thrombocytopenia? (Select all that apply.) a. Pinpoint red rash b. Casts in urine c. Brown, fatty stools d. Increase in menstrual flow e. Coffee-ground emesis

a. Pinpoint red rash d. Increase in menstrual flow e. Coffee-ground emesis

Which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient asking about the use of salt substitutes while on a sodium-restricted diet? a. Salt substitutes may be high in potassium and should be used sparingly. b. Salt substitutes are safe for unlimited use. c. The salty flavor is reduced, so additional amounts are needed for desired flavor. d. Salt substitutes may interact with the patient's medications

a. Salt substitutes may be high in potassium and should be used sparingly.

Which condition(s) has aloe gel been marketed to treat? (Select all that apply.) a. Sunburn b. Psoriasis c. Migraine headaches d. Pain and inflammation e. Itching

a. Sunburn b. Psoriasis d. Pain and inflammation e. Itching

Which information regarding skin care will the nurse include when educating the patient on chemotherapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Vigorously drying the skin with a bath towel b. Avoiding sunlight c. Using mild soap d. Avoiding moisturizer e. Bathing in lukewarm water

b. Avoiding sunlight c. Using mild soap e. Bathing in lukewarm water

Which drug will the healthcare provider prescribe to soften the cervix of a woman who is at 42 weeks of gestation? a. Methylergonovine (Methergine) b. Dinoprostone (Prepidil) c. Betamethasone (Celestone) d. Terbutaline (Brethine)

b. Dinoprostone (Prepidil)

A patient calls inquiring about herbal treatment of hypercholesterolemia and other nonpharmaceutical measures to lower his cholesterol level. Which important concept(s) should be included in the response to this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Maintain daily dose of black cohosh. b. Drink one to four cups of green tea daily. c. Ingest one fresh clove of garlic daily. d. Maintain daily aspirin dose. e. Avoid concurrent use of garlic with ginkgo, ginger, feverfew, and ginseng.

b. Drink one to four cups of green tea daily. c. Ingest one fresh clove of garlic daily. e. Avoid concurrent use of garlic with ginkgo, ginger, feverfew, and ginseng.

Which herb is used to stimulate the innate immune system? a. Aloe b. Echinacea c. Chamomile d. Ginger

b. Echinacea

The nurse is preparing a patient for an ophthalmic examination. Which action occurs when the nurse instills eyedrops to produce mydriasis? a. Drying of tears in the eyes b. Extreme dilation of the pupil c. Opening of the canal of Schlemm d. Paralysis of the ciliary muscle

b. Extreme dilation of the pupil

Which common adverse effects occur with neuromuscular-blocking agents? a. Fever b. Flushing c. Nausea d. Ataxia

b. Flushing

Which urinalysis properties are indicative of an infection when reviewing the urinalysis results of an older adult patient admitted with elevated temperature and incontinence? (Select all that apply.) a. Straw color b. Foul odor c. Trace glucose d. pH of 8.2 e. Specific gravity of 1.014

b. Foul odor d. pH of 8.2

Which drugs do Fluoxetine, erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, miconazole, vinblastine, ritonavir, and nefazodone may inhibit the metabolism of? (Select all that apply.) a. Warfarin b. Tolterodine c. Phenytoin d. Darifenacin e. Heparin f. Solifenacin

b. Tolterodine d. Darifenacin f. Solifenacin

Which potential side effect will be addressed when preparing a female patient for the endocrine changes that may occur as a result of androgen changes? a. Priapism b. Voice changes c. Gynecomastia d. Fluid retention

b. Voice changes

Which drug(s) will the nurse identify as causing drug interactions when teaching a patient about estrogen therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Diazepam (Valium) b. Warfarin (Coumadin) c. Thyroid hormones d. Phenytoin (Dilantin) e. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

b. Warfarin (Coumadin) c. Thyroid hormones d. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain when a patient is being treated with a neuromuscular-blocking agent? a. Skin assessment for rash and urticaria b. Blood pressure assessment for orthostatic hypotension c. Respiratory assessment for patent airway d. Assessment for fluid volume overload

c. Respiratory assessment for patent airway

Which drug will the nurse administer to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis in the newborn? a. Silver nitrate b. Dexamethasone c. Erythromycin d. Vitamin K

c. Erythromycin

Which statement(s) made by a patient on a corticosteroid medication show(s) a need for further education? a. I should increase my potassium intake. b. I may have to decrease my fluid intake. c. I will avoid weight-bearing measures. d. I will change position frequently.‖

c. I will avoid weight-bearing measures.

A patient taking a neuromuscular-blocking agent is assessed to have a heart rate of 120 and blood pressure of 80/50. Which diagnostic test with the nurse anticipate the physician writing an order for? a. ABGs b. Blood glucose level c. CBC d. Liver function tests

a. ABGs

A patient has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and will begin daily oral corticosteroid treatment. Which baseline assessment(s) would be important for a patient receiving corticosteroids? (Select all that apply.) a. Baseline weight b. Blood pressure c. Complete blood cell count (CBC) d. Electrolyte studies e. Hydration status

a. Baseline weight b. Blood pressure d. Electrolyte studies e. Hydration status

Which information will the nurse include in discharge teaching for a patient with type 2 diabetes is being discharged on glucocorticoid (prednisone) therapy for rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.) a. Daily, single-dose therapy should be taken in the morning. b. The metabolic needs of your body will be increased. c. Steroids should never be discontinued abruptly. d. Signs and symptoms of infections may not be evident. e. Blood glucose levels will be elevated on corticosteroid therapy.

a. Daily, single-dose therapy should be taken in the morning. c. Steroids should never be discontinued abruptly. d. Signs and symptoms of infections may not be evident. e. Blood glucose levels will be elevated on corticosteroid therapy.

Which assessment data are needed to evaluate the patient in the emergency department whose chief complaint is a dislocated shoulder? (Select all that apply.) a. Details related to the mechanism of injury b. Degree of impairment c. Pain level d. Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia e. Elevation of the affected extremity

a. Details related to the mechanism of injury b. Degree of impairment c. Pain level d. Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia

. Which treatment(s) may be used alone or in combination for the treatment of cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgery b. Radiation c. Chemotherapy d. Immunotherapy e. Phlebotomy

a. Surgery b. Radiation c. Chemotherapy d. Immunotherapy

When assessing a patient for signs and symptoms of early respiratory depression immediately after leaving the postoperative area, the nurse will be alert for signs of what? (Select all that apply.) a.. Restlessness b. Anxiety c. Lethargy d. Increased mental alertness e. Cyanosis

a.. Restlessness b. Anxiety c. Lethargy

Which information should be conveyed to a patient regarding the use of the supplement ginseng? (Select all that apply.) a. Research has confirmed that ginseng increases the body's resistance to stress. b. Ginseng is available in tablet form. c. Insomnia can result from ginseng intake. d. Ginseng is an aphrodisiac. e. Ginseng may affect blood coagulation.

b. Ginseng is available in tablet form. c. Insomnia can result from ginseng intake. e. Ginseng may affect blood coagulation.

Which condition(s) would be of special concern when evaluating a patient for treatment with gonadal hormones? (Select all that apply.) a. Sexually transmitted disease b. Hypertension c. Liver disease d. Cancer of the reproductive organs e. Smoking

b. Hypertension c. Liver disease d. Cancer of the reproductive organs e. Smoking

Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about an anticholinergic agent prescribed for urinary retention? a. I will chew gum to relieve dry mouth. b. I will limit my fluid intake. c. I will eat fresh fruits. d. I will not drive if I develop blurred vision.

b. I will limit my fluid intake.

Which outcome is intended with the use of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)? a. Decreased nausea and vomiting b. Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy c. Maintenance of body weight d. Decreased renal toxicity

b. Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy

Which symptom is most important for the nurse to monitor when an older adult who has septicemia is receiving IV aminoglycoside therapy? a. Bone marrow suppression b. Ototoxicity c. Gastrointestinal (GI) distress d. Photosensitivity

b. Ototoxicity

Which type of psychiatric complication may be develop when a patient is on a high dosage of corticosteroids over a period of time? a. Lethargy b. Psychotic behaviors c. Manic phases d. Anxiety attacks

b. Psychotic behaviors

When are cancer cells most sensitive to chemotherapy? a. Resting phases b. Rapid division c. Remission intervals d. Slow replication

b. Rapid division

The nurse is planning to administer an ertapenem IV to a patient in the intensive care unit. Which solution should the nurse use when preparing to reconstitute this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Water b. Bacteriostatic water c. 0.9% sodium chloride d. 0.45% dextrose e. 1% lidocaine a. Water b. Bacteriostatic water c. 0.9% sodium chloride d. 0.45% dextrose e. 1% lidocaine

a. Water b. Bacteriostatic water c. 0.9% sodium chloride

Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber? a. Eggs, bacon, orange juice b. Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach c. Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk d. Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips

b. Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach

Which term relates to what becomes discolored by phenazopyridine (Pyridium) in addition to the urine? a. Feces b. Sclera c. Sputum d. Saliva

b. Sclera

Which position is best to assist a conscious patient from the postoperative unit after administration of a neuromuscular blocker into once vital signs are stable? a. Sims' b. Semi-Fowler's c. Supine d. Prone

b. Semi-Fowler's

Which characteristic applies to antithyroid drugs that act on the thyroid gland? (Select all that apply.) a. They are a physiologic hormone replacement. b. They block synthesis of T3 and T4 in the thyroid gland. c. They destroy T3 and T4. d. Immediate improvement is observed. e. They may be used before subtotal thyroidectomy

b. They block synthesis of T3 and T4 in the thyroid gland. d. Immediate improvement is observed.

Which rationale explains why a patient with prostate cancer is prescribed an estrogen? a. To achieve hormonal balance b. To decrease the rate of production for malignant cells c. To soften prostatic tissue d. To suppress prostate gland function

b. To decrease the rate of production for malignant cells

Which patient on oral contraceptive therapy will be at greatest risk for heart attack? a. A 34-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis b. A 28-year-old woman with a history of eczema c. A 36-year-old woman who smokes half a pack per day d. A 36-year-old woman who has a history of abnormal Pap smears

c. A 36-year-old woman who smokes half a pack per day

Which potential problem is the priority when caring for the neonate immediately following delivery? a. Bleeding b. Alteration in body temperature c. Airway clearance issues d. Infection

c. Airway clearance issues

Which organism causes most UTIs? a. Proteus mirabilis b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. E. coli d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c. E. coli

Which condition is characterized by seizures? a. Pregnancy-induced hypertension b. Preeclampsia c. Eclampsia d. Premature rupture of membranes

c. Eclampsia

Which rationale explains why bone marrow stimulants are used in the treatment of cancer? a. Increases uptake of the chemotherapy from the interior of the bones b. Strengthens bones weakened by pathologic processes c. Enhances the patient's immune system during treatment d. Protects the bone marrow from destructive actions from the cancer treatment

c. Enhances the patient's immune system during treatment

Which drug is the cornerstone of treatment for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis (TB)? a. Amphotericin B (Abelcet) b. Streptomycin (Streptomycin) c. Isoniazid (Nydrazid) d. Acyclovir (Zovirax)

c. Isoniazid (Nydrazid)

Which position will the nurse encourage when caring for a patient immediately following a right-sided trabeculectomy? a. Prone b. Right side-lying c. Left side-lying d. Trendelenburg

c. Left side-lying

A 36-week primigravida patient has been admitted to the unit with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg, severe headache, and edema. Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the healthcare provider will order? a. Nifedipine (Procardia) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Magnesium sulfate d. Terbutaline (Brethine)

c. Magnesium sulfate

Which adverse effect will the nurse will monitor on patients prescribed cephalosporins and loop diuretics? a. Hepatic toxicity b. Ototoxicity c. Nephrotoxicity d. Splenotoxicity

c. Nephrotoxicity

Which condition would most likely be present when assessing a patient for adverse effects of long-term glucocorticoid therapy? a. Dehydration b. Hypotension c. Osteoporosis d. Thrombocytopenia

c. Osteoporosis

What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss? a. Ear infection b. Drug allergy c. Ototoxicity d. Idiosyncratic reaction

c. Ototoxicity

A patient is receiving continuous tube feedings at 100 mL/hr. At 1400, the nurse determines that there is 175 mL of residual volume. Which action will the nurse take? a. Continue the feedings as ordered. b. Reduce the feeding by 50%. c. Stop the feeding and notify the healthcare provider. d. Aspirate and dispose of the residual and restart the feeding.

c. Stop the feeding and notify the healthcare provider.

A patient who is 8 weeks' postpartum would like to begin a moderate intensity exercise program to lose the remaining 20 lb she gained during her pregnancy. Which exercise regimen will the nurse recommend to accomplish this goal best? a. Walking 2 miles daily in 1 hour, four times weekly b. Jogging 4 miles in 20 minutes, three times weekly c. Walking 4 miles in 1 hour daily d. Jogging 2 miles in 20 minutes, twice weekly

c. Walking 4 miles in 1 hour daily

A patient has been on high-dose corticosteroid therapy for the treatment of lupus erythematosus. Which laboratory studies will the nurse monitor in addition to monitoring electrolyte levels? a. Complete blood count b. Partial thromboplastin time c. Liver function panel d. Blood glucose levels

d. Blood glucose levels

Which statement is accurate when educating a patient with cancer about combination chemotherapy? a. Combination chemotherapy is the administration of an antineoplastic drug that will be toxic during a specific phase of cellular growth. b. Combination chemotherapy is the administration of an antineoplastic drug that is active throughout the cell cycle c. Combination chemotherapy is the administration of antineoplastic drugs that change the way the body responds to cancer or strengthens the immune system. d. Combination chemotherapy is the administration of antineoplastic drugs, which results in cell death during different phases of the cell cycle.

d. Combination chemotherapy is the administration of antineoplastic drugs, which results in cell death during different phases of the cell cycle.

Which action applies to timolol maleate (Timoptic), a beta-adrenergic blocking agent? a. Draws aqueous humor from the eye into the circulatory network. b. Increases the production of aqueous humor. c. Increases the outflow of aqueous humor. d. Decreases the production of aqueous humor.

d. Decreases the production of aqueous humor.

Which discharge instruction will the nurse include for a patient sent home from the clinic who is taking an adrenergic ophthalmic solution for an acute inflammation? a. Headaches and eye pain are adverse effects to be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. b. Mouth dryness should be reported immediately. c. Avoid driving or operating machinery until blurring subsides. d. Halos or yellow rings around objects will be seen while taking this medication.

d. Halos or yellow rings around objects will be seen while taking this medication.

Which rationale describes the purpose of administering filgrastim (Neupogen) to a patient who is post-bowel resection resulting from cancer? a. Decreases the gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity resulting from chemotherapeutic agents. b. Suppresses the immune response. c. Works as an antiemetic and stimulate his appetite. d. Increases the white blood cell (WBC) counts.

d. Increases the white blood cell (WBC) counts.

The nurse is assisting with the development of care plan for a patient withdrawing from cocaine. Which problem would be the first priority for this patient? a. Poor nutrition b. Decreased peripheral tissue perfusion c. Fluid volume deficit d. Self-directed violence

d. Self-directed violence

Which patient assessment will the nurse expect to observe when a patient has ingested alcohol while on disulfiram (Antabuse)? a. Unconsciousness b. Hypertension c. GI bleeding d. Severe vomiting

d. Severe vomiting

A 26-year-old patient with preeclampsia is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. The 1400 assessment includes blood pressure, 100/70 mm Hg; respiration, 10; fetal heart tone, 100/min; urine output, 20 mL/hr; and absent patellar reflex. Which is the priority nursing action? a. Decrease IV magnesium sulfate to half the dose and reassess the patient and fetus in 15 minutes. b. Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and contact the healthcare provider. c. Place the patient on her left side and administer oxygen. d. Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and administer calcium gluconate 5 mEq IV over 3 minutes

d. Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and administer calcium gluconate 5 mEq IV over 3 minutes

Which drug is administered when a patient is experiencing premature labor? a. Magnesium sulfate b. Oxytocin (Pitocin) c. Levonorgestrel (Mirena) d. Terbutaline (Brethine)

d. Terbutaline (Brethine)

A patient is scheduled to take tetracycline and aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) at the same time. Which time accurately describes when the nurse will administer the medications to achieve the optimal effects? a. Both medications together b. Amphojel 30 minutes before tetracycline c. Tetracycline with orange juice d. Tetracycline 1 hour before Amphojel

d. Tetracycline 1 hour before Amphojel

Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate when a patient's family asks why neuromuscular-blocking agents are used before electroconvulsive therapy? a. They stimulate respirations while therapy is delivered. b. They prevent aspiration of respiratory secretions during the therapy. c. They decrease intracranial pressure resulting from therapy. d. They reduce the risk of injury during therapy.

d. They reduce the risk of injury during therapy.