Pharm Finale
A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best? a
"It will reduce the frequency of your cough."
Which instruction is most important for the nurse to teach a patient with diabetes who is receiving metformin?
Stop taking the drug 24 to 48 hours prior to radiopaque dye procedures.
Which drug will the nurse administer to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis in the newborn?
Erythromycin
Premedication assessments before the use of anticholinergic bronchodilating agents should verify that the patient has no history of which condition?
. Glaucoma
The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that a patient has sucralfate ordered qid. When is the best time to administer this medication?
1 hour before meals
The nurse is planning to administer an antacid to a patient diagnosed with PUD who will receive an H2 antagonist at 8:00 AM. When is the most appropriate time for the nurse to provide the antacid to this patient?
2 hours after the H2 antagonist
Which local anesthetic is used for inflammation of oral mucous membranes?
2% viscous lidocaine
Which patient on oral contraceptive therapy will be at greatest risk for heart attack?
A 36-year-old woman who smokes half a pack per day
What is the most common cause of nonadherence to antipsychotic pharmacologic treatment?
Extrapyramidal effects
Which drug is used to obtain vasodilation in the treatment of chronic heart failure?
ACE inhibitors
Which medication combinations may be beneficial in treating angina pectoris?
ACE inhibitors and statins
What is albuterol (Proventil) used to treat?
Acute bronchospasm
What will the nurse instruct patients who are on daily disulfiram (Antabuse) to avoid?
Alcohol
What will the nurse advise the patient to do to avoid the development of tolerance to nitroglycerin?
Allow for a daily 8 to 12 hour nitrate free period.
A patient with type 1 diabetes was prescribed a glucocorticoid for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which will the nurse expect in the treatment plan?
An increase in the insulin needed
What condition is occurring when a patient experiences nausea immediately on entering the clinic to receive another course of chemotherapy?
Anticipatory nausea and vomiting
Prostaglandin Inhibitors
Antidote Acetylcysteine
Benzodiazepines
Antidote Flumaxenil
Opiate Agonists and partial agonists
Antidote Naloxone and naltrexone ( Narcan)
Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
Antidote oxygen and neostigmine methyl sulfate (Prostigmin) pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon)
A patient at sports camp is complaining of itchy and watery eyes, coughing, and sneezing when outdoors. The patient's chart states that he has an allergy to grasses. Which medication will the nurse administer?
Antihistamine
antihypertensive agents avoided by patients with asthma:
Beta adrenergic blocking agents
Which class of antihypertensive agents should be avoided by patients with asthma?
Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
*PTU Action
Block synthesis of hormone for thyroid
A patient has been on high dose corticosteroid therapy for the treatment of lupus erythematosus. In addition to monitoring electrolyte levels, which laboratory studies will the nurse monitor?
Blood glucose levels
Prior to the administration of metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocking agents, which is most important for the nurse to assess?
Blood pressure
*Pt on betablocker for agina. What should the patient be careful for?
Bradycardia
The patient asks the nurse how sulfonylureas normalize glucose levels. Which response by the nurse is correct?
By stimulating pancreatic secretion of insulin
Which emergency drug must be available when caring for a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?
Calcium gluconate
Which infection is often called the "disease of the diseased" because it appears in debilitated patients?
Candidiasis
A patient allergic to penicillin is being evaluated for a gram-negative infection. Which antimicrobial drug class would the health care provider be cautious in prescribing because of a possible cross sensitivity and/or allergic reaction?
Cephalosporins
Why are statins, or HMG CoA reductase inhibitors, administered at bedtime?
Cholesterol production is at its peak.
adverse effect of ACE inhibitor for hypertension:
Chronic cough
Which nursing assessment is most important to determine fluid status for a patient with heart failure?
Daily weights
The nurse is providing instruction to a patient recently prescribed a radioactive iodine isotope. Which is the correct action of this medication?
Destroys hyperactive thyroid tissue
Which is a common adverse effect of magnesium-based antacid preparations?
Diarrhea
Which drug will be administered to a patient being admitted with severe digoxin intoxication?
Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
Which drug will the health care provider prescribe to soften the cervix of a woman who is at 42 weeks of gestation?
Dinoprostone (Prepidil)
The nurse is providing instruction about ipratropium (Atrovent) to a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is a common adverse effect that tends to resolve with therapy?
Dry mouth
On admission, a patient with a history of cardiac insufficiency complains of shortness of breath. The nurse auscultates the lungs and notes bilateral crackles throughout both fields. In addition, there is bilateral +2 edema of the lower extremities. Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will prescribe?
Furosemide (Lasix)
Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications?
Guaifenesin
Which antilipemic agent is most potent?
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
Which condition would the nurse expect to be treated with an iostonic solution?
Hemorrhagic shock
* Patient was in pain and took a few pills. The patient then gives the nurse an empty bottle of acetaminophen. What should the nurse be careful for?
Hepatotoxicity
Cimetidine (Tagamet) is an example of which class of drug?
Histamine (H2) receptor antagonist
Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants?
Hypertension
*Males on anti hypertensive medications can cause:
Impotence (erectile dysfunction)
The nurse instructs the patient to avoid the sudden discontinuation of beta-adrenergic blockers so as to avoid which symptom?
Increased angina
avoid the sudden discontinuation of beta adrenergic blockers so as to avoid which symptom?
Increased angina
Which action of ACE inhibitors results in effective treatment of heart failure?
Increased cardiac output
Which drug is the cornerstone of treatment for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis (TB)?
Isoniazid (Nydrazid)
A patient is admitted with glomerulonephritis. IV gentamicin therapy is started after cultures indicate gram negative bacilli in the blood. The patient also receives IV furosemide (Lasix). The nurse will monitor for signs and symptoms of toxicity related to which organ?
Kidneys
Which medication is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism?
Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
What is the rationale for administering fibrinolytic agents, such as streptokinase, within hours of the onset of myocardial infarction?
Lyses the blood clot
A 36-week primigravida patient has been admitted to the unit with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg, severe headache, and edema. Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will order?
Magnesium sulfate
Which medication is used in the treatment of gastric reflux esophagitis and diabetic gastroparesis?
Metoclopramide
The nurse would expect to administer which drug when treating hyperemesis gravidarum?
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Which conditions may occur with the administration of broad spectrum antibiotics over an extended period of time?
Secondary infection
Which medication is a potassium sparing diuretic?
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
A patient who has had a myocardial infarction is advised to avoid straining with defecation. Which medication would be prescribed to this patient?
Stool softeners
The nurse will monitor patients on cephalosporins and loop diuretics for which adverse effect?
Nephrotoxicity
Which condition would indicate to the nurse that a patient has pheytoin (Dilantin) toxicity?
Nystagmus
What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss?
Ototoxicity
Which drug is administered after delivery to reduce the risk of postpartum hemorrhage after the placenta has been delivered?
Oxytocin (Pitocin)
Which medication helps prevent or reduce mucositis in patients undergoing chemotherapy or radiation treatment?
Palifermin (Kepivance)
Which assessment by the nurse would be a sign of neurotoxicity related to chemotherapy?
Paresthesia
Which explanation by the nurse is accurate to include when teaching a patient who is beginning therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with metoclopramide?
Peristalsis is increased, so food is digested more quickly.
Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
Petechiae
Which type of drug is most effective in the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
When teaching a patient who is taking thiazide diuretics, the nurse will encourage the patient to increase the intake of which electrolyte?
Potassium
What is the mechanism of action of drugs used to treat thromboembolic disease?
Preventing platelet aggregation and inhibiting clot formation
A female patient with a history of endometriosis presents with bilateral lower quadrant pain reportedly at midcycle. Which gonadal drug is indicated for treating symptoms of endometriosis?
Progesterone
Which medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
Propylthiouracil (Propacil
What process in the antigen antibody reaction causes the symptoms of allergies?
Release of histamine
*Type 2 diabetic has protein in their urine and is on ACE inhibitor and needs
Renal protection
What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?
Secondary congestion
Which instruction will the nurse include for a patient prescribed sublingual nitrate PRN for angina?
Take one tablet and then seek medical attention if the pain is not relieved within 5 minutes.
The nurse is teaching a patient with Parkinsons disease about levadopa. Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding drug administration?
Take this medication with food or antacids to reduce GI upset.
Which drug is administered when a patient is experiencing premature labor?
Terbutaline (Brethine)
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for patients prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which information about this medication should be included?
There is minimal potential for abuse.
Why are beta blockers used cautiously in patients with respiratory conditions?
They may produce severe bronchoconstriction
Which agents are preferred for the initial treatment of hypertension?
Thiazide diuretics and beta adrenergic blockers
Which response will the nurse provide when a patient complains of a headache when using sublingual nitroglycerin?
This is a common adverse effect that can be managed with acetaminophen.
The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who is seeking oral contraceptives. Which condition would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
Thromboembolic disease
For which reason will betamethasone IM be administered to the mother in premature labor?
To stimulate lung maturity in the fetus
Which medication is used to control seizures or prevent migraine headaches?
Topiramate (Topamax)
Which is considered an acceptable time frame for a patient with gastric distress to self-medicate with over-the-counter antacids?
Weeks
When displayed by the patient, which symptom would be most indicative to the nurse to withhold a recently prescribed beta-adrenergic blocker?
Wheezing
An older adult patient is to receive atenolol, a beta-adrenergic blocking agent. Prior to administration of the drug, the nurse assesses an apical pulse rate of 58 and notes ankle edema. Which action will the nurse take first?
Withhold the medication
Prior to taking a beta adrenergic blocker, the patient to has a heart rate of 52 beats/min. priority nursing action?
Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider.
*Gabapentin
for neuropathy pain
Before the initiation of anticholinergic medications, it is important for the nurse to screen patients for which condition?
closed angle gluacoma
*Radioactive iodine does what to the tissue?
destroy the tissue
*Anticholinergic Adverse Effects:
dry mouth, blurred vision, no urination
How frequently are nitroglycerin tablets discarded and prescriptions refilled?
every 6 months
The nurse transcribes a new order for a daily diuretic on a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The nurse will schedule this medication
in the morning.
IV immunoglobulin side effects
ototoxicity
A patient taking misoprostol (Cytotec) to treat a gastric ulcer reports recurrent diarrhea. The nurse should encourage this patient to:
take medication with meals.
Which cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson disease are reduced with anticholinergic drugs?
tremors and drooling
