Pharm HESI practice questions

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Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication? 1. Pallor 2. Drowsiness 3. Bradycardia 4. Restlessness

Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release oxycodone prescription? A. As needed B. Every 12 hours C. Every 24 hours D. Every 4 to 6 hours

Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone? A. Cushing's disease B. Testicular cancer C. Lympthomas D. Chronic leukemias

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) is prescribed for a client to treat muscle spasms, and the nurse is reviewing the client's record. Which of the following disorders, if noted in the client's record, would indicate a need to contact the health care provider regarding the administration of this medication? 1. Glaucoma 2. Emphysema 3. Hyperthyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

Which of the following is not a side effect of the Dieuretics (Loop dieuretics)? A. Alkalosis B. Nausea C. Hypotension D. Potassium deficits

Which of the following is not a side effect of the Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)? A. Hypertension B. Asthma C. Dry oral cavity D. Lethargic behavior

Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)? A. Increased pulse B. Urinary retention C. Constipation D. Mydriasis

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response? 1. Decreased urinary output 2. Decreased blood pressure 3. Decreased peripheral edema 4. Decreased blood glucose level

Ibuprofen (Advil) is prescribed for a client. The nurse tells the client to take the medication: 1. With 8 oz of milk 2. In the morning after arising 3. 60 minutes before breakfast 4. At bedtime on an empty stomach

A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for renal failure. 2. Monitor psychosocial status. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. 4. Have heparin sodium available.

Which of the following are not treated with Barbiturates? A. Seizures B. Hypotension C. Insomnia D. Anxiety

Which of the following are not treated with Hydrochlorothiazide? A. CHF B. HTN C. Nephritis D. Hypercalciuria

A client receiving a tricyclic antidepressant arrives at the mental health clinic. Which observation indicates that the client is correctly following the medication plan? 1. Reports not going to work for this past week 2. Complains of not being able to "do anything" anymore 3. Arrives at the clinic neat and appropriate in appearance 4. Reports sleeping 12 hours per night and 3 to 4 hours during the day

Which of the following are not treated with Dexamethasone? A. Inflammation B. Asthma C. Addison's disease D. Wilson's disease

Which of the following are not treated with Methotrexate? A. Sarcomas B. Leukemias C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Rheumatic fever

Which of the following are not treated with Nifedipine? A. Angina B. Arrhythmias C. Htn D. Fluid retention

Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)? A. Rash B. Angioedema C. Cough D. Congestion

Which of the following is not a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)? A. Nausea B. Flush appearance C. Vertigo D. Sexual dysfunction

Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Clozapine)? A. Agranulocytosis B. Antipsychotic C. Used for Schizophrenia D. Increased appetite

Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Midazolam)? A. Amnesia B. Decreased respiratory function C. Anesthetic D. Dizziness

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Copper? A. Glucagon B. Aminocaproic acid C. Atropine D. Penicillamine

A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following would be included in the plan of care for instructions? 1. Maintain a high fluid intake. 2. Discontinue the medication when feeling better. 3. If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider immediately. 4. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. Withdraws the NPH insulin first 2. Withdraws the regular insulin first 3. Injects air into NPH insulin vial first 4. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial

A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has been prescribed baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following disorders, if noted in the client's history, would alert the nurse to contact the health care provider? 1. Seizure disorders 2. Hyperthyroidism 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Coronary artery disease

Cinoxacin (Cinobac), a urinary antiseptic, is prescribed for the client. The nurse reviews the client's medical record and should contact the health care provider (HCP) regarding which documented finding to verify the prescription? Refer to chart. 1. Renal insufficiency 2. Chest x-ray: normal 3. Blood glucose, 102 mg/dL 4. Folic acid (vitamin B6) 0.5 mg, orally daily

A client received 20 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at 8:00 AM. The nurse should check the client for a potential hypoglycemic reaction at what time? 1. 5:00 PM 2. 10:00 AM 3. 11:00 AM 4. 11:00 PM

A client taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 month returns to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Which of the following would indicate medication effectiveness? 1. No rapid heartbeats or anxiety 2. No paranoid thought processes 3. No thought broadcasting or delusions 4. No reports of alcohol withdrawal symptoms

A client taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) reports vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, blurred vision, tinnitus, and tremors. The lithium level is checked as a part of the routine follow-up and the level is 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse knows that this level is: 1. Toxic 2. Normal 3. Slightly above normal 4. Excessively below normal

A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the (HCP) if the client is taking which medication? 1. Vitamin A 2. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 3. Furosemide (Lasix) 4. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." 2. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time." 3. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet." 4. "If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the medication has slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action? 1. Notify the registered nurse. 2. Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort. 3. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed. 4. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion.

A nurse is collecting data from a client and the client's spouse reports that the client is taking donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). Which disorder would the nurse suspect that this client may have based on the use of this medication? 1. Dementia 2. Schizophrenia 3. Seizure disorder 4. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg orally three times daily, has been prescribed for a client for seizure control. The nurse reinforces instructions regarding the medication to the client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth." 2. "It's all right to break the capsules to make it easier for me to swallow them." 3. "If I forget to take my medication, I can wait until the next dose and eliminate that dose." 4. "If my throat becomes sore, it's a normal effect of the medication and it's nothing to be concerned about."

Saquinavir (Invirase) is prescribed for the client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive. The nurse reinforces medication instructions and tells the client to: 1. Avoid sun exposure. 2. Eat low-calorie foods. 3. Eat foods that are low in fat. 4. Take the medication on an empty stomach

The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? 1.Hyperventilation 2.Elevated blood pressure 3.Local pain at the burn site 4.Local rash at the burn site

The client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive has been taking stavudine (d4t, Zerit). The nurse monitors which of the following most closely while the client is taking this medication? 1. Gait 2. Appetite 3. Level of consciousness 4. Hemoglobin and hematocrit blood levels

The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for: 1. Acne 2. Eczema 3. Hair loss 4. Herpes simplex

The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history? 1. Pancreatitis 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A client with human immunodeficiency virus is taking nevirapine (Viramune). The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply. 1. Rash 2. Hepatotoxicity 3. Hyperglycemia 4. Peripheral neuropathy 5. Reduced bone mineral density

1, 2

A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select all that apply. 1. Nizatidine (Axid) 2. Ranitidine (Zantac) 3. Famotidine (Pepcid) 4. Cimetidine (Tagamet) 5. Esomeprazole (Nexium) 6. Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

1, 2, 3, 4

In monitoring a client's response to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which findings would the nurse interpret as acceptable responses? Select all that apply. 1. Symptom control during periods of emotional stress 2. Normal white blood cell counts, platelet, and neutrophil counts 3. Radiological findings that show nonprogression of joint degeneration 4. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy 5. Inflammation and irritation at the injection site 3 days after injection is given 6. A low-grade temperature upon rising in the morning that remains throughout the day

1, 2, 3, 4

he home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin. 2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped. 3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating. 4. Candy or another simple sugar is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes. 5. Metformin increases hepatic glucose production to prevent hypoglycemia associated with repaglinide. 6. Muscle pain is an expected side effect of metformin and may be treated with acetaminophen (Tylenol).

1, 2, 3, 4

Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select all that apply. 1. Signs of hepatitis 2. Flu-like syndrome 3. Low neutrophil count 4. Vitamin B6 deficiency 5. Ocular pain or blurred vision 6. Tingling and numbness of the fingers

1, 2, 3, 5

A nurse is assisting with caring for a client with cancer who is receiving cisplatin. Select the adverse effects that the nurse monitors for that are associated with this medication. Select all that apply. 1. Tinnitus 2. Ototoxicity 3. Hyperkalemia 4. Hypercalcemia 5. Nephrotoxicity 6. Hypomagnesemia

1, 2, 5,6

A hospitalized client is started on phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) for the treatment of depression. The nurse instructs the client to avoid consuming which foods while taking this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Figs 2. Yogurt 3. Crackers 4. Aged cheese 5 Tossed salad 6. Oatmeal cookies

1,2,4

The nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) orally daily. The nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client states which of the following? 1. "I can skip a dose once a week." 2. "I need to change my position slowly." 3. "I take the pill after breakfast each day." 4. "If I get a bad headache, I should call my doctor immediately."

1. "I can skip a dose once a week." Rationale: Lisinopril is an antihypertensive angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The usual dosage range is 20 to 40 mg per day. Adverse effects include headache, dizziness, fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and angioedema. Specific client teaching points include taking one pill a day, not stopping the medication without consulting the health care provider (HCP), and monitoring for side effects and adverse reactions. The client should notify the HCP if side effects occur.

A nurse has a prescription to give a client albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (nasal inhalation, two puffs), by metered-dose inhaler. The nurse administers the medication by giving the: 1. Albuterol first and then the beclomethasone dipropionate 2. Beclomethasone dipropionate first and then the albuterol 3. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the albuterol 4. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone dipropionate

1. Albuterol first and then the beclomethasone dipropionate Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator. Beclomethasone dipropionate is a glucocorticoid. Bronchodilators are always administered before glucocorticoids when both are to be given on the same time schedule. This allows for widening of the air passages by the bronchodilator, which then makes the glucocorticoid more effective.

Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication? 1. Alcohol 2. Organ meats 3. Whole-grain cereals 4. Carbonated beverages

1. Alcohol Rationale: When alcohol is combined with glimepiride (Amaryl), a disulfiram-like reaction may occur. This syndrome includes flushing, palpitations, and nausea. Alcohol can also potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication. The items in options 2, 3, and 4 do not need to be avoided.

A nurse administers a dose of scopolamine (Transderm-Scop) to a postoperative client. The nurse tells the client to expect which of the following side effects of this medication? 1. Dry mouth 2. Diaphoresis 3. Excessive urination 4. Pupillary constriction

1. Dry mouth Rationale: Scopolamine is an anticholinergic medication for the prevention of nausea and vomiting that causes the frequent side effects of dry mouth, urinary retention, decreased sweating, and dilation of the pupils. The other options describe the opposite effects of cholinergic-blocking agents and therefore are incorrect.

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg orally, to a client with heart failure. Which vital sign is most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication? 1. Heart rate 2. Temperature 3. Respirations 4. Blood pressure

1. Heart rate Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat heart failure and acts by increasing the force of myocardial contraction. Because bradycardia may be a clinical sign of toxicity, the nurse counts the apical heart rate for 1 full minute before administering the medication. If the pulse rate is less than 60 beats/minute in an adult client, the nurse would withhold the medication and report the pulse rate to the registered nurse, who would then contact the health care provider.

3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Decreased respirations

1. Tinnitus Rationale: Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism.

A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus previously had been well controlled with glyburide (DiaBeta) daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia? 1. Prednisone 2. Phenelzine (Nardil) 3. Atenolol (Tenormin) 4. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

1. Prednisone Rationale: Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium supplements. Option 2, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and option 3, a β-blocker, have their own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia.

A client taking fexofenadine (Allegra) is scheduled for allergy skin testing and tells the nurse in the health care provider's office that a dose was taken this morning. The nurse determines that: 1. The client should reschedule the appointment. 2. A lower dose of allergen will need to be injected. 3. A higher dose of allergen will need to be injected. 4. The client should have the skin test read a day later than usual.

1. The client should reschedule the appointment. Rationale: Fexofenadine is an antihistamine, which provides relief of symptoms caused by allergy. Antihistamines should be discontinued for at least 3 days (72 hours) before allergy skin testing to avoid false-negative readings. This client should have the appointment rescheduled for 3 days after discontinuing the medication.

The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse would monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas? 1. Back 2. Axilla 3. Soles of the feet 4. Palms of the hands

he client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted? 1. Resolved diarrhea 2. Relief of epigastric pain 3. Decreased platelet count 4. Decreased white blood cell count

A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed. The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this medication if the client states that he or she will: 1. Watch for irritability as a side effect. 2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water. 3. Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever. 4. Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed.

A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing: 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Peripheral neuritis 3. Small blood vessel spasm 4. Impaired peripheral circulation

A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is: 1. 2 to 4 hours after administration 2. 4 to 12 hours after administration 3. 16 to 18 hours after administration 4. 18 to 24 hours after administration

A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range? 1. 5 to 10 mcg/mL 2. 10 to 20 mcg/mL 3. 20 to 30 mcg/mL 4. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to: 1. Drink alcohol in small amounts only. 2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. 3. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses. 4. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge? 1. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times. 2. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically. 3. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise. 4. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage.

A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A health care provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin? 1. 3 to 5 ng/mL 2. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL 3. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL 4. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab (Remicade). The nurse assisting in caring for the client should take which action to monitor the effectiveness of treatment? 1. Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion 2. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements 3. Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion 4. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed

A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse monitors for signs and symptoms of cholinergic crisis caused by overdose of the medication. The nurse checks the medication supply to ensure that which medication is available for administration if a cholinergic crisis occurs? 1. Vitamin K 2. Atropine sulfate 3. Protamine sulfate 4. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse tells the client to: 1. Freeze the insulin. 2. Refrigerate the insulin. 3. Store the insulin in a dark, dry place. 4. Keep the insulin at room temperature

A nurse is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago who is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). What information would be important for the nurse to gather regarding the adverse effects related to the medication? 1. Cardiovascular symptoms 2. Gastrointestinal dysfunctions 3. Problems with mouth dryness 4. Problems with excessive sweating

A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client receiving baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following would the nurse include in the instructions? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Avoid the use of alcohol. 3. Stop the medication if diarrhea occurs. 4. Notify the health care provider if fatigue occurs.

A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Maintain a high fluid intake. 3. If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider (HCP) immediately. 4. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). Which laboratory test would identify an adverse effect associated with the administration of this medication? 1. Creatinine 2. Liver function tests 3. Blood urea nitrogen 4. Hematological function tests

A postoperative client requests medication for flatulence (gas pains). Which medication from the following PRN list should the nurse administer to this client? 1. Ondansetron (Zofran) 2. Simethicone (Mylicon) 3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 4. Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia, MOM)

Baclofen (Lioresal) is prescribed for the client with multiple sclerosis. The nurse assists in planning care, knowing that the primary therapeutic effect of this medication is which of the following? 1. Increased muscle tone 2. Decreased muscle spasms 3. Increased range of motion 4. Decreased local pain and tenderness

Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication? 1. Gastric atony 2. Urinary strictures 3. Neurogenic atony 4. Gastroesophageal reflux

Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication? 1. To take the medication before meals 2. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing 3. It is not necessary to call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs. 4. It is not necessary to restrict alcohol intake with this medication.

Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) is prescribed for a client experiencing flexor spasms, and the client asks the nurse about the action of the medication. The nurse responds, knowing that the therapeutic action of this medication is which of the following? 1. Depresses spinal reflexes 2. Acts directly on the skeletal muscle to relieve spasticity 3. Acts within the spinal cord to suppress hyperactive reflexes 4. Acts on the central nervous system (CNS) to suppress spasms

Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed? 1. Platelet count 2. Triglyceride level 3. Complete blood count 4. White blood cell count

Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client? 1. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) 2. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage 3. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage 4. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

The client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept (Enbrel), it is most important for the nurse to check: 1. The injection site for itching and edema 2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts 3. Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain 4. A metallic taste in the mouth, with a loss of appetite

The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom? 1. Diarrhea 2. Heartburn 3. Flatulence 4. Constipation

The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication? 1. Glucose level 2. Calcium level 3. Potassium level 4. Prothrombin time

The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse knows that which of the following is the appropriate intervention? 1. The medication is administered within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal. 2. The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client. 3. The client is monitored for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication. 4. The insulin is withdrawn from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration

A client is receiving meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for pain. Which of the following are side effects of this medication. Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea 2. Tremors 3. Drowsiness 4. Hypotension 5. Urinary frequency 6. Increased respiratory rate

2, 3, 4

Ketoconazole is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of candidiasis. Select the interventions that the nurse includes when administering this medication. Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Instruct the client to avoid alcohol. 3. Monitor hepatic and liver function studies. 4. Administer the medication with an antacid. 5. Instruct the client to avoid exposure to the sun. 6. Administer the medication on an empty stomach

2, 3, 5

A client with coronary artery disease complains of substernal chest pain. After checking the client's heart rate and blood pressure, a nurse administers nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. After 5 minutes, the client states, "My chest still hurts." Select the appropriate actions that the nurse should take. Select all that apply. 1. Call a code blue. 2. Contact the registered nurse. 3. Contact the client's family. 4. Assess the client's pain level. 5. Check the client's blood pressure. 6. Administer a second nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually.

2, 4, 5, 6

When you are taking a patient's history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking? A. Elavil B. Calcitonin C. Pergolide D. Verapamil

Which method of medication administration provides the client with the greatest first-pass effect? A) Oral. B) Sublingual. C) Intravenous. D) Subcutaneous.

A nurse is planning to administer amlodipine (Norvasc) to a client. The nurse plans to check which of the following before giving the medication? 1. Respiratory rate 2. Blood pressure and heart rate 3. Heart rate and respiratory rate 4. Level of consciousness and blood pressure

2. Blood pressure and heart rate Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker. This medication decreases the rate and force of cardiac contraction. Before administering a calcium channel blocking agent, the nurse should check the blood pressure and heart rate, which could both decrease in response to the action of this medication. This action will help to prevent or identify early problems related to decreased cardiac contractility, heart rate, and conduction. *amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and this group of medications decreases the rate and force of cardiac contraction. This in turn lowers the pulse rate and blood pressure.*

Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Isoflurane)? A. Elevated lipid levels B. Nausea C. Increased blood flow to the brain. D. Decreased respiratory function

A client has begun therapy with theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse tells the client to limit the intake of which of the following while taking this medication? 1. Oranges and pineapple 2. Coffee, cola, and chocolate 3. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp 4. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers

2. Coffee, cola, and chocolate Rationale: Theophylline is a xanthine bronchodilator. The nurse teaches the client to limit the intake of xanthine-containing foods while taking this medication. These include coffee, cola, and chocolate.

A nurse is monitoring a client receiving desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) for adverse effects to the medication. Which of the following indicates the presence of an adverse effect? 1. Insomnia 2. Drowsiness 3. Weight loss 4. Increased urination

2. Drowsiness Rationale: Water intoxication (overhydration) or hyponatremia is an adverse effect to desmopressin. Early signs include drowsiness, listlessness, and headache. Decreased urination, rapid weight gain, confusion, seizures, and coma also may occur in overhydration. *Recall that this medication is used to treat diabetes insipidus to eliminate weight loss and increased urination.*

A nurse performs an admission assessment on a client who visits a health care clinic for the first time. The client tells the nurse that propylthiouracil (PTU) is taken daily. The nurse continues to collect data from the client, suspecting that the client has a history of: 1. Myxedema 2. Graves' disease 3. Addison's disease 4. Cushing's syndrome

2. Graves' disease Rationale: PTU inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and is used to treat hyperthyroidism, or Graves' disease. Myxedema indicates hypothyroidism. Cushing's syndrome and Addison's disease are disorders related to adrenal functio

The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions to a client with breast cancer who is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse tells the client to: 1. Take the medication with food. 2. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. 3. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication. 4. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication.

2. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Rationale: Hemorrhagic cystitis is a toxic effect that can occur with the use of cyclophosphamide. The client needs to be instructed to drink copious amounts of fluid during the administration of this medication. Clients also should monitor urine output for hematuria. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach, unless gastrointestinal (GI) upset occurs. Hyperkalemia can result from the use of the medication; therefore the client would not be told to increase potassium intake. The client would not be instructed to alter sodium intake.

Which of the following is not treated with (Ephedrine)? A. COPD B. Hypotension C. Congestion D. Incontinence

A nurse has given a client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that he or she will immediately report: 1. Impaired sense of hearing 2. Problems with visual acuity 3. Gastrointestinal (GI) side effects 4. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions

2. Problems with visual acuity Rationale: Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client is also taught to take the medication with food if GI upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Orange-red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin).

A client with a prescription to take theophylline (Theo-24) daily has been given medication instructions by the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further information about the medication if the client states that he or she will: 1. Drink at least 2 L of fluid per day. 2. Take the daily dose at bedtime. 3. Avoid changing brands of the medication without health care provider (HCP) approval. 4. Avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications unless approved by the HCP.

2. Take the daily dose at bedtime. Rationale: The client taking a single daily dose of theophylline, a xanthine bronchodilator, should take the medication early in the morning. This enables the client to have maximal benefit from the medication during daytime activities. In addition, this medication causes insomnia. The client should take in at least 2 L of fluid per day to decrease viscosity of secretions. The client should check with the physician before changing brands of the medication. The client also checks with the HCP before taking OTC cough, cold, or other respiratory preparations because they could cause interactive effects, increasing the side effects of theophylline and causing dysrhythmias.

A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol? 1. The development of complaints of insomnia 2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes 3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication 4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication

2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes Rationale: Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. β-Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.

Which of the following is not treated with (Epinephrine)? A. Renal disease B. Asthma C. Hypotension D. Glaucoma

A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect Select all that apply. 1. Nausea 2. Tinnitus 3. Hypotension 4. Hypokalemia 5. Photosensitivity 6. Increased urinary frequency

2. Tinnitus 3. Hypotension 4. Hypokalemia Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic; therefore, an expected effect is increased urinary frequency. Nausea is a frequent side effect, not an adverse effect. Photosensitivity is an occasional side effect. Adverse effects include tinnitus (ototoxicity), hypotension, and hypokalemia and occur as a result of sudden volume depletion.

A nurse reinforces medication instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse instructs the client to notify the health care provider (HCP) if which of the following occurs? 1. Fatigue 2. Tremors 3. Cold intolerance 4. Excessively dry skin

2. Tremors Rationale: Excessive doses of levothyroxine (Synthroid) can produce signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. These include tachycardia, chest pain, tremors, nervousness, insomnia, hyperthermia, heat intolerance, and sweating. The client should be instructed to notify the HCP if these occur. Options 1, 3, and 4 are signs of hypothyroidism.

The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication? 1. Clotting time 2. Uric acid level 3. Potassium level 4. Blood glucose level

2. Uric acid level Rationale: Busulfan (Myleran) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia can produce uric acid nephropathy, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically related to this medication.

5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Notifying the registered nurse 2. Discontinuing the medication 3. Informing the client that this is normal 4. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site

A client arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that he has been doubling his daily dosage of bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) to help him get better faster. The nurse understands that the client is now at risk for which of the following? 1. Insomnia 2. Weight gain 3. Seizure activity 4. Orthostatic hypotension

A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication: 1. Should always be taken with food or antacids 2. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces 4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin? A. Protamine B. Methylene blue C. N-acetylcysteine D. Glucagon

A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen? 1. "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria." 2. "These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer." 3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." 4. "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach."

A client with tuberculosis is being started on antituberculosis therapy with isoniazid (INH). Before giving the client the first dose, a nurse ensures that which of the following baseline studies has been completed? 1. Electrolyte levels 2. Coagulation times 3. Liver enzyme levels 4. Serum creatinine level

A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to: 1. Treat thyroid storm. 2. Prevent cardiac irritability. 3. Treat hypocalcemic tetany. 4. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.

A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has been taking clozapine (Clozaril) for the treatment of a schizophrenic disorder. Which laboratory study prescribed for the client will the nurse specifically review to monitor for an adverse effect associated with the use of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Cholesterol level 3. White blood cell count 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

A nurse is monitoring a client receiving baclofen (Lioresal) for side effects related to the medication. Which of the following would indicate that the client is experiencing a side effect? 1. Polyuria 2. Diarrhea 3. Drowsiness 4. Muscular excitability

A nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client. The nurse understands that which of the following are concerns related to the administration of this medication? 1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia 2. Increased risk of osteoporosis 3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy 4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

A nurse who is administering bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is monitoring for acute toxicity associated with the medication. The nurse checks the client for which sign of toxicity? 1. Dry skin 2. Dry mouth 3. Bradycardia 4. Signs of dehydration

A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for: 1. Pupillary changes 2. Scattered lung wheezes 3. Sudden increase in pain 4. Sudden episodes of diarrhea

After kidney transplantation, cyclosporine (Sand immune) is prescribed for a client. Which laboratory result would indicate an adverse effect from the use of this medication? 1. Decreased creatinine level 2. Decreased hemoglobin level 3. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level 4. Decreased white blood cell count

Amikacin (Amikin) is prescribed for a client with a bacterial infection. The client is instructed to contact the health care provider (HCP) immediately if which of the following occurs? 1. Nausea 2. Lethargy 3. Hearing loss 4. Muscle aches

An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication? 1. Tremors 2. Dizziness 3. Confusion 4. Hallucinations

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is prescribed for the client. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the administration of the medication. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding about administration of the medication? 1. "I should take the medication with my evening meal." 2. "I should take the medication at noon with an antacid." 3. "I should take the medication in the morning when I first arise." 4. "I should take the medication right before bedtime with a snack."

Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client: 1. Cut the dose in half. 2. Discontinue the medication. 3. Take the medication with food. 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP)

Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin daily. Which of the following prescription changes does the nurse anticipate during therapy with the prednisone? 1. An additional dose of prednisone daily 2. A decreased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin 3. An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin 4. The addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication daily

Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history? 1. Neuralgia 2. Insomnia 3. Use of nitroglycerin 4. Use of multivitamins

The client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). The nurse understands that this medication is used for which condition? 1. Constipation 2. Abdominal pain 3. An episode of diarrhea 4. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed? 1. Weight loss 2. Relief of heartburn 3. Reduction of steatorrhea 4. Absence of abdominal pain

The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for the client receiving an antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client: 1. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for headache 2. Drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amounts each evening 3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations 4. That it is not necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair

The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments? 1. "The medication is an antibacterial." 2. "The medication will help heal the burn." 3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." 4. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound."

The nurse has reinforced instructions to a client who has been prescribed cholestyramine (Questran). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? 1. "I will continue taking vitamin supplements." 2. "This medication will help lower my cholesterol." 3. "This medication should only be taken with water." 4. "A high-fiber diet is important while taking this medication.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with cytomegalovirus retinitis and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving foscarnet. The nurse should check the latest results of which of the following laboratory studies while the client is taking this medication? 1. CD4 cell count 2. Serum albumin 3. Serum creatinine 4. Lymphocyte count

The nurse is caring for a postrenal transplant client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Gengraf, Neoral). The nurse notes an increase in one of the client's vital signs, and the client is complaining of a headache. What is the vital sign that is most likely increased? 1. Pulse 2. Respirations 3. Blood pressure 4. Pulse oximetry

The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving didanosine (Videx). The nurse interprets that the client may have the medication discontinued by the health care provider if which of the following significantly elevated results is noted? 1. Serum protein 2. Blood glucose 3. Serum amylase 4. Serum creatinine

nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions? 1. "I will never be able to drive a car." 2. "My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin." 3. "I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication." 4. "If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime.

3. "I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication." Rationale: Alcohol will lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided. Adolescents can obtain a driver's license in most states when they have been seizure free for 1 year. Anticonvulsants cause acne and oily skin; therefore a dermatologist may need to be consulted. If an anticonvulsant medication is missed, the health care provider should be notified.

Disulfiram (Antabuse) is prescribed for a client who is seen in the psychiatric health care clinic. The nurse is collecting data on the client and is providing instructions regarding the use of this medication. Which is most important for the nurse to determine before administration of this medication? 1. A history of hyperthyroidism 2. A history of diabetes insipidus 3. When the last full meal was consumed 4. When the last alcoholic drink was consumed

A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a headache? 1. Naprosyn (Aleve) 2. Ibuprofen (Advil) 3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 4. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) Rationale: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a hypersecretory condition of the stomach. The client should avoid taking medications that are irritating to the stomach lining. Irritants would include aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (ibuprofen). The client should be advised to take acetaminophen for headache. *Remember that options that are comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind, eliminate options 1 and 2 first.*

1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client? 1. Calcium chloride 2. Calcium gluconate 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) 4. Large doses of vitamin D

3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration.

A client complaining of not feeling well is seen in a clinic. The client is taking several medications for the control of heart disease and hypertension. These medications include a β-blocker, digoxin (Lanoxin), and a diuretic. A tentative diagnosis of digoxin toxicity is made. Which of the following assessment data would support this diagnosis? 1. Dyspnea, edema, and palpitations 2. Chest pain, hypotension, and paresthesia 3. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea 4. Constipation, dry mouth, and sleep disorder

3. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea Rationale: Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea are signs of digoxin toxicity. Additional signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia, difficulty reading, visual alterations such as green and yellow vision or seeing spots or halos, confusion, vomiting, diarrhea, decreased libido, and impotence. *gastrointestinal (GI) and visual disturbances occur with digoxin toxicity*

A client is taking cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec). The nurse checks for which of the following side effects of this medication? 1. Diarrhea 2. Excitability 3. Drowsiness 4. Excess salivation

3. Drowsiness Rationale: A frequent side effect of cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec), an antihistamine, is drowsiness or sedation. Others include blurred vision, hypertension (and sometimes hypotension), dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and sweating.

A daily dose of prednisone is prescribed for a client. A nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding administration of the medication and instructs the client that the best time to take this medication is: 1. At noon 2. At bedtime 3. Early morning 4. Anytime, at the same time, each day

3. Early morning Rationale: Corticosteroids (glucocorticoids) should be administered before 9:00 AM. Administration at this time helps minimize adrenal insufficiency and mimics the burst of glucocorticoids released naturally by the adrenal glands each morning. *Note the suffix "-sone," and recall that medication names that end with these letters are corticosteroids.*

The nurse is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy? 1. Anemia 2. Decreased platelets 3. Increased uric acid level 4. Decreased leukocyte count

3. Increased uric acid level Rationale: Hyperuricemia is especially common following treatment for leukemias and lymphomas because chemotherapy results in a massive cell kill. Although options 1, 2, and 4 also may be noted, an increased uric acid level is related specifically to cell destruction.

A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by: 1. Telling the client not to take the medication with food 2. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal 3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months 4. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months Rationale: ACE inhibitors, such as fosinopril, cause temporary impairment of taste (dysgeusia). The nurse can tell the client that this effect usually disappears in 2 to 3 months, even with continued therapy, and provide nutritional counseling if appropriate to avoid weight loss. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate actions. Taking this medication with or without food does not affect absorption and action. The dosage should never be tapered without HCP approval and the medication should never be stopped abruptly.

Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the health care provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication? 1. Hematocrit level 2. Hemoglobin level 3. Prothrombin time (PT) 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

A nurse is reinforcing instructions for a client regarding intranasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The nurse tells the client that which of the following is a side effect of the medication? 1. Headache 2. Vulval pain 3. Runny nose 4. Flushed skin

3. Runny nose Rationale: Desmopressin administered by the intranasal route can cause a runny or stuffy nose. Headache, vulval pain, and flushed skin are side effects if the medication is administered by the intravenous (IV) route.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of seizures. During data collection, the nurse notes that the client is taking birth control pills. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client? 1. Pregnancy should be avoided while taking phenytoin (Dilantin). 2. The client may stop taking the phenytoin (Dilantin) if it is causing severe gastrointestinal effects. 3. The potential for decreased effectiveness of the birth control pills exists while taking phenytoin (Dilantin). 4. The increased risk of thrombophlebitis exists while taking phenytoin (Dilantin) and birth control pills together.

3. The potential for decreased effectiveness of the birth control pills exists while taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) enhances the rate of estrogen metabolism, which can decrease the effectiveness of some birth control pills. Options 1, 2, are 4 are not accurate.

Megestrol acetate (Megace), an antineoplastic medication, is prescribed for the client with metastatic endometrial carcinoma. The nurse reviews the client's history and contacts the registered nurse if which diagnosis is documented in the client's history? 1. Gout 2. Asthma 3. Thrombophlebitis 4. Myocardial infarction

3. Thrombophlebitis Rationale: Megestrol acetate (Megace) suppresses the release of luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary by inhibiting pituitary function and regressing tumor size. Megestrol is used with caution if the client has a history of thrombophlebitis. *megestrol acetate is a hormonal antagonist enzyme and that a side effect is thrombotic disorders*

client with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory result would indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication? 1. Sodium level, 140 mEq/L 2. Uric acid level, 5.0 mg/dL 3. White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3 4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, 15 mg/dL

3. White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3 Rationale: Adverse effects of carbamazepine (Tegretol) appear as blood dyscrasias, including aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, cardiovascular disturbances, thrombophlebitis, dysrhythmias, and dermatological effects. Options 1, 2, and 4 identify normal laboratory values.

Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client: 1. To take the medication at bedtime 2. To take the medication before meals 3. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs 4. That a reddish orange discoloration of the urine may occur

Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to: 1. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis. 2. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids. 3. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response. 4. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.

The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client? 1. Paralytic ileus 2. Incisional pain 3. Urinary retention 4. Nausea and vomiting

The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times? 1. With meals and at bedtime 2. Every 6 hours around the clock 3. One hour after meals and at bedtime 4. One hour before meals and at bedtime

Walter, teenage patient is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs? A. Lungs B. Liver C. Kidney D. Adrenal Glands

.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied: 1. Immediately before swimming 2. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun 3. Immediately before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun

A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol." 2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."

A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use after giving this medication? 1. Ambu bag 2. Intubation tray 3. Nasogastric tube 4. Suction equipment

A client is taking docusate sodium (Colace). The nurse monitors which of the following to determine whether the client is having a therapeutic effect from this medication? 1. Abdominal pain 2. Reduction in steatorrhea 3. Hematest-negative stools 4. Regular bowel movements

A client with myasthenia gravis becomes increasingly weak. The health care provider prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic crisis) or increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium (Enlon) is administered. Which of the following indicates that the client is in cholinergic crisis? 1. No change in the condition 2. Complaints of muscle spasms 3. An improvement of the weakness 4. A temporary worsening of the condition

A client with myasthenia gravis is suspected of having cholinergic crisis. Which of the following indicate that this crisis exists? 1. Ataxia 2. Mouth sores 3. Hypotension 4. Hypertension

A home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates the need for further education? 1. "Constipation and bloating might be a problem." 2. "I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats." 3. "Walking a mile each day will help the whole process." 4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store."

A nurse is caring for an older client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis and has reinforced self-care instructions. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "I rest each afternoon after my walk." 2. "I cough and deep breathe many times during the day." 3. "If I get abdominal cramps and diarrhea, I should call my doctor." 4. "I can change the time of my medication on the mornings that I feel strong."

A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching? 1. "I will take my pills every day at the same time." 2. "I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption." 3. "I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet." 4. "I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated."

Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) is prescribed for a client with Parkinson's disease, and the nurse monitors the client for adverse reactions to the medication. Which of the following indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction? 1. Pruritus 2. Tachycardia 3. Hypertension 4. Impaired voluntary movements

The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and Pneumocystis jiroveci infection has been receiving pentamidine isethionate (Pentam 300). The client develops a temperature of 101° F. The nurse does further monitoring of the client, knowing that this sign would most likely indicate: 1. The dose of the medication is too low. 2. The client is experiencing toxic effects of the medication. 3. The client has developed inadequacy of thermoregulation. 4. The result of another infection caused by leukopenic effects of the medication.

The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome has begun therapy with zidovudine (Retrovir, Azidothymidine, AZT, ZDV). The nurse carefully monitors which of the following laboratory results during treatment with this medication? 1. Blood culture 2. Blood glucose level 3. Blood urea nitrogen 4. Complete blood count

The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication? 1. Diarrhea 2. Hair loss 3. Chest pain 4. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes

The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse who is assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication? 1. Alopecia 2. Chest pain 3. Pulmonary fibrosis 4. Orthostatic hypotension

The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed? 1. Echocardiography 2. Electrocardiography 3. Cervical radiography 4. Pulmonary function studies

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is prescribed for a client. A nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom if it developed during the course of this medication therapy? 1. Nausea 2. Diarrhea 3. Headache 4. Sore throat

A client with acute muscle spasms has been taking baclofen (Lioresal). The client calls the clinic nurse because of continuous feelings of weakness and fatigue and asks the nurse about discontinuing the medication. The nurse should make which appropriate response to the client? 1. "You should never stop the medication." 2. "It is best that you taper the dose if you intend to stop the medication." 3. "It is okay to stop the medication if you think that you can tolerate the muscle spasms." 4. "Weakness and fatigue commonly occur and will diminish with continued medication use."

4. "Weakness and fatigue commonly occur and will diminish with continued medication use." Rationale: The client should be instructed that symptoms such as drowsiness, weakness, and fatigue are more intense in the early phase of therapy and diminish with continued medication use. The client should be instructed never to withdraw or stop the medication abruptly, because abrupt withdrawal can cause visual hallucinations, paranoid ideation, and seizures. It is best for the nurse to inform the client that these symptoms will subside and encourage the client to continue the use of the medication.

A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication? 1. Diarrhea 2. Weakness 3. Headache 4. Constipation

4. Constipation Rationale: Feosol is an iron supplement used to treat anemia. Constipation is a frequent and uncomfortable side effect associated with the administration of oral iron supplements. Stool softeners are often prescribed to prevent constipation. *Focus on the name of the medication. Recalling that oral iron can cause constipation will easily direct you to the correct option.*

The client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving daunorubicin (DaunoXome). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a toxic effect related to the medication? 1. Fever 2. Diarrhea 3. Complaints of nausea and vomiting 4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs

4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs Rationale: Cardiotoxicity noted by abnormal electrocardiographic findings or cardiomyopathy manifested as congestive heart failure is a toxic effect of daunorubicin. Bone marrow depression is also a toxic effect. Nausea and vomiting are frequent side effects associated with the medication that begins a few hours after administration and lasts 24 to 48 hours. Fever is a frequent side effect, and diarrhea can occur occasionally. The other options, however, are not toxic effects. *keep in mind that the question is asking about a toxic effect and think: ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation*

A nurse has given the client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client immediately reports: 1. Impaired sense of hearing 2. Distressing gastrointestinal side effects 3. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions 4. Difficulty discriminating the color red from green

4. Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client is also taught to take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Orange-red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin).

A client with diabetes mellitus who has been controlled with daily insulin has been placed on atenolol (Tenormin) for the control of angina pectoris. Because of the effects of atenolol, the nurse determines that which of the following is the most reliable indicator of hypoglycemia? 1. Sweating 2. Tachycardia 3. Nervousness 4. Low blood glucose level

4. Low blood glucose level Rationale: β-Adrenergic blocking agents, such as atenolol, inhibit the appearance of signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia, which would include nervousness, increased heart rate, and sweating. Therefore, the client receiving this medication should adhere to the therapeutic regimen and monitor blood glucose levels carefully. Option 4 is the most reliable indicator of hypoglycemia.

A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of: 1. Heartburn 2. Constipation 3. Abdominal pain 4. Nausea and vomiting

4. Nausea and vomiting Rationale: Trimethobenzamide is an antiemetic agent used in the treatment of nausea and vomiting. The other options are incorrect.

2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item? 1. Milk 2. Water 3. Apple juice 4. Orange juice

4. Orange juice Rationale: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice.

A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that: 1. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics. 2. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity. 3. Hydrochlorothiazide is an expensive medication, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective. 4. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.

4. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic. Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics include amiloride (Midamor), spironolactone (Aldactone), and triamterene (Dyrenium). They are weak diuretics that are used in combination with potassium-losing diuretics. This combination is useful when medication and dietary supplement of potassium is not appropriate. The use of two different diuretics does not prevent renal toxicity. Hydrochlorothiazide is an effective and inexpensive generic form of the thiazide classification of diuretics. *It is especially helpful to remember that hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic and triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic*

The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition? 1. Intestinal obstruction 2. Peptic ulcer with melena 3. Diverticulitis with perforation 4. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

4. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy Rationale: Metoclopramide is a gastrointestinal (GI) stimulant and antiemetic. Because it is a GI stimulant, it is contraindicated with GI obstruction, hemorrhage, or perforation. It is used in the treatment of emesis after surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.

which symptoms are serious adverse effects of beta-adrenergic blockers such as propranolol (inderal)? A. Headache, hypertension, and blurred vision. B. Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block. C. Vomiting, dilated pupils, and papilledema. D. Tinnitus, muscle weakness, and tachypnea.

A healthcare provider prescrives cephalexin monhydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription? A. Penicillins B. Aminoglycosides C. Erythromycins D.Sulfonamides

A. Penicillins Cross-allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporines, such as keflex. so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution

A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. Which morning schedule would indicated to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective? A. take medication, go for a30 minutes morning walk, then eat breakfast B. take med, rest in bed for 30 min., eat breakfast, go for morning walk C. take medication with breakfast, then take a 30 minute morning walk D. go for a 30minute morning walk, eat breakfast, then take the med

After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). during administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide. A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation B. this medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection C. This medication dissolves any glots that develop int he legs D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound

A client is receiving ampicillin sodium (Omnipen) for a sinus infection. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs? A) Rash. B) Nausea. C) Headache. D) Dizziness

A Rash (A) is the most common adverse effect of all penicillins, indicating an allergy to the medication which could result in anaphylactic shock, a medical emergency. (B, C, and D) are common side effects of penicillins that should subside after the body adjusts to the medication. These would not require immediate medical care unless the symptoms persist beyond the first few days or become extremely severe.

Which instructions should the nurse give to a femail client who just recieved a prescription for oral metronidazole (flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis (select all that apply) A. increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice B. Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use C. Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication E. Use condoms until treatment is completed F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time

A, D, E, F

A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The nurse anticipates an increase in which laboratory value as the result of this medication? A) Serum glucose. B) Serum calcium. C) Red blood cells. D) Serum potassium

A. Solu-Medrol is a corticosteroid with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid actions. These effects can lead to hyperglycemia (A), which is reflected as an increase in the serum glucose value. The client taking Solu-Medrol is at risk for hypocalcemia (B) and hypokalemia (D), which result in a decrease, not an increase, in the serum calcium and serum potassium levels. This medication does not adversely affect the RBC count (C).

The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take first? A) Withhold the scheduled dose. B) Check the client's apical pulse. C) Notify the healthcare provider. D) Repeat the serum potassium level

A. The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar (A) because the client is hyperkalemic (normal range 3.5 to 5 mEq/L). Although hypokalemia is usually associated with diuretic therapy in heart failure, hyperkalemia is associated with several heart failure medications, including ARBs. Because hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, the nurse should check the apical pulse for rate and rhythm (B), and the blood pressure. Before repeating the serum study (D), the nurse should notify the healthcare provider (C) of the findings.

A client with hyperlipidemia recieves a prescription for niacin (niaspan). which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide a. expected duration of flushing b. symptoms of hyperglycemia c. diets that minimize gi irritation d. comfort measure for pruritis

A. flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for discontinuing niacin. inclusion of this effect in clietn teaching may promote compliance in taking the med.

An adult client has prescriptions for morphine sulfate 2.5 mg IV q6h and ketorlac (toradol) 30mg IV q6h. which action should the nurse implement? A. administer both medications according to the prescription B. Hold the ketorolac to prevent an antagonist effect C. Hold the morphine to prevent an additive drug interaction D. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription

A. Administer both medications according to the prescription Morphine and ketorolac can be administered concurrently and may produce additive analgesic effect resulting in ability to reduce the dose of morphine, as seen in this prescription

An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client? A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise. C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull. D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise

A. Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.

Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved? A. Client states chest pain is relieved B. Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90 C. Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90 D. Clients SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%

A. Client states chest pain is relieved nitroglycerin reduces mycocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and reduces chest pain

A client is receiving digoxin for the onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Which laboratory findings should the nurse identify that places this client at risk? A) Hypokalemia. B) Hyponatremia. C) Hypercalcemia. D) Low uric acid levels

A. Hypokalemia affects myocardial contractility, so (A) places this client at greatest risk for dysrhythmias that may be unresponsive to drug therapy. Although an imbalance of serum electrolytes, (B and C), can effect cardiac rhythm, the greatest risk for the client receiving digoxin is (A). (D) does not cause any interactions related to digoxin therapy for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).

A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to teach this client? A) Use a reliable form of birth control. B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light. C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy. D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug.

A. Use a reliable form of birth control Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.

A female client with RA takes ibuprofen (motrin) 600mg PO 4xday. To preven GI bleeding, misoprostol (cytotec) 100mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching? A. use contraception during intercourse B. ensure the cytotec is taken on an empty stomach C. encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation D. take cytotec 30min prior to motrin

A. Use contraception during intercourse. Cytotec, a synthetic form of prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse to prevent loss of early pregnancy

A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload a. nitroglycerin b. propranolol c. propranolol d. captopril

A. nitroglycerin is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload

The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (aldactone) for a client who receives an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement A. verify both prescriptions with the HCP B. report the med interactions to the nurse manager C. hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription D. Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy

A. the concomitant use of an ACE inhibitor and a potassium-sparing diuretic sucha s spironolactone, should be given with caution b/c the two drugs may interact to cause an elevation in serum potassium levels

A health care provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. The nurse should schedule the medication for which of the following times? 1. At bedtime 2. After lunch 3. With supper 4. Before breakfast

At bedtime Rationale: A single daily dose of ranitidine is usually scheduled to be given at bedtime. This allows for a prolonged effect, and the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. *recall that ranitidine suppresses secretions of gastric acids*

A contraindication for topical corticosteroid usage in a male patient with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is: A. Parasite infection. B. Viral infection. C. Bacterial infection D. Spirochete infection.

The nitrate isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is prescribed for a client with angina. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan? A) Quit taking the medication if dizziness occurs. B) Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly. C) Take the medication with food only. D) Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

B. An expected side effect of nitrates is orthostatic hypotension and the nurse should address how to prevent it--by rising slowly (B). Dizziness is expected, and the client should not quit taking the medication without notifying the healthcare provider (A). (C and D) are not indicated when taking this medication.

A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose? A) Review the client's hemoglobin results. B) Notify the healthcare provider. C) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa. D) Record the client's vital signs

B. Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the client's allergies (B). Although (A, C, and D) are important assessments, it is most important to notify the healthcare provider for an alternate prescription.

In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate that the drug is performing as intended? A) An increase in urine output. B) Two or three soft stools per day. C) Watery, diarrhea stools. D) Increased serum bilirubin

B. Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D).

The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan) for a client in the emergency room. Which assessment data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? The client's... A. Statement that the chest pain is better B) respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute. C) seizure activity has stopped temporarily. D) pupils are constricted bilaterally.

B. Naloxone (Narcan) is a narcotic antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression effects of opiate overdose, so assessment of a normal respiratory rate (B) would indicate that the respiratory depression has been halted. (A, C, and D) are not related to naloxone (Narcan) administration

A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications? A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation. B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day. D) Increase intake of milk and milk products.

B. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.

Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic? A. Antacids. B. Benzodiasepines C. Antihypertensives D. Oral antidiabetics

B. B. Benzodiasepines Respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid analgesics and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiasepines

While taking a nursing history, the client states, "I am allergice to penicillin." what related allergy to another type of anti-infective agent should the nurse ask the client about when taking nursing history. A. aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Sulfonamides D. Tetracyclines

B. Cross allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporins

A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is being discharged with a new prescription for the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril (Capoten). The nurse's discharge instruction should include reporting which problem to the healthcare provider? A) Weight loss. B) Dizziness. C) Muscle cramps. D) Dry mucous membranes

B. Dizziness The client should be prepared to implement measures for constipation (B) which is the most likely persistent side effect related to opioid use. Tolerance to opiate narcotics is common, and the client may experience less sedation (A) and respiratory depression (D) as analgesic use continues. Opioids increase the tone in the urinary bladder sphincter, which causes retention (C) but may subside.

A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level? A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given. C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked. D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given.

B. Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given. Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.

A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which observation by the nurse should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved? A) Decreased blood pressure. B) Lessening of tremors. C) Increased salivation. D) Increased attention span.

B. Lessening of tremors. Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the brain). Increased amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as involuntary movements, resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of Sinemet. Decreased drooling would be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect (D)

In teaching a client who had a liver transplant about cyclosporine (Sandimmune), the nurse should encourage the client to report which adverse response to the healthcare provider? A) Changes in urine color. B) Presence of hand tremors. C) Increasing body hirsutism. D) Nausea and vomiting

B. Presence of hand tremors. Neurological complications, such as hand tremors (B), occur in about 50% of clients taking cyclosporine and should be reported. Although this drug can be nephrotoxic, (A) typically does not occur. (C and D) are common side effects, but are not usually severe

Following heparin treatment for a PE, a client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly? A. Perfusion scan B. Prothrombin time (PT/INR) C. Activated Partial thromboplastin (APTT) D. Serum Coumadin Level (SCL)

B. Prothrombin time (PT/INR) When used for a client with PE, the therapeutic goal for wafarin therapy is a PT 1/5 to 2/5 times greater than the control or an INR of 2-3. A perfusion might be preformed to monitor lung function but not monthly. APTT is monitored for Heparin.

A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a thyroidectomy. What adverse effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity should the nurse instruct the client to report promptly to the healthcare provider? A) Tinnitus and dizziness. B) Tachycardia and chest pain. C) Dry skin and intolerance to cold. D) Weight gain and increased appetite.

B. Tachycardia and chest pain. Thyroid replacement hormone increases the metabolic rate of all tissues, so common signs and symptoms of toxicity include tachycardia and chest pain (B). (A, C, and D) do not indicate a thyroid hormone toxicity.

The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1mg IV/hour basal rate with 1mg IV every 15minutes per PCA to toal 5mg IV max per hour. WHat assessment has the highest priority before initating the PCA pump? A. the expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump. B. The rate and depth of the client's respirations. C. The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure. D. The client's subjective and objective signs of pain

B. The rate and depth of the client's respirations. A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted.

When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (tylonel), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body a. flank b. abdomen c. chest d. head

B. acetaminophen toxicisty an result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (which might indicated liver damage)

The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse implement prior to adminstering the digoxin? A. Observe resp rate and depth B. assess the serum potassium level C. Obtain the clients blood pressure D. Monitor the serum glucose level

B. assess the serum potassium level hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin

A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse provide? A. Yes it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin B. Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin C. No it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present D. No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins

An antacid (maalox) is prescribed for a client with PUD. The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is to A. Decrease production of gastric secretions B. produce an adherent barrier over the ulcer C. Maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above D. decrease gastric motor activity

The client receiving telemetry is exhibiting supraventricular tachycardia. Which antidysrhythmic medication should the nurse administer? A. Lidocaine B. Atropine C. Adenosine D. Epinephrine

The nurse is administering 0800 medications. Which medication would the nurse question? A. Misoprostol (Cytotec), a prostaglandin analog, to a 29-year-old male with an NSAID-produced ulcer. B. Omeprazole (Prilosec), a proton-pump inhibitor, to a 68-year-old male with a duodenal ulcer. C. Furosemide (Lasix), a loop diuretic, to a 56-year-old male with a potassium level of 3.0mEq/L. D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol), a nonnarcotic analgesic to an 84 year old with a frontal headache.

The physician orders an intramuscular injection of Demerol for the postoperativepatient's pain. When preparing to draw up the medication, the nurse is careful to remove the correct vial from the narcotics cabinet. It is labeled: A. Simethicone. B. Albuterol. C. Meperidine. D. Ibuprofen.

Which of the following are not treated with Lansoprazole? A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Gastritis C. Hypertension D. Reflux

Which of the following are not treated with opoid analgesics like (dextromethorphan and methadone)? A. Pulmonary Edema B. Cough suppression C. Sedation D. Pain

A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client? A) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms. B) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause of cramping. C) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect. D) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness of the drug.

C) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect. Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.

Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) A) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally. B) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM. C) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs. D) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).

C, D, A, B

The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this client A. Dopamine B. Ephedrine C. Epinephrine D. Diphenhydramine

C. Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase cardiac automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.

A client is taking hydromorphone (Dilaudid) PO q4h at home. Following surgery, Dilaudid IV q4h PRN and butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) IV q4h PRN are prescribed for pain. The client received a dose of the Dilaudid IV four hours ago, and is again requesting pain medication. What intervention should the nurse implement? A) Alternate the two medications q4h PRN for pain. B) Alternate the two medications q2h PRN for pain. C) Administer only the Dilaudid q4h PRN for pain. D) Administer only the Stadol q4h PRN for pain

C. Administer only the Dilaudid q4h PRN for pain. Dilaudid is an opioid agonist. Stadol is an opioid agonist-antagonist. Use of an agonist-antagonist for the client who has been receiving opioid agonists may result in abrupt withdrawal symptoms, and should be avoided (C). (A, B, and D) do not reflect good nursing practice.

A client's dose of isosorbide dinitrate (Imdur) is increased from 40 mg to 60 mg PO daily. When the client reports the onset of a headache prior to the next scheduled dose, which action should the nurse implement? A) Hold the next scheduled dose of Imdur 60 mg and administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). B) Administer the 40 mg of Imdur and then contact the healthcare provider. C) Administer the 60 mg dose of Imdur and a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). D) Do not administer the next dose of Imdur or any acetaminophen until notifying the healthcare provider.

C. Administer the 60 mg dose of Imdur and a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Imdur is a nitrate which causes vasodilation. This vasodilation can result in headaches, which can generally be controlled with acetaminophen (C) until the client develops a tolerance to this adverse effect. (A and B) may result in the onset of angina if a therapeutic level of Imdur is not maintained. Lying down (D) is less likely to reduce the headache than is a mild analgesic

A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side effect? A) Change the time of the dose. B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose. C) Administer the dose with a snack. D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose.

C. Administer the dose with a snack. Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B) would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions, such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.

The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide? A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness. B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks. C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief

C. Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is the best response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to the administration of the antiarrhythmic drug adenosine (Adenocard)? A) Assess pupillary response to light. B) Instruct the client that facial flushing may occur. C) Apply continuous cardiac monitoring. D) Request that family members leave the room.

C. Apply continuous cardiac monitoring. Adenosine (Adenocard) is an antiarrhythmic drug used to restore a normal sinus rhythm in clients with rapid supraventricular tachycardia. The client's heart rate should be monitored continuously (C) for the onset of additional arrhythmias while receiving adenosine. (A and B) are valuable nursing interventions, but are of less importance than monitoring for potentially fatal arrhythmias. Family members may be asked to leave the room because of the potential for an emergency situation (D), however, this is also of less priority than (C).

Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high dosages of aspirin for arthritis? A) Loperamide (Imodium). B) Probanthine (Propantheline). C) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol). D) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil)

C. Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol). Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) contains a subsalicylate that increases the potential for salicylate toxicity when used concurrently with aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, another salicylate preparation). (A, B, and D) do not pose the degree of risk of drug interaction with aspirin as Pepto Bismol would.

A client is receiving metroprolol (Lopressor SR). What assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? A) Temperature. B) Lung sounds. C) Blood pressure. D) Urinary output.

C. Blood pressure It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A and B) are important data to obtain on any client, they are not as important for a client receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily weights should be monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure, but (D) alone does not have the importance of (C).

A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? A) Glaucoma. B) Hypertension. C) Heart failure. D) Asthma

C. Heart failure. Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as asthma (D).

Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy? A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion. B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities. C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.

C. Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites.

The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because her ears are ringing. What action should the nurse implement? A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing. B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy. C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately. D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam

C. Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately. Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider should be notified immediately (C), and the medication discontinued. (A and D) are not needed, and (B) is inaccurate.

Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client recieving the angiotensin II receptor antagonist irbesartan (avapro)? A. Fluid volume deficit B.Risk for infection C. Risk for injury D. Impaired sleep patterns

C. Risk for injury Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury

A postoperative client has been recieving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (demerol) 35mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demorol 100mg PO Q3H. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls. What action should the nurse take FIRST? A. Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (demorol) B. Administer naloxone (narcan) IV per PRN protocol C. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the demerol per protocol D. notify the healthcare provider of the clients confusion and hallucinations

C. The client is exhibiting symptoms of demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of demerol recieved over four days. C. is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum demerol.

A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults. The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client? A. liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine B. Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention C. Pentobarbital sodium for sleep D. nitroglycerin for angina pain

C. persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also suceptable to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine would be indicated and and congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated

A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of Parkinsons disease has a new prescription for sustained release levodopa/carbidopa (sinemet 25/100 PO BID. The client took his levodopa at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? A. take the first dose of sinemet today, as soon as your prescription is filld B. Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the sinemet C. Take both drugs for the 1st week, then switch to taking only the sinemet. D. You can begin taking the sinemet this evening, but do not take anymore levodopa

A client is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic testing for possible myasthenia gravis. The nurse prepares for intravenous administration of edrophonium chloride (Tensilon). What is the expected outcome for this client following administration of this pharmacologic agent? A) Progressive difficulty with swallowing. B) Decreased respiratory effort. C) Improvement in generalized fatigue. D) Decreased muscle weakness.

D) Decreased muscle weakness. Administration of edrophonium chloride (Tensilon), a cholinergic agent, will temporarily reduce muscle weakness (D), the most common complaint of newly-diagnosed clients with myasthenia gravis. This medication is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis due to its short duration of action. This drug would temporarily reverse (A and B), not increase these symptoms. (C) is not a typical complaint of clients with myasthenia gravis, but weakness of specific muscles, especially after prolonged use, is a common symptom.

An older client with a decreased percentage of lean body mass is likely to receive a prescription that is adjusted based on which pharmacokinetic process? A) Absorption. B) Metabolism. C) Elimination. D) Distribution

D. A decreased lean body mass in an older adult affects the distribution of drugs (D), which affects the pharmacokinetics of drugs. Decreased gastric pH, delayed gastric emptying, decreased splanchnic blood flow, decreased gastrointestinal absorption surface areas and motility affect (A) in the older adult population. Decreased hepatic blood flow, decreased hepatic mass, and decreased activity of hepatic enzymes affect (B) in older adults. Decreased renal blood flow, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased tubular secretion, and decreased number of nephrons affects (C) in an older adult.

Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced spinal cord compression? A) Morphine Sulfate (Duromorph). B) Ibuprofen (Advil). C) Amitriptyline (Amitril). D) Dexamethasone (Decadron)

D. Dexamethasone (D) is a palliative treatment modality to manage symptoms related to compression due to tumor growth. Morphine sulphate (A) is an opioid analgesic used in oncology to manage severe or intractable pain. Ibuprofen (B), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID), provides relief for mild to moderate pain, suppression of inflammation, and reduction of fever. Amitriptyline (C), a tricyclic antidepressant, is often prescribed for pain related to neuropathic origin and provides a reduction in opioid dosage.

A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A) Assess for erythema. B) Administer the antidote. C) Apply warm compresses. D) Discontinue the IV fluids.

D. Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted, but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote may be available (B), additional fluids contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues. Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed after the infusion is discontinued.

A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which information should the nurse include in the client's instruction? A) Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine. B) Avoid overexposure to the sun. C) Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves. D) Take the medication with food.

D. Flagyl, an amoebicide and antibacterial agent, may cause gastric distress, so the client should be instructed to take the medication on a full stomach (D). Urine may be red-brown or dark from Flagyl, but this side effect is not necessary to report (A). Photosensitivity (B) is not a side effect associated with Flagyl. Despite the resolution of clinical symptoms, antiinfective medications should be taken for their entire course because stopping the medication (C) can increase the risk of resistant organisms.

A client is receiving clonidine (catapres) 0.1mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved? A. client denies recent episodes of angina B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1 C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70

D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70 Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. D. indicates a reduction in hypertention

Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan (Diovan) has been achieved A. Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1 B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl C. PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130.80

D. D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130.80 angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker), prescribed from treatment of HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure.

Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? A) Shock. B) Asthma. C) Hypotension. D) Heart failure

D. Heart Failure Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is indicated for short term use in cardiac decompensation or heart failure (D) related to reduced cardiac contractility due to organic heart disease or cardiac surgical procedures. Alpha and beta adrenergic agonists, such as epinephrine and dopamine, are sympathomimetics used in the treatment of shock (A). Other selective beta-2 adrenergic agonists, such as terbutaline and isoproterenol, are indicated in the treatment of asthma (B). Although dobutamine improves cardiac output, it is not used to treat hypotension (C).

A client is being treated for hyperthyridism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the action of this drug is to: A. decrease the amount of thyroid stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid. D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.

D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy

A nurse reinforces instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse tells the client to take the medication: 1. With food 2. At lunchtime 3. On an empty stomach 4. At bedtime with a snack

Rationale: Oral doses of levothyroxine (Synthroid) should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Dosing should be done in the morning before breakfast. *Note that options 1, 2, and 4 are comparable or alike in that these options address administering the medication with food.*

The client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement? A. q4h B. QID C. AC and bedtime D. PC and bedtime

A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient? A. Onset of pulmonary edema B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms

The nurse is teaching a client with cancer about opioid management for intractable pain and tolerance related side effects. The nurse should prepare the client for which side effect that is most likely to persist during long-term use of opioids? A) Sedation. B) Constipation. C) Urinary retention. D) Respiratory depression.

b. The client should be prepared to implement measures for constipation (B) which is the most likely persistent side effect related to opioid use. Tolerance to opiate narcotics is common, and the client may experience less sedation (A) and respiratory depression (D) as analgesic use continues. Opioids increase the tone in the urinary bladder sphincter, which causes retention (C) but may subside

A client is taking famotidine (Pepcid) asks the home care nurse what would be the best medication to take for a headache. The nurse tells the client that it would be best to take: A. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA) B. Ibuprofen (Motrin) C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) D. Naproxen (Naprosyn)

Mandy, a patient calls the clinic today because he is taking atrovastatin Lipitor to treat his high cholesterol and is having pain in both of his legs. You instruct him to: A. Stop taking the drug and make an appointment to be seen next week. B. Continue taking the drug and make an appointment to be seen next week. C. Stop taking the drug and come to the clinic to be seen today. D. Walk for at least 30 minutes and call if symptoms continue.

A client has a continous IV infusion of dopamine (Intropin) and an IV of normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The nurse notes that the client's urinary output has been 20 ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate? A. Stop the infusion of dopamine B. Change the normal saline to a keep open rate. C. Replace the urinary catheter. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output.

To which client would the nurse expect the health-care provider to prescribe chlordiazepoxide (Librium), a benzodiazepine? A. A client addicted to cocaine. B. A client addicted heroin. C. A client addicted to amphetamines. D. A client addicted to alcohol.

Which client should the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for complications during the use of an opioid analgesic? A. an older client with type 2 diabetes B. A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis C. A client with a open compound fracture D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease

A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention? A) Heartburn. B) Headache. C) Constipation. D) Vomiting

d. Vomiting. Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor.

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