Pharmacology Final
The nurse monitors a patient receiving digoxin closely for toxicity when which other medication is prescribed? A-Potassium supplements B-Furosemide (Lasix) C-Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) D-Antibiotics
B - Furosemide (Lasix) loos of potassium
Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants? A-Hypotension B-Hypertension C-Orbital edema D-Facial flushing
B - Hypertension
What is the rationale for administering fibrinolytic agents, such as streptokinase, within hours of the onset of myocardial infarction? A-Enhances myocardial oxygenation. B-Lyses the blood clot. C-Promotes platelet aggregation. D-Inhibits clotting mechanisms.
B - Lyses the blood clot
Which adverse effects associated with levodopa therapy would support the nursing diagnosis risk for injury? A-Nausea and vomiting B-Orthostatic hypotension C-Anorexia and depression D-Tachycardia and palpitations
B - Orthostatic hypotension
An older adult who has septicemia is receiving IV aminoglycoside therapy. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to monitor? A-Bone marrow suppression B-Ototoxicity C-Gastrointestinal (GI) distress D-Photosensitivity
B - Ototoxicity
The nurse is performing a premedication assessment. For which patient would laxative use be contraindicated? A-Patient with quadriplegia B-Patient with appendicitis C-Geriatric patient D-Patient with fractured femur
B - Patient with appendicitis
A trauma patient arrives in the emergency department via EMS. He is bleeding profusely. A medical alert bracelet indicates that he is on heparin therapy. The nurse will most likely administer which medication that counteracts the action of heparin? A-Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) B-Enoxaparin (Lovenox) C-Protamine sulfate D-Vitamin K
B - Protamine sulfate
What is black cohosh used for? A-Preventing miscarriage during the first trimester B-Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome C-Providing antispasmodic activity of the gastrointestinal (GI) system D-Controlling migraine headaches
B - Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
Which life-threatening illness may occur as a result of aspirin (salicylate) administration during viral illness to patients younger than 20 years of age? A-Anaphylactic shock B-Reye's syndrome C-Chickenpox D-Influenza A
B - Reye's syndrome
Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber? A-Eggs, bacon, orange juice B-Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach C-Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk D-Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips
B - Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach
What is the rationale behind administering calcium channel blockers to patients with angina? A-They decrease heart rate. B-They dilate blood vessels. C-They increase cardiac contractility. D-They promote fluid excretion.
B - They dilate blood vessels
If the dose of a transdermal patch is more than the prescriber's medication order A-cut the patch to an appropriate length. B-contact the prescriber. C-do nothing. D-give the patient the patch anyway.
B - contact the prescriber
What lab value should most importantly be monitored on statin therapy? A- creatinine B- liver enzymes C-CBC D-platelets
B - liver enzymes
Corticosteroids
antiinflammatories, but increase sugars and decrease inmunity
Normal Fating glucose
<100 mg/dL <70 mg/dL considered hypoglycemia
Which response will the nurse provide when a patient complains of a headache when using sublingual nitroglycerin? A-"This is a common adverse effect that can be managed with acetaminophen." B-"Discontinue taking this medication." C-"Try taking this medication at night to minimize the possibility of headaches." D-"Lie down after using nitroglycerin to avoid a headache."
A - "This is a common adverse effect that can be managed with acetaminophen."
The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that a patient has sucralfate (antacid)ordered qid. When is the best time to administer this medication? A-1 hour before meals B-With meals C-1 hour after meals D-With a bedtime snack
A - 1 hour before meals
The nurse is preparing the medications for a client. The client has ordered 5 mg of prednisone. The medication comes in 2.5 mg tabs. How many tabs will the nurse administer? A-2 tabs B-1 tab C-1.5 tabs D-0.5 tab
A - 2 tabs
What is albuterol (Proventil)-short acting bronchiodilator used to treat? A-Acute bronchospasm B-Acute allergies C-Nasal congestion D-Dyspnea on exertion
A - Acute bronchospasm
Prior to the administration of a nephrotoxic drug, the nurse determines that the kidney lab data are within normal range. Which step of the nursing process is being used? A-Assessment B-Nursing diagnosis C-Planning D-Evaluation
A - Assessment
Prior to the administration of metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocking agent, which is most important for the nurse to assess? A-Blood pressure B-Lung sounds C-Mental status D-Urine output
A - Blood pressure
The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated for hyperlipidemia. Which assessment will most increase the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD)? A-Blood pressure, 168/90 mm Hg B-Hemoglobin A1c, 6% C-Walks 3 miles briskly, usually 4 days a week D-Eats five servings of fruits and vegetables daily
A - Blood pressure, 168/90 mm Hg
How do beta-adrenergic blocking agents-Beta blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand? A-By inhibiting the stimulation of norepinephrine and epinephrine B-By increasing the production of dopamine and acetylcholine C-By delaying the destruction of acetylcholinesterase and cholinesterase D-By enhancing the sensitivity of alpha receptors and beta receptors
A - By inhibiting the stimulation of norepinephrine and epinephrine
A patient allergic to penicillin is being evaluated for a gram-negative infection. Which antimicrobial drug class would the healthcare provider be cautious in prescribing because of a possible cross sensitivity and/or allergic reaction? A-Cephalosporins B-Aminoglycosides C-Sulfonamides D-Quinolones
A - Cephalosporins
When a patient taking a monoamine oxidase B inhibitor receives his dietary tray, the nurse knows to remove the: A-cheese. B-eggs. C-bread. D-coffee.
A - Cheese
An adult patient is admitted for an asthma attack. Which assessment obtained by the nurse would support that albuterol (Proventil)-short acting bronchiodilator was effective? A-Decrease in wheezing present on auscultation B-Less dyspnea while positioned in a high Fowler's position C-Sputum production is clear and watery D-Respiratory rate decreased to 38 breaths/min
A - Decrease in wheezing present on auscultation
The nurse is administering medications to a 90-year-old client. Which of these age-related physiologic changes should the nurse consider when assessing the client's response to the medications? A. Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)/renal status may lead to drug toxicity B. Decreased fat stores lead to poor medication distribution C. An age-related decrease in gastric acidity increases medication absorption D. Metabolism of medications increases with age
A - Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)/renal status may lead to drug toxicity
1.)You are the nurse assigned to give Pantoprazole (Protonix) - a PPI to Mr. Smith. You would determine that the medication is effective when the client verbalizes relief of which symptoms: A. Dyspepsia B. Blurred vision C. Constipation D. Headaches
A - Dyspepsia
Dystonic reactions, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia are types of which effect? A-Extrapyramidal symptoms B-Allergic reactions C-Idiosyncratic reactions D-Therapeutic responses
A - Extrapyramidal symptoms
Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing? A-Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938) B-Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952) C-Controlled Substances Act (1970) D-Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
A - Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
Which organism or disorder is responsible for many cases of PUD? A-H. pylori B-Candida albicans C-Escherichia coli D-Herpes zoster
A - H. pylori
When obtaining a patient's health history, which assessment data would the nurse identify as having the most effect on drug metabolism? A-History of liver disease B-Intake of a vegetarian diet C-Sedentary lifestyle D-Teacher as an occupation
A - History of liver disease
Which of the follow is a loop diuretic? A-Lasix B-ACE inhibitor C-Spironolactone D-Coumadin
A - Lasix
A patient who is taking NSAIDs to treat arthritis asks the nurse why misoprostol has also been prescribed. Which explanation by the nurse is accurate? A-NSAIDs often cause GI irritation that can result in peptic ulcers. B-NSAIDs promote the production of prostaglandins and reduce the incidence of gastric irritation. C-Antiulcer medications eradicate the presence of bacteria in the stomach that cause ulcers. D-Drug interactions are prevented when antiulcer medications are used in combination with NSAIDs.
A - NSAIDs often cause GI irritation that can result in peptic ulcers
The nurse assesses hives(rash) in a patient started on a new medication. What is the nurse's priority action? A-Notify physician of allergic reaction. B-Notify physician of idiosyncratic reaction. C-Notify physician of potential teratogenicity. D-Notify physician of potential tolerance.
A - Notify physician of allergic reaction
A physician prescribes a Proton-Pump Inhibitor to a patient with a gastric ulcer. Which medication is considered a PPI? A. Pantoprazole B. Famotidine C. Magnesium Hydroxide D. Metronidazole
A - Pantoprazole
On what is the selection of an antimicrobial agent based? A-Sensitivity of the microorganism to the drug B-Half-life of the medication C-Therapeutic levels of the drug D-Bioavailability of the drug
A - Sensitivity of the microorganism to the drug
Which drugs cause birth defects? A-Teratogens B-Carcinogens C-Metabolites D-Placebos
A - Teratogens
What is the role of corticosteroids in the treatment of acute respiratory disorders? A- they decrease inflammation B- they directly dilate the bronchi C- they stimulate the immune system D- they increase gas exchange
A - They decrease inflammation
Which medication is used to control seizures or prevent migraine headaches? A-Topiramate (Topamax) B-Zonisamide (Zonegran) C-Valproic acid (Depakene) D-Tiagabine (Gabitril)
A - Topiramate (Topamax)
A college student is being seen at an outpatient clinic with reports of allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis. The healthcare provider orders fexofenadine (Allegra - 2nd generation antihistamine). When providing information regarding this medication, the nurse will include statements indicating that: A-fexofenadine is one of the least sedating antihistamines. B-tolerance will not develop. C-antihistamines are more effective if taken after histamine is released. D-histamine release will be prevented by this medication.
A - fexofenadine is one of the least sedating antihistamines
The nurse transcribes a new order for a daily diuretic on a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The nurse will schedule this medication: A-in the morning. B-after lunch. C-with dinner. D-at bedtime.
A - in the morning
Which food is a good source of vitamin A? A-Sweet potatoes B-Apples C-Bananas D-Whole-grain bread
A - sweet potatoes (accepted D)
The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old girl who has a congenital heart anomaly. The patient's current medications include digoxin and furosemide (Lasix). The apical pulse rate is 90 beats/min and potassium normal at 4.0. Which action will the nurse take? A-Administer the medication. B-Contact the pediatric cardiologist for further orders. C-Hold the digoxin. D-Request that another unit nurse assess the child.
A-Administer the medication.
The nurse finds that a patient is extremely agitated, yells frequently, and is attempting to get out of bed without assistance. What is the nurse's initial action? A-Administer zolpidem after taking the patient's vital signs. B-Close the patient's door for privacy after administering Tylenol. C-Administer benzodiazepine before calling the healthcare provider. D-Spend uninterrupted time listening to the patient.
A-Administer zolpidem after taking the patient's vital signs.
The nurse is assessing a patient who was recently admitted to the emergency department with dysrhythmias and shortness of breath. Which baseline nursing assessment(s) should be the priority(ies)? (Select all that apply.) A-ECG monitoring B-Medication history C-Oxygen saturation D-Presence of chest pain, dyspnea, and fatigue E-Mental status F-Sleep pattern
A-ECG monitoring B-Medication history C-Oxygen saturation D-Presence of chest pain, dyspnea, and fatigue E-Mental status
What lifestyle choice(s) may aggravate metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A-Excessive tobacco smoking B-Inadequate hydration C-Excessive exercise D-Inadequate caloric intake E-Excessive consumption of alcohol
A-Excessive tobacco smoking E-Excessive consumption of alcohol
Which principle(s) would be when teaching a patient to use a steroid inhaler? (Select all that apply.) A-Frequent oral hygiene is necessary. B-The inhaler should be used on a PRN basis only. C-Rinse and spit after inhalation of the medication. D-When taking a steroid drug as well as a bronchodilator, the bronchodilator should be administered first. E-Hold the breath for 10 seconds during inhalation of the medication.
A-Frequent oral hygiene is necessary. C-Rinse and spit after inhalation of the medication. D-When taking a steroid drug as well as a bronchodilator, the bronchodilator should be administered first. E-Hold the breath for 10 seconds during inhalation of the medication.
A teaching plan for a patient with hyperlipidemia would instruct the patient to avoid which food(s)? (Select all that apply.) A-Hard cheeses B-Egg whites (could be an answer) C-Unsaturated vegetable oils D-Green vegetables E-Liver
A-Hard cheeses E-Liver
Which parenteral route has the longest absorption time? A-Intradermal B-Subcutaneous C-IM D-Intravenous (IV)
A-Intradermal
After entering the patient's room to administer oral medications, which action will the nurse take first? A-Assist the patient to sit upright.(1st) B-Check the patient's identification.(2nd) C-Inform the patient about the medications. D-Offer the patient something to drink.
A. Assist the patiet to sit upright. (1st)
A patient has been using herbal medications as part of her daily routine. with other prescribed medications. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply) A. Document the herbs as part of the medication history. B. Recommend a reputable company from which to buy herbs. C. Allow the patient to self-administer the herbs with her morning medications. D. Inform the health care provider of the findings. E. Identify possible adverse effects of the herbal medications.
A. Document the herbs as part of the medication history. D. Inform the health care provider of the findings. E. Identify possible adverse effects of the herbal medications.
Drug class: antihypoglycimic angent : Glucagon
Action: Breaks down stored glycogen to glucose Use: Treatment of hypoglycemic reactions
The nurse is completing an assessment on a nonverbal adult patient. Which type of pain scale assessment tool is the most accurate to use? A-TPPPS B-FLACC C-POCIS D-MOPS
B - FLACC
The nurse is instructing a patient recently diagnosed with GERD. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A-"I will avoid foods high in fat." B-"I will eat small frequent meals and have a snack at bedtime." C-"Orange juice may aggravate my symptoms." D-"I will wait 2 hours after eating lunch before lying down for a nap."
B - "I will eat small frequent meals and have a snack at bedtime."
A friend reports using loperamide (Imodium) for continual diarrhea for a week since returning home from a vacation outside the country. Which is the nurse's best response? A-"There are some other over-the-counter products available for diarrhea, such as Kaopectate (bismuth subsalicylate)." B-"I'd stop taking the Imodium and go in to see a healthcare provider immediately. You may have an infection in your intestinal tract." C-"If you're not running a temperature, I wouldn't worry. That happens to many people when they travel." D"As long as you can drink plenty of fluids, I'm sure the diarrhea will go away once you're back in a normal routine."
B - "I'd stop taking the Imodium and go in to see a healthcare provider immediately. You may have an infection in your intestinal tract."
After teaching a diabetic patient about proper disposal of used syringes and needles, which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A-"Even needles with sleeves should be disposed of appropriately." B-"It is unusual that anyone could get a needle injury or disease from used needles." C-"It is important for me to use the designated container to dispose of my syringes and needles." D-"I am going to purchase the 'Sharps by Mail Disposal System' once I am home."
B - "It is unusual that anyone could get a needle injury or disease from used needles."
A patient who has just begun taking an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor calls the nurse and reports feeling very dizzy when standing up and asks if the medication should be discontinued. What is the nurse's best response? A-"Stop taking the medication immediately." B-"Rise to a sitting or standing position slowly; your symptoms will resolve." C-"I will schedule you to visit the healthcare provider today." D-"Cut the pill in half and take a reduced dosage."
B - "Rise to a sitting or standing position slowly; your symptoms will resolve"
A child has been diagnosed with asthma and the nurse is providing education to the family. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? A-"I will administer meds as prescribed" B-"We will confine our dog to the kitchen area." C-"I should wash bedding in hot water." D-"A damp cloth should be used when I dust."
B - "We will confine our dog to the kitchen area."
A patient is admitted into a substance abuse treatment center and is withdrawing from alcohol. Which statement made by the patient's family member shows a need for further education? A-"Withdrawal symptoms can begin within a few hours of discontinuation of drinking." B-"Withdrawal symptoms will improve within 24 hours." C-"Less than 1% of patients develop delirium tremens." D-"Benzodiazepines are commonly used for detoxification."
B - "Withdrawal symptoms will improve within 24 hours."
What instruction is most important for the nurse to teach the patient who has recently been prescribed alprazolam (Xanax)? A-"The medication needs to be taken on an empty stomach." B-"You may feel dizzy or unsteady when rising to a standing position." C-"Smoking will require a reduction in dosage of the medication." D-"Over-the-counter medications are safe to take while on this medication."
B - "You may feel dizzy or unsteady when rising to a standing position"
2.) The nurse teaches her client that the best time to take Prilosec (Omeprazole) - a PPI is: A. 30 minutes after meals B. 30 minutes before meals C. With meals D. 2 hours after meals
B - 30 minutes before meals
Which patient, when compared with the general population, would require a larger dose or more frequent administration of a drug to attain a therapeutic response? A-A 29 year old who has been diagnosed with kidney failure B-A 35-year-old obese male who is being evaluated for an exercise program C-A 52 year old diagnosed with hypothyroidism and decreased metabolic rate D-A 72 year old with decreased circulatory status
B - 35-year-old obese male who is being evaluated for an exercise program
Which medication combinations may be beneficial in treating angina pectoris? A-Antidysrhythmics and platelet active agents B-ACE inhibitors and statins C-Vasoconstrictors and diuretics D-Analgesics and thrombolytics
B - ACE inhibitors and statins
A 16-year-old male has been referred to the community mental health center following legal charges of driving under the influence. Which screening tests would be appropriate to use on this patient? A-Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST) B-Adolescent Alcohol Involvement Scale (AAIS) C-Adolescent Drug Abuse Diagnosis (ADAD) D-Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI 2)
B - Adolescent Alcohol Involvement Scale (AAIS)
A patient admitted 48 hours ago has a diagnosis of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and is receiving IV hydration and transfusions. When making rounds, the nurse observes the patient to be having a tonic-clonic seizure. What may be the cause of the seizure? A-Low blood counts as a result of bleeding B-Alcohol withdrawal C-Alkalosis D-Inadequate nutrition
B - Alcohol withdrawal
What will the nurse need to determine first in order to mix two drugs in the same syringe? A-Absorption rate of the drugs B-Compatibility of the drugs C-Drug blood level of each drug D-Medication adverse effects
B - Compatibility of the drugs
What occurs with mania associated with bipolar disorder? A-Varying degrees of sadness B-Distinct episodes of elation C-Suicide D-Psychomotor retardation
B - Distinct episodes of elation
The nurse is preparing medications for a patient. When is the best time for the nurse to administer lovastatin (Mevacor-class-statin)? A-2 hours after breakfast B-During the patient's dinner C-1 hour before breakfast D-30 minutes before lunch
B - During patient's dinner
Which herb is used to stimulate the innate immune system? A-Aloe B-Echinacea C-Chamomile D-Ginger
B - Echinacea
Which action will the nurse implement to decrease the risk of clot formation in an older patient on bed rest? A-Assess peripheral pulses. B-Encourage passive leg exercises. C-Limit fluid intake. D-Position pillows behind the knees.
B - Encourage passive leg exercises
The patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best? A-"It will eliminate your cough at night." B-"It will reduce the frequency of your cough." C-"It should be used in the morning." D-"It should be taken before sleep."
B-"It will reduce the frequency of your cough."
Which action(s) will the nurse take when caring for a patient with heart failure? (Select all that apply.) A-Administer diuretics at bedtime. B-Assess electrolyte levels. C-Report daily weight fluctuations. D-Encourage sodium intake. E-Maintain skin hygiene.
B-Assess electrolyte levels. C-Report daily weight fluctuations. E-Maintain skin hygiene.
The nurse determines that a prescribed medication has not been administered as ordered on the previous shift. What action will the nurse take? A-Administer the medication immediately. B-Complete an incident report. C-Notify the nurse responsible for the error. D-Record the occurrence in the nurse's notes.
B-Complete an incident report
Which statement about dietary supplements is true? A-Dietary supplements are considered safe and effective. B-Dietary supplements have not been tested for safety or efficacy. C-There are no serious adverse effects to taking dietary supplements. D-Dietary supplements have full FDA and USP approval.
B-Dietary supplements have not been tested for safety or efficacy.
Which medication is a potassium sparing diuretic? A-Acetazolamide (Diamox) B-Spironolactone (Aldactone) C-Furosemide (Lasix) D-Bumetanide (Bumex)
B-Spironolactone (Aldactone)
A patient has developed a duodenal ulcer. As the nurse, you know that which of the following plays a role in peptic ulcer formation. Select ALL that apply: A. Spicy foods B. Helicobacter pylori C. NSAIDs D. Milk E. Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
B. Helicobacter pylori C. NSAIDs
A postoperative appendectomy patient has a nasogastric tube and wonders why the previous nurse told him that he was receiving an IV "ulcer-preventing" medication called ranitidine(histamine 2 blocker). The patient states that he has never had any stomach problems in his life. Which is the best response by the nurse? A-"This medication will cause the pH in your stomach to drop." B-"This medication helps coat your stomach while the nasogastric tube is in place." C-"Because you are not eating after surgery, this medication will help reduce the hydrochloric acid your stomach is still secreting." D-"The nasogastric tube will cause peptic ulcer disease. This medication will help prevent that."
C - "Because you are not eating after surgery, this medication will help reduce the hydrochloric acid your stomach is still secreting."
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) (anticonvulsant) for management of a seizure disorder. Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching? A-"I need to avoid or limit caffeine intake." B-"I will check with the pharmacist before taking over-the-counter medication." C-"If I develop enlarged gums, I will stop taking the medication." D-"It is important for me to take my medicine at the same time daily."
C - "If I develop enlarged gums, I will stop taking the medication."
A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? A-"These drugs help you urinate." B-"These drugs will decrease your eye pressure." C-"These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine." D-"These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."
C - "These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine."
An 86-year-old patient who was admitted with GI bleeding as a result of salicylate therapy is being discharged. As the nurse reviews the discharge medication list, the patient states that she doesn't understand why Tylenol doesn't work as well as the aspirin she had been taking. What would be the nurse's best response? A-"Tylenol and aspirin are chemically the same drug." B-"Tylenol is appropriate for only minor pain." C-"Tylenol does not help with inflammatory discomfort." D-"A therapeutic blood level must be established with Tylenol."
C - "Tylenol does not help with inflammatory discomfort."
The doctor writes an order for a medication. The nurse notes the order says to administer 12.5 mg PO. Pharmacy dispenses the nurse with 6.25 mg tablets. How many tablets will the nurse administer and what medication administration right is the nurse assessing? A. 2 tablets, right evaluation B. 2.5 tablets, right calculation C. 2 tablet, right dosage D. 2.5 tablets, right time
C - 2 tablet, right dose
The nurse is obtaining a history of respiratory symptoms on a patient with the diagnosis of COPD. The patient reports smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. The nurse calculates the pack years as: A-5. B-10. C-20. D-40.
C - 20
A patient is nauseated, has been vomiting and needs to receive an antiemetic (anti-nausea) medication. Which of the following is accurate? A. An enteric-coated medication should be given. B. Any medication will not be absorbed as easily because of the nausea problem. C. A parenteral route is the route of choice. D. A rectal suppository must be administered.
C - A parenteral route is the route of choice
Which of the following is most important to check prior to administering a medication to a patient? A. Medical condition B. Vital signs C. Allergy status D. Other prescription medications
C - Allergy status
The use of which medication would alert the nurse to educate the patient about using Ginkgo biloba cautiously? A-Antiemetics B-Anti-inflammatories C-Anticoagulants D-Antibiotics
C - Anticoagulants
A patient at sports camp is complaining of itchy and watery eyes, coughing, and sneezing when outdoors. The patient's chart states that he has an allergy to grasses. Which medication will the nurse administer? A-Antitussive B-Expectorant C-Antihistamine D-Decongestant
C - Antihistamine
During medication administration how can the nurse properly confirm he or she has the right patient? A. Ask the patient to state their last name and compared this to the patient's ID arm band. B. Ask the patient to state their full name and compare this information to the medication administration record and the patient's ID arm band. C. Ask the patient to state their full name along with their date of birth and compare this information to the medication administration record and the patient's ID arm band. D. Ask the patient to state their full name and compare this to the patient's ID arm band.
C - Ask the patient to state their full name along with their date of birth and compare this information to the medication administration record and the patient's ID arm band
Lithium (Eskalith) is the drug of choice for which of the following disorders? A-Psychotic episodes B-Obsessive-compulsive disorders (OCDs) C-Bipolar disorders D-Depressive disorders
C - Bipolar disorders
Why are statins, or HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, administered at bedtime? A-The stomach is empty. B-Metabolic needs of the body are decreased. C-Cholesterol production is at its peak. D-The body temperature is increased.
C - Cholesterol production is at its peak
A 42-year-old woman is admitted with complaints of dysuria, frequency, and lower back pain. The urinalysis report is positive for red blood cells, and the blood work shows an elevated white blood cell count. Which medication will the nurse anticipate that the healthcare provider will order? A-Meperidine (Demerol) B-Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) C-Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) D-Metronidazole (Flagyl)
C - Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
3.) A patient is prescribed with esomeprazole---a PPI for the treatment of GERD. Upon review of current medication use, the nurse noted that the patient is taking clopidogrel-Plavix. The nurse warned the patient that esomeprazole: A. Have no evidence of potential interaction with clopidogrel-Plavix B. Increase the effectiveness of clopidogrel-Plavix C. Decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel-PlavixD. Increase acid production
C - Decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel-PlavixD. Increase acid production
In addition to facilitating sleep, what is another benefit of sedatives? A-Increased pain control postoperatively B-Reduced bronchial secretions C-Decreased patient anxiety D-Increased patient alertness
C - Decreased patient anxiety
What is St. John's wort used to treat? A-Rheumatoid arthritis B-Asthma C-Depression D-Viral infections
C - Depression
The clinic nurse is assessing a patient being seen for a severe allergic reaction to environmental allergens. Which symptom should the nurse prioritize as the most important? A-Hypotension B-Urticaria C-Dyspnea D-Rhinorrhea
C - Dyspnea
Which organism causes most UTIs? A-Proteus mirabilis B-Klebsiella pneumoniae C-E. coli D-Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C - E. coli
Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications? A-Dextromethorphan B-Diphenhydramine C-Guaifenesin D-Codeine
C - Guaifenesin
The nurse transcribes an order for lorazepam for a patient experiencing nausea and vomiting as a result of alcohol withdrawal. The most appropriate route of administration for lorazepam with this patient would be: A-by mouth. B-rectally. C-IV. D-topically.
C - IV
The nurse administers an initial dose of a steroid to a patient with asthma. Thirty minutes after administration, the nurse finds the patient agitated and stating that "everyone is out to get me." What is the term for this unusual reaction? A-Desired action B-Adverse effect C-Idiosyncratic reaction D-Allergic reaction
C - Idiosyncratic reaction
The nurse is explaining the use of medications to a patient with insomnia. Which statement about sedatives is true? A-A sedative will produce sleep. B-Sedatives increase the total time in REM sleep. C-Increased relaxation occurs with sedatives. D-Sedatives are more potent than hypnotics.
C - Increased relaxation occurs with sedatives
A patient has been diagnosed with angina pectoris and an elevated LDL cholesterol level. The healthcare provider has prescribed HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor-statin drug. What is the primary indication in using this medication? A-Reduce coronary vessel spasm. B-Simplify oxygen requirements of the cardiac cells. C-Lower cholesterol levels. D-Dilate the coronary arteries
C - Lower cholesterol levels
A patient is experiencing adverse effects of a medication. Which information obtained by the nurse is subjective? A-Cough B-Edema C-Nausea D-Tachycardia
C - Nausea
What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss? A-Ear infection B-Drug allergy C-Ototoxicity D-Idiosyncratic reaction
C - Ototoxicity
The nurse assesses erythema, warmth, and burning pain along the patient's IV site. Which complication is this patient most likely experiencing? A-Air embolism B-Extravasation C-Phlebitis D-Pulmonary edema
C - Phlebitis
When teaching a patient who is taking thiazide diuretics, the nurse will encourage the patient to increase the intake of which electrolyte? A-Calcium B-Sodium C-Potassium D-Magnesium
C - Potassium
Which foods will the nurse recommend for a patient taking loop diuretics? A-Protein-rich foods such as poultry, whole grains, and fish B-Fiber-rich foods such as yellow vegetables, nuts, and lentils C-Potassium-rich foods such as raisins, figs, and bananas D-Sodium-rich foods such as canned vegetables and processed foods
C - Potassium-rich foods such as raisins, figs, and bananas
What is the purpose for the nurse administering metoclopramide (Reglan)(antiemetic) IV postoperatively? A-Prolong the effects of anesthesia. B-Decrease the potential for thrombus formation. C-Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting. D-Decrease postoperative pain.
C - Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting
Which is a therapeutic effect of valerian? A-Lower high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) and raise low-density lipoprotein (LDLs). B-Prevent infection. C-Promote relaxation and sleep. D-Elevate mood.
C - Promote relaxation and sleep(melatonin)
What will the nurse caution a patient about when providing information about the prescribing sedatives? A-Risk for addiction B-Adverse effect of nausea C-Risk of injury when using machinery D-Additive effects of central nervous system (CNS) depression with alcohol
C - Risk of injury when using machinery
Which patient assessment would alert the nurse to withhold a loop diuretic? A-Crackles in the lung bases B-+2 pitting peripheral edema C-Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L D-Weight gain of 2 lb in 2 days
C - Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L
Which instruction will the nurse include for a patient prescribed sublingual nitrate PRN for angina? A-Take a dose routinely at bedtime. B-Place the tablet under the tongue and swallow immediately. C-Take one tablet and then seek medical attention if the pain is not relieved within 5 minutes. D-Take one tablet every 2 to 3 minutes until relief is obtained.
C - Take one tablet and then seek medical attention if the pain is not relieved within 5 minutes.
Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC) drugs? A-They are not listed in the USP NF. B-A prescription from a healthcare provider is needed. C-They are sold without a prescription. D-They are known only by their brand names.
C - They are sold without a prescription
Why are beta blockers used cautiously in patients with respiratory conditions? A-They mask the signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia. B-They cause extensive vasodilation and cardiac overload. C-They may produce severe bronchoconstriction. D-They increase hypertensive episodes.
C - They may produce severe bronchoconstriction
Which patient assessment would indicate to the nurse that salicylate/aspirin toxicity is occurring? A-Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding B-Increased bleeding times C-Tinnitus D-Occasional nausea
C - Tinnitus
Which cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease are reduced with anticholinergic drugs? A-Cognitive impairments B-Rigidity C-Tremors and drooling D-Postural abnormalities
C - Tremors and drooling
For which condition may carbamazepine (Tegretol) (anticonvulsant, nerve pain control) be used? A-Tardive dyskinesia B-Psychotic episodes C-Trigeminal neuralgia pain D-Sedation
C - Trigeminal neuralgia pain
A long-term care resident is taking an anticholinergic agent. The nurse observes the resident to be disoriented and hallucinating. The priority nursing action is to: A-report development of alterations to the charge nurse. B-assess blood glucose. C-provide for resident's safety. D-medicate with antianxiety medication.
C - provide for resident's safety.
A patient who is administered medication sublingually A-has upper GI problems. B-should ingest food or liquid to help absorption of the medication. C-shouldn't eat or drink until the medication is absorbed. D-None of the above.
C - shouldn't eat or drink until the medication is absorbed
A physician's order indicates to administer a medication to the patient via the percutaneous route. The nurse can anticipate that the patient will receive this medication: A-intramuscularly. B-subcutaneously. C-topically. D-rectally.
C - topically
What is an advantage of administering a drug parenterally? A-The duration of action is longer. B-Medications given by this route are inexpensive. C-The onset of action is more rapid. D-The dose is usually larger than an oral dose.
C -The onset of action is more rapid
The nurse is teaching a patient about the administration of antihistamines. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication at what time of day? A-PRN throughout the day B-After contact with an allergen C-45 minutes before exposure to an allergen D-Once nasal congestion begins
C-45 minutes before exposure to an allergen
Which lipoprotein contributes to the development of atherosclerosis? A-Chylomicrons B-Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) C-Low-density lipoprotein chylomicron (LDL C) D-High-density lipoprotein chylomicron (HDL C)
C-Low-density lipoprotein chylomicron (LDL C)
type 1 diabetes mellitus
Caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas; no insulin secretion from pancreas Symptoms: polydypsia, polyphagia, polyuria,
In your own words describe how cholinergic and anticholinergic drug work and what are side effects of each?
Cholinergic drugs activate acetylcholine receptors in the body which calms the body down (parasympathetic). Anticholinergics do the opposite and block acetylcholine
Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has a good understanding of PVD? A-"Symptoms are warning signs of the increased potential to develop diseases." B-"Pharmacologic treatments can reverse the disease process." C-"Surgical interventions will cure the disease." D-"Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease."
D - "Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease."
What process in the antigen-antibody reaction causes the symptoms of allergies? A-Release of antihistamines B-Production of antibodies C-Suppression of histamine D-Release of histamine
D - Release of histamine
The nurse has provided instruction to a patient recently prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the patient indicates to the nurse the need for further teaching? A-"I will always wear a medical alert bracelet." B-"I will check with my healthcare provider before I take any OTC medications." C-"I will be careful when I use a knife or other sharp objects." D-"I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash instead of brushing my teeth."
D - "I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash instead of brushing my teeth."
The nurse has provided patient teaching about potassium sparing diuretic therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A-"I will take my medication in the morning." B-"I will report a weight gain of 2 lb in 2 days." C-"I will rise slowly when I get up from a sitting position." D-"I will use a salt substitute because I limit my salt intake."
D - "I will use a salt substitute because I limit my salt intake."
Which is the laxative of choice for an older patient who is in the end stage of Alzheimer's disease and requires a daily laxative? A-Emollient B-Stimulant C-Fecal softener D-Bulk forming
D - Bulk forming
Which action will the nurse take if a dosage is unclear on a healthcare provider's order? A-Ask the patient what dosage was given in the past. B-Ask another physician to determine the correct dosage. C-Tell the patient that the medication will not be given. D-Contact the healthcare provider to verify the correct dosage.
D - Contact the healthcare provider to verify the correct dosage
Which is a common adverse effect of magnesium-based antacid preparations? A-Heartburn B-Rebound indigestion C-Constipation D-Diarrhea
D - Diarrhea
On admission, a patient with a history of cardiac insufficiency complains of shortness of breath. The nurse auscultates the lungs and notes bilateral crackles throughout both fields. In addition, there is bilateral +2 edema of the lower extremities. Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the healthcare provider will prescribe? A-Allopurinol (Zyloprim) B-Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) C-Mannitol D-Furosemide (Lasix)
D - Furosemide (Lasix)
Which dietary supplement should be used with extreme caution if the patient is on a platelet inhibitor? A-Aloe B-Ephedra C-Green tea D-Garlic
D - Garlic
Which herb has been used in many cultures to provide relief of nausea associated with pregnancy? A-Mint B-Hyssop C-Echinacea D-Ginger
D - Ginger
Which condition is associated with hydantoin (anticonvulsant) therapy? A-Postictal state B-Atonia C-Seizure threshold reduction D-Gingival hyperplasia
D - Gingival hyperplasia(normal)
33. Which herbal medicine may improve a patient's short-term memory loss and cognitive function? A-Ginger B-Green tea C-Feverfew D-Ginkgo biloba extract
D - Ginkgo biloba extract
Before the initiation of anticholinergic medications, it is important for the nurse to screen patients for which condition? A-Hypertension B-Infectious diseases C-Diabetes D-Glaucoma
D - Glaucoma
The nurse is assessing a patient who is complaining of hearing voices. What is this patient experiencing? A-Delusions B-Flight of ideas C-Disorganized thinking D-Hallucinations
D - Hallucinations
The nurse is teaching a patient about statin therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A-"I will take this medication at night." B-"This medication will reduce blood clot formation." C-"I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice." D-"If I get a headache, I will notify my healthcare provider."
D - If I get a headache, I will notify my healthcare provider.
A patient is diagnosed with cancer and requires 6 months of chemotherapy infusions. Which type of intravenous (IV) access device will likely be used? A-Peripheral venous access device B-Midline catheter C-Winged needle venous access device D-Implantable venous infusion port
D - Implantable venous infusion port
Which medication route provides the most rapid onset of a medication but also poses the greatest risk of adverse effects? A-Intradermal B-Subcutaneous (subcutaneous) C-Intramuscular (IM) D-Intravenous (IV)
D - Intravenous (IV)
Which medication order requires nursing judgment and means "administer if needed"? A-Morphine 4 mg IV stat B-Morphine 4 mg IV prior to procedure C-Morphine 4 mg IV four times a day D-Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
D - Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via percutaneous coronary angioplasty (PCA) has a shallow, irregular respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min? A-Elevate the patient's head of bed to facilitate lung expansion. B-Increase the patient's primary intravenous (IV) flow rate. C-Complete the FLACC scale. D-Notify the healthcare provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan)
D - Notify the healthcare provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan)
The nurse is assessing the patient's leg for peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and is unable to palpate the pedal pulse in either foot. Which action will the nurse take first? A-Contact the healthcare provider for further orders. B-Request x-ray studies of the lower extremities. C-Request that the patient lie flat. D-Obtain a Doppler ultrasound device for auscultation.
D - Obtain a Doppler ultrasound device for auscultation
The outcome statement for a patient suffering from anxiety disorder reads, "After 1 week on alprazolam (Xanax) therapy, patient will exhibit a manageable level of anxiety." Which assessment finding validates that this outcome is met? A-Patient is unable to participate in group therapy conversations. B-Patient reports persistent fear about dying of a rare illness. C-Patient verifies that family reunions trigger anxiety and excessive drinking. D-Patient reports sleeping better and increased interest in activities.
D - Patient reports sleeping better and increased interest in activities
When the nurse assesses bowel habits in a patient, which is the best example of normal bowel elimination? A-Daily bowel movements B-Multiple soft stools daily C-Daily liquid stools D-Regular bowel elimination pattern of soft stool
D - Regular bowel elimination pattern of soft stool
A patient is scheduled to take three medications at 1000. The nurse confirms the following about each medication: right medication, right dose, right time, and right route. When thinking of the first 5 Rights of Medication Administration what "right" is the nurse missing? A. Right Site B. Right Assessment C. Right Documentation D. Right Patient
D - Right Patient
The nurse is teaching a patient about dietary implications while on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which food is highest in vitamin K (green leafy vegetables)? A-Fruit B-Pasta C-Potato D-Spinach
D - Spinach
A nurse working the night shift suspects that a colleague is abusing alcohol. Which action by the nurse is most important? A-"Good faith" reporting is unfaithful to a colleague. B-Reporting will result in loss of the colleague's license. C-It is not of concern, and the nurse won't be penalized for refusing to get involved. D-State guidelines may mandate to report substance abuse.
D - State guidelines may mandate to report substance abuse
Within minutes of the initiation of a nebulizer treatment with a sympathomimetic bronchodilator, the patient turns on his call light and states that he feels "panicky" and his heart is racing. Which action will the nurse take? A-Reassure the patient this is expected. B-Add more diluents to the nebulizer. C-Administer a sedative. D-Stop treatment and notify the healthcare provider.
D - Stop treatment(UNDERLYING CAUSE) and notify the healthcare provider
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a 13-year-old client. The nurse follows the rights of medication administration for a pediatric client. After checking for the right client, the right dose, the right drug, the right time, and the right route, what is the final item the nurse must check for this client? A-The right age B-The right label C-The right strength D-The right documentation
D - The right documentation
What do drug blood levels indicate? A-They confirm if the patient is taking a generic form of a drug. B-They determine if the patient has sufficient body fat to metabolize the drug. C-They verify if the patient is taking someone else's medications. D-They determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range.
D - They determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range
After undergoing prostate surgery, a patient is discharged on the medication phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) to assist with urinary catheter discomfort. What information will the nurse include in the discharge teaching? A-Urine will have a foul smell while taking this medication. B-Diarrhea and abdominal cramping are expected adverse effects. C-The sclera of the eye is yellow while on therapy. D-Urine will appear reddish orange.
D - Urine will appear reddish orange
Prior to the administration of a beta-adrenergic blocker, the nurse notes the patient to have a heart rate of 52 beats/min, peripheral edema, crackles in the bases of the lungs, and mottled skin. Which is the priority nursing action? A-Administer the medication as ordered. B-Reevaluate the patient in 20 minutes. C-Obtain a serum blood level. D-Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
D - Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
The nurse is preparing an otic solution. When instructing the patient in regard to area of administration, the nurse will explain that the solution will be placed: A-into the eye. B-under the tongue. C-topically. D-into the ear.
D - into the ear
A patient hospitalized in an acute care setting reports to the nurse that since starting on an adrenergic medication, he has been feeling "dizzy and weak." The most appropriate action for the nurse is to: A-immediately notify the physician. B-teach the patient to move slowly from standing to sitting. C-discontinue the adrenergic blocker. D-monitor the blood pressure in both the supine and standing positions.
D - monitor the blood pressure in both the supine and standing positions
The nurse is transcribing new orders written for a patient with a substance abuse history. Choose the medication ordered that has the greatest risk for abuse A-Lomotil B-Diazepam C-Phenobarbital D-Lortab (controlled substance- pain medication)
D-Lortab(controlled substance-pain)
(T/F) Nurses are not doctors or pharmacists; therefore they don't need to know much about the drugs they are giving to their patients
FALSE
What are the symptoms of a Urinary tract infection and if you are the nurse, what interventions/orders would you anticipate carrying out for your patient with a UTI?
Localized symptoms of a UTI include burning sensation while urinating, strong smelling urine, and pelvic pain. Some systemic symptoms include fever, chills, lightheadedness, and shakiness. A nurse would likely obtain a urinalysis or urine culture, give antibiotics, provide the patient with fluids, and give pain medication.
Drug Class: Biguanide: Metformin
Oral Antidiabetic Agent/Type 2 Drug: Metformin (Glucophage) Actions: Decreases hepatic glucose production by inhibiting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, reduces adsorption of glucose from intestine, increases insulin sensitivity Use: Treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus Common adverse effects: Nausea, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal cramps, flatulence, diarrhea Note: Numerous drug/alcohol interactions Will not cause hypoglycemia, does not cause weight gain, affects triglycerides to a modest degree. Serious adverse effects: Malaise, myalgias, respiratory distress, hypotension Lactic acidosis: Patients with reduced renal function, poor circulation, excessive alcohol intake are most susceptible
Types of Insulin
Rapid-acting Onset: 10 minutes; peak: 1 to 3 hours; duration: 3 to 5 hours Short-acting Onset: 30 minutes; peak: 2.5 to 5 hours; duration: 5 to 10 hours Intermediate-acting Onset: 4 hours; peak: 4 to 12 hours; duration: 16 to 24 hours Long-acting Onset: 1 hour; no peak; duration: 24 hours
oral route
administration of drugs by way of the mouth
check bllod glucose levels
before meals and bedtime and drug administration
Parenteral route
dispensation of medications via a needle into the skin layers (SubQ, IM, IV, intrathecal)
Explain nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic management of GERD?
nonpharmacologic management of GERD includes diet change, avoiding smoking, and losing weight. Pharmacologic treatment for GERD includes taking antacids like sucralfate to help with ulcers and acids
Explain nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic management of constipation?
nonpharmacologic management of constipation includes diet changes such as consuming more liquids, eating more fiber, and going to the bathroom when the urge to comes. Pharmacologic management of constipation includes taking stool softeners or laxatives to increase and help defecation
What is angioedema and what drug class should be monitored?
swelling underneath the skin (face, eyes) - ACE inhibitors are to be monitored
