Practice Test 1
You're a manager of the NGQ project and are reviewing project team assignments. You've decided to use a RACI chart as your responsibility assignment matrix. What does RACI mean? A. Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed B. Resource, action, communicate, informed C. Responsible, active, confirmed, inactive D. Responsible, accountable, communicate, informed
Answer A is correct. A RACI chart is a responsibility assignment matrix; its initials stand for "responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed."
Which of the following describes the burn-down chart? A. Showing the remaining work effort for the sprint B. Showing the relationship between the effects of problems and their causes C. Plotting two numerical variables on a chart to determine whether there is a correlation between them D. Showing milestones, deliverables, and all the activities of a project
Answer A is correct. A burn-down chart shows the remaining work effort (or time remaining) for the sprint. It displays the time period of the sprint on the horizontal axis (usually expressed as days) and the backlog items on the vertical axis (can be expressed as days or hours).
All of the following are true regarding CPI except for which one? A. If CPI is greater than 1, you've spent more money than anticipated at the measurement date. B. CPI is the most critical of all EVM measurements. C. The CPI formula is EV divided by AC. D. Performance indexes are primarily used to calculate performance efficiencies.
Answer A is correct. If the CPI (cost performance index) is greater than 1, you've spent less money than anticipated (not more, as the option states) at the measurement date.
Ana is a project manager for her organization. She has been presented a set of documents that specifies the reasons for the project, justification for the project and how it fits in with the company objectives. Which of the following has she just received? A. Business case B. Project charter C. Deliverable D. Scope statement
Answer A is correct. The business case documents the reasons for the project, justification for the project, and how it fits in with the company objectives. It establishes the justification for the project, how it aligns to the strategic goals of an organization, and the business need or opportunity that brought about the project.
What are the EVM measurements for schedule variances? A. SV = (EV- PV) and SPI = (EV / PV) B. SV = (EV - AC) and SPI = (EV / AC) C. SV = (EV - BAC) and SPI = (EV / BAC) D. SV = (PV - EV) and SPI = (PV / EV)
Answer A is correct. The schedule variance is (EV - PV), and the schedule performance index is (EV / PV).
Which of the following is defined as the value of the work completed to date? A. PV B. EV C. AC D. CPI
Answer B is correct. EV (earned value) is defined as the value of work completed to date. It shows how much work was actually completed during a given period of time. (PV is planned value; AC is actual cost; CPI is cost performance index).
Which of the following includes business need for the project, project objectives, and project deliverables? A. Scope statement B. Requirements document C. Statement of work D. Dashboard information
Answer B is correct. Requirements document includes the following: Business need for the project and why it was undertaken Project objectives Project deliverables
1. Which of the following includes final project acceptance criteria? A. Project charter B. Scope statement C. Integration plan D. Procurement plan
Answer B is correct. The scope statement includes the project objectives, a project description, acceptance criteria, key deliverables, success criteria, exclusions from scope, time and cost estimates, project assumptions, and constraints.
Which process involves obtaining responses from vendors to complete project work, as documented in the SOW? A. Procurement planning B. Bidder conference C. Solicitation D. Vendor selection
Answer C is correct. Solicitation is the process of obtaining responses on project work from vendors.
You know that the EV is 230, PV is 230, AC is 250, BAC is 260, and ETC is 30. What's the CPI? A. 280 B. 1 C. 3 D. .92
Answer D is correct. The formula for CPI is: CPI = EV / AC In this scenario, 230 / 250 = .92.
Answer C is correct. The critical path is the longest project path; path A-B-D-G is 41 days, its longest full path.
What is the critical path of the diagram in the figure below? A. A-E-F-G B. A-C-D-G C. A-B-D-G D. A-B-D-F-G
Which of the following is an agreement that outlines specific performance criteria or other actions between two or more parties? A. MOU B. NDA C. SLA D. PO
Answer A is correct. A MOU (memorandum of understanding) is an agreement that outlines specific performance criteria or other actions between two or more parties. It is used when a legal agreement cannot be created between the parties.
A stakeholder has requested a significant project change that will cause a 15 percent increase in the project budget and add six months to its schedule. As a project manager, you don't have the power to make this type of change decision. To whom should you forward the request? A. Change control board B. Project portfolio management board C. Project sponsor D. Project stakeholder committee
Answer A is correct. A change control board is a group of executives with the authority to determine if a project change request should be approved or declined. They evaluate cost benefits of the change request and make a decision as to its value. Some change requests, such as new laws, are requirements but should still pass through a change control board whenever possible.
What key meeting serves to introduce team members, review project goals and objectives, stakeholder expectations, and roles and responsibilities of team members? A. Project kickoff B. Project review C. Project overview D. Project status meeting
Answer A is correct. A project kickoff meeting is held after signing the project charter and serves to introduce team members, review project goals and objectives, stakeholder expectations, and roles and responsibilities of team members.
Jane is manager of the GBB project for her company. A vendor has offered her a product with 10 percent discount if a company will order 100 units for the product. It's possible that the GBB project may need them, but their cost may be an issue. Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor she'll keep the offer in mind and continue with the project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project? A. Acceptance B. Enhance C. Sharing D. Exploiting
Answer A is correct. Acceptance happens when project risk is acknowledged but not necessarily addressed. Jane will accept the discount if her project needs the 100 units, but she makes no promise to order them. Acceptance response is a part of risk response planning. Acceptance response indicates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities.
What's the purpose of a project manager issuing an RFP? A. To request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services B. To indicate project requirements and outline the type of work to be completed C. To organize project planning D. To determine all project work
Answer A is correct. An RFP (request for proposal) is a type of procurement document used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. It invites vendors to create a proposal, which can include project ideas, suggestions, and more. In some application areas, it can have a narrower or more specific meaning.
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques should a project manager employ when there's a minor conflict between several project team members that doesn't impact their project? A. Avoidance B. Force C. Compromise D. Confrontation
Answer A is correct. Avoidance is a method for resolving conflict in which a person physically leaves the conflict situation, rather than bring the issue to the other person's attention or otherwise address the problem. Thus, there's no impact on the project.
In which of the following conflict resolution methods does one party win while ignoring the needs and concerns of the other? A. Force B. Avoidance C. Smoothing D. Compromise
Answer A is correct. Force is a conflict resolution method in which one party wins while ignoring the needs and concerns of the other party. As conflict intensity increases, the tendency for forced conflict becomes more likely. Thus, one party wins at the expense of the other.
Harry needs to record the probability and impact of an uncertain event. Where should this be recorded? A. Risk register B. Procurement plan C. Responsibility assignment matrix Risk trigger
Answer A is correct. Harry will record the probability and impact of an uncertain risk event in a risk register. Risk register includes an identification number, risk name, risk description, risk owner, and response plan.
In which of the following process groups is work breakdown structure created? A. Planning B. Initiating C. Executing D. Monitoring and controlling
Answer A is correct. Here are the activities involved in the planning process: Ø Develop a project schedule. Ø Create a work breakdown structure. Ø Determine resources. Ø Identify and plan for detailed risks. Ø Determine project requirements. Ø Write a communication plan. Ø Develop a procurement plan if utilizing resources outside an organization. Ø Develop a change management plan. Ø Define the project budget.
Consider the following responsibilities: * Time and duration estimates for the tasks * Cost estimates for deliverables or other project work purchased from outside an organization * Status updates on the progress of the tasks * Dependencies related to the tasks Who is responsible for the above responsibilities? A. Project team B. Project sponsor C. Project stakeholder Project coordinator
Answer A is correct. Here are the responsibilities of a project team: Time and duration estimates for the tasks Cost estimates for deliverables or other project work purchased from outside an organization Status updates on the progress of the tasks Dependencies related to the tasks
Midway through a project's execution, a sponsor tells the project manager to cancel the project. Which of the following actions should the project manager take? A. Begin an administrative closure process. B. Send a sponsor change request to the change control board. C. Notify the requester of the change. D. Call the project manager and request an immediate transfer to a new contract.
Answer A is correct. If a sponsor decides to cancel a project midway, its manager should begin an administrative closure process, because administrative closure includes gathering and centralizing project documents, performing a post-project review, and writing the final project closure report. It also completes and settles each contract, including resolution of any open item, and closes each contract applicable to the project or its phases.
Which of the following types of communication is described under the category of informal communication? A. Phone calls B. Project kickoff meetings C. Team status meetings D. Written status reports
Answer A is correct. Informal communications are unplanned or ad hoc and consist of, for example, phone calls, e-mails, hallway conversations, or impromptu meetings.
You've been assigned as manager for a major IT project. Brett is the functional manager who will provide human resources for your development team; however, he's also supplying resources to other concurrent projects. You have a "dream-team" list of people you want on your team, but you're worried that other project managers may want these same people. What's the best way to approach Brett regarding the assignment of people to your project? A. Schedule a meeting with Brett to discuss resources. Explain your project deliverables and the skill sets you need. B. Send Brett an email listing the resources you need and the start date for each resource. C. Try to catch Brett just before a meeting he's headed to so that he will not have time to think up reasons to turn down part of your request. D. Meet with Brett's boss to advise her that your project is critical. Provide her with the list of resources you need from Brett.
Answer A is correct. Obtaining the right resources for your project will require good planning and skillful negotiating skills. The best approach is to set up a meeting with each functional manager and negotiate the resources you need and their availability.
A project manager finds that one of the team members always listens to music during work hours. However, this activity of team member has not affected his performance in the project. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques should the project manager use under this scenario? A. Smoothing B. Compromising C. Forcing D. Confronting
Answer A is correct. Smoothing is the best conflict resolution technique for the project manager to employ as the team member is performing well and his behavior is not affecting the project overall. This technique is often used by project manager when it is important to provide temporary relief from the conflict or buy time until you are in a better position to respond and/or push back. In this technique, the areas of agreement are emphasized over the areas of difference, so the real issue stays buried.
The actual cost of completing the project is $5,000 and the earned value of the project is $8,500. What will be the project's CPI? A. 1.7 B. 0.5 C. 1.5 D. 0.65
Answer A is correct. The cost performance index (CPI) is calculated as: CPI=EV/AC When putting the values as EV = $8,500 and AC = $5,000 $8,500/$5,000=1.7
You're a manager of the GHG project, which has a budget at completion of $456,000 and is expected to last one year. You're currently at month six of the project, though you've only completed 40 percent of the work. The actual project cost to date is $175,000. What's the project's cost variance? A. $7,400 B. -$45,600 C. 1.04 D. There is no cost variance.
Answer A is correct. The cost variance is a positive value in this scenario, as the project has spent less than what it's worth. The cost variance is found by subtracting the actual costs from the earned value; in this instance, it's $182,400 minus $175,000.
1. Which of the following is not true for critical path activities? A. The early start is always less than the late start. B. These activities are on the longest path on the network diagram. C. The float is zero. D. The late finish is always the same as the early finish.
Answer A is correct. The critical path is the longest activity sequence in the network. Using the critical path, you can determine which tasks can start late or go longer than planned without impacting the project end date. Float is always zero for critical path activities, so early start and late start are the same date.
You're a new project manager for your company. The previous project manager left abruptly. While reviewing your predecessor's last project, you find that the project scope document is poorly formulated and missing several key requirements. What's your next step? A. Notify and meet with the sponsor. B. Write up the additional requirements, and ask the sponsor to approve. C. Add the new requirements to the scope document, and discuss it at the next project status meeting. D. Ask that the project be killed.
Answer A is correct. The first and most important step whenever there are problems or issues (including missing documentation, additional requirements, and so on) is to notify and meet with your project sponsor. It's a good idea to take your ideas for next steps to the meeting, but you will want direction from the sponsor before doing anything further.
Who among the following writes the project charter and makes certain it is distributed to all the key stakeholders? A. Project manager B. Project sponsor C. Project scheduler D. Project coordinator
Answer A is correct. The project manager or the person who requested the project is the one who writes the project charter and makes certain that it is distributed to all the key stakeholders.
Which element is not a function of a scope management plan? A. Describing deliverables' acceptance criteria B. Describing how scope changes will be handled C. Describing procedures for preparing a scope statement D. Describing procedures for preparing a WBS
Answer A is correct. The scope management plan defines how deliverables will be verified, but acceptance criteria are documented in a project scope statement.
You are coaching Mark, a junior project manager, on project management processes. Which of the following statements best defines the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)? A. The subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components, until work and deliverables are defined at the "work package" level B. The hierarchical tabulation of physical assemblies, subassemblies, and components needed to fabricate a manufactured product C. The hierarchically organized depiction of project organization, arranged so that work packages can be related to performing organizational units D. The logical listing of project activities required to complete project scope requirements for project stakeholders
Answer A is correct. The work breakdown structure breaks down project deliverables into "work packages," the smallest elements of the WBS.
Two project employees have been involved in several heated arguments. You reiterate the areas of agreement and avoid the areas of disagreement. This is an example of which type of conflict resolution technique? A. Smoothing B. Forcing C. Avoiding D. Confronting
Answer A is correct. This is an example of smoothing in which the areas of agreement are emphasized over the areas of difference.
A project manager has identified uncertain events during the executing phase. Where should this be reported? A. Issue log B. Project scope statement C. Communication plan D. Risk trigger
Answer A is correct. This is one of the issues that should be reported or documented in an issue log. Issues should be tracked in the issues log along with their status and resolution. The issue log comes into play in the executing process.
1. You have been asked to add some changes in a project when it is in progress. Which of the following will have the largest effect? A. Scope B. Time C. Budget D. Quality
Answer A is correct. When there will be a change in the project, the scope will have the largest effect as it will change the scope of the project. Scope describes the project deliverables and outlines the expectations and acceptance criteria for the deliverables and for a successful project. Scope is a constraint because it dictates the actions of the project team in relation to fulfilling the deliverables. If the scope is not fully understood, defined, and documented, you will find that time, budget, and quality are also impacted.
During which of the following project phases is a business case created? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Monitoring and controlling D. Executing
Answer A is correct. You will perform the following activities in the initiating process: Creating the project charter Creating a business case and justification Defining a high-level scope definition Identifying high-level risks
During project execution, a manager carries out an earned value measurement and determines that the CPI is 1.2 and the SPI is .75. What do these figures indicate? A. The project's over planned cost and behind schedule. B. The project's under planned cost and behind schedule. C. The project's under planned cost and ahead of schedule. D. The project's over planned cost and ahead of schedule.
Answer B is correct. Cost performance index (CPI) is a measure of the value of work completed at a given measurement date against its actual cost. Schedule performance index (SPI) is a measure of progress to date against planned progress. If the CPI is greater than one, you are earning more than the amount spent. In other words, you are under budget. If the SPI is less than one, this means less work has been completed than the planned work. In other words, you are behind schedule. Because, in this scenario, the CPI is greater than 1 and the SPI is less than 1, it indicates that the project is under planned cost and behind the schedule, respectively.
The cost variance (CV) of a project is a negative value. What does this result indicate? A. Costs are according to the budget. B. Costs are higher than originally planned for the project. C. Costs are less than budgeted. D. The budget for the project is insufficient.
Answer B is correct. Cost variance (CV) is a measure of project cost performance. A variance is used to determine if costs are higher or lower than budgeted. Cost variance is calculated by the following formula: CV = Earned value (EV) - Actual cost (AC) A positive value means that spending is less than budgeted, whereas a negative value indicates that project costs are higher than originally planned.
Mike is manager of the WAM project, which has a budget at completion of $295,000. The project is currently 40 percent complete; however, it should have been 50 percent complete by now. Mike has spent $125,000 on the project, and management has asked him about its schedule performance. Which of these values best represents its schedule performance? A. .94 B. .80 C. -$7,000 D. -$17,500
Answer B is correct. In this scenario, the schedule performance index (SPI) is .80. Find the SPI by dividing earned value by planned value (in this case, $118,000 (40%*295,000) divided by $147,500 (50%*295,000)).Schedule performance index (SPI) is the measure of project schedule efficiency. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value and is calculated using the formula: SPI = Earned value (EV) / Planned value (PV) If the SPI is greater than 1, performance is better than expected; if less than 1, it's poorer than expected. An SPI of 1 indicates the project is right on target.
Your sponsor's lost interest in your current project and has focused all attention on a new one. The resources originally intended for your project are no longer provided to the project. What type of project ending does this describe? A. Integration B. Starvation C. Addition D. Extinction
Answer B is correct. Starvation is a project ending caused by project resources being cut off or are no longer provided to the project. Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of an organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Extinction occurs when project work is completed and accepted by its stakeholders.
Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, what's the SV? A. .98 B. -4 C. .95 D. -2
Answer B is correct. The formula for SV (schedule variance) is EV minus PV (in this case, 81 - 85 = -4).
As a project manager, your project has failed to meet the stakeholder's needs and expectations. What is the most likely cause? A. Lack of technology barrier B. Lack of planning C. Lack of cost D. Lack of quality
Answer B is correct. The most likely cause of project failing to meet the stakeholder's needs and expectations is lack of planning. The planning phase is the most critical element of managing a project. It is necessary for a project manager to spend more time on planning the project and understand the expectations of the stakeholder. It contains many processes that all generally lead to the creation of plans or documents that are used throughout the project to ensure that goals of the project are met. If the planning of the project is perfectly done, then there will be no lack of time, cost, technology barrier, and quality.
You've decided to allow two phases of a project to overlap. This is an example of what? A. Optimizing B. Fast-tracking C. Enhancing D. Crashing
Answer B is correct. When two phases of a project are allowed to overlap, this is an example of fast-tracking. Fast-tracking is a technique frequently used to compress a project's schedule. It's often the most effective way to shorten project duration. You fast-track a project by rescheduling tasks originally scheduled to run in parallel. This technique shortens the project schedule without reducing its scope or compromising its quality.
In your organization, you find that some of your project team members are having a conflict with each other. What will you do? A. Terminate the project team members who are involved in the conflict. B. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict. C. Avoid the conflict and keep focusing on the project. D. Take the help from project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer B is correct. You will encourage the project team members to resolve the conflict. As a project manager, it is your responsibility to resolve the conflict and make your project successful.
Which of the following is defined by the type of work being performed, and one activity is dependent on another activity? A. External dependency B. Discretionary dependency C. Mandatory dependency D. Internal dependency
Answer C is correct. A mandatory dependency is defined by the type of work being performed, and one activity is dependent on another activity.
Which of these documents authorizes a project to begin? A. Project management plan B. Statement of work C. Project charter D. Project scope statement
Answer C is correct. A project charter authorizes a project to begin. It's signed by the project sponsor and gives the project manager authority to assign organizational resources to the work of the project.
Which of the following is true concerning the project charter? A. It describes the project schedule. B. It contains cost estimates for each task. C. It authorizes the start of the project work. D. It lists the responsibilities of the project selection committee.
Answer C is correct. A project charter formally approves the project and authorizes work to begin. A project schedule and cost estimates are developed later in the planning process.
An ACD project is underway, and conflict has arisen between resource managers and project managers. What's the best method of avoiding staffing conflict between resource managers and project managers? A. Ask each of the parties to give up something to reach a solution. B. Ask one party to force their solution on the other party. C. Discover the facts regarding the issue and let the facts help define the solution. D. Discuss areas of agreement rather than areas of difference.
Answer C is correct. Confrontation is the best way to resolve conflict. A key action of this technique is to go on a fact-finding mission to find the one right solution to the problem. Once you uncover the facts, you present them to the parties, thus making the decision clear and rendering it permanent. Project managers use this conflict resolution approach most often; it's an example of a win-win solution.
During the budgeting process, you might set aside a certain amount of funds to cover the cost of possible adverse project events. What are these funds known? A. Management reserves B. Prevention costs C. Contingency reserves D. Appraisal costs
Answer C is correct. Contingency reserves are monies set aside to deal with cost of possible adverse project events.
Which of the following is a measure of project cost efficiency? A. Cost variance (CV) B. Budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS) C. Cost performance index (CPI) D. Actual cost (AC)
Answer C is correct. Cost performance index (CPI) is a measure of cost efficiency on a project. The CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. It is used to calculate performance efficiencies, as well as predict future performance in trend analysis. The CPI is calculated using the following formula: CPI = Earned value (EV) / Actual cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance; if less than 1, it shows poor performance. A CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.
All of the following are true regarding dashboards except for which one? A. They are a type of performance report. B. They are a type of status report. C. They document work expected to be completed during the next reporting period. D. They usually have indicators such as red-yellow-green for a quick, at-a-glance status check.
Answer C is correct. Dashboards are a type of performance report and status report that typically use indicators such as red-yellow-green ("late," "at risk," "on target," respectively) to display status of prior period results. Dashboards don't report work expected to be completed during the next reporting period.
What will happen when a change control board approves a change request that would decrease a project's schedule by 30 days without altering its scope? A. The number of project resources will decrease. B. Project quality will increase. C. Project cost will increase. D. Workload will decrease.
Answer C is correct. If we decrease a project's schedule by 30 days without altering its scope, its cost will increase. This is because the amount of work necessary to complete the project doesn't change, which means that you'd need to employ additional resources, which will in turn require additional project funding.
You're a project manager of your organization. Marcy, a project team member, has identified an issue with a piece of hardware that could affect project implementation. What should you do with this hardware issue? A. Add the issue to the risk registers for resolution. B. Add the issue to the technical assessment log for resolution. C. Add the issue to the project issue log for resolution. D. Add the issue to the project's WBS issue category.
Answer C is correct. Issues—all issues—should be added to a centralized project issue log. It's possible to categorize issues within the log, but this document identifies the issues and their conditions, an issue owner, and a required resolution date.
Mark works as a project manager in an organization. The company's management has instructed him to graphically represent roles and responsibilities of project team members. Which of the following graphics will Mark provide to management? A. Gantt chart B. Pareto chart C. RACI chart D. Line chart
Answer C is correct. Mark will provide an RACI chart to graphically represent roles and responsibilities of project team members. RACI is an acronym formed from four key descriptors: responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. It's a responsibility assignment matrix used to ensure clear divisions of roles and expectations when the team consists of internal and external resources.
Your team has settled into day-to-day interactions and everyone is comfortable with their team positions. You make decisions jointly, and team members show mutual respect for each other. Which stage of team development does this scenario represent? A. Forming B. Performing C. Norming D. Storming
Answer C is correct. Norming is the stage in team development when team members are comfortable with one another, show mutual respect for each other, and make decisions jointly.
Who among the following is responsible for completing backlog items and establishing estimates for the work to fill the sprint period? A. Project stakeholder B. Product owner C. Project team D. Scrum master
Answer C is correct. Project team members are responsible for completing backlog items. They sign up for tasks based on the priority of the work and their skill sets. They establish estimates for the work and take on enough tasks to fill the sprint period.
Which of the following is used by vendors to determine whether they are capable of producing the deliverables and to determine their interest in bidding on the project work? A. RFI B. WBS C. SOW D. PO
Answer C is correct. SOW (statement of work) is used by vendors to determine whether they are capable of producing the deliverables and to determine their interest in bidding on the project work. It details the goods or services you want to procure. It contains the project description, major deliverables, success criteria, assumptions, and constraints.
Robert is business analyst for his organization, and he has gathered and documented requirements for a new project solution. The stakeholders have agreed through informal communication that Robert has successfully captured the necessary solution requirements and have signed off on them. What does their sign-off represent to Robert? A. That his work is done. B. That the project can now be launched. C. That the stakeholders agree the requirements are accurate and complete. D. That the stakeholders agree the requirements are constrained by time, cost, and quality.
Answer C is correct. Stakeholder's sign-off of the requirements can be formal or informal, though either instance is a confirmation by stakeholders that Robert has identified the completed and accurate requirements.
1. Which of the following plans includes the chart of account? A. Procurement management B. Quality management C. Cost management D. Risk management
Answer C is correct. The chart of account is included in the cost management plan. It lists the account number and description for each category of expense you will use on the budget.
For which projects is the closing out procurements step performed? A. It's performed for all projects. B. It's performed for canceled projects. C. It's performed for contractual projects. D. It's performed in conjunction with administrative closure for all projects.
Answer C is correct. The closing out procurements step is performed for any project that's contractual (or has contracted deliverables).
Which of the following risk response strategies monitors the probability or impact of the risk event to assure benefits are realized? A. Exploit B. Mitigate C. Enhance D. Accept
Answer C is correct. The enhance risk response strategy monitors the probability or impact of the risk event to assure benefits are realized.
Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, what's the SPI? A. .98 B. -3 C. .95 D. -2
Answer C is correct. The formula for SPI (schedule performance index) is EV divided by PV (in this case, 81 / 85 = .95).
Which of the following processes documents formal acceptance of project work and hands over the completed product to the organization for ongoing maintenance and support? A. Executing B. Monitoring and controlling C. Closing D. Planning
Answer C is correct. The primary purpose of the closing process is to document formal acceptance of project work and hand over the completed product to the organization for ongoing maintenance and support.
All the following describe a kickoff meeting except for which one? A. A roles and responsibilities overview describes how each team member will interact during the project. The project manager will describe her/his role at the first team meeting rather than the kickoff meeting. B. It's ideal if the project sponsor can attend the meeting and describe her/his goals and expectations first hand. C. Develop the statement of work and obtain a signature on the project charter. D. Questions and answers help clarify project objectives and expectations of stakeholders, and are a good opportunity to engage team members in the project.
Answer C is correct. The project kickoff meeting is held after the project charter is signed and at the beginning of the Executing process. It serves to introduce team members, review the goals and objectives of the project, review stakeholder expectations, and review roles and responsibilities for team members.
Which of the following is not a guideline for developing a WBS? A. Define the highest level of deliverables before you move to lower levels. B. Make sure that each item in a lower level is a component of the level above. C. Sequence the work packages. D. Involve project team members in the process.
Answer C is correct. The purpose of a WBS is to identify all work required to complete a project. Defining an order of tasks occurs during the scheduling process.
In which of the following organizations has the project manager majority of power? A. Balanced matrix B. Functional C. Strong matrix D. Adhoc
Answer C is correct. The strong matrix organization emphasizes project work over functional duties. The project manager has the majority of power in this type of organization.
Kelvin, a project manager, is working with a vendor who is not providing good quality products. However, the vendor states that he's meeting the quality standards given in the current contract. Which of the following documents is he talking about? A. RFI B. WBS C. SOW D. Business case
Answer C is correct. The vendor is talking about SOW (statement of work), which details the goods or services you want to procure. It contains the project description, major deliverables, success criteria, assumptions, and constraints.
Mark works as a project manager in an organization. He finds that two of his team members are in conflict over their project's database server configuration. Mark intervenes and tells them they both have good points, but server configuration will be decided during project planning. Both team members agree with this. What type of conflict resolution has Mark used in this instance? A. Compromising B. Avoiding C. Smoothing D. Forcing
Answer C is correct. This method of conflict resolution is known as smoothing, in which areas of agreement are emphasized and areas of disagreement are downplayed. However, conflicts often aren't resolved this way.
This risk response strategy defers liability to a third party. A. Avoid B. Mitigate C. Transfer D. Accept
Answer C is correct. Transfer is a negative risk-response strategy that defers risk liability to a third party.
You've identified a new risk in your project that will likely cause serious delays to your project completion date. What should you first do with the newly identified risk? A. Alert management to the delays the risk will likely cause the project schedule. B. Ask the project team and subject matter experts to perform quantitative risk analysis to confirm the impact of the risk event. C. Add the risk event to the project's risk register, along with any additional information you've discovered about the risk. D. Ask for additional funds to be added to the projects contingency reserve to pay for labor to offset the delay the risk will cause.
Answer C is correct. Whenever a new risk is identified, it's added to the risk register to document the risk and its characteristics.
A project manager, Gary, is working with project stakeholders on its requirements and examining how risks might affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes project risk. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of project risk? A. It's an unknown event that can affect the project scope. B. It's an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. C. It's an uncertain event that can affect project costs. D. It's an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective.
Answer D is correct. A risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Project risk is concerned with the expected value of one or more results of one or more future project events. It's an uncertain condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Objectives can be scope, schedule, cost, or quality. Project risk is always projected into the future.
You're a manager of the GTX project, which has 10 active stakeholders. How many communication channels will be required for effective communication with the stakeholders? A. 10 B. 2 C. 9 D. 45
Answer D is correct. Analysis of communication requirements results in a sum of project stakeholder information needs. A project manager should consider the number of potential communication channels or paths as an indicator of the complexity of a project's communications.The total number of project communication channels is calculated using the following formula: n(n - 1) / 2 where n is the number of stakeholders. According to the question's scenario, there are 10 project stakeholders. Substituting 10 for n returns a value of 45, which means your project has 45 potential communication channels.
Which of the following calculates the longest path and controls the finish date of the project? A. RACI B. PDM C. WBS D. CPM
Answer D is correct. CPM (critical path method) calculates the longest full path in the project. This path controls the finish date of the project. Any delay to a critical path task will delay the completion date of the project.
Which element of your project's scope document lists certain resources that will be available only during the months of April through September while the project moves forward? A. Product description B. Deliverables C. Assumptions D. Constraints
Answer D is correct. Constraints are anything that either restricts or dictates the actions of a project team. Stating that certain resources will be available during specific months.
During the midway of the project, you have been requested by the client to complete the project a week earlier than expected. What will be your next step? A. Implement the change. B. Ask the team to work overnight for completing the project. C. Update the project management plan according to new schedule. D. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule.
Answer D is correct. During the midway of the project, when any change is requested by the client, you should first submit a change request to the change control board and obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule. The following steps are included in the change management process when any change is requested by the key stakeholder in a project: · Identify and document the change request. · Track requests in the change request log. · Evaluate the impact and justification of the change. · Disposition the request at the change control board and approve or deny. · Implement the change. · Validate the change and perform a quality check. · Update the project management plan, update the appropriate project documents, and apply version control. · Coordinate and communicate with the appropriate stakeholders.
1. In which of the following type of contracts does the seller bear the most risk? A. Cost reimbursable B. Time-and-materials C. Cost reimbursable plus incentive Fixed-price
Answer D is correct. Fixed-price contracts are riskiest to the seller. Every contract has two most important driving factors: the price and the scope of work. Also, the price "hits" the buyer, whereas the scope of work hits the seller. Since the price is fixed in the fixed-price contract, the "uncertainty" is not with regard to price, so the buyer has no such uncertainty about it. If the scope of work has not been studied in greater detail earlier in the process, and at any point more effort is required to complete the contracted work, this would affect the seller, who would bear the uncertainty. Hence, fixed price contracts are more risky for the seller.
Which of the following uses weighted average to determine the project duration and forecast the project schedule with a high degree of reliability? A. SPI B. Gantt C. PDM D. PERT
Answer D is correct. PERT (program evaluation review technique) uses weighted average to determine the project duration. It is used to manage the project and forecast the project schedule with a high degree of reliability.
Your subject-matter expert tells you that her most likely estimate is 40 hours, pessimistic estimate is 65 hours, and optimistic estimate is 24 hours. What's the final three-point estimate? A. 129 hours B. 42 hours C. 40 hours D. 43 hours
Answer D is correct. Three-point estimates are an average of most likely, pessimistic, and optimistic estimates.Three-point estimate = (most likely estimate + optimistic estimate + pessimistic estimate)/3= (40 + 24 + 65)/3 = 43 hours
All of the following describes a model of communication exchange except for which one? A. The sender-message-receiver model, also known as the basic communication model, is how all communication exchange occurs. B. Senders are responsible for encoding the message and presenting it in such a way that the receiver can correctly understand it. C. Receivers decode the message and are responsible for understanding the information correctly. D. The message can take many forms including written, verbal, formal, and informal. E. Only the sender has a responsibility in the communication exchange process.
Answer E is correct. Both the sender and the receiver have a responsibility in the communication exchange process. The sender must make sure the message is clear and understandable and in a format that the receiver can use. The receiver must make certain they understand what was communicated and ask for clarification where needed.
All of the following describe types of project endings except for which one? A. Integration B. Starvation C. Addition D. Extinction E. Attrition
Answer E is correct. Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of an organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Starvation is a project ending caused by project resources being cut off. Extinction occurs when project work is completed and accepted by its stakeholders.
Which of the following describes responsibilities of a project sponsor? A. Provide or obtain financial resources B. Monitor the delivery of major milestones C. Run interference and remove roadblocks D. Negotiate support from key stakeholders E. All of these
Answer E is correct. The project sponsor is usually an executive in the organization who has the authority to assign money and resources to the project. The project sponsor typically has the following responsibilities: Ø Provide or obtain financial resources Ø Authorize assignment of human resources to the project Ø Assign the project manager and state their level of authority Ø Serve as final decision maker for all project issues Ø Negotiate support from key stakeholders Ø Monitor delivery of major milestones Ø Run interference and remove roadblocks Ø Provide political coaching to the project manager
Why is it important to complete a formal project closure process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. To confirm that contract was completed accurately and satisfactorily B. To confirm that the customer accepts the final deliverables C. To gather additional scope requirements that need to be entered into the project scope statement D. To confirm that key stakeholder will work with all vendors in the future
Answers A and B are correct. It is important to complete a formal project closure process to confirm that contract was completed accurately and satisfactorily and the customer accepts the final deliverables.
You, as a project manager, report to the director of project management, and your team members report to their areas of responsibility (accounting, human resources, and IT). You have complete control of the project team's assignments once the project is underway. Which organizational structure does this scenario describe? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Projectized B. Functional C. Weak matrix D. Project-based
Answers A and D are correct. In a projectized organization, the project manager works in a division whose sole responsibility is project management. Once team members are assigned to the project, the project manager has the authority to hold them accountable for their tasks and activities. In a project-based organization, the project manager has the greatest level of authority to take action and make decisions regarding the project.
In which of the following process groups is the dashboard information document produced? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Executing B. Planning C. Initiating D. Monitoring and controlling
Answers A and D are correct. The dashboard information document is produced in the executing and monitoring and controlling process groups. Dashboard information is an electronic reporting tool that lets users choose elements of the project to monitor project health and status.
Which of the following tools determines whether the organizational goals are being achieved? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. KPI B. KPP C. Balanced score card D. Collaboration tool E. Vendor knowledge base
Answers A, B, and C are correct. Here are the performance measurement tools that determine whether the organizational goals are being achieved: Ø KPI (key performance indicator) Ø KPP (key performance parameter) Ø Balanced score card
What are the steps required in constructing a project schedule? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Establish the governance process. B. Determine the critical path. C. Set quality gates. D. Determine task durations including only start date.
Answers A, B, and C are correct. Here are the steps required in constructing a project schedule: · Determine tasks. · Sequence tasks. · Allocate resources. · Determine task durations including start and end dates. · Determine milestones. · Construct the schedule. · Determine the critical path. · Set the baseline and obtain approval. · Set quality gates. · Establish the governance process.
Which of the following activities are related to a project's closing process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Signing off project documents B. Archiving of project documents C. Review of lessons learned D. Identifying project plan variances
Answers A, B, and C are correct. The closing processes include sign-off, archiving of project documents, turnover to a maintenance group, release of project team members, and review of lessons learned.
Which of the following are included in the project scope statement? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Acceptance criteria B. Key deliverables C. Assumptions D. Issue log template E. Resource requirements
Answers A, B, and C are correct. The project scope statement includes all the components that make up the product or service of the project and the results the project intends to produce. It includes the project objectives, a project description, acceptance criteria, key deliverables, success criteria, exclusions from scope, time and cost estimates, project assumptions, and constraints.
Which of the following comes under the economic model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Discounted cash flow B. NPV C. Constrained optimization D. IRR
Answers A, B, and D are correct. An economic model is a series of financial calculations, also known as cash flow techniques, which provide data on the overall financials of the project. Discounted cash flow, NPV (net present value), and IRR (internal rate of return) come under the economic model.
Crashing and fast tracking a schedule includes which of the following? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Adding more resources to the critical path tasks B. Estimating the scheduled value of the project activities C. Increasing the cost for the project D. Performing multiple tasks in parallel E. Performing a re-baseline of the project schedule
Answers A, C, and D are correct. Fast tracking and crashing are the two duration compression techniques that help in completing the project more quickly. Crashing is implemented by adding more resources to the critical path tasks to complete the project more quickly. Fast tracking is performing multiple tasks in parallel that were previously scheduled to start sequentially. Adding more resources increases the cost for the project.
During the planning process, a project scope document provides a description of the work necessary to complete a project. Which of the following components would be included in the project scope document? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Project constraints B. Gantt charts C. Key performance indicators (KPIs) D. Detailed project objectives
Answers A, C, and D are correct. The project scope documents product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints. The scope statement is used as a baseline for future project decisions.Answer B is incorrect. A Gantt chart measures project schedules.
1. Which of the following are the three types of project selection methods that are considered economic model methods? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Discounted cash flow B. Cost-benefit analysis C. Net present value D. Scoring model E. Internal rate of return F. Payback period
Answers A, C, and E are correct. An economic model includes discounted cash flow, NPV (net present value), and IRR (internal rate of return). Benefit measurement methods include cost-benefit analysis, a scoring model, and a payback period.
Which of the following is included in a communication plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Change request B. Distribution list C. Frequency D. WBS E. Constraint
Answers B and C are correct. Communication plan determines who needs what types of communication, when, and in what format, and how that communication will be disseminated. It includes frequency, format, distribution method, stakeholder name, communication type, and responsible party.
Which of the following are the three elements that represent the PMBOK Guide knowledge areas? A. Vendor relationships B. Communications C. Human resources D. Procurement E. Validation
Answers B, C, and D are correct. The ten PMBOK Guide knowledge areas are Scope, Time, Cost, Quality, Human Resources, Communications, Risk, Procurement, Integration, and Stakeholder.
Which of the following will have the largest effect when there is an increase in the project scope, but the project schedule remains the same? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Project completion date B. Project milestone C. Project cost D. Project quality
Answers C and D are correct. Project cost and quality will have the largest effect when there is an increase in the project scope, but the project schedule remains the same. The triple constraints in project management are time, scope, and cost, all of which affect quality. Scope describes the project deliverables and outlines the expectations and acceptance criteria for the deliverables and for a successful project. If scope of the project is increased, you will find that time, budget, and quality are also impacted.