Practice Test 6 EatRight
Q. Which of the following ovens is most energy efficient? Convection oven Rotary oven Deck oven Microwave oven
The correct answer is A. A convection oven has a fan on the back or side panel that creates currents of air within the cooking chamber, reduces cooking time by 30%, and cooks at 25°F to 35°F lower temperatures than other ovens, and thus conserve energy
Q. If a patient needs to increase calcium intake but dislikes dairy products and fails to meet the recommended 1,000 mg calcium daily for adults aged 19-50 years, which food would provide the most sufficient calcium to address their needs? 3 ounces canned salmon (with soft bones) ½ cup of cooked spinach ½ cup of cooked collard greens ¼ cup of walnuts
The correct answer is A. Rationale: 3 ounces of canned salmon with soft bones contains 200 mg calcium per serving, whereas spinach and collard greens contain 100 mg per serving and walnuts contain 28 mg per serving.
Q. Dextrose solutions should not be administered at a rate higher than _____ g/kg/hour 0.36 0.05 0.63 0.75
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Dextrose solutions should not be administered at a rate higher than 0.36 g/kg body weight/hour. This is the maximum oxidation rate of glucose. Excess glucose is converted to fat, which can result in fatty liver. In addition, the conversion of carbohydrate to fat can cause excess CO2 production, which is undesirable for patients with respiratory problems.
Q. Standard enteral formulas usually provide 10%-45% of energy from fat. If a patient is receiving infusion from an elemental (hydrolyzed) nutrition support formula, what will the fat source be? Long-chain and medium-chain triglycerides Soy lecithin Safflower oil Long-chain triglycerides
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Elemental (hydrolyzed) nutrition support formulas are typically utilized in patients that may have impairments in their digestive process. Therefore, dietary fats, which have lower impact on the gastrointestinal tract, are present within these formulas.
Q. A _____ diet restricts food components to reduce symptoms in those who have irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) or inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? FODMAP low-fiber low-carbohydrate low-sodium
The correct answer is A. Rationale: FODMAP is an acronym that stands for: Fermentable, Oligosaccharides, Disaccharides, Monosaccharides, and Polyols. These are foods components that are restricted in a low-FODMAP diet. This diet is prescribed to reduce symptoms in those who have irritable bowel syndrome or inflammatory bowel disease.
Q. The recommended meal plan for most people with cystic fibrosis is High kilocalorie, protein, fat, and sodium High kilocalorie and protein, moderate sodium High kilocalorie, protein, and sodium and low fat High kilocalorie after forgetting to take digestive enzyme pill
The correct answer is A. Rationale: High-fat diets provide the most energy while condensing the total volume of food to consume. Choosing protein and fat sources can increase an individual's total energy intake. More sodium is necessary because sodium is expired in the sweat of cystic fibrosis patients due to the defect in the sodium chloride channel.
Q. _____ is when two or more professionals learn with and from, each other and learn about each other's professions with the goal to improve collaboration and quality of medical care. Multiprofessional education Interprofessional education Collaborative practice Multidisciplinary education
The correct answer is A. Rationale: In multidisciplinary education and multiprofessional education, students can be taught together, but no interaction between professionals occurs. In interprofessional education, educators and learners from two or more health professions jointly create and foster a collaborative learning environment. These efforts are intended to develop knowledge, skills, and attitudes that enhance interprofessional team behaviors and competence.
Q. _____ sampling is a method whereby name of prospective interview subjects for a statistical study are obtained from subjects already interviewed Snowball Probability Purposive Convenience
The correct answer is A. Rationale: In snowball sampling, prospective interview subjects for a statistical study are culled from an existing pool of interviewed subjects.
Q. What are the two environments that affect metabolism? Internal and external Hot and cold Superior and inferior Height and weight
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Internal and external factors affect metabolism. Internal factors include pregnancy and increased nutrient needs secondary to wounds. An example of an external factor that affects metabolism is temperature.
Q. The most effective treatment for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is: Lifestyle modifications Milk thistle Thiamine supplementation Pioglitizone (Actos)
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Lifestyle modifications are the most effective treatment of NAFLD. Reports of the efficacy of supplementation in NAFLD are inconclusive. Pioglitizone is used in treating nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, not NAFLD. Thiamine supplementation is used to treat Korsakoff syndrome.
Q. Which grain contains gluten and should be avoided by a client with Celiac Disease? Farro Teff Quinoa Millet
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Many ancient grains are gluten free, but farro does contain gluten, as it is made from wheat. Teff, quinoa, and millet are all gluten free and are safe for individuals with celiac disease.
Q. Prolonged use of PPIs (proton pump inhibitors) such as omeprazole can lead to bone fractures polyps constipation iron deficiency
The correct answer is A. Rationale: PPIs have been overprescribed and recent guidelines have directed providers when benefits outweighs risk. Gastric acid secretion can facilitate calcium absorption and acid suppressants such as PPI can decrease calcium absorption and bone density.
Q. Which of the following is considered a functional fiber? Polydextrose B-glucan Cellulose Lignin
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Polydextrose is a functional fiber. B-glucan, cellulose, and lignin are all considered dietary fibers. Functional fiber is removed from foods then added to other foods (i.e. supplements, processed foods etc)
Q. What vitamin deficiency is likely in a patient with the following characteristics: 55-years old, dark skin, works long hours indoors, spends free time indoors, body mass index higher than 30 m/kg2, avoids milk/is lactose-intolerant. Vitamin D Vitamin A Iron Biotin
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Risk factors of vitamin D deficiency include lack of sun exposure, age, dark-skin, obesity, and low intake of foods high in vitamin D.
Q. What is the main positive cation present in extracellular fluid and essential for maintenance of the osmotic pressure? Sodium Hydrogen Potassium Magnesium
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Sodium is the main positive cation present in extracellular fluid and is essential for maintenance of osmotic pressure and water and electrolyte balance.
Q. The World Health Organization growth charts for children younger than age 2 are based on data from which of the following populations? Infants who were primarily breastfed until 4 months of age. Infants who were primarily breastfed until 6 months of age. Infants who were formula fed due to free formula distribution Infants who were primarily breastfed until 2 months of age.
The correct answer is A. Rationale: The WHO growth curves are expected offer a single international standard that represents optimal physiological growth for all children from birth to 5 years of age and to establish the breastfed infant as the normative model for growth and development. The growth curves are based on data measured in infants who were primarily breastfed until age 4 months
Q. People who eat a Western diet largely have _____ in their gut microbiota. Firmicutes Fusobacteria Bacteroidetes Cyanobacteria
The correct answer is A. Rationale: The typical, highly processed Western diet results in a preponderance of firmicutes in the gut microbiota. Bacteroidetes are common in the gut microbiota of Africans who consume a diet that is very high in fiber.
Q. What is the organization that accredits and certifies hospitals? The Joint Commission The Joint Co-Investigators The Hospital Commission The Hospital Credentialing Agency
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Through the accreditation process, organizations learn state-of-the-art performance-improvement strategies in order to continuously improve the safety and quality of care, which can reduce the risk of errors and the cost of liability insurance coverage. This accreditation is managed by The Joint Commission.
Q. What is the nutrition protocol when treating sepsis? Source control, early antibiotic administration, resuscitation Enteral feeding, antibiotic administration, source control Early antibiotic administration, source control, sedatives Resusitation, enteral feeding, sedatives
The correct answer is A. Rationale: Within the first 48 hours of diagnosis of severe sepsis or septic shock, instead of complete fasting or providing only intravenous glucose, administer oral or (if necessary) enteral feedings, as tolerated. Mandatory full-kilocalorie feeding should be avoided in the first week. Low-dose feeding, approximately 500 kcal/day, and increasing as tolerated is preferable. IV glucose and enteral nutrition are recommended over total parenteral nutrition (TPN) alone or parenteral nutrition in conjunction with enteral feeding in the first 7 days after diagnosis. With severe sepsis, it is recommended that the nutrition support have no specific immunomodulating supplementation (grade 2C).
Q. What is the function of BHA and BHT in food products? Emulsifier Lipid oxidation prevention Enzymatic oxidation prevention Flavor enhancer
The correct answer is B. Butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT) butylated hydroxyanisole (BHA) are added to food to prevent lipid oxidation.
Q. How long should parenteral nutrition be withheld in a well-nourished ICU patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident and is currently classified as NPO and enteral intake is not feasible? 72 hours >7 days 10 days 24 hours
The correct answer is B. Rationale: According to the American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition guidelines, parenteral nutrition should be withheld over the first 7 days following ICU admission if enteral nutrition is not feasible. Parenteral nutrition can result in an increased risk of morbidity and mortality and increased blood glucose, among other complications.
Q. A patient has an alpha-gal allergy. Which of the following foods should be avoided? Fried chicken Hamburger Almond milk Whole grain bread
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Alpha-gal is a relatively newly identified allergy that is thought to be caused by Lone Star ticks carried by deer in rural and urban areas. The prevailing hypothesis is that after the tick bites a person, eventually IgE to alpha-gal develops. Once IgE to alpha-gal reaches sufficient levels, red meat intake can trigger an allergic response. Most red meat allergic response has been reported in the Southeast United States, which has experienced an increase in the deer population.
Q. Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes? A1c 5.7% A1c 6.5% Fasting blood glucose 110 mg/dL Fasting blood glucose 125 mg/dL
The correct answer is B. Rationale: An A1c of 6.5% would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes. An A1c of 5.7% is a criterion for diagnosing prediabetes (the range for prediabetes is 5.7%-6.4%) A fasting blood glucose would have to be measured at 126 mg/dL or higher for a diabetes diagnosis.
Q. Based on the following patient data, which of these individuals would be eligible for bariatric (metabolic) surgery? 53-year-old man with sleep apnea, hypertension with body mass index (BMI) of 32 24-year-old woman with BMI of 50 48-year-old woman with BMI of 39 and no comorbid conditions 42-year-old man with BMI of 36 and steroid-induced obesity
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Bariatric surgery recommendations are as follows: BMI > 40or BMI is between 35-40 with comorbid conditions. The 24-year-old with BMI of 50 clearly meets the criteria.
Q. Which of the following is allowed in the diet of individuals with fructose intolerance? Guava Berries Papaya Watermelon
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Berries are among the recommended fruits for individuals with fructose intolerance
Q. Which of the following is NOT true for the breastmilk produced by a mother with a premature infant compared with the breastmilk of the mother of a full-term infant? Lower in lactose content Higher in vitamin A content Higher in protein content Higher in energy content
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Breastmilk from a woman with a premature infant is higher in protein, slightly lower in lactose, and higher in energy content.
Q. Which of the follow compounds is necessary for transporting non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) into mitochrondria for beta-oxidation? Lecithin Carnitine Taurine Glutamine
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Carnitine is a part of carnitine acyltransferase (CAT) and necessary for transporting NEFA into the inner mitochondria for beta-oxidation.
Q. Which anion has a higher concentration in the intracellular space compared to extracellular space? Sodium Potassium Chloride Phosphorus
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Chloride is a cation, not an anion. Sodium is located in the extracelluar space while potassium is located in the intracellular space of the cell. Potassium is located in both the intracellular and extracellular spaces but has a higher concentration in the intracellular space.
Q. Hyperglycemia between 5 AM and 9 AM caused by cortisol and growth hormone, which stimulate gluconeogenesis, is called the _____ phenomenon. circadian dawn episodical honeymoon
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Dawn phenomenon is the term for hyperglycemia that results from the effect of hormones involved in controlling circadian rhythms.
Q. Which of the following nutrients uses the highest amount of energy for metabolism and storage? Fat Protein Carbohydrates Alcohol
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Diet induced thermogenesis (DIT) is commonly determined by calculating the difference between energy expenditure after food consumption and energy expenditure, divided by rate of nutrient energy administration, and presented as a percentage. Energy balance is affected by the higher DIT value of alcohol and protein. In satiety related to DIT, protein has a critical role in food intake regulation. High-protein diets are more effective in weight maintenance and post-weight loss via energy efficiency reduction induced by higher thermogenesis and increased satiety that reduces intake.
Q. What does a fasting blood glucose (FBG) of 129 indicate? Normal blood sugar Diabetes Sugar spilling over into the urine Pre-diabetes
The correct answer is B. Rationale: FBG >126 indicates diabetes
Q. Which of the following does not improve the readability of nutrition education materials? High contrast San serif font Non-glossy paper Bold type
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Font choice is an important consideration to improve the readability of education materials. San serif fonts do not have "feet" and studies have shown that they are harder to read.
Q. GLP-1 is an incretin hormone that is produced in the stomach intestines colon pancreas
The correct answer is B. Rationale: GLP-1 is synthesized in and secreted from enteroendocrine cells found throughout the small and large intestine. Secretion is upregulated with the presence of food in the GI tract.
Q. A delayed gastric emptying condition associated with autonomic nerve damange related to diabetes mellitus is called _____. steatorrhea gastroparesis gastroenteritis gastritis
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Gastroparesis is a delayed gastric emptying condition that most commonly develops in association with autonomic nerve damage related to diabetes mellitus.
Q. Which of the following denotes an enlargement of an organ or tissues caused by growth in cell size? Hyperplasia Hypertrophy Maturation Cellular replication
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Hypertrophy is an enlargement of an organ or tissues caused by cell growth. Hyperplasia is when this enlargement is caused by increase in number of cells.
Q. Iodine deficiency in a pregnant woman can lead to development of which condition in the newborn? Goiter Cretinism Dwarfism Keshan disease
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Iodine deficiency in the mother can result in cretinism in the newborn. Goiter is a condition seen in adults with iodine deficiency, leading to compensatory enlargement of thyroid gland. Keshan disease results from selenium deficiency. Dwarfism is unrelated to nutrition.
Q. Which of the following is not a consideration when translating educational materials in a culturally sensitive way? Content should be translated for meaning rather than word for word Always select a native speaker of the language to do the translation Avoid translating until the text is written well in English Use multiple reviewers to check for cultural and linguistic appropriateness
The correct answer is B. Rationale: It cannot be assumed that native speakers of a given language are skilled at writing or at translating. Written translation and oral translation require different skill sets.
Q. What is the term for genetically programmed cell death? Necrosis Apoptosis Autophagy Cornification
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Necrosis is cell death caused by swelling and rupture of the cell membrane with loss of cellular contents, whereas apoptosis is programmed cell death.
Q. Omega-3 fatty acids have been associated with which of the following outcomes? Increased clotting activity Reduced inflammation Promotion of inflammation to assist immune function Increased bone density
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Omega-3 fatty acids produces prostaglandins that help to reduce inflammation and keep blood thin by interfering with clotting.
Q. What is the most effective test to screen cystic fibrosis patients for diabetes? A1c Oral glucose tolerance Random blood glucose Fructosamine
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Oral glucose tolerance is the most effective test for screening cystic fibrosis patients for diabetes. Fructosamine and A1c levels have low sensitivity in patients with cystic fibrosis.
Q. A child with phenylketonuria has deficiency of which enzyme? Phenylanine kinase Phenyalanine hydroxylase Phenylanine dehydrogenase Tyrosine kinase
The correct answer is B. Rationale: PKU is caused by deficiency of phenyalanine hydroxylase.
Q. Ribose is synthesized by which of the following pathways? Glycolysis Pentose phosphate pathway The citric acid cycle Urea cycle
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Pentose phosphate pathway, which is also known as the hexose monophosphate pathway, produces NADPH and ribose as well as other monosaccharines
Q. What occurs causes the progression from prediabetes to type 2 diabetes? Increase in insulin resistance at the site of the beta cells Insulin resistance at the site of the fat and muscle cells Decrease in insulin production by the beta cells Insulin resistance and less insulin production by the pancreas occurs at the same time
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Prediabetes occurs when an individual develops insulin resistance. This increases the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas. When the pancreas is no longer able to compensiate for the increased glucose levels caused by insulin resistance, glucose levels rise, usually resulting in the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
Q. Which of the following is not a potential role of probiotics? They prevent pathogenic bacteria from colonizing. They reduce fecal bulk production, which minimizes available food for other pathogens. They acidify the pH of the colon by producing fermentation products such as short-chain fatty acids. They enhance the host's immune defense system by increasing secretory IgA production.
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Probiotics are thought to benefit the hosts by performing all these functions except instead of reducing fecal bulk, they actually increase fecal bulk, reducing transit time and shortening the time that toxic substances remain in the colon.
Q. Which of the following does NOT illustrate insulin's role as an anabolic steroid? Promotes glycogen storage Stimulates proteolysis Builds muscle out of amino acids Encourages the building of triacylglycerols
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Promoting glycogen storage, building muscle out of amino acids, and building triacylglycerols are all anabolic processes that are stimulated by insulin. Stimulating proteolysis is not an anabolic process; rather, it is the breaking down of proteins.
Q. In 2017, the American Academy of Pediatrics issued a recommendation to remove _____ from diets of children younger than 1 year. Oatmeal cereal Juice Iron-fortified formula Vitamin D supplements
The correct answer is B. Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics reports that juice accounts for the rising rates of obesity and expresses concern regarding dental health based on evidence accumulated over the years.
Q. Warfarin acts as a vitamin K antagonist by inhibiting _____. gamma-carboyxlase vitamin K epoxide reductase formation of active proenzyme factor none of the above
The correct answer is B. Rationale: Warfarin inhibits the epoxide reductase enzyme in the vitamin K cycle.
Q. A pot of chili was left on the counter for 5 hours after service. The next step should be: Reheating it to 140°F and refrigerate in a shallow pan Discarding it Reheating it to 165° F and refrigerate it Refrigerating it in shallow pans
The correct answer is B. The Food Code indicates that if a food hasn't been cooled within 2 hours from 135°F to 70°F, it becomes a potentially hazardous food. The pot of chili has been in the temperature danger zone for a large period of time and is no longer considered safe to eat. The chili should be discarded.
Q. A cafeteria seats 100 customers. Lunch runs from 11:00 AM to 1:00 PM. Turnover is two customers per hour. How many customers can be served during that time? 200 300 400 500
The correct answer is C. 100 seats × 2 per hour = 200 customers per hour × 2 hour of lunch = 400 customers
Q. How many carbohydrate servings, or exchanges, are in a meal comprising 1 cup granola, 1 cup skim milk, and 1 small banana 4 5 6 7
The correct answer is C. Rationale: 1 cup granola = 60 g carbohydrate. 1 cup milk = 15 g carbohydrate. 1 small banana 15 g = carbohydrate. 60 + 15 + 15 = 90 g carbohydrate. With 1 carbohydrate serving = 15 g, there are 6 carbohydrate servings in this meal (90/15).
Q. Who among the following would have difficulty with breastfeeding? Infant with extrusion reflex Infant with cleft lip Infant with cleft palate Infant with colic
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Babies born with cleft palates cannot create enough suction to withdraw milk from the breast. Infants with cleft lip have few feeding problems, extrusion reflex is normal , and there is no association between colic and feeding difficulties.
Q. Which of the following is a young, castrated male chicken, which is very tender and meaty? Broiler Poussin Capon Fryer
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Broilers and fryers are young chickens of either sex. Poussin are small, immature chicken. Capons are young, castrated male chickens.
Q. The first "milk produced by the mother, colostrum, is particularly high in which of the following compounds? Casein Lactose Carotenoids Essential fatty acids
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Colostrum is high in carotenoids, which is why it tends to be yellowish in color; it is also low in proteins (except secretory IgA and lactoferrin), fat, and carbohydrates.
Q. What can diarrhea after meals be attributed to in patients who have had a gastric resection? Rapid entry of fats into the small intestine Lower entry of sugars into the small intestine Rapid entry of sugars into the duodenum Elevated levels of insulin
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a common complication after gastric surgery. It occurs when food rapidly passes directly from the stomach to the intestine without being digested, resulting in diarrhea. The onset of these symptoms is common after the consumption of simple carbohydrates or sugar.
Q. What risk is associated with a type 1 diabetes patient trying to maintain hemoglobin (Hgb) A1c at 6.0 %? Increase in occurrence of retinopathy Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia Decrease in occurrence of retinopathy
The correct answer is C. Rationale: In a long-term major trial of intensive vs. conventional control of blood sugar in persons with type 1 diabetes, hypoglycemia occurred more frequently in the intensive group in which patients were aiming for lower blood sugar goals than usual.
Q. Which condition involves damaged enterocytes caused by ingesting foods that are not harmful to most people? Food allergy Lactose intolerance Celiac disease Food sensitivity
The correct answer is C. Rationale: In celiac disease, enteropathy is caused by gluten in genetically predisposed individuals. Immune activation in response to proteins in certain grain foods results in intestinal damage
Q. Which size egg is most commonly used in baking recipes? Small Medium Large Extra large
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Large eggs are about 57 g or 3¼ tbsp of egg. Extra-large eggs are about 64 g 4 tbsp of egg. Most baking recipes call for large eggs. If a recipe calls for two large eggs, that means the proportions of the recipe are counting on about 6½ 1tbsp of liquid egg. If you were to use extra-large or even jumbo eggs instead of large eggs in the recipe, you would be adding far more liquid than the recipe proportions account for.
Q. Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is caused by the inability to metabolize which of the following amino acids? Pheylalanine Aromatic amino acids Branched-chain amino acids Sulfur-containing amino acids
The correct answer is C. Rationale: MSUD is an amino acidemia caused by autosomal recessive gene affecting branch-chain amino aicds.
Q. Which three foods have the largest environmental impact? Sugary drinks, beef, dairy Vegetables, bread, fruit Beef, dairy foods, pork Fish, seafood, dairy
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Meat has been identified as having the highest greenhouse emissions followed by dairy products, poultry, and fluid milk, respectively.
Q. Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids? They act as thermal insulation for certain organs They provide energy during starvation They provide structure to hair, bones, and teeth They act as electrical insulators along myelinated nerves
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Proteins are composed of the molecules that provide structure to hair, bones, and teeth such as keratin and collagen. Lipids act as insulation for internal organs, provide energy during fasting and starvation, and also function as electrical insulators along myelinated nerves.
Q. In a nutrition diagnostic statement, signs and symptoms refer to: alterations in the patient's nutritional status that the RDN can resolve description of the factors contributing to the nutrition problem subjective and objective data used to determine if the nutrition diagnosis is accurate none of the above
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Signs and symptoms are the subjective and objective data an RDN uses to determine if a nutrition diagnosis is accurate.
Q. The goal of enteral feeding in the intensive care unit should be _____ of target energy expenditure by indirect calorimetry. 20-25 kcal/kg/CBW for BMI 30-50 Mifflin x 1.2 for BMI 30-50 11-14kcal/kg/CBW for BMI 30-50 30-35kcal/kg/IBW for BMI 30-50
The correct answer is C. Rationale: The American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition expert consensus guidelines for critically ill patients recommends that the goal for enteral nutrition in the intensive care unit should be 65%-70% of target energy needs by indirect calorimetry or 11-14 kcal/kg/current body weight (CBW) for body mass index (BMI) higher than 30 if IC not available.
Q. A woman with a body mass index of 20 should gain _____ pounds during a single gestation pregnancy. 15-20 lb 28-40 lb 25-35 lb 35-45 lb
The correct answer is C. Rationale: The Institute of Medicine recommends normal weight women gain 25-35 lb. The recommendation for overweight women is 15-25 lb and 35-45 lb for twin gestation.
Q. Inquiring about cultural/religious food preferences and/or food avoidances can _____: help facilitate understanding about the patient's personality, leading to better patient satisfaction discourage cultural and religious sensitivity, leading to worse patient satisfaction improve accuracy of a diet order that is reflective of the patient's food preferences, leading to better patient satisfaction inhibit the RDN's ability to create a personalized menu using patient's food preferences, leading to worse patient satisfaction
The correct answer is C. Rationale: The RDN may be pressed for time when seeing various patients in the hospital setting. By addressing cultural/religious food preferences at the initial assessment, the RDN will avoid causing patient discomfort if they are served a food they cannot eat or do not like. This approach leads to better patient satisfaction during their stay.
Q. Which diet plan for patients with cardiovascular disease follows the US Dietary Guidelines for physical activity, saturated and trans fat, cholesterol, sodium, and consumption of fiber, stanol esters, and whole grains? DASH REAP TLC CAGE
The correct answer is C. Rationale: The Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) diet incorporates physical activity; decreased saturated and trans fat, cholesterol, and sodium intake; and increased consumption of fiber, stanol esters, and whole grains.
Q. Enterocytes are cells of the colon parietal cells cells of the gastrointestinal tract cells of the stomach lining
The correct answer is C. Rationale: The gastrointestinal tract is lined by a continuous sheet of epithelial cells, also known as "enterocytes," which are responsible for processing and moving nutrients from the lumenal space into the vasculature for distribution to peripheral tissues.
Q. Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of wasting syndrome? Weight loss Loss of lean body mass Edema Increased nutrient requirements
The correct answer is C. Rationale: Wasting syndrome can result from human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immune deficiency syndrome. The loss of lean body mass as a result from increased nutrient needs and a prolonged catabolic phase can lead to weight loss. Edema is not a sign of wasting syndrome.
Q. How many 5-oz servings are in a 5-gallon tub of ice cream? 25 25.6 100 128
The correct answer is D. 5 gal × 128 oz/gal = 640 oz divided by 5 oz = 128 servings
Q. An apple cobbler requires 5 lbs apples per pan. A raw apple has 78% yield. What is the edible portion (EP) price of the cobbler if apples costs $.80 per lb. $3.12 $4.00 $4.75 $5.12
The correct answer is D. 5 lb apples divided by .78 = 6.4 lbs needed × $0.80 = $5.12
Q. A pound of chicken breast costs $3.50/lb. EP yield percentage is .53. What is the EP price of the chicken breast? 1.86 2.49 0.15 6.60
The correct answer is D. AP price divided by EP yield = EP price. $3.50/0.53 =6.60. The edible portion price is $6.60.
Q. What is an organizational chart for? It organizes an employee's list of duties It organizes departmental actitivies It is an evaluation tool for productivity It delineates employees in the organizational hierarchy
The correct answer is D. Organizational charts depict the basic hierarchy of employment positions and job functions.
Q. Which of the following questions is the best example of the "teach back" method? "Does that make sense?" "Do you know how many grams of sodium are in a can of chicken noodle soup?" "What questions do you have for me?" "Can you tell me in your own words what changes you will make when going home?"
The correct answer is D. Rationale: "Because asking if something makes sense or if there are any questions call for yes or no answers, they are not examples of the teach back method. A question that quizzes about knowledge, as in Option B, is incorrect because it is a direct question that feels like a test. Option D is the correct answer because it is open-ended and allows the patient/client to demonstrate the knowledge they have attained.
Q. Which of the following processes does NOT need to be present in motivational interviewing? Engaging Focusing Evoking Planning
The correct answer is D. Rationale: A client may not be ready to change, but motivational interviewing may still be used even without setting goals.
Q. What is the recommended weight gain for an obese pregnant woman? 28-40 lbs 25-35 lbs 15-25 lbs 11-20 lbs
The correct answer is D. Rationale: According to the Institute of Medicine's guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy, recommended weight gain for obese women is 11-20 lbs.
Q. Counseling techniques to encourage breastfeeding include all of the following, EXCEPT: Active listening Asking open-ended questions Reflecting Creating a strict feeding plan
The correct answer is D. Rationale: According to the practice paper of the Academy of Dietetics and Nutrition: Promoting and Supporting Breastfeeding, active listening, reflecting and asking open-ended question are all techniques to encourage breastfeeding. All these techniques will help the RDN addressing concerns and providing pertinent information to the mothers. In addition, infants should breastfeed on demand. A strict feeding plan is not the best approach and not a counseling technique.
Q. Which of the following is a concern in patients who are unable to initiate an oral diet or enteral nutrition and need to start parenteral nutrition? Decreased peristalsis Increased peristalsis Inadequate energy intake Bacterial translocation possibly resulting in infection
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Bacterial translocation is a common concern in patients without oral or enteral nutrition and can possibly result in infection.
Q. Lack of appetite and rapid muscle breakdown associated with disease is known as: Anorexia Catabolism Anabolism Cachexia
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Cachexia is the increased breakdown of muscle protein, along with decreased protein synthesis, which leads to overall muscle loss.
Q. The structure that anchors the yolk in the center of an egg is called _____. vitelline membrane albumen cholesterol chalazae
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Chalazae are two small bits of vitelline membrane that extend into the thickened egg white that anchors the egg yolk in the shell.
Q. _____ affects any area of the gastrointestinal tract while _____ affects only the large intestine Diverticulosis; celiac disease Celiac disease; Crohn's desease Ulcerative colitis; Crohn's disease Crohn's disease; ulcerative colitis
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Crohn's disease can affect any area of the GI tract, from the mouth to the anus. Ulcerative colitis occurs only in the colon. Diverticulosis most commonly affects the colon. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disease which impacts the small intestine.
Q. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) inhibits which enzyme to reduce inflammation? Cytokines producing enzymes Histamine producing enzyme Lipooxygenase Cyclooxygenase
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Cyclooxygenase—COX 1 and COX 2—are blocked by NSAIDs.
Q. Which Nutrition Care Process step involves approaches to promote changes in patient behavior ? Assessment Monitoring Screening Intervention
The correct answer is D. Rationale: During the nutrition care process, the RDN selects appropriate nutrition interventions to address the root cause of the diagnosed nutrition problem and alleviate the signs and symptoms.
Q. Which of the following is not included in the calculation for resting energy needs? Age Weight Height Muscle mass
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Equations used to calculate resting energy expenditure—such as Harris-Benedict and Mifflin-St Jeor—include sex, weight, height, and age.
Q. What is the recommended dietary fluid allowance for patients aged 65 years or older? 30 mL/kg 50 mL/kg 1.5 mL/kcal 25 mL/kcal
The correct answer is D. Rationale: For adults older than 65 years, 25 ml/kg is appropriate. A simple calculation is: 25 mL × body weight in kg = estimated fluid needs.
Q. Which of the following is NOT included in assessment of functional status in older adults to perform daily activities to meet basic needs and live independently? Eating Telephoning Food preparation Walking
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Functional status includes ability to perform telephoning, grocery shopping, food preparation, and eating. Walking is not one of the functional status assessment parameters.
. Which immunoglobulin mediates the classical type of food allergy? IgA IgM IgG IgE
The correct answer is D. Rationale: IgE is involved in the hypersensitivity response. Ig G is a "memory" antibody that engages after exposure to the allergen. IgG is involved in the protective immune response.
Q. Which processes do not cause hypermetabolism in the hospitalized patient? Burns Thrashing Trauma Chest pain
The correct answer is D. Rationale: In hospitalized patients who are ambulatory or who display "thrashing" behavior, expenditure of energy caused by activity can be considerably higher. Hypermetabolism is often noted in people with active disease processes.
Q. Polypharmacy most commonly affects which population? Infants Children Teenagers Elderly
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Polypharmacy most commonly occurs in the older adult population.
Q. Lost CO2 associated with hyperventilation can lead to which of the following conditions ? Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Reduced CO2 and excessive amount of base (bicarbonate) lead to a shift in acid-base balance, causing respiratory alkalosis.
Q. If a _____ deficiency is corrected, an adult with heart failure may reduce the risk of tachycardia? B12 sodium vitamin D magnesium
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Research suggests magnesium supplementation may reduce ventricular ectopic beats, couplets, episodes of non-specific ventricular tachycardia, or premature ventricular contractions.
Q. Which of the following classes of medication would require patient education on recognition and treatment of low blood glucose? SGLT2 DPP4 GLP1 Oral hypoglycemic agents
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Secretagogues, including oral hypoglycemic agents, stimulate the pancreas to release insulin; the other medications do not work in the same way.
Q. Which of the following sweeteners is made with rebaudioside A? Neotame Aspartame Sucralose Stevia
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Stevia is made with rebaudioside A. The sweeteners neotame, aspartame, and sucralose are made with other compounds.
Q. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using reflective listening? It conveys empathy It slows down the process of client visits It encourages "change talk" It is useful when you want to ask a client to begin taking action
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Summarizing statements are most effective when the provider wants to ask a client to begin taking action.
Q. A person with a body mass index of 30.0 kg/m2 is considered to be _____. Underweight Healthy weight Overweight Obese
The correct answer is D. Rationale: The BMI cutoff for overweight is 25.0 to 29.9 kg/m2. A BMI > 30.0 kg/m2 is considered obese.
Q. Which of the following is NOT among the "Big 8" allergenic foods? Soy beans Crustaceans Milk Rice
The correct answer is D. Rationale: The most allergenic foods that account for almost 90% of all food allergies in the United States are milk, eggs, fish, crustacean shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, and soybean. Rice is not a major food allergen.
Q. Which of the following is not associated with fluid balance in the body? Aldosterone Vasopressin Renin Corticosteroid
The correct answer is D. Rationale: The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and vasopressin regulate fluid blance while corticosteroid is related to macronutrient metabolism
Q. Which of the following is used to estimate body surface area related to severity of burns? Mifflin-St Jeor Curreir Ireton-Jones Rule of Nines
The correct answer is D. Rationale: The rule of nines is is used to make a rapid estimation of body surface area that has been burned. Estimation of affected body surface area assists in assessment of the extent of the injury and helps provide the basis for prescribing fluids and medications.
Q. Which is NOT a characteristic of metabolic alkalosis? Elevation in the pH Increase in plasma HCO3- concentration Compensatory hypoventilation and rise in PCO2 Decrease in plasma HCO3- concentration
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Under normal circumstances, the kidneys are able to correct metabolic alkalosis by excreting the excess HCO3- in the urine. An increase in HCO3- concentration is caused by impairment in renal excretion, resulting in metabolic alkalosis.
Q. Within the first few weeks of life, what is the average receommended number of feedings for an infant in a 24-hour period? 2-4 4-6 7-10 8-12
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Until lactation is well established and infants are demonstrating adequate weight gain, infants should be fed every 2 to 3 hours and should receive 8 to 12 feedings in 24 hours.
Q. Vitamin A is necessary for the synthesis of this protein, which is important for vision. Retinol binding protein Retinoic acid Beta-carotene Rhodopsin
The correct answer is D. Rationale: Vitamin A is needed to form rhodopsin, a pigment protein for vision. Retinol-binding protein is one of two transport proteins of retinol. Beta-carotene doesn't play a role in vision. Retinoic acid in the forms of all-trans-retinoic acid and 9-cis-retinoic acid are needed for the other functions of vitamin A.
Q. Which of the following foods is safe to eat? Potato salad at 80°F Tuna casserole at 100°F Egg salad at 50°F Baked chicken at 150°F
The correct answer is D. Temperature for bacterial growth is best between 41°F and 135°F.