practice test exam 3

A nurse is obtaining the health history of a 7-month-old who has had repeated episodes of otitis media. What question is most important for the nurse to include in the interview with the mother? 1. please describe your childs feeding pattern 2. tell me how often your child has had ear infections 3. what medicine do you give your child for the ear infections 4. do any of your children other than your baby have this problem

1 rationale: It is important to determine the infant's feeding pattern, because drinking formula from a bottle while in a recumbent position may lead to pooling of fluid in the pharyngeal cavity, which hinders eustachian tube drainage. Although knowing the frequency of ear infections is important, the factor that precipitated the otitis media is more significant. Although it is important to determine what medication has been given for otitis media, it is more important to determine the cause of this infection. Asking about the other family members is irrelevant, because otitis media is an inflammatory response, not a hereditary disease

Nursing considerations when giving Prednisone must include knowing the following : Select all that apply: 1.when giving orally give with food to prevent gastric ulcers 2.immune response suppressed which increases risk of infection 3.Increases blood glucose-need to assess for hyperglycemia

1,2,3

The nurse gathers a health history from a 58 year old male client with acute urinary retention. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to aid in assessing for benign prostatic hyperplasia? 1. Do you feel the need to urinate again immediately after urinating? 2. do you have to strain to begin your stream of urine? 3. how often do you engage in sexual intercourse? 4. how often do you wake at night with the urge to urinate? 5. is your stream of urine weak or intermittent?

1,2,4,5 Frequency of sexual intercourse is unrelated to urinary retention

An 11-month-old infant is admitted with a tympanic temperature of 105° F. The physician orders a tepid sponge bath. The infant's mother asks, "What is the purpose of this bath?" Which is the best response by the nurse? 1. "The bath helps reduce your baby's body temperature." 2. "The bath is used to help prevent febrile seizures." 3. "The bath stimulates circulation to the skin." 4. "The bath helps calm and relax your baby."

1. "The bath helps reduce your baby's body temperature."

The nurse is caring for a 78 year old client with a UTI which assessment finding would be most concerning and require immediate follow up by the nurse 1. Confusion 2. Presbyopia 3. temperature of 100.2 degrees Fahrenheit 4. white blood cell count of 12,000/mm

1. Confusion Confusion is a common clinical manifestation of UTI in elderly but still should be cause for concern and requires follow-up to rule out other possible causes

A clinic nurse is reviewing charge for clients who have appointments later in the day which of the following clients should the nurse recognize as appropriate recipients for prescription of emtricitabine/tenofovir? 1. The client who reports current recreational IV drug use 2. a client with a latent TB infection 3. a female client who spouse has HIV 4. a male client who has intercourse with men and women 5. if a botanist at an outpatient blood bank

1. The client who reports current recreational IV drug use 3. a female client who spouse has HIV 4. a male client who has intercourse with men and women Pre exposure prophylaxis is prescribed to prevent HIV in clients at high risk

After many episodes of otitis media a 3-year-old child is to undergo myringotomy and have tubes implanted surgically. What should the nurse include in the discharge preparation for this family? 1. keep the child at home for 1 week 2. insert earplugs during the childs bath 3. apply an ointment to the ear canal daily 4. use cotton swabs to clean the inner ears

2 rationale: Water in the ears after myringotomy may be a source of infection. There is no reason that the child cannot be around other children, because there is no infectious process. Applying an ointment to the ear canal daily will clog the ear canal and serves no purpose. Cotton swabs may be used occasionally in the outer ear, but should not be inserted into the ear.

A sexually active female client has three UTIs in 12 months which instruction should the nurse include in teaching the client to prevent UTI recurrence? select all that apply 1. douche with water and vinegar solution after intercourse 2. increase daily intake of fluids 3. use a spermicidal contraceptive Jelly 4. use fragrance free perineal deodorant products 5. void immediately after intercourse 6. wear underwear with a cotton crotch

2,5,6 Interventions to help prevent reoccurrence UTI eyes in sexually active female clients include avoiding use of feminine products vaginal douches and spermicidal contraceptive Jelly. protective factors including wearing cotton underwear increasing water take and voiding immediately after sexual intercourse

15. Which of the following factors is believed to cause ulcerative colitis? 1. Acidic diet 2. Altered immunity 3. Chronic constipation 4. Emotional stress

2. Altered immunity Several theories exist regarding the cause of ulcerative colitis. One suggests altered immunity as the cause based on the extraintestinal characteristics of the disease, such as peripheral arthritis and cholangitis. Diet and constipation have no effect on the development of ulcerative colitis. Emotional stress can exacerbate the attacks but isn't believed to be the primary cause.

A patient isolated for pulmonary tuberculosis seems to be angry. The nurse recognizes this is a normal response to the isolation. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. Provide a dark, quiet room to calm the patient. 2. Explain isolation procedures and provide meaningful stimulation. 3. Reduce the level of precautions to keep the patient from becoming angry. 4. Limit family and other caregiver visits to reduce the risk of spreading the infection.

2. Explain isolation procedures and provide meaningful stimulation.

When a client diagnosed with acute urinary retention is emergently catheterized the nurse should initially assess for Ridge priority manifestation that may occur as a result of the catheterization? 1. Dysuria 2. hypotension 3. infection 4. tachycardia

2. hypotension Acute urinary retention is best treated with rapid complete bladder decompression. rapid decompression can lead to hypotension

A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to the parents of a toddler who is to undergo myringotomy. The nurse explains that the type of infection most common in children that are prone to otitis media is what? 1. viral 2. fungal 3. bacterial 4. rickettsial

3. bacterial Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae, both bacteria, are the most frequent causes of otitis media. If an ear infection develops, the parents should contact their healthcare provider immediately so an antibiotic may be prescribed. Otitis media is not caused by viral, fungal, or rickettsial organisms.

A patient in isolation is experiencing signs of social deprivation. Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Allow visitors to remove masks while in the patient's room. 2. Leave the door of the negative-pressure room open slightly. 3. Remind the patient that the isolation is for his or her own benefit. 4. Set specific times when the nurse will return to the patient's room.

4. Set specific times when the nurse will return to the patient's room.

A nurse explains to the mother of a 1-year-old with a history of frequent ear infections that the primary cause of otitis media in young children is what? 1. sinusitis 2. recurrent tonsillitis 3. an inflamed mastoid process 4. an obstructed eustachian tube

4. an obstructed eustachian tube rationale: A blocked eustachian tube impairs drainage and creates negative pressure; when the tube opens, bacteria are pulled into the middle ear. Sinusitis is not related to otitis media. Recurrent tonsillitis is not the direct cause of otitis media. Mastoiditis is a complication, not a cause, of otitis media.

The nurse reviews the most current lab results of an assigned clients which result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? 1. a client who has Cellulitis of the leg with a white blood cell count of 13,000 2. client who has a chronic kidney injury with the hematocrit of 28% and a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL 3. a client who has type 2 diabetes with two-hour glucose of 165mg/dL 4. the client who is one month post kidney transplant with urinalysis showing white blood cells and bacteria.

4. the client who is one month post kidney transplant with urinalysis showing white blood cells and bacteria. Almost all post kidney transplant clients are prescribed immunosuppressive drugs to help prevent organ rejection this client is immuno compromised and is at risk for developing an infection the nurse should notify the health care provider immediately if any signs of symptom of an infection

Which medications are able to directly limit the inflammatory response based on their mechanism of action? 1.Ibuprofen (Motrin) 2.Prednisone 3.Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 4.All of the above

4.All of the above

A 62-year-old client is in the clinic for stress incontinence. Which instructions will the nurse include to strengthen the client's pelvic floor muscles? Select all that apply. A. Bladder training B. Schedule to do pelvic floor exercises C. Get disposable briefs and teach how to wear them D. start and stop urine stream to build up and strengthen pelvic floor muscles E. Kegel exercise holding for 3-5 secs at a time

A, B, D, E

A patient is newly diagnosed with mild ulcerative colitis. What type of anti-inflammatory medication is typically prescribed as first-line treatment for this condition? A. 5-Aminosalicylates (Sulfasalazine) B. Immunomodulators (Adalimumab) C. Corticosteroids (Prednisone) D. Immunosupressors (Azathioprine)

A. 5-Aminosalicylates (Sulfasalazine) The answer is A. 5-Aminosalicylates (Sulfasalazine) are usually prescribed for mild to moderate cases of ulcerative colitis as first-line treatment. If Aminosalicylates are not working (or the patient is allergic to sulfa) corticosteriods are prescribed. Corticosteriods may be used in combination with immunosupressors. Immunosupressors and immunomodulators are used in severe cases of ulcerative colitis when other medications have not worked.

Which patients below are at risk for developing osteoarthritis? Select-all-that-apply: A. A 65 year old male with a BMI of 35. B. A 59 year old female with a history of taking long term doses of corticosteroids. C. A 55 year old male with a history of repeated right knee injuries. D. A 60 year old female with high uric acid levels.

A. A 65 year old male with a BMI of 35. C. A 55 year old male with a history of repeated right knee injuries. The answers are A and C. The risk factors for developing OA include: older age, being overweight (BMI >25), repeated injuries to the weight bearing joints, genetics. Option B is at risk for osteoporosis, and option D is at risk for gout.

A patient with osteoarthritis is describing their signs and symptoms. Which signs and symptoms below are NOT associated with osteoarthritis? Select-all-that-apply:* A. Morning stiffness greater than 30 minutes B. Experiencing grating during joint movement C. Fever and Anemia D. Symmetrical joint involvement E. Pain and stiffness tends to be worst at the end of the day

A. Morning stiffness greater than 30 minutes C. Fever and Anemia D. Symmetrical joint involvement The answers are: A, C, D. These options are signs and symptoms found with rheumatoid arthritis NOT osteoarthritis. In OA: morning stiffness is LESS than 30 minutes, it is NOT systemic as RA (so fever and anemia will not be present), and it is asymmetrical (both joints are not involved). Pain and stiffness will actually be worst at the end of the day compared to the beginning due to overuse of the joints.

The nurse reviews a prescription to insert an indwelling urinary catheter in a hospitalized client. Which rationale for indwelling urinary catheter insertion is most appropriate. A. The client has acute urinary retention B. the client is confused and incontinent C. the client is elderly and at risk for falls D. the client is receiving intravenous diuretics

A. The client has acute urinary retention Catheter associated urinary tract infections are prevalent in hospital settings. Only indwelling urinary catheter should be used when appropriate. Appropriate uses include the following: clients with urinary obstruction or retention, pre-operative use, prolonged immobilization, to improve end of life comfort, and to facilitate healing. Inappropriate uses include: convenience (options 2,3 and 4) and for obtaining a urine culture when the patient can void.

In regards to HIV education, which is the most important objective for the nurse? A. prevention of HIV b. prevent opportunistic diseases c. treatment regimen compliance d. determine at risk behaviors

A. prevention of HIV The primary goal is preventing the spread of the virus since there is no cure and it can be transmitted at all stages The biggest objective for the nurse when teaching about the prevention of HIV is to recognize high-risk behaviors, such as multiple sexual partners, IV drug use, blood exposure, and unprotected sex. Prevention is key.

A nurse has educated a client on an epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen). What statement by the client indicates additional instruction is needed? a. "I don't need to go to the hospital after using it." b. "I must carry two EpiPens with me at all times." c. "I will write the expiration date on my calendar." d. "This can be injected right through my clothes."

ANS: A Clients should be instructed to call 911 and go to the hospital for monitoring after using the EpiPen. The other statements show good understanding of this treatment.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has a splenectomy. Which statement does the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? a. "Avoid crowds and people who are sick." b. "Do not eat raw fruits or vegetables." c. "Avoid environmental allergens." d. "Do not play contact sports."

ANS: A The spleen is the major site of B-lymphocyte maturation and antibody production. Those who undergo splenectomies for any reason have a decreased antibody-mediated immune response and are particularly susceptible to viral infections. Eating raw fruits and vegetables places the client at risk for bacterial infections. The body responds to environmental allergens with an unspecific inflammatory process. The client is not at risk for bleeding or injury due to contact sports

Which manifestations or processes of inflammation are caused specifically by blood vessel dilation? a. Increased production and migration of leukocytes b. Phagocytosis and fever c. Warmth and redness d. Swelling and pain e. None of above

ANS: C Dilated blood vessels increase blood flow to an area, leading to increased warmth and color in that area. Dilation alone does not result in swelling. Swelling results from increased capillary permeability.

When planning care for a client with ulcerative colitis who is experiencing symptoms, which client care activities can the nurse appropriately delegate to a unlicensed assistant? Select all that apply. 1. Assessing the client's bowel sounds 2. Providing skin care following bowel movements 3. Evaluating the client's response to antidiarrheal medications 4. Maintaining intake and output records 5. Obtaining the client's weight.

Answer: 2, 4, and 5. The nurse can delegate the following basic care activities to the unlicensed assistant: providing skin care following bowel movements, maintaining intake and output records, and obtaining the client's weight. Assessing the client's bowel sounds and evaluating the client's response to medication are registered nurse activities that cannot be delegated.

A client with ulcerative colitis has an order to begin salicylate medication to reduce inflammation. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication: 1. 30 minutes before meals 2. On an empty stomach 3. After meals 4. On arising

Answer: 3. After meals Salicylate compounds act by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and reducing inflammation. The nurse teaches the client to take the medication with a full glass of water and to increase fluid intake throughout the day. This medication needs to be taken after meals to reduce GI irritation.

If a client had irritable bowel syndrome, which of the following diagnostic tests would determine if the diagnosis is Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis? 1. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan 2. Abdominal x-ray 3. Barium swallow '4. Colonoscopy with biopsy

Answer: 4. Colonoscopy with biopsy A colonoscopy with biopsy can be performed to determine the state of the colon's mucosal layers, presence of ulcerations, and level of cytologic development. An abdominal x-ray or CT scan wouldn't provide the cytologic information necessary to diagnose which disease it is. A barium swallow doesn't involve the intestine.

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Which finding, if noted on assessment of the client, would the nurse report to the physician? 1. Bloody diarrhea 2. Hypotension 3. A hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL 4. Rebound tenderness

Answer: 4. Rebound tenderness Rebound tenderness may indicate peritonitis. Blood diarrhea is expected to occur in ulcerative colitis. Because of the blood loss, the client may be hypotensive and the hemoglobin level may be lower than normal. Signs of peritonitis must be reported to the physician.

After teaching a patient with interstitial cystitis about management of the condition, the nurse determines that further instruction is needed when the patient says, a. "I will have to stop having coffee and orange juice for breakfast." b. "I should start taking a high-potency multiple vitamin every morning." c. "I should call the doctor about increased bladder pain or odorous urine." d. "I will buy some calcium glycerophosphate (Prelief) at the pharmacy."

Answer: B Rationale: High-potency multiple vitamins may irritate the bladder and increase symptoms. The other patient statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.

When assessing the patient who has a lower urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse will initially ask about a. flank pain. b. pain with urination. c. poor urine output. d. nausea.

Answer: B Rationale: Pain with urination is a common symptom of a lower UTI. Urine output does not decrease, but frequency may be experienced. Flank pain and nausea are associated with an upper UTI.

A 98-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia has a markedly distended bladder and is agitated and confused. All the following orders are received from the emergency department health care provider. Which order should the nurse act on first? a. Draw blood for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. b. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg. c. Insert 16 French retention catheter. d. Schedule for IVP.

Answer: C Rationale: The patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute urinary retention, and the priority action is to relieve the retention by catheterization. The BUN and creatinine measurements can be obtained after the catheter is inserted. The patient's agitation may resolve once the bladder distention is corrected, and sedative drugs should be used cautiously in older patients. The IVP is an appropriate test, but does not need to be done urgently.

A 72-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia and a history of frequent UTIs is admitted to the hospital with chills, fever, and nausea and vomiting. To determine whether the patient has an upper UTI, the nurse will assess for a. suprapubic pain. b. foul-smelling urine. c. bladder distension. d. costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness.

Answer: D Rationale: CVA tenderness is characteristic of pyelonephritis. The other symptoms are characteristic of lower UTI and are likely to be present if the patient also has an upper UTI.

You're educating a group of outpatients about signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following are NOT typical signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis? SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY: A. Rectal Bleeding B. Abdominal mass C. Bloody diarrhea D. Fistulae E. Extreme Hungry F. Anemia

B, D, E

HAART causes what effects? A. reversal of a patients antibody status B. decrease of the viral load C. increase of the viral load D. moe delectable HIV

B. decrease of the viral load

Which condition or health problem demonstrates inflammation without invasion? a. Allergic rhinitis b. Viral hepatitis c. Osteoarthritis d. Cellulitis e. None of above

C Osteoarthritis is a "wear and tear" disorder that mechanically causes tissue damage. All the other disorders represent invasion by non-self proteins such as pollens, viruses, and bacteria.

A patient is receiving treatment for ulcerative colitis by taking Azathioprine. Which physician's order would the nurse question if received? A. Ambulate the patient twice day B. Low-fiber and high-protein diet C. Administer varicella vaccine intramuscularly D. Administer calcium carbonate by mouth daily

C. Administer varicella vaccine intramuscularly Azathioprine is an immunosuppression medication that decreases the immune system. Therefore, the patient should never receive a live vaccine, such as Varicella. Other vaccinations that are live include: MMR, Shingles, Nasal influenza mist etc.

Immediately after having surgery to create an ileostomy, which goal has the highest priority? A. Provide relief from constipation B. Assisting the client with self-care activities C. Maintaining fluid & electrolyte balance D. Minimizing odor formation

C. Maintaining fluid & electrolyte balance

A client is taking ibuprofen for the treatment of osteoarthritis. What education will the nurse give the client about the medication? A. Take the medication on an empty stomach in order to increase effectiveness. b.Since the medication is able to be obtained over the counter, it has few side effects. C. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset D.Inform the health care provider if there is ringing in the ears.

C. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. The nurse should advise the patient to take NSAIDs with food to avoid stomach upset. Ibuprofen is available over the counter, but it still has side effects. Aspirin is known to cause ringing in the ears, not NSAIDs.

The HIV positive patient tells the nurse that his HIV negative partner will be using preexposure drugs (Truvada). which statement indicates the need for additional teaching? A. my partner will need to be tested q3m B. this drug will decrease the chances of my partner becoming positive C. once we start using Truvada I will no longer need a condom D. my partner will need to be monitored for any side effects on this drug

C. once we start using Truvada I will no longer need a condom

A client visits the clinic with symptoms of cystitis and receives a prescription for phenazopyridine hydrochloride. After providing instructions on the medication, the nurse determines the client requires more teaching because of which statement? A. I will drink fluids and add cranberry juice b. my urine may turn bright red/orange c. I will take a warm tub or sitz bath to help reduce discomfort d. Thank you for the drug that kills bacteria and eases my pain.

D Thank you for the drug that kills bacteria and eases my pain. This answer is correct because phenazopyridine hydrochloride is prescribed for symptom management related to the dysuria that occurs with UTIs. The medication is not prescribed to treat the bacterial source of the UTI; therefore, this client statement indicates a need for additional teaching from the nurse.

A nurse is caring for a toddler who has acute otitis media. Which of the following is the priority actionfor the nurse to take? A. Provide emotional support to the family. B. Educate the family on care of the child C. Prevent clinical complications. D. Administer analgesics.

D. Administer analgesics. The priority action the nurse should take when using Maslow's hierarchy of needs isto meet the toddler's physiological need first. Therefore, administering analgesics to alleviate ordecrease physical pain is the priority action for the nurse to take

A patient diagnosed with pancolitis is experiencing extreme abdominal distension, pain 10 on 1-10 scale in the abdomen, temperature of 103.6 'F, HR 120, and profuse diarrhea. What complication due you suspect the pain is experiencing? A. Fistulae B. Stricture C. Bowel obstruction D. Toxic megacolon

D. Toxic megacolon Pancolitis affects all the colon and is a very severe form of ulcerative colon. The patient is at risk for toxic megacolon. In toxic megacolon, the large intestine dilates due to the overwhelming inflammation. The large intestine is unable to function properly and becomes paralyzed. Typical signs and symptoms of toxic megacolon include: abdominal distention, fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain, dehydration, and tachycardia.

A nurse is managing the care of a client with osteoarthritis. What is the appropriate treatment strategy the nurse will teach the about for osteoarthritis? A. vigorous physical therapy for the joints B.administration of opioids for pain control. B.administration of monthly intra-articular injections of corticosteroids. D. administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

D. administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) NSAIDs are routinely used for anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects. NSAIDs reduce inflammation, which causes pain. Opioids aren't used for pain control in osteoarthritis. Intra-articular injection of corticosteroids is used cautiously for an immediate, short-term effect when a joint is acutely inflamed. Normal joint range of motion and exercise (not vigorous physical therapy) are encouraged to maintain mobility and reduce joint stiffness.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease is present in the client with 350 cells/mm3 ( 350 cells/µL) of CD4+ T-cell count? 1.Stage 1 2.Stage 2 3.Stage 3 4.Stage 4

Stage 2 According to the CDC, HIV disease has four stages. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499 cells/mm 3 (499 cells/µL) is in the second stage of HIV disease. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm 3(500 cells/µL) is in the first stage of HIV disease. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm 3 (200 cells/µL) is in the third stage of HIV disease. The fourth stage of HIV disease indicates confirmed HIV infection with no information regarding CD4+ T-cell counts. From custom adaptive quiz

which opportunistic infections can be observed in AIDS (Select all that apply) A. toxicoplasmosis B. gastroenteritis C. TB D. candidiasis E. cytomegalovirus

a, c, d, e

which statements about HIV are accurate? (Select all that apply) A. may be acquired or congenital B. it is retrovirus C. it always progresses to AIDS D. it is a virus that attacks the immune system E. it is a parasite that forces cells to make copies of itself

b, d, e

which immune function abnormalities are a result of HIV infection? (Select all that apply) A. lymphocytosis B. CD4+ depletion C. increased CD8+ activity D. long macrophage life span E. lymphocytopenia

b, e

Your adult patient is scheduled to receive an influenza vaccination. She asks "how do those things work anyway?" Select the best response. a. "They work by giving you antibodies so you will be immune immediately if exposed in the future to the same antigen. b. "Immunizations work by sensitizing your body to prepare antibodies against this virus if exposed in the future to the same antigen." c. "Trust me, they work and you need one!" d. "Immunizations work by activating cytokines which are part of the immune response."

b. "Immunizations work by sensitizing your body to prepare antibodies against this virus if exposed in the future to the same antigen."

Edema occurs in inflammation due to: a. Constriction of small veins in the surrounding area. b. Leakage of plasma from capillaries. c. Increased phagocytic action of white blood cells. d. Concentration of injurious agents.

b. Leakage of plasma from capillaries.

Your patient was started on a broad spectrum antibiotic for symptoms of a respiratory infection. A sputum culture and sensitivity have been sent. The nurse knows these tests will provide the following information: a. Identify the bacteria as gram positive or negative and provide a prediction of duration b. Information related to the inflammatory response and stage of infection c. Identification of the pathogen and its susceptibility to certain anti-infective medications d. Identification of the pathogen and how likely the client is to become ill from it.

c. Identification of the pathogen and its susceptibility to certain anti-infective medications

Which finding during an otoscopic exam of the tympanic membrane would confirm the presence of otitis​ media? (Select all that​ apply.) A.Movement B.Amber color C.Bulging D.Bleeding E.​Semi-transparent

​B.Amber color C.Bulging D.Bleeding Rationale: The tympanic membrane will be​ bulging, have possible​ bleeding, and be amber in color in a client with otitis media. Normal findings in a healthy eardrum include the ability to move and​ semi-transparent in color.B.