Prepare for NHA Now Certification Exam

Salary calculations, withholding taxes, and Social Security calculations are the responsibility of the:

Office manager

What does contralateral mean?

On the opposite side. Contra = in opposition to. Lateral = side.

Delinquent account:

One that has not been paid within a certain time frame (e.g. 20-30-days, 30-60-days- 60-90-days, and 90-120 days).

What is the Good Samaritan Law?

Rendering first aid within the scope of knowledge by a health care worker without fear of being sued for negligence.

Water (aqua)

H²⁰

aq

aqueous, water

slow

brady-

inward, without, not, within

in-

Tablets

tab/tabs

To remove a tick:

use tweezers to pull the tick away from the patient's skin.

Antibiotics:

"-cillin" "-mycin" "-cycline", and "-oxacin. Such as penicillin, Ethromycin, Tetracycline, and Ciprofloxacin. Antibiotics fight bacterial infections either by killing bacteria or slowing and suspending its growth. They do this by: attacking the wall or coating surrounding bacteria. Interfering with bacteria reproduction.

Oral Contraceptives:

"-diol" Such as Estradiol Combinations of estrogen and progestin work by preventing ovulation (the release of eggs from the ovaries). They also change the lining of the uterus (womb) to prevent pregnancy from developing and change the mucus at the cervix (opening of the uterus) to prevent sperm (male reproductive cells) from entering.

Calcium Channel Blockers:

"-dipine" Such as Amlodipine Calcium Channel blockers lower your blood pressure by preventing calcium from entering the cells of your heart and arteries. Calcium causes the heart and arteries to contract more strongly. By blocking calcium, calcium channel blockers allow blood vessels to relax and open.

Opioid Analgesics:

"-done" Such as Hydrocodone, Methadone, Oxycodone, Roxicodone. Opioid drugs bind to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other areas of the body. They tell your brain you're not in pain. They are used to treat moderate to severe pain that may not respond well to other pain medications.

Antidiabetics:

"-gliptin" Such as Sitagliptin. These agents work by closing potassium channels on the surface of beta cells, which causes an influx of calcium ions into the cells and a consequent outflow of insulin from cellular storage vesicles. The thiazolidinediones (e.g., Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone) decrease insulin resistance.

Diuretics:

"-mide", "-zide" Such as Acetazolamide, and Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Diuretics, sometimes called water pills, help rid your body of salt (sodium) and water. Most of them help your kidneys release more sodium into your urine. The sodium takes with it water from your blood, decreasing the amount of fluid flowing through your veins and arteries. This reduces blood pressure.

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI's):

"-oprazole", and "-eprazole" Such as Esomeprazole, Lansoprazole, Omeprazole, Rabeprazole, and Pantoprazole. Proton pump inhibitors (PPI's) are medicines that work by reducing the amount of stomach acid made by glands in the lining of your stomach.

Antivirals:

"-vir" Such as Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, Cidofovir, and Zanamivir. Antiviral drugs work by stopping the infection process. Depending on the virus and medicine, the blocking of the process can occur at many different locations. One drug prevents the virus from fusing to the healthy cell by blocking a receptor that helps bind the virus to the cell.

Phlebotomy (venipuncture) for help remembering the order of the draw:

"Boys Love Ravishing Girls Like Dieters Love Greek Yogurt" Boys- Blood cultures Love- Light blue Ravishing- Red Girls- Gold Like- Light Green Dieters- Dark Green Love- Lavender Greek- Grey Yogurt- Yellow Or "Studious Boys Rarely Get Low Grades" Studious - Sterile Boys -Light blue Rarely -Red Get -Green Low -Lavender Grades -Gray

Medical Assistants reinforces lifestyle modifications for hypertension, patient understands by saying:

"I'll only smoke a half a pack each day, so I'll just cut it out completely. "

ACE Inhibitors:

"PRIL" Such as Benazepril, Captopril. ACE inhibitors have a powerful narrowing effect on your blood vessels, which increases your blood pressure. ACE inhibitors inhibit or limit this enzyme, making your blood vessels relax and widen. This, in turn, lowers your blood pressure and improves blood flow to your heart muscle.

Antihyperlipidemics:

"Statins" Such as lovastatin, Rosuvastatin, Atorvastatin, Pravastatin, Fluvastatin, & Simvastatin. Antihyperlipidemic agents promote reduction of lipid levels in the blood. Some antihyperlipidemic agents aim to lower the levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, some reduce triglyceride levels, and some help raise the high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.

Which of the following instructions should a medical assistant provide to a patient prior to spirometry testing?

"avoid smoking for at least an hour prior to the test."

A medical assistant is assisting a provider with an adult patient who sustained wound from a dirty metal object. Which of the following orders should the medical assistant expect the provider to give the for the patient?

"you should receive a tetanus booster, if your last one was administered more than 5 yrs. ago."

tablespoon

(15ml) (1 tbsp)

Arterial blood gases

(ABGs) a test performed on arterial blood to determine levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other gases present.

Richard Retractors:

(Large versions typically referred to as Kelly Retractors) Exposing / Retracting. Richard Retractors is a 9- 1/2" long retractor that can be used during procedures, such as abdominal, to grasp soft tissue using the curved blade. Several widths and depths of the blade are available in order to suit the different surgical needs. To retract wound, comes in many different blade sizes.

Oblique

(adj.) slanting or sloping; not straightforward or direct

measuring (instrument for)

- meter

Peripheral

- outside the central area

Water soluble vitamins include:

-B1: Thiamin -B2: Riboflavin -B3: Niacin -B6: Pyridoxine -B12: Cobalamin -C: Ascorbic Acid -Folate -Biotin -Pantothenic Acid

Anorexia Nervosa:

-Extremely restrictive eating practices -Self-starvation -Intense fear of weight gain -Amenorrhea: no menstrual periods for at least 3 months -Unhealthful body image

What are examples of general procedures?

-Greet patients -Schedule patients -Prepare examination -Obtain and document vital signs.

What are priorities for patient privacy:

-Never leave confidential patient information on fax machine. - Always use a cover page. -Verify the correct fax number. -Shred medical documents when necessary.

If a medication error occurs:

-Provide appropriate patient care. -Notify medical control. -Follow protocols. -Document thoroughly, accurately, and honestly. -Talk with your partner, supervisor, or medical director. -make sure environment doesn't add to error.

What are the three exceptions to the definition of breach?

-Unintentional acquisition -Unintentional disclosure -Good faith belief

NHA code of ethics:

-Use my best efforts -Uphold the standards of professionalism -Continue to learn and apply -Participate in activities -Protect and respect the dignity and privacy of all patients.

pertaining to

-ac, -al, -an, -ar, -ary, -atic, -eal, -ia, -iac, -ic, -ical, -ile, -ine, -ior, -nic, -ory, -ose, -ous, -tic.

pain

-algia, -dynia

carry away

-apheresis

removal, carry away

-apheresis

beginning

-arche

weakness

-asthenia

immature

-blast

immature, embryonic

-blast

carbon dioxide

-capnia

hernia, protrusion

-cele

puncture to withdraw fluid

-centesis

to kill

-cide

to surgically break

-clasia

state of pregnancy

-cyesis

Protein

-gobulin, -globin

record

-gram

process of recording

-graphy

pregnancy

-gravida

condition of stones

-lithiasis

one who studies

-logist

to shine through

-lucent

Volkmann Rake Retractor:

-not double ended -dull or traumatic tip variety -retracting deeper tissue beyond skin edges. Holds tissues aside to improve exposure of the operative are General Hand Held/Dull/Sharp 2-6 Prong Retracting/Exposing.

Beta Blockers:

-olol: Such as Propranolol Beta blockers work mainly by slowing down the heart. They do this by blocking the action of hormones like adrenaline. Beta blockers usually come in tablets.

mass

-oma

nontransparent

-opaque

vision condition

-opia, -opsia

to view

-opsy

appetite

-orexia

resembling

-ose, oid

smell

-osmia

To create a new opening

-ostomy

cutting into

-otomy, -tomy

to bear

-para

childbirth

-partum

too few

-penia

digestion in small intestine

-pepsia

surgical fixation

-pexy, -desis

eating or swallowing

-phagia

protection

-phylaxis

growth

-plasia, -plasm

surgical repair

-plasty (suffix)

porous

-porosis

to press down

-pressin

spitting

-ptysis

abnormal flow condition

-rrhagia

flow

-rrhea

rupture

-rrhexis

hardening

-sclerosis

instrument for viewing

-scope

chest

-thorax, -thoracic

pertaining to development

-trophic

nourishment

-trophy

turned condition

-tropia

to stimulate

-tropin

urine condition (suffix)

-uria

Common non-blood specimens are:

-urine, -stool, -sputum, -semen

When giving a PPD, purified protein derivative injection or TB test, the CMA should draw up:

0.1 mL of vaccine into the syringe.

The normal P wave in standard and precordial leads does not exceed:

0.11's in duration or 2.5 mm in height

What is the percentage of formed elements in the blood?

0.45%

What is the percentage of plasma in blood?

0.55%

What is the percentage of water in blood?

0.92%

In general, 1 cup of raw or cooked vegetables or vegetable juice, or 2 cups of raw leafy green =

1 cup from the vegetable group. The benefits of eating vegetables are similar to those of fruits. Any raw, cooked, fresh, frozen, canned or dried/dehydrated vegetables or 100% vegetable juice is in the vegetable group.

What is the maximum amount of time a tourniquet may be left on a patient?

1 minute

10 parts of the CBC:

1- RBC's (Red Blood Cells) 2- WBC's (White Blood Cells) 3- Platelets (PLT) 4- Automated Differential Count 5- Absolute Individual Leukocyte. Counts 6- Indices (RBC) 7- Hemoglobin (HGB) 8- Hematocrit (HCT) 9- Mean Corpus Volume (MCV) 10-Mean Platelet Volume (MPV)

List Elizabeth Kübers Ross five stages of grief:

1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance

List the nine regions that the body can be divided into:

1. Right hypochondriac 2. Epigastric 3. Left hypochondriac 4. Right lumbar 5. Umbilical 6. Left lumbar 7. Right iliac 8. Hypogastric 9. Left iliac (*the body can be divided into quadrants or nine regions)

What are the stages in the pyramid of Maslows Hierarchy of Needs?

1. Self actualization/self fulfillment 2. Self-esteem/status 3. Love/social 4. Security and safety 5. Physical

What are the stages of Hemostasis?

1. Vascular 2. Platelet Phase 3. Coagulation Phase 4. Fibronolysis

Order of the draw:

1. Yellow, 2. Light Blue, 3. Red, 4. Gold, Tiger Top, Red/Yellow/Black, 5. Green, Light Green, Green/Gray, 6. Purple/Lavender, 7. Pink, 8. Gray, 9. Royal Blue, 10. Tan

Hand Hygiene with Alcohol-base hand rub formula should be applied:

1.) (When using alcohol-based hand rub) - When using alcohol-based hand rub your arms should be bare below the elbows. - No wristwatch, bracelets or rings (except a plain wedding band), should be worn. 2.) (Check your hands) - Check that your hands are free of dirt and organic material. - If visibly dirty or known to be contaminated hand washing is required. 3.) (Check the expiry date of alcohol). - Out of date solution will be ineffective. 4.) (Dispensing the alcohol-based hand rub) - Dispensing the alcohol-based hand rub with the heel of one hand - Dispense the solution into the palm of your non-dominant hand. - Dispense enough solution to cover all surfaces of both hands. 5.) (Steps using in alcohol-based hand rub) - Rub your hands briskly together making sure that the: - backs of the hands, - between the fingers, - the palms, - the fingernails and fingertips, - the thumbs, - the wrists are all thoroughly covered with the solution. 6.) (Completion) Completion: - Continue rubbing until the solution evaporates and your hands are dry. - The entire procedure should take about 20-30 seconds.

What are the steps involved in doing a Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)?

1.) A zero time (baseline) blood sample is drawn. 2.) The patient is then given a measured dose of glucose solution to drink within a 5 min. time frame. 3.) Blood is drawn at intervals for measurement of glucose (blood sugar), and sometimes insulin levels. The intervals and number of samples vary according to the purpose of the test. For simple diabetes screening, the MOST IMPORTANT SAMPLE is the 2 hr. sample, and the 0 and 2 hr. samples may be the only ones collected. Note* Sometimes other laboratories continue to collect blood for up to 3 hours depending on the requesting physician.

The 3 rules of thumb when using abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols are:

1.) Become familiar with the "do not use" and "error prone" abbreviation lists. Access them online and print them. Keep them handy on to what to avoid. 2.) Minimize your use of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols. Don't set yourself yourself for misinformation of what you tend to communicate. 3.) Anytime you have any doubts about what other staff member has communicated or documentated within an abbreviation, go to that person and clarify the meaning. Remember, the safety of the patient is always the primary concern.

Order of draw and Laboratory department:

1.) Blood culture 2.) Light blue- Coagulation 3.) Red- Chemistry 4.) Gold- Chemistry 5.) Light Green- Chemistry 6.) Dark Green- Chemistry 7.) Purple or Lavender- Hematology 8.) Gray- Chemistry 9.) Yellow- Microbiology

What is the recommended order of the draw for capillary blood collection according to The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute?

1.) Blood gases 2.) EDTA tubes 3.) Other additive tubes 4.) Serum tubes

The patient history should include the following six (6) areas:

1.) Chief complaint (CC) 2.) Present illness 3.) Past medical history 4.) Family medical history 5.) Social history or personal history 6.) Assessment of body systems (review of systems) performed by the provider in the office.

Venipuncture Procedures:

1.) ID patient 2.) Introduce yourself, explain what you are about to do. 3.) Wash your hands. 4.) Put gloves on. 5.) Apply tourniquet. 6.) Palpatine to find a vein. 7.) Clean venipuncture site. 8.) Let the site air dry (do not blow on site, wave hands or dry with guaze. 9.) Anchor vein. 10.) Insert needle and perform draw. 11.) Half- way through procedure, remove tourniquet. 12.) Remove tube from vacutainer. 13.) Remove needle and discard immediately into a sharps container. 14.) Immediately apply pressure with guaze. 15.) Label tube (always while still at patient's side). 16.) Throw away supplies.

List the steps in capillary collection (finger sticks):

1.) ID patient. 2.) Introduce yourself and explain what you are about to do. 3.) Wash hands. 4.) Put on gloves. 5.) Ask patient to rest arm in a downward position for at least 30 seconds. 6.) Choose either the middle or ring finger. 7.) Clean with alcohol and allow to air dry. 8.) Using a sterile lancet, puncture the skin. 9.) Wipe off the first drop of blood with gauze.

Protein foods include nuts, seeds, seafood, meat, poultry, beans, peas, eggs, and soy products. What are the following benefits of eating protein foods everyday?

1.) Meat, poultry, fish, dry beans, peas, eggs, nuts, and seeds provide protein, energy B vitamins ( niacin, thiamin, riboflavin, and B-6), vitamin E, iron, zinc, and magnesium. 2.) Proteins function as building blocks for bones, muscles, cartilage, skin, blood, enzymes, hormones, and vitamins. 3.) Many protein foods provide iron, which helps carry oxygen in the blood. 4.) Seafood provides omega-3 fatty acids, which can help reduce the risk for heart disease.

What should a requisition form include?

1.) Patient's full name 2.) Patient's date of birth (dob) 3.) Patient's sex 4.) Specific identification numbers

What are the benefits of eating fruits including: berries, melons, stone fruits, and fruit juices?

1.) Reduces the risk for heart disease, including heart attack and stroke. 2.) Protects against some types of cancer. 3.) Reduces the risk of obesity and type two diabetes 4.) Lowers blood pressure, helps reduce bone loss, and reduces the risk of developing kidney stones. 5.) Lowers calorie intake.

The 10 rights (R's) of medication administration are:

1.) Right patient 2.) Right medication 3.) Right dose 4.) Right time 5.) Right route 6.) Right education 7.) Right to refuse 8.) Right assessment 9.) Right evaluation 10.) Right documentation

Please list the 6 elements in the Chain of Infection:

1.) Susceptible host 2.) Infectious agent 3.) Reservoir 4.) Portal of exit 5.) Mode of transmission 6.) Portal of entry.

Erik Erickson's stages of psychosocial development:

1.) Trust versus Mistrust (Infancy) 2.) Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt (Toddler Years) 3.) Initiative versus Guilt (Preschool Years) 4.) Industry versus Inferiority (Elementary Years) 5.) Identity versus Role Confusion (Adolescence) 6.) Intimacy versus Isolation (Young Adulthood) 7.) Generativity versus Stagnation (Middle Age) 8.) Ego integrity versus Despair (Retirement Years)

Grains including bread and other baked goods provides the following benefits of eating grains everyday:

1.) Whole grains can reduce the risk of heart disease. 2.) Foods containing fiber, such as whole grains, can minimize or eliminate constipation. 3.) Whole grains can help with weight management. 4.) Grain products fortified with folate consumed before and during pregnancy, help prevent neural tube defects during fetal development.

What medications can affect the draw?

1.) anticoagulant RX, causing patient to bleed more easily (will need more gauze). 2.) acetaminophen RX, gives elevated levels of liver enzymes. 3.) blood pressure RX, they affect glucose, sodium, and potassium.

What are the three major learning styles?

1.) auditory 2.) kinesthetic, and 3.) visual

The 12 Freudian defense mechanisms are:

1.) compensation 2.) denial 3.) displacement 4.) identification 5.) introjection 6.) projection 7.) reaction formation 8.) rationalization 9.) regression 10.) repression 11.) ritual & undoing, 12.) sublimation

What are the core functions and attributes of Patient-Centered Medical Homes (PCMH)?

1.) comprehensive care 2.) patient-centered care 3.) coordinated care 4.) accessible services 5.) quality and safety commitments

How do you explain a procedure to a patient?

1.) discuss the steps of the procedure. 2.) inform the patient they will feel a slight bit of pain. 3.) tell the patient to say something immediately if they have severe pain or feel sick. 4.) explain the complications of venipuncture and what to do if they occur (do not give out too much info!)

What are the possible complications in venipuncture?

1.) excessive bleeding or bruising (if gauze becomes soaked or bruise is larger than a 2x2 pad). 2.) Severe pain or lack of sensation (can indicate nerve damage). 3.) Infections: area becomes red, swollen, and painful.

What were the goals of the Affordable Care Act?

1.) expand health insurance coverage 2.) shift the focus of health care delivery system from treatment to prevention 3.) reduce costs and improve the efficiency of health care

What does appropriate dress look like for a medical assistant?

1.) good personal hygiene 2.) appropriate work attire 3.) avoid perfumes/colognes 4.) conservative makeup 5.) no acrylic nails.

What are the goals of the Institute for Health Care Improvement?

1.) improve the experience of care 2.) improve the health of populations 3.) reduce costs of health care

What should the medical assistant do if the patient feels faint:

1.) lower their head and have them take deep breaths. 2.) loosen tight clothing around the neck. 3.) apply a cold compress on forehead or back of neck. 4.) allow plenty of time for recovery before standing. 5.) observe patient for at least 15 min. 6.) complete necessary documentation of the incident.

What are the performance categories for Medicare reimbursement?

1.) quality 2.) cost/resource use 3.) clinical practice improvement activities 4.) advancing care information.

Medicare records must be kept a minimum of __ years.

10

The best solution to clean up urine off a floor is a:

10% bleach solution, by mixing 10% bleach to 90% water.

When performing CPR, the CMA should do at least:

100 compressions per minute. 1-2 compressions per second.

The normal amplitude is:

10mm or 1mV

A pre-hypertension blood pressure reading is:

120/80 < 139/89 mm Hg

A medical assistant should recognize what blood pressure reading is classified as elevated?

128/78 mm Hg

A primary hypertension blood pressure reading is:

140/90 < 159/99 mm Hg

A tablespoon of liquid form medication will draw equivalent to:

15 ml

A medical assistant is measuring the vital signs of an adult patient, the medical assistant should identify which of the following blood pressure reading as primary hypertension?

150/95 mm Hg

A patient expresses to the Medical Assistant that we would like to designate his daughter as his health care proxy. Which of the following is the minimum age to be eligible as a health care proxy?

18 yrs. and older

A patient believes that her health care privacy has been violated. The patients complaint must be filed within how many days?

180 days.

A medical assistant is measuring the vital signs of an adult patient, the medical assistant should identify which of the following blood pressure reading as a hypertensive crisis?

180/ 110 > and higher (EMRGENCY CARE IS NEEDED!!)

Which of the following concentrations of bleach solution should a medical assistant use as a disinfectant in a clinical setting?

1:10 (90% water mixed with 10% bleach)

Appeal for denial from an unsurer:

1st step is determine why the claim was denied. Obtain and complete the insurance company's appeal document.

What is the order of the draw for Capillary Puncture?

1st-Capillary Blood Gases: CBG's (must warm the site before collecting the specimen). 2nd-EDTA Specimens 3rd -Other Additives (Heparin and Oxalate) Specimens 4th- Serum specimens

ounce

2 tablespoons (oz).

Which of the following for the Pharmacy Technician to identify as a minimum amount of time that prescriptions for controlled substances should be retained?

2 years

According to CDC recommendations, what is the minimum length of time a medical assistant should spend scrubbing hands with soap and water when performing hand hygiene?

20 seconds with warm water.

A medical assistant is performing a visual acuity test on an adult patient. The patient is able to read the 20/30 line with both eyes but misses one letter. Which of the following results should the medical assistant document in the patient's medical record?

20/30 -1 both eyes (O.U.)

How long is a holter monitor worn?

24 hours or longer

The Medical assistant should identify that the standard speed for an EKG recording is:

25mm/sec.

EKG paper should be run at normal speed of:

25mm/second.

limb leads consist of:

3 bipolar and 3 augmented leads

Which of the following is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine that can be sold to a patient in a calendar day?

3.6 grams

How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second rhythm strip?

30 one millimeter boxes

How many RBC's per microliter of blood?

4.2-6.2 million

A medical assistant should allow a serum specimen tube without an anticoagulant additive to stand for which of the following length of time prior to centrifuging?

45 minutes

Where is the lead for a V2 reading placed?

4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum. (Yellow)

Where is the lead for a V1 reading placed?

4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum. (red)

How many electrodes are on a Holter monitor?

5

A medical assistant is assisting a patient who is obese with an insulin injection. Which of the following is the correct angle for this patient to inject?

90°degree angle

Dissecting Scissors:

A "heavy duty" operating scissors used for cutting dense and tough tissue such as heavy connective tissue or blunt items (blades may be straight or curved, smooth or serrated). For cutting tissue, but NEVER use for cutting sutures.

What is a mental health screening tool?

A 5 minute test that providers use to evaluate how a patient functions mentally.

Employer Identification Number (EIN):

A 9 digit number assigned to every employer to facilitate bookkeeping.

What is BMI?

A Body Mass Index (BMI) is a heuristic proxy for human body fat based on an individual's weight and height. BMI does not actually measure the percentage of body fat. BMI is defined as body mass divided by square of his/her weight.

A medical assistant is reviewing a patient's medical history prior to the patient's appointment. Which of the following lab results indicates the need to schedule an extension of the current visit?

A Fasting Blood Glucose of 168mg/dL

What is Medicare?

A Federal Health Insurance Program for persons 65 years of age or older.

What is the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986?

A Federal law passed in 1986 created a no-fault compensation program for citizens injured or killed by vaccines, as an alternative to suing vaccine manufacturers and providers.

Controlled Substances Act of 1970:

A Federal statute that regulates the manufacture and distribution of the drugs that are capable of causing dependency.

What is a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)?

A Group of doctors and hospitals provides health care at reduced rates, agreement is usually between PPO and employer or insurance company.

What are three types of medical directives?

A Living Will, Durable Power of Attorney for healthcare, Healthcare Proxy or Agent, DNR resuscitate orders, Organ and tissue donation, and MOLST.

What type of health care organization is a Patient-Centered Medical Home?

A PCP coordinates care to make sure patients receive required care when needed.

What is Usual, Customary, and Reasonable (UCR) Payments?

A Reasonable and Customary fee is the amount of money that a particular health insurance company (or self-insured health plan) determines is the normal or acceptable range of payment for a specific health-related service or medical procedure. The Usual, Customary, and Reasonable (UCR) amount sometimes is used to determine the allowed amount.

If STAT electrolyte panel was reported to have a critically elevated sodium level, then most likely a Gold color tube top was drawn. What should have been drawn?

A STAT Chemistry test should be drawn in a Green color tube top. Because it is NOT a clot activator, but instead uses heparin to thin out the blood. The green tube top contains plasma, and is used in the STAT Chemistry Dept. Used for BMP, CMP, Glucose, K, Troponin, and Bilirubin tests.

Define Registered Technician:

A Technician that has been registered by the state.

Define Licensed Technician:

A Technician that has met the state requirements for licensure and been issued a license by the state.

Define Medication Reconciliation Technician:

A Technician that identifies the most accurate list of all the medications patients are taking.

Define Pharmacy Technician Informaticist:

A Technician that uses technology tools to support the pharmacy information management.

Emesis basin:

A basin used by bedridden patients for vomiting.

Consideration:

A benefit of some type for entering into the contract, such as financial reimbursement.

Blood Cultures are collected a Blue blood culture bottle (for aerobic), Purple blood culture bottle (for anaerobic), and Pink blood culture bottle for Pediatric (aerobic).

A blood culture is a test that checks for foreign invaders like bacteria, yeast, and other microorganisms in your blood. Having these pathogens in your bloodstream can be a sign of a blood infection, a condition known as bacteremia. A positive blood culture means that you have bacteria in your blood.

What three structures do all cells have?

A cell consist of three parts: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and between the two, the cytoplasm.

NSF check:

A check that is not paid by a bank because of insufficient funds in a bank account. Patient can be charged for a returned check.

Transparent Tape:

A clear plastic strip having an adhesive surface on one side only that can be written on directly.

Bankruptcy:

A condition under which a person or corporation is declared unable to pay debts. Debts have to be adjusted off the account.

Iodine Basin:

A container to hold iodine during surgery.

In the spinal cavity, what organs are within?

A continuation of the cranial cavity as it travels down the midline of the back.

What should happen after the patient has completed a medical directive?

A copy should be sent to the family, hospital, and providers to review and have on file.

Cup

A customary unit of capacity. 1 cup = 8 fluid ounces.

Intentional Tort:

A deliberate act that violates the rights of another. (ex. assault or battery, defamation of character, invasion of privacy, and administering an injection without the consent of the patient).

What is Nuclear medicine?

A diagnostic imaging that involves administration of radio active isotopes that will collect in areas of high metabolic activity. Examples include SPECT scan (used to access brain damage after a stroke).

Binge Eating Disorder (BED):

A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of eating large quantities of food (often very quickly and to the point of discomfort); a feeling of a loss of control during the binge; experiencing shame, distress or guilt afterwards; and not regularly using unhealthy compensatory measures (e.g., purging) to counter the binge eating. It is the most common eating disorder in the United States.

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration):

A division of the Federal government overseen by the Department of Labor agency, responsible for reducing workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities.

Nonfeasance:

A failure to preform a task, duty, or undertaking that one has agreed to perform or has a legal duty to perform; for example, waiting to treat patient until it's too late.

What is Medicaid?

A federal and state assistance program that pays for health care services for people who cannot afford them like pregnant women, children, and the disabled.

What is Global Budget?

A fixed total dollar amount paid annually for all care. Providers determine how money is spent. This model limits the level and rate of health care costs increase.

What is Workers Compensation?

A form of insurance paid by the employer providing cash benefits to workers injured or disabled in the course of employment.

Deposition:

A formal statement in which the individual who is being deposed promises to tell the truth.

Modified-block-style letter:

A format of letter in which the placement of the heading, date, complimentary close, signature and identification lines start about halfway across the page and have to be aligned vertically.

What is a megakaryocyte?

A giant cell in the bone marrow that is the ancestor of blood platelets, which are essential to normal blood clotting.

A medical assistant is assisting with a physical examination of the patient who has scabies. Besides gloves, which of the following pieces of personal protective equipment should the medical assistant wear?

A gown

Health Care Proxies and Agents:

A healthcare proxy or agent is the person assigned to make healthcare decisions for the patient if they are incapacitated. Determining the healthcare proxy or agent is an important decision when planning for the future. Once a documented proxy is in place,be sure the patient's family and providers have a copy of the documentation.

A side effect of a patient taking Coumadin or Warfarin is:

A hematoma (bruise)

Human chlorionic gonadotropin or hcg. A pregnancy test.

A hormone produced during pregnancy that is made by the developing placenta after conception. Levels may be measured in the blood or urine. Most commonly, this is intended to indicate the presence or absence of an implanted embryo.

Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990:

A law passed in 1990 that requires employers and public facilities to make "reasonable accommodations" for people with disabilities and prohibits discrimination against these individuals in employment.

Litigation:

A lawsuit or legal action that determines the legal rights and remedies of the person or party.

Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare:

A legal document naming a health care agent or proxy to make medical decision for patients when they are not able to do so.

Living Will:

A legal document stating what procedures the patient would want, which ones she shouldn't want, and under what conditions she would want the provider to do organ and tissue donation, dialysis, blood transfusion, and DNR.

What is a Pegboard system?

A manual bookkeeping system that uses a day sheet to record all financial transactions for the date of service and maintains patient account balances by using physical cards.

Which of the following rules provides an opportunity to obtain certification or registration based on state regulations, but does not require a license to secure employment within the healthcare industry?

A medical assistant

Bulb Syringe:

A method of creating injection pressure that consists of a bulb type syringe and rubber tubing.

What do you find in capillaries?

A mixture of venous and arterial blood is found

What is a negative Holter?

A negative holter will have no significant arrhythmias or ST changes.

What is the normal SpO² range?

A normal level of oxygen is usually 95% or higher. Some people with chronic lung disease or sleep apnea can have normal levels around 90%. The "SpO2" reading on a pulse oximeter shows the percentage of oxygen in someone's blood. If your home SpO2 reading is lower than 95%, call your provider.

Medical assistants can correspond:

A notification letter to a patient about surgery arrangements.

Firewall:

A part of a computer system or network that is designed to block unauthorized access while permitting outward communication.

World Health Organization (WHO):

A part of the United Nations that deals with major health issues around the world. The World Health Organization sets standards for disease control, health care, and medicines; conducts education and research programs; and publishes scientific papers and reports. Also called "WHO."

What type of patients may make it difficult to properly align the oximeter probe?

A patient with very small or large fingers, fingernail polish or artificial nails.

A Blackhaus Towel Clamp:

A perforating clamp used for grasping tissue, securing towels or drapes, and holding or reducing small bone fractures. A (grasping or clamping) instrument. The basic design includes locking handles and a tip, which may be curved or pointed, and may have teeth for traction.

What is a no show?

A person who fails to keep an appointment without giving advance notice.

Dependents:

A person who relies on another, especially a family member, for financial support. Dependants are covered up to 26 yrs old with full time student status.

What is a Participating Provider?

A physician or other healthcare provider who enters into a contract with a specific insurance company or program and by doing so, agrees to accepts how much money will be received on behalf of the policyholders treatment and services.

What is Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)?

A plan that contracts with a medical center or group of providers for preventive and acute care. HMO's generally requires referrals to specialists, as well as pre-certification and pre-authorization for admissions, procedures, and treatments.

An abnormal growth of tissue projecting from a mucous membrane. If a patient states that he or she has a growth that grew rapidly, the CMA would chart it as:

A polyp

Jackknife position (Kraske):

A position in which the patient lies on the back, shoulders elevated, legs flexed on thighs, thighs at right angles to the abdomen. It is used when introducing a urethral sound and rectal pilonidal sinus procedure.

Trendelenburg position:

A position in which the patient's feet and legs are higher than the head (shock position).

Charges posted to a patient's account should be taken from:

A pre-established list of fee allowances based on a fee schedule.

What is a prefix?

A prefix is at the beginning of the word.

Proof of posting:

A process of calculation to verify that calculations on a day sheet are internally consistent and all totals are correct.

Encryption:

A process of encoding messages to keep them secret, so only "authorized" parties can read it and a password is required to unlock code.

A Clearinghouse submission allows:

A provider to submit multiple insurance claims electronically in batches for a small fee. The clearinghouse uses special software to audit and sort claims for various insurance carriers.

The medical assistant should prepare:

A purchase order and list all supplies that require replacement.

What is quantitative test?

A quantitative test analyzes a specimen for the presence of a substance and the amount of the substance present. Quantitative test are usually reported using numerical values or units.

What is a referral?

A referral is a document or form required by insurance companies that is used when a provider wants to send a patient to a specialist. Referrals can be sent manually or electronically. Referrals should only be submitted after the approval of the provider and authorization from the insurance company has been obtained.

What type of health care model is a Pay For Performance?

A reimbursement model compensates providers only if they meet certain measures for quality and efficiency.

Fowler's position:

A semi-sitting position; the head of the bed is raised between 45°- 60° and may have knees either bent or straight facilitating the relaxing of tension of the abdominal muscles, allowing for improved breathing.

The best position to put a patient in to obtain:

A sim's position for a rectal temperature.

Hegar Dilator:

A slender, flexible instrument used for dilating the cervix.

Alcohol Prep:

A small pad soaked with disinfectant alcohol used to clean skin.

Scalpel:

A small straight surgical knife consisting of a handle and a thin, sharp steel blade.

Mosquito Clamp:

A small, straight or curved hemostatic forceps used to hold delicate tissue or compress a bleeding vessel. (Halstead Forcep/ Hartmann Forcep).

Speculum instruments:

A speculum, is a medical tool for investigating body orifices, with a form dependent on the orifice for which it is designed. In old texts, the speculum may also be referred to as a diopter or dioptra.

What is a sphygmomanometer and how is it used?

A sphygmomanometer, also known as a blood pressure monitor, or blood pressure gauge, is a device used to measure blood pressure, composed of an inflatable cuff to collapse and then release the artery under the cuff in a controlled manner, and a mercury or aneroid manometer to measure the pressure. Manual sphygmomanometers are used with a stethoscope when using the auscultatory technique.

An apparatus for measuring the volume of air inspired and expired by the lungs:

A spirometer, it is a precision differential pressure transducer for the measurement of respiration flow rates. The spirometer records the amount of air and the rate of air that is breathed in and out over a specified period.

The CPT manual provides:

A standard language for reporting services provided during a medical visit.

A medical assistant is composing business correspondence using the simplified letter style, what feature should the medical assistant use?

A subject line with all capital letters.

What is a suffix?

A suffix is at the end of the word.

What is a qualitative test?

A test reaction that indicates a reaction took place. Positive test includes color change, precipitate or some other observable change.

Gauze:

A thin, transparent fabric with a loose open weave.

What is a tickler file?

A tickler file or 43 Folder System is a collection of date-labeled file folders organized in a way that allows time-sensitive documents to be filed according to the future date on which each document needs action.

Modifiers (CPT):

A two-digit character that is appended to a CPT code to report special circumstances involved with a procedure or service.

Tuning Fork:

A two-pronged, fork-like instrument that vibrates when struck; used to test hearing, especially bone conduction.

What are Neutrophils?

A type of immune cell that is one of the first cell types to travel to the site of an infection. Neutrophils help fight infection by ingesting microorganisms and releasing enzymes that kill the microorganisms. A Neutrophil is a type of white blood cell, a type of granulocyte, and atype of phagocyte.

What are Basophils?

A type of white immune blood cell that is the largest type of granulocyte. Responsible for fighting against harmful bacteria and germs. They contain enzymes that are released during allergic reactions and asthma which is heparin an (anticoagulant) & histamine (vasodilator). They also produce a crucial antibody called immunoglobin E (lgE). Immunoglobin attaches to basophils and a similar type of cell called mast cells. The cells then work together to release histamine and serotonin, which affects the inflammatory response to the allergen.

What is a Thrombotic Vein and why are they NOT a good choice for venipunctures?

A vein with a thrombus (DVT Deep Vein Thrombosis, blood clot) can feel hard and inflexible, because they are tender to touch.

What is Determinants of Health?

A wide range of factors influence a person and populations health status. (the relationship between biology and genetics behavior. Availability of health resources, social standards, and policy/lawmaker involvement, have the largest effect on the health population).

What is used for patients with fragile veins?

A winged infusion or butterfly.

Expert Witness:

A witness in a court of law who is an expert on a particular subject.

Libel:

A written defamation of a person's character, reputation, business, or property rights.

Subpoena:

A written order that commands someone to appear in court to give evidence.

Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP):

A written statement that details the provider's privacy practices should be available to patient's at all times for their review.

Which of the following instructions should a medical assistant give to a patient about the use of a Holter monitor equipped with an event marker? A. "Press the marker when symptoms begin." B. "Press the marker when the monitoring period begins." C. "Press the marker when your exercising routine begins." D. "Press the marker when you stand up."

A. "Press the marker when symptoms begin."

A medical assistant is setting up a surgical tray for a procedure. What distance from the edges of the sterile field should the assistant consider contaminated? A. 1 inch B. ½ inch C. ¾ inch D. ¼ inch

A. 1 inch

How many French fries are considered to be one half-cup serving? A. 10 B. 15 C. 25

A. 10

Of the following, which would be considered the correct percentage of nutrient intake by the Dietetic Association for a person's protein intake every 24 hours? A. 15% B. 65% C. 25% D. None of the above

A. 15% The Dietetic Association says that the nutrient intake of protein should be approximately 15%. According to the Dietetic Association, a person's carbohydrate intake should be approximately 65% and their fat intake should be approximately 25%.

A medical assistant should recognize and report to the provider that which of the following patients has an apical pulse rate outside of the of the expected reference range? A. A 6-week-old infant who has a heart rate of 80/min. B. A 6-year-old child who has a heart rate of 80/min. C. A 60-year-old patient who has a heart rate of 80/min. D. A 16-year-old patient who has a heart rate of 80/min.

A. A 6-week-old infant who has a heart rate of 80/min.

A medical assistant is preparing to perform a capillary collection on a child. Which of the following factors should the assistant consider to determine whether to use the heel-stick or finger-stick method? A. A child's age B. Ease of access C. Parent's preference D. Pain tolerance

A. A child's age

Before making rounds, a medical assistant should be sure that they are carrying which of the following on their person? A. A pen B. A syringe C. A glucose meter D. A change of clothes

A. A pen When making rounds, a medical assistant should always carry a pen with them. This is used to record any changes in the patients as well as blood pressures and blood sugars if taken. According to the facility/clinic, these notations may be made on a computer. While health care providers may test blood sugar levels of certain patients, it does not require that a medical assistant carry a glucometer with them at all times. A medical assistant should never have a syringe because a medical assistant is not allowed to administer injectable medications, especially through an IV. A clean change of clothes while not a bad idea, is not the typical.

Which of the following should a medical assistant use when sending out reminders to patients for their yearly appointment? A. A tickler file B. An audit trail C. A ledger card D. A CMS-1500 from

A. A tickler file

At which of the following times during a phlebotomy procedure should a medical assistant label the tubes? A. After disposing of the used needle. B. Upon the parent's arrival to the laboratory. C. After applying the tourniquet to the patient's arm. D. Prior to inverting each tube.

A. After disposing of the used needle.

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who has tuberculosis. For which of the following transmission routes should the assistant take? A. Airborne B. Bloodborne C. Skin contact D. Vector-borne

A. Airborne

Which of the following methods can the medical assistant use when leaving a voice message for a patient? A. Always give the full name of the medical practice. B. Always leave a message if the call goes to voicemail. C. Leave a message with whoever answers the phone. D. Leave information even if the number may have been misdialed. E. State the name of the individual for whom the message is intended.

A. Always give the full name of the medical practice.

Which of the following is the center of the brain that controls fear, aggression and anxiety? A. Amygdala B. Cortex C. Thalamus D. Hippocampus

A. Amygdala The amygdala is the center of the brain that controls reflexes and emotions such as anxiety, aggression, and fear. The thalamus controls pain perception and relays sensory information. The cortex plays a role in consciousness and the hippocampus deals with the autonomic nervous system, memory, and other emotions.

Which is the most appropriate way to approach a patient who is not comfortable being touched? A. ASK PERMISSION AND Create a Safe ENVIRONMENT B. Call a nurse for assistance C. Inform the patient that touch is required for the examination. D. Ignore the patient and proceed as usual E. Leave the room immediately

A. Ask permission and create a safe environment

Of the following, which would a certified medical assistant typically be able to perform when assisting the physician in the exam room? A. Assist with minor procedures B. Start an IV for therapy C. Administer medications by the intravenous route D. All of the above

A. Assist with minor procedures When a certified medical assistant is assisting a physician in any exam room, they typically assist with minor procedures. Certified medical assistants need to be knowledgeable on the scope of their practice in the state they are practicing in. What a CMA can do varies from state to state. However, they are never allowed to start an IV or administer medications by the IV, these fall well outside their purview.

When obtaining a head circumference measurement on an infant, where is the correct placement of the tape for the measurement? A. At a level slightly above the eyebrows. B. The most proximal portion of the nasal bridge. C. From the apex of the skull to the chin.

A. At a level slightly above the eyebrows.

Smoking is a risk factor for which of the following conditions? A. Atherosclerosis B. Pericarditis C. Graves' disease D. Cervicitis

A. Atherosclerosis

A medical assistant successfully obtains a prior authorization for services for a patient. The insurance will provide which of the following as confirmation? A. Authorization number B. Employer identification number C. Indemnity schedule D. Relative value scale

A. Authorization number

When would Korotkoff sounds be evaluated? A. Determining blood pressure B. Counting respirations C. Evaluating pulse D. Performing ultrasonography

A. Blood pressure The Korotkoff sound is evaluated when determining the patient's blood pressure. This sound is heard by using a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope when taking the patient's blood pressure. It is heard over an artery if the pressure is reduced below the systolic arterial pressure. It is not heard when counting respirations, taking a pulse, or when performing an ultrasonography.

A medical assistant is at a bar with her close friend and they get to taking about work. The medical assistant informsher friend that the friend's teacher was in the doctor's office getting checked out for kidney stones. This would be considered which of the following? A. Breach of confidentiality B. Assault and battery C. Professional Malpractice D. Slander and defamation

A. Breach of confidentiality. According to the HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), which was put into law in 1996, the medical assistant is not allowed to discuss any patient with her friend, much less in a public setting where other people can also hear the conversation. This is a Federal law which is taken very seriously with fines and even possible jail time can be imposed as a result. Assault and battery is when one person touches another with the intent to harm. Professional malpractice would be when there is a failure of the professional to exercise the ordinary professional skill expected which results in damage or injury to the patient. Slander and defamation would be when a person makes a false and damaging statement about another person.

If a medical assistant managing patient payments learns that a patient's check has been returned due to insufficient funds, what step should the medical assistant take first? A. Call the patient B. Call the police C. Notify the collection agency D. Call the patient's employer

A. Call the patient If a clinic gets a check that is returned for lack of funds, a medical assistant's first actionshould be to call the person that wrote the check. At some point if the check is not taken care of, the collection agency or police may need to be called, but it's not the first step.

Which message may be conveyed to the patient by leaning towards them during interactions? A. Caring B. Exclusivity C. Impatience D. Superiority E. Suspicion

A. Caring

A new parent inquires about mandatory immunizations for his child. To which of the following organizations should the medical assistant refer the parent? A. Centers for Disease Control B. World Health Organization C. American Red Cross D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

A. Centers for Disease Control

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who reports a throbbing headache and a family history of migraines. The assistant should record this information in the patient's chart as which of the following? A. Chief complaint B. Review of systems C. Social history D. Assessment

A. Chief complaint

A ____________ must typically be paid by the patient at each visit when services are rendered at a doctor's office. A. Co-pay B. Premium C. Deductible D. Fee schedule

A. Co-pay A co-pay is a fixed amount for health services set by a n health insurance policy. It must typically be paid by the patient at each visit when services are rendered. Most insurance companies have a yearly deductible that must be met before services are paid for by an insurance policy. The deductible is tracked on a yearly basis, but a co-pay is paid at most visits. An example of when a co-pay may not be charged would be if perhaps the patient has had surgery at the post-op visit is billed with the surgery procedure. A premium is an amount the patient pays the insurance company each month to maintain their policy. A fee schedule is a list of amounts that will be paid by the insurance company for procedures.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take after obtaining a urine drug screen for a patient following a work-related accident? A. Confirm the patient's identity. B. Return the sample to the provider's office. C. Seal the lid in the presence of the patient. D. Check the urine specimen temperature within 15 minutes.

A. Confirm the patient's identity.

If an infection is nosocomial, it means which of the following? A. Contracted within the hospital B. Originates outside of the body C. Contracted by touch D. That originates from within our own body

A. Contracted within the hospital Nosocomial means that the infection was contracted while the patient was in the hospital. This type of infection is quite common and is why it is important to sanitize or was your hands before and after seeing each patient.

Complications such as poor wound healing, amputations, blindness, and kidney failure are associated with which of the following diseases? A. Graves' disease B. Acromegaly C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus

A. Diabetes mellitus

If a patient acts extremely rude to a medical assistant because their insurance does not cover their visit to the clinic, it would be considered which of the following? A. Displacement B. Denial C. Compensation D. Sublimation

A. Displacement Displacement is when a person transfers emotions about themselves or their situation onto an external substitute, like slamming a door when angry, or, in this case acting rude to a medical assistant. It is an unconscious defense mechanism. Denial would be considered when the patient does not believe reality, for example if they are told they have cancer but continue to believe something else is causing their symptoms. Compensation would be when a person overemphasizes a behavior such as providing their child with gifts because they have to work and cannot spend enough time with them. Sublimation is also a defense mechanism but it involves taking a negative emotions and turning them into positive action; for example, if a person is turned down from a job and is inspired to start their own business.

If a patient wishes to withhold life-sustaining treatment, which of the following advance directives should the medical assistant add to the patient's chart? A. Do-not-resuscitate (DNR) B. Against medical advice (AMA C. Durable power of attorney for healthcare (DPAHC) D. Organ donation card

A. Do-not-resuscitate (DNR)

Which of the following resources should a medical assistant use to obtain the outside laboratory results of a patient? A. Electronic health record (EHR) B. Explanation of benefits (EOB) C. Electronic fund transfers (EFT) D. Electronic medical record (EMR)

A. Electronic health records

Another word for visit is? A. Encounter B. Appointment

A. Encounter

A medical assistant should expect a referral to which of the following allied health professionals for a patient who has an increased hemoglobin A1C level? A. Endocrinologist B. Acupuncturist C. Pathologist D. Radiologist

A. Endocrinologist

Which of the following steps should a medical assistant take in preparation for obtaining a weight measurement from a patient? A. Ensure the scale is balanced. B. Disinfect the scale with cavicide. C. Have the patient remove clothes before measurement. D. Put on gloves.

A. Ensure the scale is balanced.

Which abdominal region lies just distal to the sternum? A. Epigastric B. Umbilical C. Lumbar D. Hypogastric

A. Epigastric The abdominal region that is distal to the sternum would be the epigastric region. There are nine abdominal regions: •The upper three-right hypochondrium, epigastric, and left hypochondrium. • The middle three-right lumbar, umbilical, and left lumbar. The lower three-right iliac, hypogastrium, and left iliac.

Which mannerism is not typical of an anxious patient? A. Eye contact B. Nail biting C. Pacing D. Tapping fingers E. Twirling hair

A. Eye contact

Adipose tissue is made of: A. Fat cells B. Lymph nodes C. Muscles D. Skin

A. Fat cells A person's adipose tissue is made up of fat cells. These fat cells are referred to as adipocytes. They synthesize and contain large globules of fat. These are mainly found under the skin, but can also be between the muscles.

A patient's blood stains a medical assistant's uniform. Which of the following should the medical assistant do first? A. Finish the procedure. B. Report it to the supervisor. C. Clean the area. D. Dispose of the uniform.

A. Finish the procedure

Of the following, which medication would typically be ordered to help a patient to get rid of excess fluid in their lungs? A. Furosemide B. Erythromycin C. Digoxin D. Carvedilol

A. Furosemide Diuretics are sometimes referred to as water pills. There are times, especially if the patient's heart function is not working properly that the patient may need to be administered a diuretic. Examples of diuretics include furosemide (Lasix), bumetanide (Bumex), and acetazolamide (Diamox). Erythromycin is an antibiotic used for infections. Digoxin is often used to treat cardiac failure and irregular heart rhythms. Carvedilol (Coreg) is a beta blocker used for the treatment of congestive heart failure and hypertension.

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who has insulin shock caused by severe hypoglycemia. The assistant should identify that which of the following medications is used to treat this condition? A. Glucose B. Insulin C. Furosemide D. Haloperidol

A. Glucose

A medical assistant is preparing to measure a patient's range of motion. Which of the following devices should the assistant use? A. Goniometer B. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit C. Sphygmomanometer D. Resistance bands

A. Goniometer

Computer ____________ is considered the computer's physical equipment. A. Hardware B. Boot C. Software D. Application

A. Hardware Hardware is considered a computer's physical equipment. Boot is the term that is used for starting a computer. Software generally is the instructions or programming that runs a computer. An application is a group of coordinated functions for a particular benefit to the user.

All of the following are narcotic or narcotic-like analgesics, except: A. Ibuprofen B. Hydrocodone/APAP C. Oxycodone/acetaminophen D. Tramadol

A. Ibuprofen Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory that helps decrease the hormones that can cause pain or inflammation in a person's body. It is widely used and is not a narcotic or narcotic-like analgesic. Hydrocodone/APAP, Oxycodone/acetaminophen, and Tramadol would be considered narcotic or narcotic-like analgesics.

A medical assistant enters the laboratory where a patient is already seated. Which of the following should the assistant do first? A. Identify the patient. B. Wash hands and put gloves on. C. Label the tubes. D. Gather necessary supplies.

A. Identify the patient.

A medical assistant receives a telephone call from a parent whose child has ingested a cleaning solution. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take? A. Instruct the parent to call the Poison Control Center. B. Instruct the parent to contact the manufacturer of the cleaning solution. C. Instruct the parent to induce the vomiting in the child. D. Instruct the parent to have the child drink 240 mL (8 oz) of water.

A. Instruct the parent to call the Poison Control Center.

Contact dermatitis can result as a reaction to which of the following substances? A. Latex gloves B. Oral penicillin C. Tetanus vaccination D. Bleach vapors

A. Latex gloves

A medical assistant has orders to collect blood cultures, CBC, PIT, and an iron panel from a patient. Which of the tubes should the assistant draw second? A. Light blue B. Red marble C. Lavender D. Yellow

A. Light blue

Hepatitis -inflammation: A. Liver B. Heart C. Stomach D. Brain

A. Liver

Which of the following should a medical assistant do while the patient is explaining their symptoms? A. Make eye contact and listen B. Avoid eye contact and listen C. Prepare for the next patient D. Multitask

A. Make eye contact and listen The most important thing a medical assistant can do when a patient is explaining their symptoms is to make eye contact and listen. Many medical assistants will do other things while the patients are talking. This is disrespectful and could lead to misunderstanding of what was said. Anything that a medical assistant does that draws their attention away from the patient while they are speaking would be considered incorrect.

After an infectious agent has infected a new host, which of the following steps is next in the cycle of infection? A. Means of exit B. Mode of transmission C. Means of entry D. Susceptible host

A. Means of exit

Liver dysfunction primarily affects which of the following pharmacokinetic processes? A. Metabolism B. Distribution C. Absorption D. Excretion

A. Metabolism

If a patient has rhinorrhea as a symptom, this means which of the following? A. Mucus discharge from the nose B. Excessive tearing from the eyes C. Excessive drooling D. Excessive fluid in the ears

A. Mucus discharge from the nose. "Rhino" is a prefix used for anything to do with the nose and "rrhea" means flow or discharge. Rhinorrhea is when the mucous glands in the nose are producing more mucus than can be absorbed. Commonly known as a runny nose, it is quite a common symptom. Epiphora is excessive tearing in the eyes. Hypersalivation is excessive drooling. Otitis media causes excessive fluid in the middle ear.

When pain signals are received by the brain, which of the following body systems is alerted to initiate a movement response? A. Muscular B. Cardiovascular D. Digestive D. Integumentary

A. Muscular

A provider is caring for a patient who has a kidney stone. The medical assistant should document this condition as which of the following in the patient's chart? A. Nephrolithiasis B. Nephrosis C. Nephritis D. Nephrosclerosis

A. Nephrolithiasis

A patient's eyes jerk while the patient looks to the left. How do you record this finding? A. Nystagmus B. Cranial nerve VI palsy C. Oculocephalia D. Ophthalmic dyskinesia

A. Nystagmus

In a healthcare facility, which of the following agencies or organizations work to set the standards for the safety of the employees? A. OSHA B. NLN C. AMA D. JCOH

A. OSHA It is extremely important in the healthcare facility for standards to be set for the safety of the employees. The organization that sets these standards is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) which was created in 1970 to help better the working conditions of employees by providing outreach, education, training, and assistance. OSHA is part of the United States Department of Labor. NLN stands for the National League of Nurses. AMA stands for the American Medical Association. JCOH stands for The Joint Commission of Hospitals.

Which of the following should be reported to the safety team to ensure the medical office is prepared for a fire? A. One emergency exit is available. B. Fire extinguishers' pins are intact. C. Multi-plug adapters are not in use. D. Sprinkler heads are unobstructed.

A. One emergency exit is available.

A female comes into the clinic presenting with pain in the abdomen. The doctor notes that this could be dysmenorrhea. Which of the following best describes this diagnosis? A. Painful menstruation B. Fluid-filled sac on the ovary C. A tear or split in the abdominal wall D. Kidney stone

A. Painful menstruation "Dys" means difficulty or pain, "meno" means menses or menstruation, and "rrhea" means discharge or flow. Symptoms of dysmenorrhea typically lasts about three days and will occur in the lower abdomen or pelvis area. A fluid-filled sac on the ovary is called an ovarian cyst. A tear or split in the abdominal wall is called a hernia. A kidney stone is called a nephrolithiasis.

Which of the following outcomes should a medical assistant expect from reinforcing teaching about a new medication treatment plan with a patient? A. Patient compliance. B. Charting accuracy. C. Increased patient defensiveness. D. Decreased medication efficacy.

A. Patient compliance

A medical assistant is preparing to place lower-limb electrodes on a patient who has a left above-the-knee amputation. Which of the following actions should the assistant take when placing the lower-limb electrodes? A. Place the left electrode on the left mid thigh, and place the right electrode on the right mid thigh. B. Place the left electrode on the most distal portion of the left limb, and place the right electrode on the most proximal portion of the right limb. C. Place the left electrode at the most proximal portion of the right limb, and place the right electrode at the most distal portion of the right limb. D. Place the left electrode on the most distal portion of the left limb, and place the right electrode on the right groin.

A. Place the left electrode on the left mid thigh, and place the right electrode on the right mid thigh.

When performing surgical skin preparation, a medical assistant should use which of the following solutions? A. Providone iodine B. 70% isopropyl alcohol C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Topical lidocaine

A. Providone iodine

Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of a medical assistant when scheduling an outpatient surgical procedure? A. Review the risks and benefits of the surgery with the patient to obtain consent. B. Schedule the anesthesiologist for the surgery. C. Provide the patient with specific preoperative directions. D. Instruct the patient to obtain an insurance preauthorization number prior to the surgery.

A. Review the risks and benefits of the surgery with the patient to obtain consent.

A patient consistently shows up late to regularly scheduled office appointments. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take? A. Scheduled the patient for the last appointment of the day. B. Refer the patient to the emergency department. C. Send the patient a discharge letter. D. Schedule the patient with a different provider.

A. Schedule the patient for the last appointment of the day.

A patient is always late for their scheduled appointments. The office manager spoke to the patient about the issue, but it has not changed the patient's behavior. Which of the following is an appropriate next step? A. Always schedule them at the end of the day B. Charge them a late fee C. Force them to find another doctor D. Have a heart-to-heart talk with them about the situation

A. Schedule them at the end of the day. If a patient is perpetually late for appointments, the best course of action is to schedule their appointments at the end of the day. This will give them more of a sense of urgency about getting there on time because if they get here late, the practice will be closed. The question implies that they have already tried speaking to the patient about showing up on time, so having a heart-to-heart does no good. As far as forcing them to find another doctor, there are many people that have severe illnesses and cannot be without a physician. Charging the patient a late fee for showing up late is not a reasonable action, as there was no work done at the time to charge for.

If a patient is tested to determine the antibiotics that a pathogenic is susceptible to, what type of test is being conducted? A. Sensitivity B. Biopsy C. Culture D. Cytology

A. Sensitivity If the aim of testing is to determine if a pathogen is susceptible to an antibiotic, it would be considered a sensitivity test. The test is to determine the pathogen would be considered the culture itself. The Physician's order is typically written for a culture and sensitivity testing. If the physician removes a piece of tissue from the patient to send to be tested, it would be considered a biopsy sample. When the cells are analyzed to determine abnormalities, it is considered cytology.

A medical assistant is preparing the autoclave to sterilize instruments. Which of the following items is required to properly process the instruments? A. Sterilization indicators B. Tap water C. Masking tape D. Cotton balls

A. Sterilization indicators

A medical assistant obtains a pulse rate of 105/min. from a patient who is a marathon runner. Which of the following should the assistant document in the patient's health record? A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Tachypnea D. Bradypnea

A. Tachycardia

A medical assistant has a question about the accreditation standards for the provider's office. Which of the following resources should the assistant consult? A. The Joint Commission B. The Affordable Care Act C. CLIA D. OSHA

A. The Joint Commission

Typically, in a out-patient situation, which of the following is the main reason for the visit shown in the admission record sheet? A. The first listed diagnosis B. The principal diagnosis C. The secondary diagnosis D. The primary symptom

A. The first listed diagnosis Typically, in out-patient care, the reason for the visit is the diagnosis that is listed first in the admission record sheet. On an inpatient basis, the principal diagnosis is used. The secondary diagnosis is only used in an inpatient capacity if it is found to be the more primary diagnosis. The primary symptom is used to help determine a differential diagnosis.

Nutritionists advise reduced intake of trans fats for which of the following reasons? A. They increase levels of low density lipoproteins (LDL) or bad cholesterol. B. They provide more calories than other types of fat. C. They increase the risk of heart disease.

A. They increase levels of low density lipoproteins (LDL) or bad cholesterol. & C. They increase the risk of heart disease.

A provider orders an ESR to be performed on a patient and describes the test to the patient. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. This test measures the distance my RBC's have dropped. B. This test measures my hemoglobin levels. C. This test measures the fluctuation of serum protein. D. This test measures my estrogen serum ratio after menopause.

A. This test measures the distance my RBC's have dropped.

A condition of insufficient blood-clotting cells is referred to as: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Thrombophlebitis C. Erythrocytes D. Erythrocytosis

A. Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia would be considered an inflammation of a vein. Erythrocytes would be the red blood cells, and erythrocytosis would be an increase in the number of a person's red blood cells (polycythemia).

All types of communication act to control behavior. A. True B. False

A. True

If an elderly patient suddenly has an onset of confusion, with no previous disorders or symptoms, what would be the most likely explanation? A. Urinary tract infection B. Dementia C. Hypoglycemia D. Alzheimer's

A. Urinary tract infection A urinary tract infection is considered to be the most common cause of confusion with elderly patients. This type of infection causes inflammation in the person's brain along with temperature changes. Both of these can lead to cognitive changes in the patient. While all these answers can cause confusion, hypoglycemia will typically be noted in the medical history. Dementia and Alzheimer's progress slower and should also be listed in the medical history if they are at an advanced stage.

Proper aseptic technique includes which of the following? A. Using an alcohol-based rub in place of handwashing. B. Disposing of used tourniquets in a sharps container. C. Recycling prefilled syringes.

A. Using an alcohol-based rub in place of handwashing.

The timing for a glucose tolerance test begins? A. When the patient finishes drinking the glucose solution. B. When the fasting sample is drawn. C. When the test results are completed on the fasting sample. D. 30 min. after the patient finishes drinking the glucose solution.

A. When the patient finishes drinking the glucose solution.

A client would not be billed in which of the following situations? A. Where Workers Compensation covers the injury and care B. Where the patient has Blue Cross C. Where the patient has no insurance D. Where there's an indemnity insurance plan

A. Workers Compensation. Workers Compensation covers the injury and care If the client is being seen for a Workers Compensation injury, then the patient would not receive a bill. This bill should be sent to the Worker's Compensation department. If the patient has Blue Cross insurance, no insurance, or Indemnity insurance, they would receive a bill.

A Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind:

A. res gestae B. non compos mentis

Advanced Cardiac Life Support

ACLS Clinical interventions given in an emergency or urgent situation, including for attempting to stabilize a patient in cardia arrest.

Above-the-knee amputation

AKA

In the morning

AM-

Against Medical Advice, or American Medical Association

AMA

aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

ASA

Locations not to useful a venipuncture draw:

Above an I.V catheter insertion site in an arm, (always go below an IV). A arm that has a AV fistula or shunt for hemodialysis, (use opposite side). Arm with a Central Venous Access Device (CVAD, use opposite side). Antecubital fossa on same side as recent mastectomy (use opposite side, if have had a double mastectomy, use the hand). For patient with armcast, sites that have scarring, burns, edema, hematoma, or thrombosed veins.

Superior

Above or directed upward.

Diseases of the Integumentary System:

Abscess Acne Vulgaris Actinic Prurigo Alopecia Argyria Basal Cell Carcinoma Blau Syndrome Cellulitis Dermatitis Eczema Erythropoietic Protoporphyria Folliculitis Harlequin Ichthyosis Herpes Simplex Hives Impetigo Lamellar Ichthyosis Malignant Melanoma Pediculosis Psoriasis Ringworm Rosacea Seborrheic Dermatitis Squamous Cell Carcinoma Superficial fungal infections Syphilis Vitiligo Other skin diseases or changes

Veins in arm are:

Accessory Cephalic vein Basilic Vein Brachial vein Cephalic vein Median Cubital vein (preferred 1st choice) Radial vein Ulnar vein

An unwritten promise to pay a supplier for property or merchandise purchased is:

Accounts Payable

The amount the provider is owed by patients:

Accounts Receivable

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) or The JointCommission (TJC):

Accreditation with TJC helps organization positions for the future of integrated care, strengthen patient safety and quality of care, improve risk management and risk reduction, and provide framework for organizational structure and management.

Diseases of the Lymphatic/Immune System:

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) Celiac Disease Lymphadenitis Lymphadenopathy Lymphangitis Lymphedema Lymphoma - see Tumors & Cysts Mononucleosis Splenomegaly Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Tonsillitis

Defamation:

Act of harming or ruining another's reputation.

Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993:

Act that gave unpaid emergency medical leave for employees with a guarantee that their job would not be taken away in the interim.

Fraudulent:

Actions relate to actions that purposely intend to deceive someone.

Diseases of the Urinary System:

Acute Kidney Failure Chronic Kidney Failure Cystitis (bladder infection) Enlarged Prostate Incontinence Kidney Cysts Kidney Infections Polycystic Kidney Disease Pyelonephritis Renal Calculi (Kidney stones)

Right ear:

Ad

As desired

Ad lib-

Dark Blue-Tube Top (Sodium/EDTA)

Additive: Sodium EDTA mode of action tube is specially designed to contain no contaminating metals, uses trace elements ( lead, zinc, etc) testing and toxicology.

Light Brown-top tube (Sodium/Heparin)

Additive: Sodium heparin, this tube is used for Cytogenetic testing and other routine chemistry tests. Inactivates Thrombin and Thromboplastin. The tube contains Sodium Heparin as an anticoagulant.

Light Blue-top PT tube (Na Citrate) 2 types: Solid light blue or clear light blue.

Additive: anticoagulant sodiuIm citrate (prevents coagulation by binding to calcium in the specimen). Fill tubes completely to maintain the ratio of 9 parts blood to 1 part sodium citrate. Invert tubes gently 3 - 4 times. Common tests: Coagulation tests on plasma - PT (Prothrombin Time - evaluates the extrinsic system of the coagulation cascade & monitors coumadin therapy); APTT/ PTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time - evaluates the intrinsic system of the coagulation cascade & monitors heparin therapy); FDP (Fibrinogen Degradation Products); TT (Thrombin Time); Factor assays; BT (Bleeding Time). Invert 3 to 4 times.

Green-top tube (Sodium/Heparin/ Heparin- Ammonium/Heparin) 2 types: Dark Green or clear Green.

Additive: sodium heparin, lithium heparin, ammonium heparin. Heparin slows down/ stops thrombin in the coagulation cascade. It's not used for hematology because heparin interferes with the Wright's stained blood smear. Tube contains Sodium heparin as an anticoagulant. Lab use: Plasma Chemistry, ammonia level. This tube is used for preparing heparinized plasma, whole blood, and bone marrow specimens. Invert tube 8 times.

Grey-top tube (Sodium Fluoride/Potassium Oxalate) Glucose

Additives = Potassium Oxalate and Sodium Fluoride, mode of action antiglycolytic agent preserves glucoses level for up to 5 days, uses glucoses require full draw, short draw may lead to hematology. Lab uses: Glucose tolerance tests, toxicology determinations, and alcohol levels. Antiglycolytic additives stabilizes glucose values for up to 24 hrs. at room temperature. Tube inversions ensures proper mixing of additive and blood.

Yellow top tube (ACD) solution A; solution B and (SPS) acid citrate dextrose

Additives: ACD (acid citrate dextrose) as an anticoagulant. This tube is used for the collection of whole blood for special studies. Use: paternity testing and DNA studies, HLA phenotypic, tissue typing, and HIV cultures. Additive: sodium polyanetholsulfonate SPS or Acid Citrate Dextrose as an anticoagulant Purpose: it tests blood culture for aerobes and anaerobes/2 VIALS *** SPS aids in the recovery of microorganism by inhibiting the action of complement, phagocytosis and certain antibiotics. Lab use: Whole blood determination Serum in special studies. *** Sterile tube AEROBE FIRST ANAEROBE SECOND FILL 8-10 MLS. Invert 8 times.

Light Green top tube (Gel Lithium Heparin)(PST)

Additives: Plasma separating tube with Lithium/Heparin Polymer gel mode of action anticoagulants with Lithium Heparin Plasma is separated uses Chemistries.

What are the common roles and responsibilities of Medical Assistants?

Administrative duties include greeting patients, handling correspondence, and answering telephones. The clinical duties include obtaining medical histories from patients, explainin g treatments/procedures, drawing laboratory tests, and preparing/administering immunizations.

An medical assistant is reviewing the plan of care summary with the adult son of an 81yr. old patient who has dementia. The patient's son states he is feeling overwhelmed with his mother's care. Which of the following community-based organization should the medical assistant recommend?

Adult day care

What are Aerobic bacteria?

Aerobic bacteria are bacteria that live and reproduce only in an environment containing oxygen that is available for their respiration. They are also the most common causes of clinical infection. Examples include: Myobacterium tuberculosis, Nocardia spp, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Bacillus species.

Posterior (dorsal)

After, behind, following, toward the rear

Using the knowledge of prefixes and suffixes, what does presbyopia mean?

Age related vision loss. Presby = old age, Opia = vision.

Non-modifiable risk factors

Age, gender, family history, and genetics.

What contrast materials are included?

Air, barium, gadolinium and iodine. They can be administered orally, by injection, or IV.

A medical assistant is caring for a child who has the varicella zoster virus. The medical assistant should recognize that varicella is transferred through what mode of transmission?

Airborne. Varicella zoster is transmitted through contact and airborne.

Frazier Suction:

Alias: Nasal suction; neurosuction Use: Suctioning small quantities of fluid; used in small spaces

What are aliquot samples?

Aliquot occurs when a single specimen must be divided into multiple tubes for testing on different equipment. Use a single-use pipette for transfer of the serum from one tube to the other. Always use the pipette to transfer, never pour.

Urgency of appointments:

All calls that come into office should be evaluated and prioritized based on screening process. List of questions should be asked to decide if call is routine, urgent or life-threatening. If considered critical, you should remain on the phone until EMS arrives.

Sending medical records:

All requests for medical records need to be provided in writing and the release filed in to the patient's chart. Patient's attorney, mediator must obtain approval from patient to access patient's medical records but attorney may present durable power of attorney document that authorizes them to view the medical records on behalf of the patient.

A medical assistant is reviewing charges for an in-office procedure. What term describes the maximum reimbursement a third-party payer will provide?

Allowable amount

What is a urine culture test?

Also a common urine test, urine needs to be a clean-catch (midstream) or from a catheter.

What is a Nosocomial Infection?

Also known as a hospital acquired infection or HAI, is an infection whose development is favored by a hospital environment, such as one acquired by a patient during a hospital visit or one developing among hospital staff. Such infections include fungal and bacteria infections and are aggravated by the reduced resistance of individual patients.

Diseases of the Nervous System:

Alzheimer's Disease Bell's Palsey Meningitis (inflammation of meninges) Migraine Headache Multiple Sclerosis (MS) Encephalitis (Inflammation of the brain) Meningoencephalitis (inflammation of both) Parkinson's Disease Seizures Stroke

Which of the following agencies provides membership opportunities to medical assistance as a student or graduates?

American Association of Medical Assistance (AAMA).

Which of the moral codes should a Medical Assistant reference when facing an ethical dilemma?

American Medical Association (AMA) Code of Ethics

Decreased Absorption interaction (Do not take with any food):

Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, Aspirin, Ethromycin, Levodopa, Methotrexate, Phenobarbital, and Tetracycline.

The vertical axis on the EKG paper measures:

Amplitude or voltage

What is a Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)?

An ABN notifies Medicare that the patient acknowledges that certain procedures were provided. It also gives the patient the opportunity to accept or refuse the item or service and protects the patient from unexpected financial liability if Medicare denies payment.

Charge Reconciliation:

An accounting process providing consistent and accurate figures in offices financial accounts.

Tort:

An action that wrongly causes harm to an individual but is not a crime and is dealt within a civil court.

Mutual Assent:

An agreement by all parties to contract; must prove there was an offer and acceptance.

A medical assistant is reviewing charges for an in office procedure. Which of the following terms describes the maximum reimbursement a third-party payer will provide?

An allowable amount.

Equal Pay Act of 1963:

An amendment to the Fair Labor Standards Act, this act requires equal pay for men and women doing equal work.

debit (negative):

An amount recorded on the left side of a T account. Recorded as a addition to expenditure or asset accounts.

What is a Personal Inventory?

An assessment of one's characteristics, skills, qualities, etc.

A medical assistant is preparing to sterilize a vaginal speculum. Which of the following sterilization techniques should the medical assistant use?

An autoclave

Bulimia nervosa:

An eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of uncontrolled binge eating; recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior such as self-induced vomiting, laxative misuse, diuretics, or enemas (purging type), or fasting and/ or excessive exercise.

Hammer:

An instrument used to test reflexes.

What type of health care model is a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)?

An insured person can go directly to a specialist without referrals.

What is the antagonistic effect?

An interaction between two or more drugs that have opposite effects on the body. Drug Antagonism may block or reduce the effectiveness of one or more of the drugs.

What is an Internist?

An internist is a doctor of internal medicine. They're doctors who specialize in the internal organs and systems of the body, but they are not limited to those areas. They can also give preventative care and treat anything from skin rashes to ear infections. They only treat adults and they aren't surgeons.

What is a Peroxisome?

An organelle in the cytoplasm that contains enzymes.

What is the purpose of the mitochondrion in a cell?

An organelle that gives the cells energy.

What is electrophoresis?

Analyzation of the chemical components of blood, e.g. hemoglobin, serum, urine,cerebrospinal Fluid based on electrical charge.

Diseases of the Cardiovascular System:

Angina (unstable) Aneurysm Atherosclerosis Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) Hypertension Mitral Valve Prolapse Myocardial Infarction (heart attack) Peripheral Vascular Disease Thrombophlebitis

Most Common Injuries:

Anterior Cruciate Ligament Injury (ACL injury in the knee) Bone Fracture Concussion Joint Dislocation Lateral Epicondylitis (tennis elbow) Muscle Strain Rotator Cuff Tear

(ACD) Acid Citrate Dextrose (Primary function):

Anticoagulant

(CPD) Citrate Phosphate Dextrose (Primary function):

Anticoagulant

(SPS) Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (Primary function):

Anticoagulant

EDTA (Primary function):

Anticoagulant

Heparin (Primary function):

Anticoagulant

Potassium oxalate (Primary function):

Anticoagulant

Sodium citrate (Primary function):

Anticoagulant

Sodium fluoride (Primary function):

Antiglycolytic agent

Medication to reduce a fever is called a(n) _______________.

Antipyretic

The blood vessels include:

Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, and superior & inferior vena cava.

Used in determining the heart rate of infants.

Apical pulse

How do you take an Apical pulse?

Apical pulse is auscultated with a stethoscope over the chest where the heart's mitral valve is best heard. ▪︎(In infants and young children, the Apical pulse is located at the fourth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line). ▪︎(In adults, the Apical pulse is located at the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line). 1.) Place the diaphragm or bell of the stethoscope over the apex of the heart. 2.) Using the stethoscope, listen and count the Apical pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2 or for 60 seconds if the rhythm is irregular.

Diseases of the Digestive System:

Appendicitis Cirrhosis of the Liver Choleithiasis (gall stones) Colitis (inflammation of the large intestines) Constipation Crohn's Disease Diverticulitis Hemorrhoids Hiatal Hernia Stomach Ulcer

CPOE (Computerized Physician Order Entry):

Application used by physicians and other health care providers to enter patient care information. Also provides support tools that result in improved care and patient outcomes. Includes (Lab & Radiology orders)

Tonsil Scissors:

Are a common dissecting scissors used in tonsillectomy procedures. The slender blade allows the surgeon to excise the desired tissue from the underlying fascia quickly and effectively.

Babcock Intestinal Forceps:

Are a finger ring, ratcheted, non-perforating forceps used to gently hold the viable intestinal mucosa, omental fat, peritoneal membranes and fascia during bowel surgery such as intestinal reaction, appendectomy, ileostomy, and colostomy. The Babcock Intestinal and tissue grasping forceps have two long and straight blades that end in curved fenestrated jaws which are finely serrated to ensure minimal tissue trauma. (Babcock Intestinal Forceps are similar to Allis Tissue Forceps).

Helstead Mosquito Forceps:

Are commonly used as a hemostatic agent to compress smaller vessels that regulate blood flow. Made of the finest German stainless steel. Surgical grade to provide the highest level of craftsmanship (manufactured by Medline).

Adson Tissue Forceps:

Are designed for grasping delicate tissues, and they have 1X2 teeth.

Iris Forceps:

Are designed for use in ophthalmologic work. The Iris dressing forceps are serrated and the Iris tissue forceps have 1X2 teeth.

Rochester-Pean Hemostatic Forceps:

Are designed with full horizontal serrations for clamping larger tissue and vessels.

What is Comorbidities?

Are diseases or conditions in one person at the same time. Often chronic in nature. Multiple health issues can make diagnosis and treatment more difficult.

Crile Hemostatic Forceps:

Are larger and less delicate than mosquito forceps. These forceps have transverse serrations along the entire length of the jaws surface and are available with straight or curved jaws. These instruments are often used for the occlusion of small to medium sized vessels.

Participating providers:

Are not allowed to bill Medicaid patients for their cost of treatment over what is reimbursed for cover services. The providers must accept the contracted amount agreed upon by the insurance company and patient can only be billed for deductible, copay, or coinsurance.

Hartman Mosquito Forceps:

Are used as hemostats for clamping small blood vessels and in fine tissue dissection when the incision is shallow. Use them to clamp small blood vessels or hold fine sutures.

Vascular Clamps:

Are used to restrict blood flow across the aorta, veins, and arteries during surgical procedures. The versatile clamp is used to reduce the blood flow during surgeries.

Federal Truth in Lending Act:

Arranges for payments that extend longer than 4 months and is used by the physician to guarantee payment by a patient who is not covered by insurance or Medicare/Medicaid.

Reverse chronological order (newest first):

Arranging documents with the most recent document on top or in the front, which means that the oldest document is on the bottom or at the back of a section or file.

Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System:

Arthritis Bursitis Ewings Sarcoma (family of tumors) Fibromyalgia Gout Kyphosis Lordosis Muscular Dystrophy Myasthenia Gravis Osteoarthritis Osteogenesis Imperfecta (brittle bone disease) Osteoporosis Osteosarcoma Paget's Disease Rheumatoid Arthritis Scoliosis Tendinitis Tetanus

Arthroscope:

Arthroscope is a surgical procedure orthopaedic surgeons use to visualize, diagnose, and treat problems inside a joint. The word arthroscopy comes from two Greek words, "arthro" (joint) and "skopein"(to look). The term literally means "to look within the joint."

Left ear:

As

What is ventricular repolarization?

As pressure in the ventricles rises above two major arteries, blood pushes open the two semilunar valves and moves into the pulmonary trunk and aorta in the ventricular ejection phase. Following ventricular repolarization, the ventricles begin to relax (ventricular diastole), and pressure within the ventricles drops.

If the patient's hands are too cold when taking pulse oximetry and you get a false reading that may be too low, what can you do to improve this?

Ask patient if they can warm up their hands by rubbing them together.

How to use a distance vision acuity chart:

Ask patients to read chart from 20 feet away, at this distance, the symbols on the line representing "normal" acuity suited an angle of 5 minutes of arc. This line, designated 20/20, is the smallest line that a person with normal acuity can read at a distance of 20 feet. Testing eyes separately and together. The result is the line at which the patient can clearly see the letters/pictures.

How to use a near vision acuity chart

Ask patients to read printed materials 14 to 16 inches away from eyes without corrective lenses, testing each eye separately and then together. The result is the level at which the patient reads the smallest print clearly.

If the physician is behind and a patient has been waiting past their scheduled app't, the CMA should ____________________

Ask the patient if they want to reschedule.

Properties owned by the business, such as supplies and equipment are known as:

Assets

Assets and Liabilities:

Assets: Anything of value owned by a company. Liabilities: Obligations to be paid to creditors.

Numerical:

Assigning numbers computerized systems need cross-reference

A patient request a female provider to perform her examination due to a religious conviction but a female provider is not available. What is an appropriate response of the medical assistant?

Assist the patient in locating a provider to accommodate the patient's needs. The medical assistant should make every effort to accommodate the patient.

Which of the following actions is important for a medical assistant to take surge patients effectively?

Assist the patient with locating appropriate community resources.

Diseases of the Respiratory System:

Asthma Atelectasis Chronic Bronchitis Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Coronavirus (Covid19) Disease (COPD) Influenza Emphysema Legionaires Disease Lung Cancer Pneumonia Pulmonary Edema Pulmonary Embolism Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) Tuberculosis

Both ears:

Au

What allows a patient to confirm or cancel an appointment remotely?

Automated call routing

Recalls (electronic or manual):

Automated call routing system offers patients the options of cancelling, confirming, or rescheduling an appointment. You should contact patients that have cancelled to reschedule.

The one advantage to the ambulatory care setting that accepts credit/debit cards is that monies for fees charged usually are:

Available within 24 hours.

A medical assistant is reinforcing teaching about a 24-hr Holter monitor test with a patient. Which of the following statements should the assistant include in the teaching? A. "Avoid any physical exertion while wearing the electrodes." B. "Avoid getting the electrodes wet." C. "Ensure that you get an additional 2 hours of sleep during the test." D. "Minimize your salt intake during the test."

B. "Avoid getting the electrodes wet."

Which therapeutic communication technique should the nurse use when communicating with a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations? A. "My sister has the same diagnosis as you and she also hears voices." B. "I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices." C. "Why not turn up the radio so that the voices are muted." D. "I wouldn't worry about these voices. The medication will make them disappear."

B. "I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices."

A medical assistant is obtaining a blood pressure reading from an adult patient. For which of the following readings should the assistant contact the provider? A. 100/60 mm Hg B. 104/45 mm Hg C. 122/60 mm Hg D. 98/68 mm Hg

B. 104/45 mm Hg

Normal B/P for an adult? A. 160/90 B. 120/80

B. 120/80

A medical assistant is submitting an urgent referral request to an insurance company for authorization. Which of the following describes how long the authorization process will take? A. 3 working days B. 24 hrs. C. 10 days D. Immediate approval via phone

B. 24 hrs.

Which non-verbal clue signals that a patient is confused? A. A firm handshake B. A furrowed brow C. Arms at their sides D. Direct eye contact E. Leaning forward

B. A furrowed brow

The partner of a patient comes into the office demanding to know what the patient was seen for and why he was charged for the visit. What is the best way for the medical assistant to handle this situation when no Authorization to Release Health Information is on file? A. Reassure him that he has nothing to worry about since his partner's visit was only a follow-up to a minor surgery. B. Advise him that privacy regulations prevent from releasing patient information regardless of his relationship to the patient. C. Verbally share the patient information with him since he is the subscriber on the patient's medical insurance. D. Instruct him to provide proof of identity prior to providing the requested information.

B. Advise him that privacy regulations prevent from releasing patient information regardless of his relationship to the patient.

Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in one-celled air sacs called: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Capillaries D. Pleurae

B. Alveoli The alveoli is a one-celled air sac in the lungs where the air exchange takes place. The bronchi are the two large air passages that lead from the lungs to the trachea. The capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body. These carry blood from the arterioles to the venules. The double-layer membrane which separates the lungs from the chest wall would be the pleura.

Which of the following classifications of medications would be helpful in treating the patient that is complaining of heartburn? A. Beta blockers B. Antacids C. Analgesics D. Antibiotics

B. Antacids Antacids are used to help with the problem of heartburn. There is a variety of medications in this classification that are available over-the-counter and, at times, the physician will prescribe one that is not over-the-counter. Beta blockers are used to treat cardiac problems. Analgesics are used for the treatment of pain. Antibiotics are typically used to treat different forms of infections.

Of the following structures, which would be located in the mediastinum? A. Occipital B. Aorta C. Left carotid artery D. Pancreas

B. Aorta The mediastinum is the central area of the thoracic cavity. It includes the heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, and other parts of the central chest. The aorta is the main artery of the circulatory system and starts at the lop left ventricle of the heart. The occipital lobe is in the brain, the left carotid artery is in the neck, and the pancreas is in the abdomen.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when performing a capillary puncture? A. Puncture parallel to the fingerprint. B. Apply even pressure to the finger during the collection. C. Wipe away the first five drops of blood after puncturing. D. Puncture the index finger at the tip.

B. Apply even pressure to the finger during the collection.

Which of the following clinical situations requires a medical assistant to apply sterile gloves? A. Obtaining a throat culture. B. Assisting in suturing C. Assisting in an endoscope D. Pouring sterile solutions during a procedure.

B. Assisting in suturing

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for an EKG. What should the assistant do if the electrodes' adhesives appear to be ineffective? A. Clean the skin with conductive gel. B. Attach the leads with cloth tape. C. Clean the skin with a cavicide wipe. D. Attach the leads with butterfly closures.

B. Attach the leads with cloth tape.

Which of the following terms is spelled incorrectly? A. Bacterial B. Bacteriolagy C. Bacteriocidal D. Bacterium

B. Bacteriolagy Bacteriolagy is spelled incorrectly. It should be bacteriology instead. Bacterial, bacteriocidal, and bacterium are spelled correctly.

If a medical assistant touches a patient with the intention of harming them, it would be considered which of the following? A. Malpractice B. Battery C. Harassment D. Assault

B. Battery Battery occurs when a person touches another person with the intentions of causing them harm. The threat of harm is considered assault. Malpractice would be considered the failure of the professional to meet the standards of care or conduct that their profession recognizes. Harassment would be considered when a person subjects another to remarks, actions, or intimidation.

A patient who has a health maintenance organization insurance plan requests an appointment for a skin procedure. At which of the following times should the authorization for this procedure be approved? A. Before the start of the next billing cycle. B. Before the start of the procedure. C. By the end of the procedure. D. By the end of the day.

B. Before the start of the procedure

While setting up a tray for a minor procedure, the medical assistant notices a coworker reaching across the sterile field to get something. The assistant should: A. Cover the tray with a sterile drape. B. Break down the tray and start over. C. Replace the sterile instruments. D. Report the incident to the provider.

B. Break down the tray and start ovet.

A medical assistant who is screening for depression should identify which of the following as a common manifestation? A. Increased energy B. Decreased appetite C. Uninterrupted sleep pattern D. Improved mental acuity

B. Decreased appetite

A medical assistant should identify that which of the following can result from stress due to financial trouble? A. Midlife crisis B. Depression C. White coat syndrome D. Failure to thrive

B. Depression

A medical assistant is preparing to administer an eye solution for irrigation. After verifying the provider's prescription, which the following actions should the assistant take next? A. Moisten a gauze square. B. Disinfect the patient's lower eyelid. C. Ensure the patient is in a seated position. D. Check the expiration date of the solution.

B. Disinfect the patient's lower eyelid.

When pathogenic organisms are killed or destroyed, it is called which of the following terms? A. Asepsis B. Disinfection C. Antisepsis D. Cleaning

B. Disinfection Disinfection kills all of the pathogenic organisms. This process is typically done using chemicals to get the result desired. Asepsis is the absence of microorganisms that cause disease. Antisepsis is when the growth of the pathogenic organisms is inhibited. While this is effective, it does not work against viruses or spores. Cleaning is considered the removal of debris which helps prevent the spread of dust-borne contaminants.

If a paper medical record needs to be corrected, which of the following would be an acceptable way to make a correction? A. Erase the portion of note that needs to be corrected B. Draw one line through the portion of the note that needs to be corrected and initial it. C. Use white out on the incorrect entry. D. Shred that page of the chart

B. Draw one line through the portion of the note that needs to be corrected and initial it. If a correction is needed on a patient's paper chart, a single line needs to be made through the incorrect portion and then the person making the correction needs to date, time and initial it. The correction is typically made above the incorrect portion. Information on a patient's paper chart should never be erased and white-out is never used. The page would not be destroyed.

A medical assistant is looking up diagnostic codes. Which of the following parts of the diagnostic statement should the assistant use when searching in the alphabetical index? A. Modifying term B. E-code C. Subterm D. Main term

B. E-code

If a patient has end-stage renal disease, which of the following acronyms would be used when coding? A. EnStReDi B. ESRD C. End Stage RD D. ES Renal Disease

B. ESRD End-stage renal disease would be listed as ESRD in medical coding. They may also call it chronic kidney disease stage 5 (CKD 5). None of the other abbreviations in the list are used in medical coding.

Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following? A. Androgens B. Electrolytes C. Estrogens D. Prostaglandins

B. Electrolytes Calcium, potassium, and sodium would be classified as electrolytes. There are several others which could include for example: glucose, ammonia, and magnesium chloride. Androgens would be considered steroid hormones that help with male secondary sex characters. Estrogens are a group of sex hormones that play a major role in the sexual/reproductive development especially with women. Prostaglandins are a natural chemical in the body that has hormone-like qualities.

A medical assistant is checking a patient out at the reception desk after her scheduled appointment. Which of the following documents should the assistant check to confirm when the provider would like to have the patient return to the clinic? A. Written prescription B. Encounter form C. Diagnostic report D. Laboratory requisition

B. Encounter form

Which of the following factors increases the risk for developing Crohn's disease? A. Residence in a rural area. B. Family history. C. Advanced age. D. Hispanic ethnicity.

B. Family history

Which bone is found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium? A. Calcaneus B. Femur C. Ulna D. Tibia

B. Femur The femur is found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium. This is the upper leg long bone that extends inferior from the ischium and superior to the patella.

If a clinic charges a patient's insurance for treatments that were not done, it would be considered which of the following? A. Malpractice B. Fraud C. Assault D. Embezzlement

B. Fraud Charging patient's insurance companies for treatments and/or procedures that were never performed would be considered fraud. If Medicare or Medicaid is billed it would be considered Medicare fraud or Medicaid fraud. Malpractice is the failure of the professional to meet the standards of care or conduct that their profession recognizes. Assault would be considered when one person threatens to touch another person to cause them bodily harm. Embezzlement is when a person misapproppriates the funds or belongings of their employer or in other words "theft."

When washing hands, the three most important factors include: A. Antibacterial soap, length of time spent, and hot water B. Friction, soap, and warm running water C. Position of the hands, friction and water temperature. D. Length of time spent, type of soap, and running water

B. Friction, soap, and warm running water. Washing hands in a healthcare facility is considered the most important step in the prevention of spreading infections. This should be done before touching a patient and when leaving the patient's room and anytime the hands are considered soiled.

Which of the following terms is spelled correctly? A. Gastrointestinel B. Gastrointestinal C. Gastrointestinol D. Gastrointestinul

B. Gastrointestinal The gastrointestinal tract consists of the mouth, esophagus, stomach, and then the intestines. It consists of taking food in, digesting it, and expelling it.

A medical assistant schedules three patients to arrive at the same time for each hour of the day, and each patient is seen in the order they arrive. Which scheduling style is the assistant using? A. Advance booking B. Grouping C. Wave D. Block

B. Grouping

Which of the following terms describes a situation in which a medical assistant codes at a greater level than the services provided? A. Upcoding B. HCPCS C. CPT code D. Transmit code

B. HCPCS

A patient is diagnosed with a blood clot in their left lower leg and is hospitalized. Which of the following would more than likely be prescribed for the patient per intravenous solution? A. Warfarin B. Heparin C. Enoxaparin D. Furosemide

B. Heparin With this patient, the first treatment of choice would more than likely include an intravenous heparin infusion. Heparin is considered to be an anticoagulant that helps the body prevent the formation of further blood clot. After a few days, the patient would likely be placed on Enoxaprin (Lovcnox) per subq injection, oral warfarin (Coumadin), or another type of oral agent. Warfarin is administered orally and Enoxaprin is administered by subq injection. Furosemide is a diuretic that is typically prescribed to get rid of excess fluid in the body.

Giving the patient adequate information concerning the method, risk, and consequences prior to a procedure is called? A. Tort B. Informed consent C. Right to know D. Confidentiality

B. Informed consent

A medical procedure cannot be performed on a patient until the doctor obtains _____________. A. Confidentiality B. Informed consent C. Insurance authorization D. Vital statistics

B. Informed consent An informed consent should be obtained prior to a medical procedure being performed by the physician. If this consent is not obtained, the procedure could legally be considered assault and battery. The physician is the person that is ultimately responsible for obtaining the informed consent and should always follow the policies and procedures of the facility when obtaining this consent. Confidentiality should always be observed with any patient, but is not something that would need to be obtained prior to a medical procedure. According to the insurance company, prior authorization may be needed for the procedure, but would not stop the procedure from being done. Vital statistics are not always necessary prior to a procedure being performed. It would be according to which procedure is being performed.

Which of the following charts would be used to test for color vision? A. Jaeger chart B. Ishihara chart C. E chart D. Snellen chart

B. Ishihara chart

Which of the following would be indicated if a patient came in with arthralgia? A. Trouble swallowing B. Joint pain C. Inflammation to a sweat gland D. A headache

B. Joint pain "Artho" means to do with a joint or articulation and "algia" indicates pain. This is quite a broad term indicating pain in any joint in the body. Aphasia is the inability to swallow. Hidradenitis is an inflammation in a sweat gland. Cephalgia is a headache.

For a medical assistant, which aspect of an exam room practice precedes the other listed techniques? A. Treating B. Listening C. Problem-solving D. Procedure

B. Listening One of the most important things that you can do in the exam room is listen. If you are not listening and documenting each complaint or symptom, then there could be a misdiagnosis. While all of the above answers are feasible, the other three would come as a result of listening.

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who expresses a desire to donate their organs for scientific study in the event of their death. The assistant should provide the patient with information about which of the following documents? A. Durable Power of Attorney B. Living Will C. Informed consent D. Notice of Privacy Practices

B. Living Will

Which of the following techniques can the medical assistant use to convey positive communication? A. Interrupt patients while they speak B. Maintain eye contact C. Mumble D. Speak sharply E. Treat patients objectively

B. Maintain eye contact

Which of the following is a legal tort that involves deception with the intent to deprive another person of their rights? A. Fraud B. Negligence C. Battery D. Defamation

B. Negligence

Of the following, which would not be considered to be part of effective communication? A. Message B. Noise C. Sender D. Feedback

B. Noise Noise is not considered a part of communication. The parts of communication would include: content, message, sender, how message was sent, receiver, and feedback.

If a medical record is problem-oriented (POMR), this means that each medical condition is assigned which of the following? A. Letters B. Numbers C. Time D. Date

B. Numbers If a medical record is a problem-oriented medical record (POMR), each condition is assigned a number for tracking purposes. The POMR, as they are called, allows the doctor a better structure for recording their notes. The chronological medical record uses date and time. The alphabetical method is typically used more so on paper records which tends to take up a lot of shelf space or cabinets.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when communicating with an older adult patient? A. Interrupt the patient to ask for clarification. B. Observe the patient's non-verbal cues indicating understanding. C. Use endearing terms such as "honey" or "sweetie." D. Ask questions that require a simple "yes" or "no" answer.

B. Observe the patient's non-verbal cues indicating understanding.

Which cranial nerve is related to the sense of smell? A. Hypoglossal B. Olfactory C. Trochlear D. Vagus

B. Olfactory The cranial nerve that is related to the sense of smell would be the olfactory nerve which is cranial nerve 1 or CN1. The 12th cranial nerve is the hypoglossal which controls the person's tongue movement. The 4th cranial nerve is the trochlear which controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye. The 10th cranial nerve is the vagus which interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the lungs, heart, and digestive tract.

A medical assistant is preparing an examination room for a patient who reports ear pain and nausea. Which of the following pieces of equipment should the assistant place in the room for the examination? A. Biopsy punch B. Otoscope C. Ophthalmoscope D. Percussion hammer

B. Otoscope

Which of the following would be used to indicate someone has taken a file from the filing cabinet? A. Patient chart B. Outguide C. Tickler file D. Summary form

B. Outguide The outguide is used to indicate when a person takes a file from the file cabinet. This is a filing system that some healthcare facilities use to help identify and control files/x-rays that have been removed. The removal could be documented in the patient chart or summary form, but this would not be a good system for the tracking of files. The tickler file is a system that helps remind staff to do something at a future date.

If a man comes into the clinic and the doctor observes that he has gynecomastia, it would point to which of the following? A. Swollen glands in the neck B. Overdevelopment of breast tissue C. A blood clot in the leg D. D. Kidney stones

B. Overdevelopment of breast tissue "Gyne" is used to describe anything female and "mastia" refers to the breast. This condition is specific to men in that there is an overdevelopment of the breast tissue and the chest looks more feminine. There are many things that can cause this ranging from steroid use to a hormonal imbalance. Lymphadenopathy is swollen lymph nodes. Deep vein thrombosis is a blood clot in the leg. Nephrolithiasis is the term for kidney stones.

Which of the following medication routes does a medical assistant administer topically? A. Transdermal B. Percutaneous C. Subcutaneous D. Intramuscular

B. Percutaneous

A medical assistant is preparing to review the medication dosages and instructions for a patient who has just seen the provider. Which of the following parts of the progress note should the assistant review for this information? A. Objective data B. Plan of care C. Assessment of the problem D. Subjective data

B. Plan of care

A medical assistant has assisted the provider in completing a cyst removal in-office. Before the patient is released, which of the following documents should the assistant give to the patient? A. Informed consent document B. Postprocedural instructions C. Itemized surgical bill D. Pathology requisition form

B. Postprocedural instructions

A medical assistant has a patient who has a PPO insurance plan. The provider would like the patient to see a cardiologist. Which of the following forms should the medical assistant use for this request? A. Verification of eligibility B. Referral C. Pre-certification D. Authorization

B. Referral

Which of the following should a medical assistant instruct a patient to do before a scheduled pulmonary function test? A. Consume dairy products in limited amounts B. Refrain from using bronchodilators C. Undergo a nebulizer treatment 3 hrs. before the test begins D. Perform a cardiac stress test prior to arrival

B. Refrain from using bronchodilators

Which of the following is a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus? A. Renal calculi B. Retinopathy C. Deafness D. Acute appendicitis

B. Retinopathy

What is the body's natural pacemaker? A. Right atrium B. SA node C. NA node

B. SA node

When someone listens for particular things and blocks out what they do not want to hear: A. Full listening B. Selective listening C. False listening D. Listening barrier

B. Selective listening Selective listening is when the listener blocks out the parts of the message that they do not want to hear. This is not a good listening style as one needs to listen and respond to the entire message when treating patients. Just because you're hearing something, it doesn't mean you're listening to it. Hearing is just the act of receiving the sound waves. Listening means that you are listening to the entire message and that you are sensing, evaluating, and responding to what is heard. This is called full listening. False listening is pretending to listen (like with a smile or a nod), but you are not hearing anything. A listening barrier is either a cultural, physical, or mental form of interference.

Which of the following is the route of transmission for syphilis? A. Respiratory droplets B. Sexual contact C. Contaminated food D. Tick bite

B. Sexual contact

A Medical assistant is preparing to attach electrodes to a patient for Holter monitoring. Which of the following actions should the assistant take when preparing a site for electrode placement? A. Cleanse the site with chlorhexidine. B. Shave any body hair at the site. C. Apply electroconductive gel to the site. D. Mark the site with a permanent marker.

B. Shave any body hair at the site.

When a clinic writes a statement which sets the level of care that is to be provided, it would be considered which of the following? A. Mission B. Standard C. Objective D. Requirement

B. Standard When a clinic or other healthcare facility writes statements which states or sets the level of care that is to be provided, it would be considered standards or standards of care.

Which of the following items is necessary for a postoperative suture removal procedure? A. 1-mL syringe with an 18-gauge needle. B. Sterile thumb dressing forceps. C. 4-by-4-inch benzalkonium wipes. D. Sterile needle holder.

B. Sterile thumb dressing forceps

The point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another is: A. Nerve center B. Synapse C. Dendrite D. Terminal plate

B. Synapse The synapse would be considered the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another. This is a small gap that exists between the neurons. The nerve center is where there is a group of nerves connected to each other. The neuron consists of projections referred to as axons and dendrites. The dendrites work by bringing information to the neuron. The axons take information away from the neuron. At the terminal plate is where an impulse travels from the neuron to the muscle.

A patient reports sweating, flushed extremities, ringing in his ears, and dizziness during his last blood draw. Which of the following should the medical assistant recognize as the greatest risk for the patient while performing a venipuncture? A. Neuritis B. Syncope C. Hematoma D. Neuropathy

B. Syncope

A medical assistant just placed a Holter monitor on a patient. Which of the following information should the assistant include in the teaching about the monitor? A. The monitor records menstruation cycle. B. The monitor records usage of an underwire bra. C. The monitor records daily calorie intake. D. The monitor records emotional upsets.

B. The monitor records usage of an underwire bra.

A medical assistant is obtaining pregnancy test results for a 15-year-old patient. The test is negative. To whom should the assistant provide the discharge papers? A. Health department. B. The patient C. Patient's legal guardian D. Medicaid office

B. The patient

Which of the following planes divides the body into superior and inferior portions? A. Sagittal B. Transverse C. Coronal D. Frontal

B. Transverse

Which of the following would be considered a part of the large intestine? A. Ileum B. Transverse colon C. Duodenum D. Jejunum

B. Transverse colon The transverse colon is part of the large intestines, along with the ascending colon and descending colon. The large intestine is considered to be the colon which also includes the sigmoid colon and the rectum. The small intestines consist of the ileum, duodenum, and the jejunum. The length of the small intestines can vary from 32 feet to 34 feet.

A cystoscope is mostly commonly used by a specialist in: A. Endocrinology B. Urology C. Gynecology D. Gastroenterology

B. Urology A cystoscope is most commonly used by a specialist in the field of urology. This is a thin tube with a light on the end of it that the specialist uses to check the urethra and bladder of the patient. The endocrinologist uses a endoscope. The gynecologist typically uses a speculum. A gastroenterologist uses a colonoscope.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when communicating with a patient who speaks a different language than the assistant? A. Talk at a louder volume. B. Use explanatory gestures. C. Notify the provider. D. Maintain a closed posture.

B. Use explanatory gestures.

A medical assistant has performed quality control testing on urine dipstick tests, which has failed to produce the required control results as per the package insert. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? A. Warm the reagent solution and retest. B. Verify the reagent solution expiration date C. Dilute solution before retesting D. Chill the solution before retesting

B. Verify the reagent solution expiration date

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when performing a capillary puncture on a 10-month-old patient? A. Place a bandage on the site after holding pressure for 1 min. B. Warm the site for a minimum of 10 min. prior to puncture. C. Have the parent hold the child during the procedure. D. Apply direct, firm pressure to the puncture site on the finger.

B. Warm the site for a minimum of 10 min. prior to puncture.

What type of booking or scheduling is used if a medical assistant brings multiple patients into the office at the top an hour to see their health care professional and they are seen on a first come, first served basis? A. Double booking B. Wave scheduling C. Standard procedure D. Time-specific scheduling

B. Wave scheduling Wave scheduling is a method where multiple patients are scheduled to see the doctor at the beginning of the hour instead of every 15 to 20 minutes. Patients are then seen on a first-come, first served basis. This has become a norm at many doctor's offices. You could argue with live scheduling is the standard procedure, but this is not what the process is called. Double booking would not apply in this case because you are not booking two people at the same exact time. Time-specific scheduling would not fit in this case because that is where you have an exact time for every appointment.

When complying with standard precautions, which of the following is an appropriate action for a medical assistant to take? A. Using disposable gloves while obtaining vitals. B. Wearing goggles when processing blood specimens. C. Wearing a gown while shaving a patient for an EKG. D. Using a 10% glutaraldehyde solution for hand asepsis.

B. Wearing goggles when processing blood specimens.

If medication of a patient or resident is indicated as PRN, it is given: A. Once a day B. When necessary C. By mouth only D. To discontinue use

B. When necessary PRN means "pro re nata" which is Latin for "when necessary." Medications that are given PRN are not on a particular routine schedule. P.O. is Latin for "per os" which means by mouth. Q.D stands for "quague die" which means once a day. D/C is the abbreviation for discontinued when in reference to medication.

Below-the-knee amputation

BKA

Common categories of microorganisms included are:

Bacteria Viruses Fungi Protozoa Multicellular parasites

What are Anaerobic bacteria?

Bacteria that can live without oxygen. In humans, these bacteria are most commonly found in the GI tract. They play a role in conditions such as appendicitis, diverticulitis, and perforation of the bowel.

What is Basal State as a pre-test prep (lab test)?

Based on the patient's lifestyle and overall condition. Specimens typically collected first thing in the morning, after no eating, or exercising for 12 hrs. Necessary when the provider wants to establish reference ranges. A person's basal state is dependent on their schedule.

Understanding the cell structure requires:

Basic knowledge of chemistry, which is the study of, what makes up matter and how it changes.

When should the code on the glucose cuvette be compared to the code on the glucometer?

Before a patient is tested

QT interval represents:

Beginning of Q to end of T, ventricular depolarization → ventricular repolarization (automated contraction).

Diseases of the Reproductive System:

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) Cervical Cancer Endometriosis Hydrocele Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Prostate Cancer Sexually Transmitted Infections

Citrate (Type of action):

Binds calcium

EDTA (Type of action):

Binds calcium

Potassium Oxalate (Type of action):

Binds calcium

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on the left shoulder is:

Black

A urine reagent testing hemoglobin can indicate:

Bleeding, infection, kidney disease, cancer, or chemical poisioning.

Which of the following insurance providers is the oldest and largest system independent health care insurers in the United States?

Blue Cross Blue Sheild (BCBS)

Administrative laws:

Body of law in the form of decision, rules, regulations, and orders created by administrative agencies under the direction of the executive branch of the government, used to carry out the duties of such agencies. Examples of these administrative bodies include some of the following: Social Security Administration; Employment/Labor Boards; Unemployment Insurance Agencies; Workers' Compensation Boards; Licensing Agencies; Equal Opportunity Commissions (EEOC); Food and Drug Administration (FDA); Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC); Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA); and Zoning Boards.

What is the difference between EMR & EHR?

Both an EMR & EHR are digital records of patient health information (PHI). AN EMR is best understood as a digital version of a patient's chart. It contains the patient's medical and treatment history from one practice. Usually, this digital record stays in the doctor's office and does not get shared. If a patient switches doctors, his or her EMR is unlikely to follow. By contrast, an EHR contains the patient's records from multiple docctors and provides a more holistic, long-term view of a patient's health. It includes their demographics, test results, medical history, history of present illness (HPI), and medications.

A medical assistant is preparing to perform a rapid strep test. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

Bring the reagents and devices to room temperature.

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on V4 is:

Brown/Blue

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on V3 is:

Brown/Green

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on V5 is:

Brown/Orange

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on V6 is:

Brown/Purple

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on V1 is:

Brown/Red

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on V2 is:

Brown/Yellow

Bruno Speculum:

Bruno Speculum is a modified Graves speculum with a shortened anterior blade. It can be as wide as a Graves or as narrow as a Pederson or a Huffman speculum, and it can be modified to be open-sided like a Miller speculum or angulated like a Cusco or a Collin.

Per-

By means of, through

A medical assistant is confirming that a patient is in the basal state prior to a procedure. Which of the following responses by the patient is acceptable? A. "I have not slept for the past 8 hours." B. "I have not taken any medications for 10 hours." C. "I have not eaten anything for 12 hours." D. "I have not voided for 4 hours."

C. "I have not eaten anything for 12 hours."

A medical assistant notices a patient on tomorrow's schedule has an account balance of $15.00. The patient's copayment is $20.00. Which of the following amounts is the minimum that the assistant should collect from the patient on the day of the appointment? A. $5.00 B. $40.00 C. $20.00 D. $15.00

C. $20.00

A medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a child who weighs 50 Ibs. to calculate the correct dosage, the assistant should determine that which of the following is the weight of the child in kg? A. 23.7 kg B. 21.2 kg C. 22.7 kg D. 24 kg

C. 22.7 kg

Which of the following needle sizes should a medical assistant select for an intradermal injection? A. 7 to 20 gauge B. 13 to 16 gauge C. 25 to 28 gauge D. 21 to 24 gauge

C. 25 to 28 gauge

Once an employee is hired, within how many days does the employer have by Federal law to have the I-9 form completed and verified? A. 30 business days B. 14 business days C. 3 business days D. Within the first year

C. 3 business days When an employer hires an employee, they must get a I-9 form filled out. Once this is completed and verified with the proper identification, the employer must have them on file within three business days of hire. The employer must keep them for a designated length of time and have them available for government inspection if requested.

If a patient is prescribed a diabetic agent such as Metformin, which of the following reactions should the patient expect to experience? A. An increase in their blood glucose level B. A decrease in their blood pressure C. A decrease in their blood glucose level D. Vomiting

C. A decrease in their blood glucose level Diabetes can lead to a patient experiencing a high blood glucose level. If the patient is administered a diabetic agent, they should experience a decrease in their serum blood glucose level. These agents are typically administered either orally or by injections. In emergency situations, regular insulin can be administered intravenously to help bring the patient's blood glucose levels down more quickly. Diabetic agents should not increase the blood glucose levels. An antihypertensive medication decreases the blood pressure. An emetic stimulates the patient to vomit.

What financial record in a clinic is typically the most active? A. Accounts Payable B. Employee payroll C. Accounts receivable D. Malpractice liability

C. Accounts receivable The accounts receivable records are typically the most active records in a clinic. This section covers what the patient owes and pays to the clinic. The accounts payable section would cover what the clinic owes and needs to pay out. When the cash is paid out, it is referred to as disbursement. The employee payroll section is often referred to as the payroll register.

If a patient has severe burns over more than half of the body and the burning process has been stopped, which of the following should be the next step in their treatment? A. Starting IV antibiotics B. Applying antibacterial ointment C. Administering high-flow oxygen D. Wound debridement

C. Administering high-flow oxygen With severe burns, it is important that you start the patient on high-flow oxygen and raise the head to an appropriate height to decrease edema in the airway. The other answers all occur in later stages of treatment.

Which of the following should a medical assistant recognize as a patient transition of care? A. Assessment with a nutritionist. B. Screening by a psychiatrist. C. Admission to a hospital. D. Consultation with a pharmacist.

C. Admission to a hospital

Which of the following forms should a medical assistant give to a patient when Medicare might not cover services or items? A. Encounter form B. Explanation of Benefits (EOB) C. Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) D. CMS-1500

C. Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)

If a medication has been ordered by a physician to be taken "pc", it should be given: A. Before meals B. At hours sleep C. After meals D. Every four hours

C. After meals After meals would be "pc." Before meals would be "ac" At hours sleep would be "HS." Every four hours would be "qid."

A provider instructs a medical assistant to refer a patient to community resources for additional statistical information following a CABG surgery. To which of the following resources should the assistant refer the patient for this service? A. American Red Cross B. American Lung Association C. American Heart Association D. American Board of Surgery

C. American Heart Association

According to OSHA, how often should a facility review and update it's Exposure Control Plan at minimum? A. Semi-annually B. Monthly C. Annually D. Bi-annually

C. Annually

Which of the following drug classifications describes medications used to lower body temperature? A. Analgesics B. Anticoagulants C. Antipyretics D. Antipruritics

C. Antipyretics

A medical assistant is transferring a patient from his wheelchair to an examination table by herself. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? A. Instruct the patient to hold the medical assistant's waist. B. Interlock wrists behind the patient's back. C. Bend at the knees when lifting the patient. D. Remove the patient's shoes before transferring.

C. Bend at the knees when lifting the patient.

A medical assistant is performing a body fat measurement on a patient. Which of the following areas should the assistant use to obtain an accurate measurement? A. Infrailiac region B. Triceps C. Biceps D. Gluteus maximus

C. Biceps

Which of the following techniques should a medical assistant use when passing the provider a scalpel during a sterile procedure? A. Blade up, using forceps to pass. B. Blade capped, using a skin retractor to pass. C. Blade down and handle first D. Blade sideways on a separate Mayo stand.

C. Blade down and handle first

Which of the following is the current universal claim form submitted for outpatient medical billing? A. Superbill B. HCFA- 1500 C. CMS- 1500 D. UB-04

C. CMS-1500

Which of the following would describe a medical record that is categorized by date and time? A. Alphabetical B. Numerical C. Chronological D. Terminal digital

C. Chronological Chronological medical records are categorized by date and time. This is one of the more common types of filing so that all you have to do is look up a particular day to find the information that you were seeking. Terminal digital filing is the reverse of regular numeric and uses the last digit of the number to sort the file. Alphabetical and numerical systems are typically paper-based and take up more room.

If a patient's bill has been unpaid for more than 90 days, which of the following would call the patient? A. Attorney B. Medical Assistant C. Collection agency D. Physician

C. Collection agency Once the patient's bill reaches 90 days or more overdue, it should be turned over to a collection agency to contact the patient. The breakdown for the schedule to address unpaid bills would consist of: Bill patient- 30 days Call the patient about the bill- 45 days Send letter number one to the patient- 60 days Send letter number 2 to the patient and make a call to them- 75 days Send letter three-180 days should turn the bill over to a collection agency- 90 days. At 90 days, the collection agency should contact the person, not the lawyer, medical assistant, or physician.

If a medical assistant is _____________, it means that the medical assistant performs her duties in compliance with the standards of her job description. A. Dependable B. Negligent C. Competent D. Trustworthy

C. Competent If a medical assistant is competent, he or she would have the ability, knowledge, and skill to perform her duties successfully to the standards required. Dependability and trustworthiness are important qualities for a medical assistant, and are part of being reliable. Being trustworthy is being reliable and honest. Negligence is when a medical assistant does not take proper care when performing their duties.

A medical assistant should apply eye drops to which of the following structures of a patient's eye? A. Retina B. Lens C. Conjunctiva D. Pupil

C. Conjunctiva

Which of the following types of billing sends statements to patients at scheduled times of the month throughout the month? A. Monthly billing B. Third-party billing C. Cycle billing D. Twice-a-month billing

C. Cycle billing

Which of the following is important for the medical assistant to do before and after contact with the patient? A. Record their interaction B. Ask the patient questions C. Disinfect or wash your hands D. File a claim with the insurance company

C. Disinfect or wash your hands You should always disinfect or wash your hands before and after contact with the patient. This will help to prevent the spread of disease or infections. While you should always ask the patient questions and record their responses, making sure that you and your hands are free of any contaminants is of utmost importance. While the medical assistant could be involved with the filing of the visit with their insurance company, this would not typically be done before contact with the patient.

A pregnant patient's medical chart states EHR 150 BPM. What does this mean? A. Electronic Health Record B. Embryonic Hereditary Range C. Embryonic heart rate D. Mother's heart rate

C. Embryonic heart rate EHR is the Embryonic Heart Rate. This may also be known as the FHR or Fetal Heart Rate. The mother's heart rate will be listed as an HR. EHR is also used for Electronic Health Record, however, in this instance, it would refer to the embryos heart rate. There is no Embryonic Hereditary Range.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take to convey a friendly attitude during phone calls? A. Speak in a monotone pitch. B. Use medical jargon. C. Enunciate carefully. D. Express a sense of urgency.

C. Enunciate carefully

While interviewing a patient, a medical assistant should recognize which of the following as a sign of possible substance abuse? A. Reactive pupillary reflex B. Active listening C. Erratic thought pattern D. Stable weight

C. Erratic thought pattern

Which of the following manifestations is associated with infectious mononucleosis? A. Rhinorrhea B. Open sores C. Extreme fatigue D. Headache

C. Extreme fatigue

The pharmaceutical abbreviation "qid" means ___________________. A. Every hour B. Everyday C. Four times a day D. Every week

C. Four times a day The pharmaceutical abbreviation "qid" means four times a day. Other abbreviations include: Twice a day- bid Three times a day- tid Hourly: q 1 hour Once a day- qd (this term is not used in most facilities anymore).

Which of the following criteria are used to determine BMI? A. Weight and gender B. Weight and activity level and age C. Height and weight D. Height and age

C. Height and weight

To which type of community resource would a medical assistant refer a bed-bound patient? A. Alcoholics anonymous B. Diabetes support group C. Home health services D. Lawyer for work related injury E. Surgical consultation

C. Home health services

Before referring a patient to another facility, a medical assistant should be sure to verify the patient's: A. Address B. Income C. Insurance D. Transportation

C. Insurance A medical assistant would need to verify the patient's insurance before transferring the patient to another facility. It is not in the scope of practice for a medical assistant to verify the income of a patient. A home address check may be done, but this is typically done when the patient arrives at the medical facility. The medical assistant will more than likely check how the patient is going to get to the other facility, but the first thing to verify would be their insurance.

Restriction of the flow of oxygen-rich blood to a part of the body is referred to as which of the following? A. Necrosis B. Hypertrophy C. Ischemia D. Hypotrophy

C. Ischemia

In a human, urine flows through the urinary system in which order? A. Bladder, urethra, kidney, urethral meatus, ureter B. Bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra, urethral meatus C. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, urethral meatus D. Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidney, urethral meatus

C. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, urethral meatus. In human, the urine flows through the kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra, and urethral meatus. Remember, the urine is formed in the kidneys, so the chain starts there. The urine then travels down the ureters to the bladder and then out of the bladder via the urethra and the urethral meatus.

Which of the following legal documents appoints a health care proxy to make medical decisions for a patient in the event that they cannot? A. Medical record release B. Durable power of attorney C. Living will D. Mature minor doctrine

C. Living will

Call screening in a medical office is important because it allows a medical assistant to do which of the following? A. Avoid taking walk-ins B. Avoid patients that are not emergency C. Make sure the patient is properly triaged D. Avoid patients that have caused trouble

C. Make sure the patient is properly triaged. Call-screening in a clinic office is typically an answering machine which provides the caller with a recorded message with options on the phone. The caller is then able to leave a message which a medical assistant can later listen to. This is important because it allows the medical assistant to properly triage the patients by priority. The more serious cases would need to see the doctor sooner than the minor cases. A walk-in would not be calling to make an appointment. You should never avoid patients whether they have caused trouble or if they're not an emergency. You still need to speak with them to make sure that your immediate services are not needed.

The majority of a cell's DNA is located in which of the following organelles? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Ribosomes C. Nucleus D. Mitochondria

C. Nucleus

Which blood type would be considered the "Universal Donor?" A. AB B. O+ C. O- D. B-

C. O- The "Universal Donor" blood type would be O-. This blood type can be administered to patients with other blood types if there is an emergency and there is no time to type and cross-match the patient. The eight blood types consist of A+, A-, AB+, AB-, B+, B-, O+ and O-.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for a cast application. Which of the following actions should the assistant complete before the provider begins the cast application? A. Place the sockinet in warm water. B. Apply a pressure bandage below the fractured bone. C. Observe the condition of the skin. D. Wet the entire roll of fiberglass tape.

C. Observe the condition of the skin.

A medical assistant is setting up a tray for a minor procedure. Which of the following actions maintains the sterile field of the tray? A. Places instruments on the tray's border. B. Dons clean gloves. C. Opens the package away from the body. D. Keeps hands below the waist.

C. Opens the package away from the body.

A patient comes into your clinic and is having difficulty breathing unless they are in an upright position. Which of the following is the proper medical term for this condition? A. Menarche B. Lithiasis C. Orthopnea D. Gynecomastia

C. Orthopnea "Ortho" is a term that means straight or erect and "pnea" means respiration or breathing. Since the individual will have trouble breathing when laying down, he or she may typically sleep sitting in a chair. This condition is usually a manifestation of heart failure. Lithiasis is a condition where stones form abnormally in the kidneys or the gallbladder. Menarche is the beginning of menstruation. Gynecomastia is an overgrowth of breast tissue in a male.

A provider will be performing a physical examination on a patient who has a sore throat. Which of the following supplies should the medical assistant prepare for the exam? A. Peak flow meter B. Reagent strip C. Otoscope D. Microscope slide

C. Otoscope

Which of the following should a medical assistant obtain when a patient who has a managed care plan requires surgery? A. Gatekeeper approval B. Fee for service C. Prior authorization D. Explanation of benefits

C. Prior authorization

Which therapeutic communication skill is useful when a patient provides vague information? A. Accepting B. Clarifying C. Probing D. Requesting an explanation E. Summarizing

C. Probing

Which of the following information is needed to complete a CMS-1500 form? A. Patient's emergency contact information. B. Patient's organ donor information. C. Provider's federal tax identification number. D. Provider's Drug Enforcement Agency number.

C. Provider's federal tax identification number

Blood flows from the heart's right ventricle into the: A. Left ventricle B. Right atrium C. Pulmonary artery D. Pulmonary vein

C. Pulmonary artery The blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart to the pulonary artery. This is the only time in the body that an artery carries blood that has been used and is deoxygenate.

Which of the following methods of taking a patient's temperature poses a risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens? A. Oral B. Axillary C. Rectal D. Temporal

C. Rectal

A medical assistant should identify that which of the following tasks requires the use of gloves? A. Administering a nebulizer treatment. B. Obtaining a tympanic reading. C. Removing a cyst. D. Taking blood pressure.

C. Removing a cyst

Which of the following symptoms would a patient exhibit that could be indicative of cerebral edema? A. Abdominal pain B. Itching C. Seizures and coma D. Normal vision

C. Seizures and coma Cerebral edema can occur from several different types of injuries such as a motor vehicle accident or a fall. Some of the symptoms could include seizures and coma. In addition, the patient might experience nausea and vomiting, vision that is blurred, and problems breathing. Abdominal pain is not considered a symptom of cerebral edema, but of a number of other issues such as gastritis or bowel perforation could be present. Itching is typically a symptom of a reaction such as to a medication. Blurred vision, not normal vision, could be a symptom of cerebral edema.

A medical assistant is assisting a provider with a cervical biopsy. Which of the following information is required on the specimen label? A. Previous STD status. B. Blood type. C. Site of the sample. D. Fasting status

C. Site of the sample.

The prefix brady (as in bradycardia) means: A. Fast B. Irregular C. Slow D. Without

C. Slow The prefix "brady" means slow. It is used in terms such as bradycardia, meaning an abnormally slow heart rate. The prefix for fast would be "tachy." Exam Room Techniques, Patient Preparation and Infection Control.

Which of the following routes should be used for an insulin injection? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Subcutaneous D. Intradermal

C. Subcutaneous

A 17 year old woman who is married arrives at the emergency department of a hospital with an injured arm. Who must consent to any treatment since this patient is a minor? A. Spouse and minor B. Parent C. Patient D. The parent and the patient

C. The patient If the 17 year old woman is married, she would be considered emancipated. In this case, the patient would be able to give consent herself.

Which of the following areas of the body should a medical assistant use to obtain a patient's temperature using: A. Temporal artery theri B. Forehead C. Tympanic membrane D. Armpit E. Rectum

C. Tympanic membrane

When hiring a new employee which of the following forms is needed when they are choosing tax exemptions? A. I-9 B. 1099 C. W-4 D. 1096

C. W-4 The W-4 form is used by the employer to make sure the right amount federal income tax is withheld. It is recommended by the IRS that a new W-4 form is submitted each year. The 1099 form is used to report other types of income if you had any during the year. The 1096 form is used to summarize the information you are sending to the IRS. The I-9 is used when someone is hired to verify their identity.

Leuk/o means? A. Black B. White blood cell C. White

C. White

When answering the phone, you should always answer by what ring? A. 1st B. 2nd C. 3rd

C. by the 3rd ring

A CMA cannot perform a:

CBC test with a differential

A _______ should never give test results to a patient.

CMA

What is a CPOE system?

CPOE is an electronic medical record system function that allows providers to digitally order laboratory and radiology testing, treatments, referrals, and prescriptions

Once a patient starts experiencing ventricular fibrillation and becomes unconscious:

Call for EMT's (911), and then begin performing CPR.

If a check has been deposited and is now returned because of insufficient funds, it will be necessary to:

Call the bank that returned it and verify availability of funds so the check can then be redeposited.

If a CMA enters a patient's room without introducing themselves or acknowledging the patient:

Can be considered invasion of privacy.

Handling Cancellations and No-Shows:

Cancellations and No-shows should be documented in the Medical Record to protect the provider from legal action.

A medical assistant is talking with a patient who has a vaginal yeast infection. Which of the following microorganisms causes this type of infection?

Candida albicans

When a check must be guaranteed for the amount in which it is written a ___ is issued.

Cashiers check

#3 knife handle:

Category: cutting & dissecting other names: #3 handle, scalpel handle Use(s): knife handles are used to hold various blades to create scalpel. Scalpels are used to make skin incisions or whenever a fine precision cut is necessary. Description: A #3 handle holds blades 10, 11, 12, and 15 Instrument Insight: because the skin is not sterile, once the skin incision is made the scalpel should be removed from the mayo stand, isolated, and reused ONLY to incise the skin. CAUTION: Never retrieve the scalpel from the surgeon's hand after use; allow the surgeon to place it in the "neutral zone." CAUTION: Never use fingers to load and unload a blade. ALWAYS use a needle holder.

What are white blood cells (WBC's)?

Cells with nuclei that defend us from disease. Two main types are phagocytes and lymphocytes.

A Pharmacy Technician should identify that which of the following organizations issues a Pharmacy National Provider Identifier?

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

What is Certification?

Certification is generally optional, but some states require official education and training for a medical assistant to administer medication, perform phlebotomy procedures, or enter prescriptions into the computerized physician order entry program. Requires continuing education to keep current. Advantages can include increased initial job placement, higher wages, and career advancement opportunities.

What are additional Credentials for Medical Assistants?

Certified Phlebotomy Technician (CPT), Certified EKG Technician (CET), Certified Billing and Coding Specialist (CBCS), Certified Electronic Health Records Specialist (CEHRS), Clinical Medical Assistant (CCMA), and Medical Administrative Assistant (CMAA).

What do ribosomes support?

Chains as (RNA) builds them.

A Patient Encounter Form is also known as a:

Charge slip, Super-bill, and a Multi-purpose billing form.

Gold top tube/Tiger top tube (Serum Separator)

Chemistry SST/Clot and Silica activator. This tube is used for preparing EDTA plasma, whole blood, and bone marrow specimens. This tube is used for collecting serum or clotted whole blood specimens. Tiger-top tube (serum separator): Tube does NOT contain an anticoagulant, but does contain a clot activator and serum separator gel. This tube is used for collecting serum. Detects if the patient has had a recent break-down of clots, used for routine blood donor screening and diagnostic testing of serum for infectious disease. Invert the tubes It is necessary to thoroughly mix the blood and particles by inverting the tube 5 times. (Chemistry, Serology, and immunology tests).

CHEDDAR note stands for:

Chief complaint History Examination Details Drugs and dosages Assessments Return visit information

Comprehensive history:

Chief complaint, extended history of present illness, review of systems directly related to the problem(s) identified in the history of the present illness in addition to a review of all additional body systems, complete past/family/social history.

Problem-focused history:

Chief complaint; brief history of present illness or problem.

Expanded problem-focused history:

Chief complaint; brief history of present illness; problem pertinent system review.

Detailed problem-focused history

Chief complaint; extended history of present illness (four History of present illness (HPI's) elements OR the status of three chronic or inactive problems), plus TWO to NINE Review of systems or symptoms (ROS), plus at least ONE pertinent element of Past Medical, Family and Social History (PFSH).

A patient experiencing a subluxation should be treated by which of the following?

Chiropractic care

A patient is experiencing a subluxation (dislocation) and should be treated with what?

Chiropractic care. Chiropractors treat subluxations or misalignments of the spine.

Rotation

Circular movement around an axis such as the shoulder joint.

What is applied in most medical malpractice cases?

Civil law

Therapeutic communication empowers a patient to understand their care, know that their opinion is heard, and make choices about their health. This helps a patient feel comfortable during interactions, a medical assistant may ask the patient to clarify what they mean.

Clarifying is important

Roux Retractor:

Classification: Retracting and Exposing Part of the minor tray, this retractor is hand held and looks like a shoe horn.

A medical assistant is performing claim submission for a medical office. What process involves the electronic auditing and sorting of claims?

Clearinghouse submission

Fecal occult blood test (FOBT):

Clinical lab test for presence of small amounts of blood in feces helps diagnose GI lesions, and colorectal cancer. During test, avoid getting urine in the container. Do not refrigerate if undergoing testing for parasites (also called hemoccult test, stool guaiac test, or OBX3).

Examples of variable costs include all of the following:

Clinical supplies, Equipment costs, and laboratory procedures.

Silica (Primary function):

Clot activator

What are fragile veins?

Common in older adults, newborns, and pediatric patients. Veins are thin, weak, and difficult to puncture it is best to collect from a butterfly needle because it is easier to guide and the wings give you more control.

A medical assistant is discussing dietary concerns with a patient who has heart disease. The patient states, "I haven't been as careful about salt and fat as I should be, but I have been exercising more than usual". The medical assistant should identify that this patient is using which of the following defense mechanism?

Compensation

A medical assistant is preparing a community resource library. Which of the following actions should the assistant take first?

Compile a list of local community agencies.

A medical assistant receives instructions from a primary care provider to refer a patient to the dermatologist. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take first?

Complete a patient referral form.

A Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) has 5 core functions and attributions. Which of the following features is included in those functions?

Comprehensive care.

A urine reagent testing specific gravity indicates:

Concentration of urine, range is 1.003 - 1.030.

If a patient is having an EKG (ECG) and is diaphoretic, the CMA should apply:

Conduction gel to help facilitate a better connection.

An medical assistant is reviewing the chart of a patient who is scheduled for an appointment. Later that day, which of the following task should the medical assistant complete prior to the patient's appointment?

Confirm all pertinent information is available.

Chart Review:

Consists of collection and clinical reviews of medical records to ensure that payment is made only for services that meet all plan coverage and medical necessity requirements.

Lavender-top tube EDTA-K2* Tube Top 2 types: Dark Lavender or clear Lavender

Contain the (EDTA) inhibit coagulation by binding to calcium present in specimen. This tube is used for preparing EDTA plasma, whole blood, and bone marrow. Hematology, ammonia, lead, HIV, RNA, HbA1C quantization determinations and for Blood Bank testing. Specimens Lab use: CBC*, HbA1c **NOTE: Tube should be inverted several times immediately after blood collection to prevent coagulation.

Orange-top tube (Thrombin tube) Rapid Serum Tube

Contains a thrombin-based clot activator which allows STAT serum testing and demonstrations in Chemistry studies. Lab use: Chemical testing. Thrombin-based clot activator with gel for serum separation, and a Thrombin-based clot activator. Invert 8 times.

A patient has recently been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. When transitioning the patient's care from a primary care provider (PCP) to an oncologist, which of the following process is the PCP taking part in?

Continuity of care.

Shows the cost of a procedure or service:

Cost Ratio Formula

The purpose of cost analysis is to determine the:

Cost of each service

Dual Coverage:

Coverage under more than one insurance plan.

Credits, Debits:

Credit-money paid by one party to the other Debit-money that is owed by one person to the other.

What resource provides a standard language for services provided during a medical visit?

Current Procedural Terminology manual.

Cusco's Vaginal Speculum:

Cusco's self-retaining bivalved speculum is a surgical instrument used for introducing an intrauterine contraceptive device, taking a Pap smear, cauterization of vaginal erosion, and colposcopic examination. It is preferred in cryosurgery because it protects the anterior and posterior vaginal wall. The advantage of Cusco's speculum is that it is self-retaining. Therefore, an assistant's help is not needed to keep the speculum in place. It also acts as the vaginal wall retractor.

Micro Scissors:

Cutting and dissection. Fine-spring operated scissor with either curved or straight tip. Micro Scissors are used for the micro-dissection of soft and delicate tissues.

Increased Absorption interaction (Do not take with Grapefruit juice):

Cyclosporine (Restasis, Gengraf)- increased absorption. (Immunosuppressant) Caffeine- Prolonged caffeine half-life. (CNS Stimulant) Warfarin (Coumadin)- delayed excretion of hydroxycoumarin. (Anticoagulant) Lovastatin (Altoprev)- increased Lovastatin and metabolite concentrations. (Lowers Cholesterol) Quinidine- delayed absorption; inhibited metabolism of quinidine. (Antiarrhythmias and Anti-parasite Rx).

Day

D

To make 100 mL of a 10% bleach solution, which of the following should the medical assistant combine? A. 50mL distilled water with 50 ml bleach. B. 10mL distilled water with 90 ml bleach. C. 1 mL bleach with 99 mL distilled water. D. 10mL bleach with 90mL distilled water.

D. 10mL bleach with 90mL distilled water.

A medical assistant sustains a splash exposure to the eyes from a patient's body fluids. Which of the following is the proper length of time for her to to flush her eyes at an eyewash station? A. 5 min. B. 30 seconds C. 2 min. D. 15 min.

D. 15 min.

Which of the following properly documents that 2 drops of an ear medication were administered to the patient's left ear at 3pm? A. 0300 ii gr left ear. B. 0300 ii mcg left ear. C. 1500 ii mL left ear. D. 1500 ii gtt left ear.

D. 1500 ii gtt left ear

When checking the identity of a patient, most healthcare facilities require that the patient present _____ forms of identification. A. 3 B. 1 C. 0 D. 2

D. 2 While it may be possible for someone to forge or fake one document, it is less likely that they be able to produce two. This is why most facilities require two forms of verification. Most people only have two forms of verification, so asking for any more than that would be redundant. You should never admit someone without checking their identity first.

A medical assistant obtains a blood glucose reading from a patient who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. For which of the following values should the assistant notify the provider immediately? A. 85 mg/dL B. 275 mg/dL C. 210 mg/dL D. 30 mg/dL

D. 30 mg/dL

Good team members ________________________. A. Focus on their tasks and not on some lofty goal. B. Do not communicate with or interfere with others. C. Do their job well without helping others. D. Accept responsibility and accountability.

D. Accept responsibility and accountability. Good team members accept responsibility and accountability. They are clear about the goal(s) and the know that all goals are important. They focus on the goals. Good team members are always ready, willing and able to help other members of the team, within their scope of practice. They also communicate with other team members and they trust them.

Of the following, which would the HIPAA requirements apply to in a healthcare facility? A. Physicians B. Nurses C. Certified nurses aids D. All of the above

D. All of the above HIPAA stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. This is a federal law that was put into effect in 1996. This law applies to physicians, nurses, and certified nurses aids, along with the other employees that work at the healthcare facility.

Which of the following terms describes a micro-organism's ability to grow in the absence of oxygen? A. Aerobic B. Opportunistic C. Acid fast D. Anaerobic

D. Anaerobic

A medical assistant pretends to be busy rather than speak to a coworker with whom they have a conflict. The assistant is demonstrating which of the following types of passive-aggressive behavior? A. Denial B. Distraction C. Reflection D. Avoidance

D. Avoidance

Which of the following laboratory tests requires a medical assistant to follow the Chain of Custody protocol? A. Hepatitis B. Radioallergosorbent (RAST) C. Lead level D. Blood Alcohol level

D. Blood Alcohol level

If the physician prescribes a low-fat diet for a patient, which of the following should they be able to eat? A. Whole milk B. Chicken with skin attached C. Cake with icing D. Boneless, skinless chicken breast

D. Boneless, skinless chicken breast A physician often orders a low-fat diet for patients that have cardiac issues. With this type of diet, the patient should not eat anything that is considered a saturated fat such as butter or bacon for example. They should also avoid whole milk, meats that are fatty, pastries, and cakes with icing. Whole milk has too high of a fat content. Milk should typically be skimmed or 1% according to the directions from the physician or dietitian. Chicken with skin attached should not be consumed on this diet. Chicken is okay as long as it is not fried and the skin should be removed. Cake with icing would not be good because of the fat content in the icing.

If an individual is going to be using a computer for long periods of time, they should do which of the following? A. Adjust the chair height and monitor to a comfortable position B. Sit as long as you can without moving so you do not break concentration C. About once an hour, stand and stretch D. Both A and C

D. Both A and C You should always adjust the chair so that your feet are planted on the ground. Make sure that your display is adjusted to the point where your neck is in a neutral position. You should never sit for long periods of time while working on a computer. This puts your body in an uncomfortable state even with everything adjusted correctly. If it is not, it can do damage to your body over time.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take prior to obtaining an EKG tracing? A. Check for presence of artifacts B. Clean the skin using adhesive gel C. Calibrate the unit D. Check paper level

D. Check paper level

To be in compliance with HIPAA, a medical assistant should ensure that which of the following statements is provided to patients? A. Waiver of accountability statement B. Policies and procedures statement C. ADA accommodations statement D. Confidentiality statement

D. Confidentiality statement

Making a note in one file that a paper is in another file is called _______________. A. Cross-filing B. Indexing C. Conditioning D. Cross-reference

D. Cross-reference Making a note in one file that a paper is in another file is called Cross-reference. This is actually a simple system, but is very helpful to clear-up where a specific document can be found. Cross-filing is a term that is used most often in politics, referring to the registering of a candidate in more than one political party. Indexing would be making a list of a certain group of things. Conditioning would be the completion of the records.

Which of the following findings should a medical assistant identify as a manifestation of anaphylaxis during an intake examination? A. Abrasion B. Uremia C. Urticaria D. Ecchymosis

D. Eccchymosis

Which of the following would EMR refer to? A. Emergency magnetic resonance B. Emergency medical records C. European medical research D. Electronic medical records

D. Electronic medical records EMR stands for electronic medical records. More and more facilities are moving to electronic records because of the accuracy and ease of access. While it could be said that emergency medical records are the records that the emergency room makes, the term is almost always used to refer to the electronic health records.

When a medical assistant is able to listen to a speaker's problem and understand the speaker's personal point of view, it is called: A. Nonverbal communication B. Critical listening C. Appreciative listening D. Empathetic listening

D. Empathetic listening Empathetic listening is when one is able to listen to a person's problem/s and see from the speaker's point of view. This can be an important part of being a medical assistant. Appreciative listening is when listening for enjoyment or pleasure. Critical listening is when evaluating the message and nonverbal communication is when there is communication between two people, but no words are used.

Which of the following office protocols meets OSHA regulations and standards? A. Employees are mandated to provide and maintain their own personal protective equipment. B. Training on new safety-engineered control devices is conducted annually. C. Medical records of employees who were exposed to occupational hazards are destroyed after 1 year. D. Employees must submit to a Hepatitis B immunization upon employment.

D. Employees must submit to a Hepatitis B immunization upon employment. OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires that employers offer the hepatitis B vaccination series to any employee who is reasonably anticipated to have exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials. The offer must be made within 10 days of employment at no cost to the employee.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when performing an ear irrigation? A. Place the irrigation tip directly into the ear canal B. Send the solution to the laboratory for culture following the procedure C. Leave a cotton ball in place for 15 to 20 min. following the procedure D. Ensure the solution is warm prior to use

D. Ensure the solution is warm prior to use

An influenza vaccination was ordered by the provider and performed on the patient by the medical assistant. Which of the following information should the assistant document in the patient's chart upon completion of this procedure? A. ICD-10 and CPT code for the vaccination B. Payment method C. Compound of the vaccination D. Expiration date and lot number

D. Expiration date and lot number

________________ is a protein in plasma which forms blood clots and stops excessive bleeding during tissue or vascular injury. A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes C. Reagent D. Fibrinogen

D. Fibrinogen Fibrinogen is a protein in blood plasma which causes blood clotting after tissue or vascular injury leads to bleeding. The red blood cells would be the erythrocytes. The white blood cells would be considered the leukocytes. If a solution is added to another substance to help with a chemical reaction, it would be considered a reagent.

Of the following, which would be considered the first step in treating a patient with a chemical burn of the skin? A. Wash with soap and water B. Apply an antiseptic ointment C. Apply ice D. Flush area with water

D. Flush area with water Flushing the area with cool water should be the first step in the treatment of a patient with a chemical burn. The area should be washed with large amounts of water for at least 20 minutes. There are certain chemical agents that are not to be irrigated with water immediately such as dry lime, phenols, and elemental metals such as magnesium or calcium oxide. The chemical burn area should not be coated with an antibiotic ointment, washed with soap and water, or have ice applied. Applying ice can cause a frost-bite like affect and cause even further damage. A oil-free moisturizer can be applied for 3 days, but soap is not typically applied to these types of burns. The patient might be placed on antibiotics as part of their treatment if the burns are bad, but the antibiotic ointment is not typically used.

Escherichia coli is classified as which of the following? A. Acid-fast bacillus B. Gram-positive coccus C. Gram-negative spirillum D. Gram-negative bacillus

D. Gram-negative bacillus

Which of the following treats a patient that has diseases of the blood? A. Cardiologist B. Pulmonologist C. Podiatrist D. Hematologist

D. Hematologist A hematologist treats patients that have diseases of the bloodsucking as hemophilia, leukemia, or sickle cell disease. A cardiologist treats diseases of the heart and vascular system. A pulmonologist treats diseases of the lungs, and a podiatrist treats the feet.

A patient is scheduled for a 6-month follow-up for diabetes mellitus. Which of the following information should the medical assistant include in the patient's medical record to ensure comprehensive care? A. Chest x-ray results B. EKG test results C. PT INR D. Hemoglobin A1c results

D. Hemoglobin A1c results

Of the following, which describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Metabolism D. Homeostasis

D. Homeostasis The ability of the person's body to maintain its normal state would be considered homeostasis. An example of this would be the body's ability to maintain its temperature. The constructive process in which molecules are turned from simpler to more complex ones is considered anabolism. The destructive process in which molecules are turned from complex to simpler molecules would be considered catabolism.

Which of the following abbreviations refer to intracranial pressure that might be seen documented in a patient's chart? A. FACE B. FMLA C. CVP D. ICP

D. ICP Intracranial pressure is listed as ICP in medical terms. If the patient has increased ICP, it can be a life-threatening condition and should be diagnosed and treated as soon as possible. FACE is a tool used to evaluate pain and was developed for children. FMLA is the Family and Medical Leave Act. CVP stands for central venous pressure.

Which of the following methods of examination is used to observe for deformities and rashes on the patient's body? A. Percussion B. Auscultation C. Palpation D. Inspection

D. Inspection

Which of the following is an effective hemostasis? A. Prevents fibrinolysis of the blood. B. Promotes destruction of RBCS. C. Prevents the process of clot formation. D. It promotes coagulation.

D. It promotes coagulation.

Which is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count? A. Anemia B. Leukemia C. Leukocytosis D. Leukopenia

D. Leukopenia The abnormal low-white blood cell count would be considered leukopenia. If a person has a normal white blood count, it would be between 3,500 and 11,000 per microliter, it can be considered leukopenia. If the red blood cells are low, it is considered anemia. Leukemia is mostly a childhood condition. But, it can also be in adults with more in men than women. It is also more prevalent in whites than African-Americans. Leukocytosis is when there is an abnormal high amount of white blood cells in the body. This condition is common with an infection or inflammatory process.

A medical assistant should take which of the following actions when removing sutures? A. Perform a sterile hand scrub. B. Begin cutting the sutures in the middle of the wound. C. Clean the wound with a disinfectant. D. Lift the knot toward the wound.

D. Lift the knot toward the wound.

A medical assistant is acting as a sterile scrub assistant. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? A. Tear the corner when opening the 4x4 package. B. Lay the instruments gently on the sterile field. C. CD Wear non-latex gloves. D. Maintain a 1-inch border around the sterile field.

D. Maintain a 1-inch border around the sterile field.

Who is responsible for retrieving stat laboratory test results from an outside laboratory? A. Patient B. Medical receptionist C. Provider D. Medical assistant

D. Medical assistant

Which of the following would be considered a muscle relaxant that might be ordered for a patient with back pain? A. Oxycodone/acetaminophen B. Hexachlorophene C. Bismuth subsalicylate D. Methocarbamol

D. Methocarbamol When a person has a back injury, part of the treatment ordered might include a muscle relaxant. Some common types of these could include such medications as methocarbamol (Robaxin). The nature of the injury will help to determine the treatment, but muscle relaxants are often prescribed. Oxycodone/acetaminophen is sometimes ordered for short-term relief with back problems, but typically only if severe. The main treatment would be to determine the cause of the pain and treat that. Hexachlorophene is considered an antiseptic and bismuth subsalicylate is considered an antidiarrheal.

A medical assistant notes the abbreviation "NS" next to several appointments from the previous day's office schedule. Which of the following is the correct description of this abbreviation? A. New surgical B. Needs supervision C. Normal scheduling D. No show

D. No show

A medical assistant suspects that a pediatric patient is being abused. Which the the following actions is appropriate for the assistant to take? A. Contact a school counselor. B. CONDAN Document the abuse. C. Question the parent. D. Notify the provider.

D. Notify the provider

Which of the following guidelines applies to sending orders for schedule II prescriptions? A. Orders can be refilled. B. Telephone orders are permitted. C. A provider's signature is not required. D. Orders can either be written or an e-prescription.

D. Orders can either be written or an e-prescription.

When billing for ambulatory care, it would indicate which of the following? A. Use of an ambulance emergency service B. Assignment of benefits C. Outpatient classification structure D. Outpatient services provided

D. Outpatient services provided If a facility is billing for ambulatory care, it is for outpatient services that were provided. This is anytime a patient will not be admitted to the hospital. The assignment of benefits gives the insurer permission to pay the provider directly. The ambulatory patient classifications have the structure for the outpatient classifications.

In order for a healthcare facility to comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, each patient is to be given which of the following? A. A list of the employees and their credentials B. The staff's work schedule C. Office policies D. Patient rights and privacy practices

D. Patient rights and privacy practices According to HIPAA, each patient is to be given a statement of the privacy practices of the facility/clinic. The facility needs to keep on file a form signed by the patient that they received this information. The healthcare facilities do not provide a copy of the staff names and credentials, office policies, or work schedule to the patients.

During a physical examination, a medical assistant might witness the provider tapping a patient's body, usually with the fingers or a small hammer, to elicit sounds or vibratory sensations. What is the name of this examination technique? A. Manipulation B. Auscultation C. Palpitation D. Percussion

D. Percussion

A medical assistant is assisting a provider to obtain a specimen for a Papanicolaou test. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? A. Discard the specimen in a biohazard bag. B. Position the light source inside the vagina. C. Rinse the speculum in cool, sterile water before vaginal insertion. D. Place the patient in the lithotomy position.

D. Place the patient in the lithotomy position.

Which of the following methods should a medical assistant use when weighing a patient who has balance issues? A. Have the patient sit in a chair on the scale B. Have the patient hold on to the wall while weighing C. Position a cane on the scale between her feet D. Position a walker over the scale

D. Position a walker over the scale

In the periodic table, K is the symbol for: A. Calcium B. Iodine C. Phosphorus D. Potassium

D. Potassium In the periodic table, K would be the symbol for potassium. The other answer options are as follows in the periodic table: Calcium - Ca. Iodine - I. Phosphorus - P

Part of a medical assistant's job is to inform the patient about which of the following? A. Patient's diagnosis. B. Treatment options. C. Laboratory result interpretation. D. Preoperative and Postoperative instructions.

D. Preoperative and Preoperative instructions.

As a medical assistant, when a patient calls to cancel an appointment you should do which of the following? A. Have the doctor call them to reschedule the appointment B. Inform them that their appointment cannot be rescheduled C. Tell the patient the office is too busy to reschedule the appointment D. Process the cancellation and talk to the patient about rescheduling

D. Process the cancellation and talk to the patient about rescheduling. As a medical assistant, you should process the cancellation and speak with the patient about rescheduling. Things happen that cannot be prevented and the patient may not be able to make the appointment. The doctor will never be involved in making appointments for patients. In some cases, the patient may decide to call on a later date and reschedule. You should never tell the patient the clinic is too busy to reschedule. It may take some time to get them in, but you will always find a spot.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when performing ear irrigation? A. Place the patient in the prone position. B. Warm the solution to 16.67 °C. C. Insert the barrel of the syringe in the meatus of the patient's ear. D. Pull the pinna up and back.

D. Pull the pinna up and back.

Which of the following is the first upward wave seen directly following the P wave on an EKG? A. Q wave B. S wave C. I wave D. R wave

D. R wave

A medical assistant obtains an elevated blood pressure reading from a visibly upset patient. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? A. Use the palpatory method for blood pressure B. Perform orthostatic blood pressure C. Measure the blood pressure at the wrist D. Recheck the blood pressure after a few minutes

D. Recheck the blood pressure after a few minutes

A medical assistant is performing a venipuncture on an older patient who has partial-thickness burns and scar tissue on the right arm in the antecubital space, as well as a full-arm cast on the left arm. Which of the following sites should the assistant select for venipuncture? A. Left basilic vein B. Left cephalic vein C. Right femoral vein D. Right dorsal vein

D. Right dorsal vein

Which of the following factors is an internal distraction to communication? A. Dim lighting B. Hunger C. Noise D. Room temperature E. Uncomfortable chair

D. Room temperature

Which of the following positions should a medical assistant place a patient for a spirometry test? A. Lying supine with their arms crossed. B. Chin tucked toward the chest. C. Standing bent at the waist. D. Seated upright with their chin elevated.

D. Seated upright with their chin elevated.

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs includes which of the following? A. Money B. Direction C. Self-loathing D. Self-esteem

D. Self-esteem Esteem is considered to be one of the five levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs. The other 4 would include self-actualization, self-esteem, safety, and food and sleep (physiological).

In which of the following positions is the patient lying on his left side with his left leg slightly bent and his left arm behind his back? A. Fowler's B. Prone C. Trendelburg D. Sims

D. Sims

If a patient is admitted with a cut that is still bleeding, which of the following should be done first? A. Stitch a wound B. Apply antibiotic ointment C. Get a tetanus shot D. Stop the bleeding

D. Stop the bleeding In this instance, the proper first step would be to stop the bleeding. Typically, this is done by applying pressure. If the bleed is arterial, then surgical repair would more than likely be needed. Once the bleeding has stopped, you can move on to evaluating the cut. The other answers, while all valid, come later in the process.

A paramedic informs the medical assistant that a patient has had a cardiac arrest. What does this mean? A. Irregular heartbeat B. Blood flow interference to the heart C. Variation in the rhythm of the heartbeat D. Sudden stoppage of the heartbeat

D. Sudden stoppage of the heartbeat Cardiac arrest is when there is a sudden stoppage of the heartbeat. This can be caused by a variety of causes such as a myocardial infarction or trauma. An irregular heartbeat could be a sinus arrhythmia or atrial fibrillation among other causes. A blood flow interference to the heart could be caused by a blood clot or blockage in a coronary artery. Variations in the patient's rhythm of the heartbeat could be caused by several reasons.

What is adipose tissue in the body? A. The outer layer of the skin B. The whites of the eyes C. The sac around the heart D. The fatty tissue in the body

D. The fatty tissue in the body The term andipose means where the fat cells are stored. The whites of the eye are called sclera, the outer layer of skin is called epidermis, and the sac around the heart is called the pericardium.

A medical assistant is reinforcing teaching with a patient about medication administration in the ear. Which of the following information should the assistant include? A. The medication is usually administered in ointment form. B. The medication should be warmed in the hands prior to administration. C. The medication might result in adverse systemic side effects. D. The medication will take 5 to 10 min. to be absorbed into the bloodstream.

D. The medication will take 5 to 10 min. to be absorbed into the bloodstream.

A medical assistant should identify osteomalacia as which of the following? A. The inflammation of bone and cartilage due to infection. B. The enlargement of the extremities due to a metabolic syndrome. C. The fusing of the bones at the joints due to arthritic changes. D. The softening of the bone due to vitamin D deficiency.

D. The softening of the bone due to vitamin D deficiency

Which of the following is a reason to perform an eye irrigation? A. To diagnose the presence of glaucoma. B. To release a collection of excess endolymph fluid. C. To prepare for a contact lens examination. D. To relieve inflammation and discomfort.

D. To relieve inflammation and discomfort.

Word processing software may be used by a medical assistant to create which of the following? A. Superbills B. Record of all patients and their addresses C. Inventory of office supplies D. Transcriptions

D. Transcriptions Word processing software can be used by a medical assistant to create transcriptions. Word processing software typically is used with text documents. This would include the creation of a document, editing of a document, and printing of a document.

Which of the following conditions is a cause for specimen rejection for a routine urinalysis? A. Urine specimen volume is 6 mL. B. Urine specimen container is missing a preservative. C. Urine specimen is temperature is 23° C (73.4° F). D. Urine specimen is amber and turbid.

D. Urine specimen is amber and turbid.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take during handwashing? A. Use a 25% alcohol-based hand soap. B. Rinse the hands with the fingertips facing upward. C. Use a nail brush to clean jewelry with stones. D. Use liquid soap and friction.

D. Use liquid soap and friction.

Which of the following supplements are recommended for patients who have osteoporosis? A. Iron B. Thiamine C. Folic acid D. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin D

Large squares are identified by:

Darker lines and include five small boxes horizontally, and vertically.

Calculating and reviewing cost provide ambulatory care settings with:

Data to set fees and monitoring of the practices performance.

What term describes a collection of associated files that function as a basis for retrieving information?

Database

The Pegboard System consists of:

Day sheets, Ledger cards, encounter forms, and receipt forms.

What is a Dendritic Cell?

Dendritic cells are monocytes that have migrated to cells that are in contact with the external environment, such as the skin, intestines, or respiratory epithelium. Their name comes branched projections called dendrites, which increase their surface area. They phagocytize pathogens and present antigens to naive lymphocytes.

What does atrial depolarization mean in EKG?

Depolarization of the heart leads to the contraction of the heart muscles and therefore, an EKG is an indirect indicator of heart muscle contraction.

HCPCS codes:

Descriptive terms with letters or numbers or both used to report medical services and procedures for reimbursement. Provides a uniform language to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic services. HCPCS codes are used to report procedures and services to government and private health insurance programs, and reimbursement is based on the codes reported.

Poole Suction Instrument with Guard:

Designed to evacuate pooled blood, fluid and debris during deep abdominal surgeries and cesarean sections, Poole single-use specialty suction instruments feature three versatile positions that quickly convert from gentle sump action to pinpoint suctioning capabilities. Class = Suctioning / Aspirating

SDS (Safety Data Sheet):

Details vital information about any product or chemical used in the medical facility. The SDS clarifies the correct use of the product and the proper action if a spill occurs.

A urine reagent testing glucose can indicate:

Diabetes Mellitus

A urine reagent testing keytones product of fat metabolism presence indicates:

Diabetes, starvation, or vomiting.

Medical Doctor (MD)- allopathic provider:

Diagnoses illnesses, provides treatment, performs procedures, and writes prescriptions. A system of medicine that aims to combat disease by using remedies (such as drugs or surgery) which produce effects that are different from or incompatible with those of the disease being treated. Called biomedicine, conventional medicine, mainstream medicine, orthodox medicine, and western medicine.

Which of the following items included on the CMS-1500 claim form should a medical assistant recognize as indicating the medical necessity of a procedure?

Diagnosis code

When reviewing a patient's medical record prior to an appointment with a primary care provider (PCP), it is important for a medical assistant to verify that which of the following items is in the chart?

Diagnostic test results.

What is the function of the lysosome organelle within the cell?

Digestion

Crystodigin (digitalis) does:

Digitalis is a cardiac glycolic used to treat certain heart conditions such as adults with mild to moderate Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) and to treat abnormally rapid atrial rhythms (atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, atrial tachycardia). Digitalis works directly on the heart muscle to strengthen and regulate the heartbeat (similar to Digoxin). increases the force of cardiac contractions as well as cardiac output, tocicity in 20% of patients

Ethics:

Discipline concerned with what is morally good and bad, or right and wrong.

A medical assistant is instructing a patient about collecting a stool specimen at home for occult blood testing. Which of the following statements should the medical assistant make about the patient's medications?

Discontinue any NSAID's a week before the test.

Used on blood pressure cuffs to destroy dirt and sweat:

Disinfectants

The horizontal axis on an EKG represents:

Displaying time. Each small horizontal square represents 0.04 seconds.

away from, farther from the origin

Distal

Quadrants:

Dividing an area horizontally and vertically into four parts.

Pederson Vaginal Speculum:

Doctors use the Pederson speculum in teenage girls who've been sexually active. Its blades are narrower than those of a regular adult speculum, but larger than the blades of a Huffman speculum.

What is the Chain of Custody?

Documentation or paper trail showing custody, control, transfer and analysis of everyone who comes in contact with the specimens.

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) requires:

Doesn't require specific methods for disposal of medical records, but facilities should keep a detailed record of when, how, and by whom the medical records were destroyed.

The system that is based on the accounting principle that assets equal liabilities plus owners equity is the:

Double-entry system

Carroll Tendon Pulling Forceps:

Down curved, used to pull lip prostheses.

When completing documentation in the patient's paper medical record, a medical assistant realizes she made an error. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

Draw a line through the error and initial it.

A medical assistant is disposing of a syringe and the needle she used to inject a seasonal flu vaccine. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

Drop the syringe, needle first into the biohazardous sharps container.

Antagonistic effect interaction:

Drug: Warfarin (Coumadin) Do not take with foods that are rich in vitamin K, and foods such as broccoli, liver, beans, rice, pork, and fish.

Digitalis, dopamine, epinephrine:

Drugs that increase the contractility of the heart

Look-Alike, Sound-Alike (LASA) Drug Names:

Drugs with similar names are a threat to patient safety, and pharmacys' and health care professionals must be on high alert when filling, administering, and dispensing these medications. ▪︎Valtrex (valACYclovir) and Valcyte (valGANciclovir) ▪︎Sertraline. and Cetirizine ▪︎acetaZOLAMIDE. and acetoHEXAMIDE ▪︎buPROPion. and busPIRone ▪︎ALPRAZolam. and LORazepam, clonazePAM ▪︎amLODIPine. and aMILoride ▪︎glipiZIDE. and glyBURIDE ▪︎hydrALAZINE. and hydrOXYzine. HYDROmorphone ▪︎chlorproMAZINE. and chlordiazePOXIDE ▪︎CISplatin. and CARBOplatin ▪︎cloBAZam. and clonazePAM ▪︎PREDNIsolone and PREDNIsone ▪︎DOPamine and DOBUTamine ▪︎dimenHYDrinate. and diphenhydrAMINE ▪︎FLUoxetine and PARoxetine ▪︎dimenhyDRINATE. and dimenhydrAMINE ▪︎cycloSPORINE. and cycloSERINE ▪︎clomiPRAMINE. and clomiPHENE ▪︎chlorproMAZINE. and chlorproPAMIDE ▪︎busPIRone buPROPion ▪︎acetaZOLAMIDE. and acetoHEXAMIDE ▪︎DOXOrubicin. and DAUNOrubicin ▪︎glipiZIDE. and glyBURIDE ▪︎medroxyPROGESTERone. and methylzPREDNISone. and methylTESTOSTERone ▪︎niCARdipine. and NIFEdipine ▪︎rOPINIRole. and risperiDONE ▪︎sulfADIAZINE. and sulfiSOXAZOLE ▪︎TOLBUTamide. and TOLAZamide ▪︎vinBLAStine. and vinCRIStine ▪︎aMILoride. and amLODIPine ▪︎ARIPiprazole. and RABEprazole ▪︎AVINza. and INVanz* ▪︎azaCITIDine. and azaTHIOprine ▪︎carBAMazepine. and OXcarbazepine ▪︎cefoTEtan. and cefOXitin. and cefTAZidime. and cefTRIAXone. and FAZolin ▪︎celeBREX. and celeXA ▪︎cloNIDine. and onazePAM. and cloZAPine. and klonoPIN* ▪︎DEPO-medrol* and Solu-medrol* ▪︎diazePAM. and dilTIAZem ▪︎DOCEtaxel. and PACLitaxel ▪︎DULoxetine. and Uoxetine. and PARoxetine ▪︎ePHEDrine. and EPINEPHrine ▪︎epiRUBicin. and eriBULin ▪︎fentaNYL. and SUFentanil ▪︎flavoxATE. and fluvoxaMINE ▪︎FLUoxetine. and DULoxetine. and PARoxetine ▪︎fluPHENAZine. and fluvoxaMINE ▪︎fluPHENAZine. and flavoxA ▪︎guaiFENesin. and guanFACINE ▪︎humaLOG* and humuLIN * ▪︎hydrALAZINE** and hydrOXYzine** hydroCHLOROthiazide ▪︎ HYDROcodone. and oxyCODONE ▪︎HYDROmorphone. and oxyMORphone. and morphine

double strength

Ds

What categories would a medical assistant find a wheelchair listed?

Durable item

A Pharmacy Technician should recognize that which of the following laws requires medication manufacturers to place a label stating, caution Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription on medication stock bottles?

Durham Humphrey Amendment

What are the Four D's of Negligence?

Duty, Derelict, Direct Cause, Damage.

These are supplemental E codes that:

E code may be used with any code in the range of (001-V84. 8,) capture the external cause of injury or poisioning, the intent, and the place where the event occurred.

Which process determines when to transfer a phone call to the physician versus when to take a message? A. Advising B. Categorizing C. Inquiring D. Routing E. Screening

E. Screening

Which of the following terms describes the unfair application of a statement about the traits of a specific group to an entire population? A. Assertive B. Empathy C. Feedback D. Generalization E. Stereotyping

E. Stereotyping

The cardiac cycle:

Each deflection/wave corresponds to a particular part.

What are Phagocytes?

Early, innate responders that ingest dangerous substances and destroy them.

Pre-excitation Syndrome:

Electrical impulses of the heart bypass the normal pathway and instead go down an accessory shortcut

Waves or deflection:

Electrocardiograph records a series of these above or below a baseline on the EKG.

What is the basic cause of Arrhythmia?

Electrolyte imbalance. Substances in your blood called electrolytes- such as potassium, sodium, calcium and magnesium ‐ help trigger and conduct the electrical impulses in your heart. Electrolyte levels that are too high or too low can affect your heart's electrical impulses and contribute to Arrhythmia development.

EFT:

Electronic Funds Transfer; exchange of money by sending bank records via a computer network.

EMR/EHR:

Electronic Medical Record/Electronic Health Record are digital charts to be used within a facility. EHR include the EMR and other information to be used between facilities.

Social Media:

Electronic media that allows people with similar interests to participate in a social network. Adhere to HIPAA when using social media (never share pictures of patients and never share information on patients.

Bonds may be purchased to protect the practice from:

Embezzlement and Financial loss.

Silica (Type of action):

Enhances coagulation

What is the importance of using directional terms?

Ensures accurate communication and documentation.

A proper contract should be negotiated and signed with any computer and billing service bureau because it:

Ensures confidentiality and strict privacy of patient information and is in compliance with HIPAA.

What is a surgical fixation of a segment of the small intestine to the abdominal wall?

Enteropexy

Peg Board Accounting:

Entries include patient name, charges, payments, and balance. One system included changes, payments, and balance.

A medical assistant is talking with a patient who has a new diagnosis of mononucleosis. Which of the following viruses causes this infection?

Epstein-Bar virus

equivalent

Eq

What does an Allergist specialize in?

Evaluates disorders and diseases in the immune system.

Normal indication for a stress test:

Evaluation of a patient with chest pain and a normal EKG, arrhythmia, monitoring a PT. with a recent MI

A patient gives explicit consent to a procedure orally, or in writing. What is this type of consent form called?

Expressed consent

fasting blood sugar

FBS

Federal Drug Administration

FDA

Iron (ferrum)

FE

Modifiable risk factors:

Factors contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one's behavior or environment.

Candy is the leading source of added sugars in the American diet. True or false

False

It is recommended that all adults consume one serving each of fruits and vegetables everyday. True or false

False

What health care professional is legally responsible for the outcomes of a medical assistant's duties and performance?

Family practitioner. A licensed HCP such as a family practitioner is legally responsible for the medical assistant.

A medical assistant is posting charges to a patient's account. The medical assistant should obtain what necessary resource?

Fee schedule

Bookkeeping:

Fees charged, payments received, account adjustments collections.

More serious than a misdemeanors and constitutes a stiffer penalty, usually imprisonment greater than 1 year and, in extreme cases such as murder, can result in a death sentence:

Felony

How many ounce-equivalents of protein should a 70 yr. old female patient consume each day?

Female patients age 51 and older should consume 5oz equivalents of protein each day.

How many cups of vegetables should a 45 yr. old female patient consume each day?

Female patients aged 14 to 50 should consume 2½ cups of vegetables each day.

What is the best fever medicine?

Fever reducers. Fever-reducing medicine such as acetaminophen (Tylenol), or ibuprofen (Advil or Motrin) is one of the simplest and most effective ways to bring down a fever.

Medical Records:

Files that contain the documentation of patients' medical history, record of care, progress notes, correspondence, and related billing/financial information. Is Federally mandated and remains a legal document also used by researchers to gather statistical information.

A hospital cost report for Medicare is part of:

Financial accounting

What is an example of a "Res ipsa loquitor" case:

Finding an instrument inside the patient following a surgical procedure or a patient sustaining burns while lying on a heated blanket.

CPT Codes (current procedural terminology):

Five digit numeric codes for procedures & services performed by providers.

An medical assistant should identify which of the following features as part of the patient-centered medical home (PCMH) model of care?

Focuses on evidence-based patient care and shared decision making.

Which of the following organizations enforces guidelines concerning medication quality standards?

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Time urine specimen:

For 24hr. collection, patient should begin at a specific time. 1.) On day 1, urinate into the toilet when you get up in the morning. 2.) Afterward, collect all urine in a special container for the next 24 hours. 3.) On day 2, urinate into the container when you get up in the morning. 4.) Cap the container. Keep it in the refrigerator or a cool place during the collection period. 5.) Label the container with your name, the date, the time of completion, and return it as instructed.

When to do heel sticks:

For infants younger than 12 mos. The lancet should be no deeper than 2mm.

Grasping and Clamping instruments:

Forceps are used to grasp tissue or objects. One type of forceps is a two-pronged instrument, which has a spring-type handle used to clamp together tightly to prevent slipping. Another type of closure mechanism is a ratchet closure or clasp. The ratchet clasp allows the forceps to close with differing degrees of tightness. Forceps often have serrations or teeth like edges that prevent tissue slipping out of the forceps.

W-2 Tax Form:

Form submitted to the IRS that reports your earnings and your taxes withheld each year *January.

If a patient has abdominal pain and respiratory difficulties, the CMA should place the patient in the:

Fowler's position (45-60° angle)

Which of the following letter styles require all lines to begin at the left margin?

Full block

The vertical axis on an EKG represents:

Gain or amplitude. Each small vertical square represents 0.1 millivolts (mV).

What is a fasting (first morning) urine specimen?

Give patient same supplies and instructions as for a random specimen. Instruct them to urinate before bed and collect a specimen immediately after waking up.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA):

Gives patients rights over their health information and sets rules and limits on who can look at and receive patients' private information.

The CMA has many duties. Just a few include performing venipuncture, giving injections, taking vital signs, doing paperwork, but never:

Giving medical advice.

Which of the following structures in a human cell sort and synthesizes glycoproteins?

Golgi apparatus

Each bacterium has a cell wall that is either:

Gram positive or Gram negative

Allis Tissue Forceps:

Grasping and holding. Used to hold edge of tissue. Short interlocking teeth. Good for fascia, and adipose tissue.

Kelly Forceps, Straight:

Grasping instrument. 5 1/2" (Note that the serrations do not go all the way. Because Kelly is a good girl.)

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on the Right Leg is:

Green

A medical assistant is scheduling all patients' who are having cyst removals to be seen on the first Thursday of the month. Which of the following types of scheduling is the assistant using? A. Grouping B. Flexible hours C. Wave scheduling D. Open hours

Grouping

What is Accountable Care Organizations (ACO's)?

Groups of physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers that provide coordinated care to Medicare patients. Shares savings with the Medicare program.

At bedtime

HS

Where is the lead for a V3 reading placed?

Halfway between leads V2 and V4 (green)

What are Controlled Substances?

Hallucinogens, narcotics, stimulants, anabolic steroids, depressants.

Hand retractors:

Hand retractors are used to hold an incision or a wound open, to hold an organ or tissue out of the way to expose what's underneath. An assistant, a robot or the surgeon must hold hand retractors during a procedure.

Graefe Forceps:

Have a horizontal row of 6 ( or 8) small teeth for grasping tissue. They are most commonly use in ophthalmologic applications.

When doing an EKG (ECG) on a person with large breasts:

Have the patient lift the breasts and place the electrodes under the breasts.

After receiving a patient's blood test results from the reference laboratory, which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

Have the provider review the results

Which of the following insurance plan models requires a referral from a PCP to schedule an appointment with a dermatologist?

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO).

Functions necessary for life:

Heart function, blood pressure, respiration, temperature.

The EKG graph paper is sensitive to:

Heat, and pressure. Waveforms are burned onto the paper via a stylus that heats when the machine is turned on. Be familiar with these figures to recognize obvious abnormalities that need to be reported to the provider immediately.

Uterine Dilators:

Hegar dilated are widely used in gynecology to open up the cervix. This may be necessary prior to a uterine curettage or biopsy. They are also used to overcome stenosis in non-gynecological situations, such as in urology and proctology.

A medical assistant should recognize that which of the following actions involves health coaching?

Helping the patient find community resources related to health care needs.

Whats the difference between Hemoglobin (Hgb) and Hematocrit (Hct)?

Hemoglobin is the iron-based molecule type that gives blood it's red color and ferries oxygen to the rest of the body. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells and Hematocrit is a measurement of the amount of red blood cells as related to total blood cell count. Both blood tests commonly called, "H&H."

Kelly Hemostatic Forceps:

Hemostats are applied to blood vessels to hold vessels, until they can be sutured and used to manipulate heavy tissue, and dissect soft tissue. It has grooves associated with only the distal-most aspect of the jaws; larger than mosquito forceps to be able to crush larger tissue and vessels (curved with a serrated blunt tip).

Level 2 test include those that require clinical laboratory expertise beyond normal automation to perform. If the output of the data requires some expertise, these would also be highly complex.

High-Complexity tests that include Cytogenics, Cytology, Histopathology, immunohistochemistry, peripheral smears, flow cytometry and gel electrophoresis. Validated by CLS personnel only!

Monthly

How often should alcohol swabs be ordered for a physician's office?

Steroids (glucocorticoids):

Hydrocortisone, and prednisone, Prednisolone, and Cortisone Glucocorticoids is a class of drugs is a group of medications that work in a similar way. These drugs are often used to treat similar conditions. Cortisone is a steroid drug.

Paper Tape:

Hypoallergenic, gentlest, does not stick well to moist skin.

Interdermal

ID 26-27 gauge, 1/4-1/2 inches, 15°angle

Intramuscular

IM 22-23 gauge, 1-1.5 inches, 90°angle

Intravenously

IV, through or within a vein.

What is a scheduling matrix?

Identifies a pattern of working and non-working hours for the medical office.

According to Erick Erickson's psychological theory, an adolescent experiences which of the following stages?

Identity vs. Role Confusion

When charting in a patient's medical record, remember:

If it is not documented: it did not happen!

The first step a CMA should take when a patient is found unconscious is to notify EMS immediately (call 911).

If the CMA starts CPR, then precious moments are wasted. Notify EMS first, and then the CMA can start CPR. Help is on the way.

Radiolucent

Images appearing dark

Radiopaque

Images appearing lighter/brighter

(Positron Emission Tomography) A pet scan is used for:

Imaging that helps reveal how your tissues and organs are functioning. A pet scan uses a radioactive drug (tracer) to show this activity. This scan can sometimes detect disease before it shows up on other imaging tests.

You must always report a needle stick to your supervisor:

Immediately

You must report a needle stick to your supervisor:

Immediately

A 19yr. old patient extends her arm and looks away when the phlebotomist enters the room. This is an example of what consent?

Implied consent

QT interval:

Important because it captures the beginning of ventricular depolarization through the plateau phase to the ventricular repolarization. It covers the entire ventricular activity. During this time, the action potential was generated and terminated in the ventricular systole and that goes until the end of the T wave. Ventricular diastole starts when the T wave ends.

A patient with TB should be:

In airborne precautions.

What is Chronological filing?

In chronological filing, files and folders of documents are arranged in order of their date, day, and time. This sequence can be according to their date of receipt, or date and time of their creation with the most recent date in front of or on top of the previous items. This method of filing is only suitable for specific things such as receipts.

Hazardous waste should be placed:

In red-biohazard bags.

OSHA guidelines for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), are required for a medical assistant to assist:

In the removal of a cyst.

An 18 month old is needing ear drops instilled in the child's right ear. How should the medical assistant apply the medication?

In the right ear, face up with the pinna near the earlobe and pull down and back.

What reasons why would you stop the process of obtaining a specimen?

Inability to ID the patient, discrepancies on the requisition form or patient wristband, and information that the patient shares verbally.

Schedule V drugs:

Includes substances that contain limited quantities of some narcotics, usually for anti-diarrheal, anti-tussive, and analgesic purposes. These include diphenoxylate with atropine, pregabalin (Lyrica), lacosamide (Vimpat), Phenergan with codeine, and retina ine (Potiga). Providers must sign prescriptions for these substances, and patients may refill them 5 times in 6 months. Staff members may authorize refills over the phone.

Schedule II drugs:

Includes substances that have a high potential for abuse, are considered dangerous and can lead to psychological and physical dependence. These include morphine, demerol, oxycodone, hydromorphone, hydrocodone, fentanyl, and methamphetamine. Providers must give patients a handwritten prescription with no refills. In health care facilities, staff members must keep these in a secure, locked cabinet or storage area separate from other medications.

Schedule IV:

Includes substances that have a low potential for abuse and dependence. These include diazepam (Valium), zolpidem tartrate (Ambien), eszopiclone (Lunesta), alprazolam (Xanax), chlordiazepoxide (Librium), and clonazepam (Klonopin), lorazepam (Ativan). Providers must sign prescriptions for these substances, and patients may refill them 5 times in 6 months. Staff members may authorize refills over the phone.

Schedule III drugs:

Includes substances that have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. These include ketamine, anabolic steroids and testosterone. Providers must give patients a handwritten prescription. They may refill them 5 times in 6 months.

What does a New Patient Packet include?

Includes: New Patient Forms for documenting, demographics info, Notice of Privacy Practices. Patient medical history forms, which includes current medications.

Receipts:

Income received from the sale of goods and/or services; also, slips of paper documenting a purchase.

DNR orders (do not resuscitate):

Indicate to the medical staff not to return the patient's heart to normal.

Plaintiff:

Individual that files a lawsuit to initiate a legal action.

A urine reagent testing WBC's and nitrates can indicate:

Infection

In the pelvic cavity, what organs are within?

Inferior to the abdominal cavity, it houses the bladder.

A urine reagent testing protein can indicate:

Inflammation, infection, kidney disease, or chemical poisioning.

Patient has received full information about the procedure in a language with understandable terminology. Which consent is used for high risk, invasive, and surgical procedures?

Informed consent

Breach:

Infraction or violation of a law, obligation, tie, or standard.

Heparin (Type of action):

Inhibits thrombin

To administer oxygen to patient who is experiencing respiratory distress:

Insert the tips of the cannula into the patient's nostrils.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take to verify the quality of venipuncture supplies before beginning a blood draw?

Inspect the integrity of the needle's seal.

A medical assistant receives a denial of payment for a patient's cholecystectomy. The reasons stated is "non-covered service." The procedure was deemed emergent by the provider. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

Instruct the patient to contact the insurer about the denial of payment.

Proctoscope:

Instrument used for visual examination of the anal canal and lower part of the rectum.

Single Tooth Tenaculum Forceps:

Instrument used to grasp the cervix and provide traction during cervical dilation.

What is CHAMPVA program?

Insurance coverage from Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs.

A medical assistant is performing book keeping duties using the software EHR. What reason should a medical assistant enter as an adjustment on a patient's account?

Insurance dis-allowance

Battery:

Intentional touching or the use of force in a harmful manner, without the individual's consent.

ICD-10-CM:

International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification- used for Diagnosis codes 3-7 characters starting with the 1st character being alphabetical and second and third numeric- fourth, fifth, sixth, and seventh can be either alpha-or numeric.

Consists of anterior, middle and posterior divisions that distribute electrical impulses by SA to AV node:

Internodal pathway

A medical assistant is talking with a young adult patient who says he has found a partner he loves, but cannot seem to make a commitment to their relationship. The medical assistant should identify that the development crisis this patient is experiencing is which of the following?

Intimacy vs. Isolation

Malfeasance:

Is Performance of an unlawful, wrongful act; for example, performing a procedure on the wrong patient. (Misconduct or wrongdoing, especially by a public official).

A urinary tract infection (UTI):

Is a bacterial infection that affects part of the urinary tract. When it affects the lower urinary tract, it is known as a simple cystitis or bladder infection; and when it affects the upper urinary tract, it is known as polynephritis or kidney infection.

Simplified style letter:

Is a combination of full-block and semi-block letter formats. Simplified style has all letter parts justified to the left margin like full-block style, except company logo or letter head and the date line that is slightly right of the center.

Accounts Payable:

Is a debt incurred, but not yet paid.

Sinus Dysrhythmia:

Is a disturbance to an otherwise normal rhythm (especially of the heart) breathing patterns.

Mail Merge:

Is a feature that allows a user to create mass mailings of letters, mailing labels, and other documents and personalize the information in each.

Full-block style letter:

Is a format of the letter in which the placement of heading, date, complimentary close, signature and identification lines are all justified to the left margin.

Cushing Vein Retractor:

Is a handheld retractor commonly used in intracranial or large bone and joint procedures. This vein retractor can be used during general surgeries to retractor veins or other small tissues.

Sinoatrial arrest or sinus arrest:

Is a medical condition where the SA node of the heart transiently ceases to generate the electrical impulses that normally stimulate the myocardial tissues to contract and the heart to beat.

MOLST:

Is a medical document that specifies which treatments will be allowed during end of life care. Provider must sign off on the MOLST orders. These orders move with the patient if the patient changes facilities, and the form is bright pink for easy identification.

Tischler Biopsy Forceps (Punch):

Is a non-ratcheted, double spring OB/GYN instrument most commonly used in colposcopy procedures to obtain cervical tissue samples for biopsy. The bite of this standard Tischler punch is 3.0mm X 7.0mm and it produces an oval shaped tissue sample. It features a single, lower tooth used to grasp difficult to reach tissue and a locking mechanism above the horn on the handle so the jaws can lock the tissue sample into place while the instrument is removed from the cervical canal. This reduces the risk of losing the tissue sample as the instrument is withdrawn.

Sinus Bradycardia is:

Is a normal EKG tracing of a heart rate less than 60/mm.

The International Classification of Diseases (most commonly known by the abbreviation ICD-10):

Is a standard diagnostic tool for epidemiology, health management, and clinical purposes. It is known as a health care Classification system that provides codes to classify diseases and a wide variety of signs, symptoms, abnormal findings, complaints, social circumstances, and external causes of injury or disease. Under this system, every health condition can be assigned to a unique category and given a code, up to 6 characters long. Such categories can include a set of similar diseases.

Pennington Clamp (AKA Duval Clamp):

Is a surgical Clamp with a triangular eyelet. Used for grasping tissue, particularly during intestinal and rectal operations. Also used in some OB/GYN procedures, particularly caesarian section. Under the name 'Duval clamp' that are occasionally used much like a Foerster Clamp to atraumatically grasp lung tissue. The clamp is named after David Geoffrey Pennington, an Australian surgeon who is a pioneer of micro-surgeries.

What is the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?

Is a widely used test of cognitive function among the elderly; it includes tests of orientation, attention, memory, language and visual-spatial skills.

The U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA):

Is an agency of the U.S. Department of Labor, Congress established the agency under the Occupational Safety and Health Act.

An Ishihara color test:

Is an example of a color perception test for red-green color deficiencies. It was named after it's designer, Dr. Shinobu Ishihara, a professor at the University of Tokyo, who first published his tests in 1917.

King Adenoid Punch:

Is an excellent tool for adenoidectomy procedures. The strong curve of the blade allows easy access to the nasopharynx. The punch it designed to excise flat, broad tonsils not easily to removed with curette or adenotome. The guarded blade with triangular basket ensures quick and efficient tissue removal.

A Snellen chart:

Is an eye chart used by eye care professionals and others to measure visual acuity. Snellen charts are named after the Dutch ophthalmologist Herman Snellen who developed the chart in 1862.

What is an endemic?

Is an illness that is constantly present within a community.

A semen sample:

Is analyzed as part of fertility testing, assessing effectiveness of a sterilization procedure, or as part of a criminal investigation. Must protect specimen from extreme heat and cold. Must reach the lab within 1 hour after collection.

What is a Somatic Tremor Artifact?

Is characterized by irregular spikes throughout the tracing, and is related to muscle movement. If the patient is chilled, shivering can occur. Medical conditions such as Parkinson's disease can also result in somatic tremor. Characterized by a erratic, fuzzy baseline. A somatic tremor can be reduced by decreasing patient anxiety, and providing warmth and comfort as needed. If patients have conditions that lead to uncontrolled muscle movement, have them lay their hands with palms down under their buttocks to reduce somatic tremor.

What is the most common contraindications?

Is hypersensitivity

What is an Interrupted Baseline Artifact?

Is obvious when there is a break in the tracing. It is usually related to a disconnection or broken lead wire. EKG machines are typically equipped with filters to remove external interference. Check to make sure that the filter is turned on.

The special delivery for an arterial blood gas (ABG)Hazardous waste should be placed:

Is on ice.

R-R interval:

Is the distance between two consecutive R waves. In sinus rhythm, this interval should be constant. The duration of the R-R interval depends on the heart rate. It is measured from the beginning of an R wave to the beginning of the next one.

What is Mortality?

Is the measure of deaths in an area, or population. Morbidity can lead to Mortality.

What is Atrophy?

Is the partial or complete wasting away of a part of the body.

Repolarization:

Is the process of reaching the resting state before they can electrically stimulated again.

Polarization:

Is the resting state of the myocardial wall, when there is not electrical activity in the heart and is recorded on the EKG strip as a flatline.

Define the goal of Upstream Management:

Is to assist patients in staying healthy and keep them out of health care facilities by improving their understanding of contributing health factors.

What is the mission of OSHA?

Is to assure safe and healthful working conditions for men and women by setting and enforcing standards, and by providing training, outreach, education and assistance.

The first action the medical assistant should take, once provider initiates a specialist and diagnosis code:

Is to complete a patient referral form.

Martin Pelvimeter:

Is used in OB/GYN to assess the size of the female pelvis in relation to childbirth to determine whether natural vaginal delivery is possible. The pelvimeter features two bulbed arms to grasp the pelvis width and a ruler at the hinge graduated in centimeters and inches.

What is an epidemic?

Is when an infectious disease spreads rapidly to a large number of people.

Why is it good to use a pegboard?

It decreases chances of error.

How can dark fingernail polish cause a falsely low Spo2 reading?

It interferes with light transmission through the finger, the darker the coating is, the more likely the Spo2 decreases.

What does an Anti-tussive do?

It is a RX that suppresses the cough reflex.

What is a pandemic?

It is a world-wide outbreak of a disease (such as Covid19).

Uterine Sound with Slider:

It is important to determine the size and shape of the uterine cavity as well as the thickness of the uterine wall. This is accomplished by rotating the uterine sound and measuring the width and depth of the uterine cavity as well as by bi-manual palpation or hysterography.

What is a Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?

It is model of primary care that seeks to meet the healthcare needs of patients and to improve patient and staff experiences, outcomes, safety, and system efficiency.

PR interval represents:

It is the time from the start of atrial depolarization to start of ventricular depolarization.

What is a sputum specimen?

It must be sterile, the client should rinse mouth out with water to decrease the bacterial count in the mouth. Material coughed up from the lungs for patient with respiratory infection most accurate when patient collects the sputum in the morning, before having anything to eat or drink. Don't want saliva in the container.

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

It synthesizes carbohydrates and sorts the proteins the ribosome is supporting. It also has some storage functions prior to preparing some substances for removal from the cells.

The medical assistant should identify the purpose of category II code in procedural coding because:

It tracks provider performance measures.

Point at which QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins:

J (RST) junction

A kilogram (1000 grams = 2.2 pounds)

Kg

Tan-top tube (K² EDTA/Oxalate)

K²EDTA for whole- blood hematology determinations and immunohematology testing (ABO grouping, Rh typing, antibody screening). Used for lead determinations up to 0.1 ug/ml of lead. Inversions prevent clotting. For glucose determinations. Oxalate and EDTA anticoagulants will give plasma samples and can be used as a sterile transport tube. Must be inverted 8 times.

Subject:

Label according to information.

toward the side, away from the mid-line.

Lateral

Where is the lead for a V5 reading placed?

Lateral to V4, in the left anterior axillary line. (Orange)

Where is the lead for a V6 reading placed?

Lateral to V5, in the left midaxillary line. (Purple)

A medical assistant is obtaining a sample for a erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) test. Which of the following tubes should the medical assistant use for blood collection?

Lavender-top (or black)

A medical assistant is obtaining samples for a CBC test. Which of the following tubes should the medical assistant select?

Lavender-top test tube for hematology (EDTA)

Civil Law:

Laws that deal with the relationships between and among individuals.

These record electrical potentials in the frontal plane:

Lead I, Lead II, Lead III and the chest leads.

What are Eosinophils?

Lead the bodys counterattack against parasitic worms and bacteria, kill cells, participate in allergic reactions, plays a part in inflammatory responses, and "responds" to areas of inflammation.

Manual system:

Ledger cards

Lead III records electrical activity between the...

Left arm, and the right leg.

Where is the lead for a LA reading placed?

Left forearm or wrist. (black)

Where is the lead for a LL reading placed?

Left lower leg, proximal to ankle (red)

What are the four main components of Pharmacokinetics?

Liberation, Absorption , distribution, metabolism, and excretion (LADME). These are used to explain the various characteristics of different drugs in the body.

What is a Health Care Licensure?

Licensure is state-regulated and issued upon graduation from a medical or chiropractic institute. This is mandatory for physicians. Medical assistants are not required to be licensed, but some states require licenses for specific services.

Non-verbal body language usually reveals how a patient truly feels about the situation, even when it contradicts what the patient is saying. Facial expressions are typically the best way to determine how a patient truly feels.

Like a furrowed brow

Segment:

Line between two waveforms.

A patient is entitled to:

List of medications and diagnosis.

"Res Ipsa loquitor" means:

Literally means, "it speaks for itself." In other words, the negligence is obvious. In these cases, the burden of proof falls on defendant defendants to prove they were not negligent. An example of a Res ipsa loquitor case would be finding an instrument inside the patient following a surgical procedure or a patient sustaining burns while lying on a heated blanket.

What happens when the legal system is violated?

Litigation can occur.

A urine reagent testing bilirubin can indicate:

Liver disease, or RBC destruction

Which of the following is the legal document that states the life-saving procedures a patient authorizes in the event that he is incapable of verbalizing his desire for medical treatment?

Living Will

Culturette:

Long Q-tip used to collect wound drainage to test for infection.

lot

Lotion

A medical assistant is using a scale with a height bar to measure the patient's height. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

Lower the horizontal bar gently so that it rests on the patient's head.

Lithotomy position:

Lying on back with legs raised and feet in stirrups.

Supine position:

Lying on back, facing upward.

Dorsal recumbent position:

Lying on the back with the knees flexed.

What is the second most numerous WBC?

Lymphocyte with 20 to 40%

These WBC's play an important role in viral infection as well as in immunity:

Lymphocytes

What are lymphocytes?

Lymphocytes include several sub-types: B cells produce antibodies. T cells target virus or fungal-infected cells, cancer cells, and transplanted cells. Natural killer (NK) cells attack and destroy foreign microbes. All of these lymphocyte cells contribute to the body's immune response.

Metered dose inhaler

MDI

A vital component of OSHA, Occupational Safety and Health Administration:

MSDS Material Data Safety Sheets

What is Macrophage?

Macrophages are effector cells of the innate immune system that phagocytose bacteria and secrete both pro-inflammatory and antimicrobial mediators. In addition, Macrophages play an important role in eliminating diseased and damaged cells through their programmed cell death. Macrophages have been shown to phagocytose virus particles and kill virus-infected cells and thus inhibit virus growth in vitro.

HITECH Act of 2009:

Made into a law to promote the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology.

Which of the following approaches should a medical assistant take when discussing a patient's compliance to dietary guidelines?

Maintain an empathetic tone.

When drawing blood, always have the patient:

Make a fist.

What is a clean-catch (midstream) urine specimen?

Make sure not to allow anything other than urine to come in contact with the inside surface of the container and lid. Use antiseptic wipes to clean the area. •You will be provided with 1 urine cup. 1 Castile soap wipe. 3 benzalkonium (BZK) cleaning wipes. For women: • Use the 3 BZK wipes to clean the area between the labia. • Wipe from front to back. • Use wipe 1 for the left side, 1 wipe for the right side, and 1 wipe for the center (over the urinary opening). • Throw wipes away in the trash. For men: • Use the Castile soap wipe to clean the head of the penis, throw the wipe away in the trash. • Use the 3 BZK cleansing wipes (1 at a time) to clean the head of the pens, including around the urinary opening at the tip of the penis. Throw the wipes away in the trash. Mainly used to detect bacteria, they need to wash their hands before and after specimen collection. Start to urinate in the toilet, then collect the urine in a container until it is ¼-½ full, then finish urinating in the toilet.

A medical assistant is testing a patient's visual acuity using a Snellen chart. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

Make sure the patient does not lean forward during the test.

A Medical Assistant witnesses a coworker knowingly commit an unlawful and wrongful act. The Medical Assistant should indemnify this act as which of the following types of negligence?

Malfeasance

What is Managed Care?

Managed care plans are a type of health insurance. They have contracts with health care providers and medical facilities to provide care for members at reduced costs. These providers make up the plan's network. How much of your care the plan will pay for depends on the network's rules.

What does an Anesthesiologist specialize in?

Managing pain or using sedation during surgical procedures.

"Respondeat Superior" means:

Means, "Let the master answer." "Respondeat Superior" is a doctrine that states that employers are responsible for the actions of their employees when the actions are performed within the constraints of their position.

toward the mid-line, middle, away from the side.

Medial

toward the midline of the body

Medial

Cryosurgery to the cervix:

Medical Assistant should tell the patient, "You may experience a watery discharge for up to 1 week after your procedure. "

Hippocratic Oath:

Medical Assistants work under the direct supervision of providers -sets the framework for ethical principles related to the practice of medicine.

To routinely clean the examination table, the CMA would use the technique of:

Medical asepsis to disinfect.

What is a General Practitioner?

Medical doctors who treat acute and chronic illnesses, provide preventative care, and patient education.

Encounter form/superbill:

Medical document that contains information regarding a patient visit for health care services, can serve as a billing or coding document.

What is Point of Care Testing (POCT)?

Medical testing at or near the site of patient care. The driving notion behind POCT is to bring the test conveniently and immediately to the patient.

The Advanced Beneficiary Notification (ABN) form is used primarily for:

Medicare Patients

Celsius

Metric unit for measuring temperature; On this scale water freezes at zero and boils at 100.

Microbiology is the study of:

Microorganisms like Bacteria, fungi, virus, yeasts parasites.

A blood pressure (BP) is measured in:

Millimeters of mercury or mm.

What are the two things crimes can be classified as?

Misdemeanors or felonies

Infectious agents move from the source to the host by means of:

Mode of transmission

level 1 test include:

Moderate-Complexity tests that analyze chemical and hematology including microscopic analysis or urine specimens.

Assets:

Money and other valuables belonging to an individual or business.

Their numbers increase in intracellular infections and TB:

Monocytes

When doing a urine pregnancy test the __________________urine specimen is the most accurate to use.

Morning

Urinalysis tests:

Most Common of all lab tests, examine patients urine for factors like: appearance, color, odor, pH, specific gravity, and presence/absence of protein, glucose, and hemoglobin.

3cc Syringe:

Most common syringe used.

Mayo-Heger Needle Holder:

Most commonly used for both surgical human and animal procedures 0used with larger, heavier (used for intermmediated-weight sutures).

Crile Hemostatic Clamp:

Most commonly used to clamp blood vessels, hold tissue for dissection, and clamp tissue prior to cauterization or ligation. Surgeons rely upon this stainless- steel instrument to allow them to control blood loss and manipulate tissue during a variety of procedures. The instruments may also be used for soft tissue dissection in Laparotomy procedures. Also known as Crile Hemostatic Forceps, and Crile Hemostat.

Pre-certification:

Most insurances require pre-certification within 24 hours of the admission dates. Providers must prove medical necessity before performing a procedure.

Types of Surgical Instruments:

Most of our surgical instruments can be used for general surgery in a research laboratory setting. Instruments can be roughly categorized by function. • Cutting instruments include scissors, surgical blades, knives and scalpers. • Grasping or holding instruments include hemostatic forceps and tissue forceps. • Retractors, which hold incisions open or hold an organ (or tissue) out of the way, include Gelpi, Weitlaner and US Army style instruments. • Speculum is a unlighted instrument with movable parts that when inserted into a cavity, such as the nasal cavity or rectum, can be spread apart as ease of visualization and tissue sample removal. • Probing and Dilating instruments are used to explore wounds and cavities usually with a curved, blunt point to facilitate insertion. • Trocar is used to withdraw fluids from cavities. It consists of a cannula (outer tube) and a sharp stylet that is withdrawn after the trocar is inserted. • Punch is used to remove tissue for examination and biopsy.

How can a patient's movement cause an inaccurate Spo2 reading?

Motion affects the ability of light to travel from LED to photodetector; preventing the probe from picking up the pulse signal.

Exposure Control Plan (ECP):

Must be given to employees upon request within 15 working days and the plan must be available at all times in the workplace.

Temporal thermometers should be cleaned between patients by which method?

Must be wiped with alcohol swab between patients or used with disposable sheath caps.

Patient charts:

Must never leave the office and those that have not yet been filed are to be locked away at closing.

What elements must a contract contain to be valid?

Mutual assent, consideration, capacity, and legality.

Using the knowledge of medical roots and suffixes, what term means incision into the eardrum?

Myringotomy. Myringo= tympanic membrane (eardrum) Otomy = cut into.

Nausea and vomiting

N/V, N&V

No known allergies

NKA

no known drug allergies

NKDA

Do medical directives expire?

NO

Nothing by mouth

NPO

normal saline

NS (NIS) (N/S)

Sodium

Na+

Nasal Speculum:

Nasal Speculum helps in providing internal visualization of the nasal valve. This Speculum is designed for endoscopic nasal procedures. The very thin, narrow, & tapering blades retracting the nasal walls thus, allowing visualization of the narrow nasal passage.

Owners equity is also like:

Net worth, proprietorship, and capital.

The endoplasmic reticulum provides:

Networks of passage ways for moving various substances within the cytoplasm.

Their numbers increase in bacterial infections and often are first on scene:

Neutrophils

Average Normal Ranges for Respirations:

Newborn:* 30-60 (breaths/min) Child (1-5 yrs.): 20-30 (breaths/min) Child (6-16 yrs.): 15-23 (breaths/min) Adult: 12-20 (breaths/min) *Ranges should be used as a reference only. Normal ranges, especially for newborns and children, can vary.

Average Normal Range for Pulse:

Newborn:* 80-160 (beats/min) Child (1-5 yrs.) 80-130 (beats/min) Child (6-16 yrs.) 75-110 (beats/min) Adult: 97-99 (beats/min) *Ranges should be used as a reference only. Normal ranges, especially for newborns and children, can vary.

Average Normal Range for Temperature:

Newborn:* 97.0-100 (F°) Child (1-5 yrs): 98.6 (F°) Child (6-16 yrs): 98.6 (F°) Adult. 97.0-99 (F°) Average oral/tympanic: 98.6 (F°) Auxiliary: 97.7 (F°) Rectal: 99.5 (F°) *Ranges should be used as a reference only. Normal ranges, especially for newborns and children, can vary.

What type of gloves would you use if your patient is allergic to latex?

Nitrile gloves Nitrile gloves are latex free and have very low allergy rates (less than 1% of users). They are the most popular type of glove used today which is mainly attributed to their versatility (can be used in almost every industry), very low allergy rates, and price.

What is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant with the side effect of headache?

Nitroglycerin patch or SL

Red top tube (Clot activator) Plain Tube

No Additive, also known as a plain vacuum tube. Contains no additive. Mode of action blood clots serum is separated via centrifugation. No need to invert tube. Lab use: Drug levels, and blood bank.

OSHA and BBP training should be provided at______________________to employees

No cost to employees

Night

Noct-

A urine reagent testing urobilinogen:

Normal ranges from 0.2 - 1.0. •formed by bacterial conversion of conjugated bilirubin in intestine •reabsorbed via portal circulation and a small amount is excreted One of the most sensitive tests to determine impaired liver fx. One of the earliest signs of liver dz and hemolytic disorders. Increased in: •excessive hemolysis •liver disease (hepatitis, cirrhosis) •constipation •intestinal bacterial overgrowth Decreased in: •cholestasis, cholelithiasis •obstructive biliary disease

What is the U wave?

Not always visible, but represents a repolarization of the Bundle of His and Perkinje fibers.

A provider notifies a medical assistant that she will be arriving 20 min late to the office. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

Notify the next scheduled patient about the delay.

Parker-Mott Retractor:

Novo Surgical Parker-Mott Retractor is a hand-held retractor that is primarily used to pull back soft tissue and spread the edges of a wound in order to enlarge the operating field for the surgeon.

right eye (or) overdose

OD

Who enforces safety conditions in the medical office?

OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA):

OSHA states that employers are accountable for providing a safe and healthy workplace for employees by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education, and assistance.

Over-the-counter (medication)

OTC

each eye/both eyes

OU

Objective data:

Objective data are observable and measurable data ("signs") obtained through observation, physical examination, and laboratory and diagnostic testing.

Which of the following techniques should a medical assistant use to confirm a patient's understanding of insulin administration?

Observe the patient as he/she performs a self demonstration.

De Lee OB Forceps:

Obstetrics forceps are designed to aid in the delivery of the fetus by applying traction to the fetal head. There is a wide range of obstetrical forceps in different shapes and sizes.

What is ventricular depolarization?

Occurs in part via an accessory pathway (AP) directly connecting the atrium and ventricle and thus capable of conducting electrical impulses into the ventricle bypassing the AV- His Purkinje conduction system.

The U wave represents:

Of uncertain origin, however it can be repolarization of the purkinje fibers.

Where should a medical assistant place an electrode for lead V5?

On the left anterior axillary line horizontal to V4.

On a patient account or ledger, the credit column is:

On the right and is used for entering payments.

What is an AC Interference Artifact?

Or 60-cycle interference, is characterized by regular spikes in the EKG tracing. It is related to poor grounding or external electricity interfering with the tracing. Things such as lights, computers, and crossed lead wires can result in AC interference. Ensure proper grounding of the machine to aid in reducing ac interference. Do this by using a three-prong plug, avoiding crossed wires, moving the bed away from the wall, and turning off unnecessary electronic devices.

Organ and Tissue donation:

Orders allow organs or body parts from a healthy person to be transferred to people who need them.

Which of the following community resources should a medical assistant recommend to an early patient who lost his partner 3 months ago?

Organized support group

Tympanic thermometers should not be used if the patient has ______________or______________.

Otitis Externa or Cerumen

A medical assistant is preparing a referral slip for a patient who is reporting symptoms of vertigo. What specialist should the medical assistant refer the patient to?

Otolaryngologist. They specialize in the ear, nose, and throat as well as conditions that affect the head and neck.

What is a Copayment?

Out of pocket amount of money paid by insured each time services are rendered (even after deductible is met).

List drugs given for acute MI:

Oxygen, Epinephrine, Isoproterenol, Dopamine(intropin), Beta Blocker(olol), Lidocaine, Verapamil, Digitalis, Morphine, Nitroglycerin.

Oxygen

O²

The normal EKG cycle consists of waveforms that are labeled as the:

P-wave, the Q- wave, the R-wave, the S-wave, and the T-wave

After meals

PC-

pupils equal, round, react to light and accommodation.

PERRLA

Evening or nighttime

PM-

by mouth, orally

PO

POLST:

POLST stands for Physician's Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment. In some states it is called by a different name such as POST, MOLST, MOST, etc. (1) in this discussion all such forms are referred to as POLST. The POLST is generally a one page, two-sided uniquely identifiable form.

Pearl White-top tube (PPT- K²EDTA)

PPT is an evacuated, sterile blood collection tube that contains an inert gel and spray-dried K² EDTA anticoagulant for achieving plasma separation. When the sample-filled tube is subjected to centrifugation, the gel migrates and forms a physical barrier between the plasma and most of the cellular elements. Contains EDTA and a special polyester material- Lab use: for the collection of plasma for molecular (PCR) tests, diagnostics, myocardial infarction panels, and ammonia levels. *NOTE: after the tube has been filled with blood, immediately invert the tube 8-10 times to mix and ensure adequate anticoagulation of the specimen.

The entire cardiac cycle can be called the complex:

PQRST

Rectally

PR, R, REC

As needed

PRN, prn

A medical assistant should recognize that a world-wide, rapidly spreading novel infection can result in which of the following?

Pandemic

What type of infection is Pediculosis?

Parasitic ( head lice )

A medical assistant should follow Chain of Custody guidelines for which of the following types of lab results?

Parentage testing (DNA)

Follow the Chain of Custody guidelines for:

Parentage testing and lab results.

Capacity:

Parties must be legally able to contract.

What health care delivery model emphasizes the patient's involvement in organizing their own health care?

Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH). It is a health care model that is coordinated through a patient's PCP.

High Fowler's Position:

Patient is supine with head of bed elevated approx 60-90°.

Low Fowler's position:

Patient lies supine with head of bed elevated 15-30°.

Standard Fowler's position:

Patient lies supine with head of bed elevated 45-60°.

Semi-Fowler's Position:

Patient lies supine with head of bed elevated approx 30-45°.

Recognize the patient needs and barriers, coordinating care, and identifying resources to meet those needs best describes the responsibilities of which of the following positions?

Patient navigator

Consent form:

Patient needs to sign a consent to treat form before the provider sees them, unless it's an emergency situation. This is necessary for any treatment or procedures, including exams.

Knee-chest position:

Patient places the head & chest on examination table while kneeling with buttocks elevated.

Orthopneic position:

Patient sitting up (ortho) and leaning over a table to breathe (pneic).

What identifiers qualify to verify a patient's identity?

Patient's full name Patient's date of birth Patient's home address Patient's phone number (or) Patient's social security number

With

Per

What is Coinsurance?

Percentage of costs the insurance company and insured each pay (usually 80/20).

Which type of bond requires a thorough background investigation?

Personal bond

Demographic information:

Personal information about the patient; the name, address, and telephone number. Phone number of the guarantor's employer; the names, addresses, and policy numbers of all health insurance plans covering the patient; the name of the referring physician; and information about any dependents.

Which of the following is true about petty cash procedures?

Petty cash should be balanced each day before closing.

Which of the following information should a medical assistant include when creating a list of community-based organizations related to a patient's physical health care needs?

Physical address

Thixotropic gel (Type of action):

Physical barrier

PDR

Physician's Desk Reference

What are platelets?

Platelets, or thrombocytes, are small, colorless cell fragments in our blood that form clots and stop or prevent bleeding. Platelets are made in the bone marrow, the sponge-like tissue inside the bones. Platelets have the following functions: ■ Secrete vasoconstrictors which constrict blood vessels, causing vascular spasms in broken blood vessels. ■ Form temporary platelet plugs to stop bleeding. ■ Secrete procoagulants (clotting factors) to promote blood clotting. ■ Dissolve blood clots when they are no longer needed.

Code of ethics:

Pledge to guide a member's behavior.

__________________ quality control test regulation ensures accuracy of results.

Point of care

Urine reagent testing allows you to perform:

Point-of-care urine testing using reagent strips is a CLIA waived test involves placing a chemically treated strip onto the urine sample. Observe the squares on the strips for color changes.

Interval:

Portion of the EKG that includes a segment and one or more waves.

Which of the following laboratory results should the medical assistant recognize is abnormal?

Potassium 3 mEq/L

#7 Knife Handle

Precision cutting & dissecting in confined space or deep wound. Uses # 10,11,12, 15, blades

A medical assistant is performing inventory for a clinic. What action should the medical assistant take?

Prepare a purchase order

A condition in which the lens of the eye looses it's ability to focus, making it difficult to see objects up close. The CMA should escort this patient and lead them, since their vision has been compromised.

Presbyopia

A Pharmacy Technician should recognize that which of the following information is mandatory for controlled substances prescriptions and unnecessary for non-controlled substance prescriptions?

Prescriber's DEA number

A pharmacy technician should recognize that which of the following information is mandatory for controlled substances prescriptions and unnecessary for non-controlled substance prescriptions?

Prescriber's DEA number.

Sodium fluoride (Type of action):

Preserves glucose

What professional specializes in evaluating mental illness, physical illness, and disability through analyzing patient health needs and providing health education to patients of all ages?

Preventative medicine specialist

A medical assistant is reviewing lab requisitions. What patient condition should the assistant perform a capillary draw rather than a venipuncture?

Previous thrombosis. The assistant should consider a "cap" (capillary) draw when the amount of blood needed is minimal and the patient has a history of thrombosis.

What does civil law govern?

Private rights of individuals, corporation, and government.

A Total practice Management System has the ability to:

Process insurance claims electronically, manage payroll and purchases, and generate financial records.

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:

Prohibits employment agencies, employers, and unions from discriminating against applicants and employees on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, or sex.

PHI stands for:

Protected Health Information (PHI).

What are Administrative Agencies responsible for?

Protecting civil rights, privacy, and safety of it's citizens.

Temporal thermometers:

Provide quick readings, within several seconds. They are easily administered and can be used on infants, children, and adults. Some research indicates that temporal thermometers may be as accurate as rectal thermometers in children, and provide better readings than ear or armpit thermometers can.

What is an Explanation of Benefits (EOB)?

Provided by the insurance carrier and identifies what was paid, reduced, or denied, as well as the deductible, coinsurance, and allowable amount.

History of Present Illness (HPI):

Provides a more complete, expansive description of the chief complaint. The HPI component of the health history must contain a detailed description of the symptom(s), including the onset, duration, and intensity of each. Each symptom should be documented as to it's relationship to the chief complaint.

What is pulse oximetry?

Pulse oximetry is a test used to measure the oxygen level (oxygen saturation or SpO²%) of the blood. It is an easy, painless measure of how well oxygen is being sent to parts of the body furthest from the heart, such as the arms and the legs.

This fires at 20-40 bpm:

Purkinje fibers

Affordable Care Act:

Put in place to reform the health care system by providing more Americans with affordable, quality health insurance. (Obama Care)

Which stage of cardiac cycle on EKG strip represents ventricular depolarization?

QRS Complex

What can the body be divided into?

Quadrants or nine regions.

What is the QuantiFeron test and what does a positive test mean?

QuantiFeron-TB Gold (QFT)is a simple blood that aids in the detection of Myobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria which causes tuberculosis (TB). QFT is a modern alternative to the tuberculosis skin test (TST, PPD or Mantoux). A positive result only indicates the likelihood of infection and does not mean the patient has active tuberculosis or that they are contagious. Active tuberculosis is diagnosed through a combination of laboratory tests (bacteriological testing), X-rays and other clinical evaluations.

A Pharmacy Technician receives a handwritten prescription from a patient. The technician should verify that the prescription contains which of the following information?

Quantity of the medication

Where you find Hemoglobin at:

RBC's

What is 99% of formed elements in the blood?

RBC's or Erythrocytes

To repeat

RPT

Take; by prescription

RX, Rx

Diagnostic imaging without radiation:

Radiologic waves are MRI, which uses a electromagnetic field to produce images and ultrasound, which uses sound waves.

What are examples of misdemeanors?

Reckless driving and discharging a firearm in city limits.

When reconciling a bank statement:

Reconciling should be done every month, and the checkbook entries should be checked against the bank statement.

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on the Left Leg is:

Red

What are red blood cells (RBC's)?

Red blood cells also called erythrocyte. Hemoglobin is the protein inside a red blood cells. It carries oxygen. Red blood cells also remove carbon dioxide from your body, bringing it to the lungs for you to exhale. The cell is flexible and assumes a bell shape as it passes through extremely small blood vessels. Blood cells are made in the bone marrow. They typically live for about 120 days, and then they die.

Define Upstream Management in population on Health:

Refers to Healthcare Organizations becoming involved in the health of it's population, even when patient's are not in the clinic or hospitals. (The MA plays a role and can enhance patient compliance, and education).

What is Morbidity?

Refers to the measure of sickness or disease within a specific population or area. A wide range of factors influence a person and populations health status.

What is incidence?

Refers to the occurrence of new diseases or cases in a specific population over a distinct period of time (new cases).

What is prevalence?

Refers to the proportion of population who have a particular disease at a specific point in time over a period of time (total cases, some due to environmental or seasonal changes).

Sinus Tachycardia:

Reflects a heart rate greater than 100/min

How long should it take to process referrals?

Regular referral takes 3-10 business days (for evaluation and approval) to process. Urgent referral takes 24 hours (for authorization) to process. STAT referral takes as quickly as possible (via telephone and fax to insurance company) to process.

A medical assistant is collecting a health history from an older adult patient who exhibits moderate hearing loss. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

Remain within the patient view to allow a lip reading.

What does the term oophorectomy mean?

Removal of the ovaries. Oophor = ovaries, Ectomy = removal.

Plain Splinter Forceps:

Remove splinters.

Mouse Tooth Jaw:

Removes kidney stones.

Staple Remover:

Removes staples in surgery.

What is The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)?

Requires health-care providers to be responsible for the privacy and security of a patient's protected health information.

What does, "It speaks for itself "mean in Latin terms?

Res Ipsa Loquitor

What are the two Latin terms that can be used to describe certain aspects of negligence?

Res ipsa loquitor & respondeat superior

What doctrine came from the common law "Master-servant rule"?

Respondeat superior

Medical Assisting Staff:

Responsible for management of the business details of the practice.

What is a Wandering Baseline Artifact?

Results from poor electrode connection. It can be associated with lotions, oils, or powders on the patient's skin. The baseline will wander away from the center of the paper, causing difficulty in tracing interpretation. Clean the skin prior to attaching the electrodes and instruct the patient to avoid using creams, lotions, and powder to assist in reducing a wandering baseline.

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who has a new medication prescription from a provider. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to facilitate patient understanding and medication compliance?

Review the dosage and administration instructions with the patient.

A medical assistant is helping a patient check out, what action should they take first?

Review the patient's medical record.

Where is the lead for a RA reading placed?

Right forearm or wrist. (white)

Where is the lead for a RL reading placed?

Right lower leg, proximal to ankle. (green)

Yankauer Suction:

Rigid suction catheter used to remove secretions and foreign material from the oral cavity.

Ring Forceps:

Ring Forceps are used for grasping, holding firmly or exerting traction upon objects. For especially delicate operations, generally ring handles with a locking ratchet are preferred over thumb forceps. Locking hemostatic forceps may be called clamps and are used to securely hold tissue.

Room temperature that is too hot or too cold is an external distraction and can decrease effective communication. The medical assistant can address this issue by asking the patient if the temperature is comfortable in the examination room.

Room temperature is important

Royal Blue Top Tube (with no preservative):

Royal Blue top tube (no preservative) with clot activator: used for trace metal serum determinations.

What do criminal laws address?

Rules and statues that define wrongdoings against the community as a whole.

SOAP notes:

S: subjective- impressions O: objective- findings or clinical indications A: assessment- or medical diagnosis P: plan- for treatment

What resource provides information about the use of chemicals in a medical facility?

SDS or Safety Data Sheet

under the tongue

SL, sl, subl

Indication for termination of a stress test:

SOB, chest pain, dizziness, blood pressure abnormalities.

Subcutaneous

SQ, 25-30 gauge, 1/2-5/8 inches, 45°angle

Immediately

STAT

Remember S.O.F.T

Sagittital Oblique Frontal Transverse

What are some examples that someone's personal beliefs may be violated?

Same sex couples, and abortion.

Sapphire blades:

Sapphire blades may be used in microsurgery, dissection and related applications. They are not as hard as a diamond, but still hundreds of times harder than a razor blade. Sapphire blades cuts with minimum pressure, without tearing or damaging the specimen. The blades are corrosion free and resistant to saline solution. They offer a super sharp cutting edge, and they work with stainless steel or titanium handles.

A pharmacy technician should recognize that exempt narcotics are included in which of the following controlled substance schedules?

Schedule V drugs

Parents of a 5-year-old call the clinic to tell the nurse that they think their child has been abused by her day-care provider. What should the nurse advise them to do?

Schedule an immediate appointment with their health care provider.

Tonsil Clamp (aka Schnidt Hemostatic Clamp):

Schnidt Tonsil (Forcep & Clamp) are used for placing packing material following tonsil removal. If the instrument has a full curve, it may be known as Schnidt-Sawtell Forceps. This product has a slight curve and one open finger ring. Censitrac instruments are custom barcoded to reflect the facility.

Suture Scissors:

Scissors used to remove sutures.

A CMA should never practice outside their:

Scope of Practice

Surgical Gloves:

Sheer, hygienic plastic gloves worn by surgeons.

Prescription pads:

Should be locked in a tamper-proof safe at closing.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient who has psoriasis to be examined by the provider. When inspecting the patient's skin lesions, the assistant should expect to observe which of the following characteristics?

Silvery, scaly.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient who has psoriasis to be examined by the provider. When inspecting the patient's skin lesions, the medical assistant should expect to observe what characteristics?

Silvery, scaly.

Which of the following best describes the spacing in the body of a business letter?

Single-spaced with double space between paragraphs

Schroeder Uterine Tenaculum Forceps:

Sklar Schroeder-Braun Tenaculum Forceps are a ratcheted, finger ring instrument commonly used in OB/GYN procedures involving manipulation of the cervix or uterus, most commonly D&C, and vaginal or abdominal hysterectomy. They are also used to grasp, hold, and move vessels and arteries during surgical procedures.

Ives-Fansler Rectal Speculum:

Sklar-Ives Rectal Speculum, also known as the Ives-Fansler Anoscope, is used for examining the anal canal, hemorrhoidectomy, and rectal excision. Non-latex, plastic obturator used to assist with insertion of the speculum. Diameter at the tip is 18mm and diameter nearest the handle is 25mm.

Bishop Harman Forceps:

Small, delicate fine tip +/- teeth; always with 3 holes making it lightweight.

What major mineral is responsible for fluid balance, glucose transport, acid-base balance, muscle, and nerve function?

Sodium, although patients who have cardiovascular disease should limit their salt intake, some sodium is essential for these major functions.

Assault:

Someone threatens to cause harm to an individual.

Beneficiary:

Someone who is entitled to receive benefits.

What is a Family Practitioner?

Someone who offers care to a whole family from newborns to older adults.

What is SOMR?

Source Oriented Medical Record; all labs, examinations, doctor's notes, consulting physicians, other sources reports and forms are put together by category.

Foerster Sponge Forceps:

Sponge-holding forceps that grasps tissue or holding sponges.

Squatting position:

Squatting is an adaptable posture where the weight of the body is on the feet, but the knees and hips are bent.

Adson Forceps:

Stainless steel tweezers with teeth used to move and hold tissue in place during delicate surgical procedures.

P-R interval:

Starts at the beginning of the P wave and ends at the beginning of the Q wave. It represents the time it takes from the beginning of atrial- depolarization to the beginning of ventricular- depolarization.

ST segment:

Starts at the end of the S wave and ends at the end beginning of the T wave. It represents the time from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of ventricular repolarization. If a ST segment elevation is shown on an EKG, it is associated with a myocardial infarction.

Removing all living microorganisms from a contaminated towel clamp is:

Sterilization

This process gets rid of all forms of microbial life and spores:

Sterilization

Operating Scissors:

Straight or curved, with a combination of blades such as sharp/sharp (s/s), blunt/blunt (b/b), or sharp/blunt (s/b).

What is in the patient's medical chart area that includes personal demographics, along with medical, family, and social history?

Subjective

Subjective data:

Subjective data are information from the client's point of view and in their own words. ("symptoms"), including feelings, perceptions, and concerns obtained through interview. (Not influenced by personal feelings or opinions in considering and representing facts).

Surgical Lubricant:

Substances that are applied to surfaces to reduce the friction between the surfaces.

Schedule I drugs include:

Substances that have a high potential for abuse and no medical (approved) use in the U.S. They are illegal, and prescribers may not prescribe them. These include heroin, mescaline, and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). Schedule 1 still includes cannabis (Marijuana) even though it is legal in many states for medical use with a prescription.

When a party fails to hold up their part of a contract, what must happen?

Sued for breach of contract.

Daily Journal:

Summary of practice activity on day to day basis.

Inventory:

Supplies should be ordered, checked against the shipping or packing list when they arrive.

Metzenbaum Scissors:

Surgical scissors designed for cutting delicate tissues and blunt dissection.This is the most common type of scissors used in organ-related operations. Not for cutting tough fascia/sutures.

Surgical Suture:

Sutures used in operation.

Which of the following instructions should a medical assistant give a patient when administering an enteric- coated tablet?

Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.

Symptoms

Sx

During a routine venipuncture, the patient becomes pale and diaphoretic. What condition is most likely to occur in this patient?

Syncope

What is an an Electronic Medical Record (EMR)?

Systematic collection of a patient's health care and treatment in a digital format in the physician's or medical facility.

A blood pressure is written with the ____________ pressure on the top, and the _____________ pressure on the bottom.

Systolic; diastolic

A positive holter is one that recorded at least one or more of these abnormalities

Tachy or bradycardia, ST segment elevation or depression, pauses.

Tenotomy Scissors:

Tenotomy scissors have characteristically long handles and small, sharp blades with sharp or blunt wedge-shaped tips. They are used for dissection and cutting. The long handles provide the surgeon with a firm grip and control while operating in narrow places.

Scope of practice:

Terminology used by National and State/Provencial licensing boards for various professions that define the procedures, actions, and processes that are permitted for the licensed or certified individual. The Scope of Practice is limited to that which the law allows for specific education and experience, and specific demonstrated competency.

CLIA-waived tests:

Tests that provide simple, unvarying results and require a minimum amount of judgment and interpretation (CLIA) requires controls and settings be performed on all equipment ensuring the patient testing is accurate and test results are reliable.

Pink-top tube (EDTA & K+)

Tests: TSR (Type and Screen), Cross-match Additives: Potassium/EDTA (anticoagulant). Mode of action forms calcium salts uses immunohematology Laboratory use: Blood Bank

During a blood draw, OSHA requires:

That gloves are worn

Is the universal claim form.

The CMS-1500 form is also called a "super bill" or "encounter form" and is used by physicians.

A patient has intermittent Peripheral Cyanosis examined by the provider. The medical assistant should understand that health perfusion of the hands and feet depends on adequate interaction between:

The Circulatory and Respiratory body systems.

Graves Vaginal Speculum:

The Graves Vaginal Speculum has the widest blades of any Speculum. Gynecologists use it to examine adult women. It comes in a larger size for those with an especially long vagina.

Guthrie Skin Retractor:

The Guthrie Skin Retractor consists of a long flat handle and a hook-type working end. The solid handle grants great instrument control. Surgeons use the skin retractor primarily during plastic surgery, however, given the size of the hook, it is also reliable during Ophthalmologic and intranasal procedures. It is a Probing and Dilation instrument.

J Point:

The J point is present in all EKGs and marks the transition of QRS complex to ST segment. J wave deflection occurs before the J point. The position of the J point in relation to a slurred terminal QRS is still debated.

What are Korotkoff sounds?

The Korotkoff sounds are tapping sounds created by turbulent blood flow in the arm. Pressure is slowly being released from cuff, so systolic pressure is above that of the cuff, but diastolic is still below, so the artery opens in systole and collapses in diastole.

Lateral Vaginal Retractor:

The Lateral Vaginal Retractor is commonly used as an instrument of conjunction with most vaginal speculum. With the help of this instrument, surgeons can get more cervical access and can control sidewall collapse. It is also compatible with GUY'S broad view. It comes with multiple variations.

Once the electrodes are in place:

The MA connects the precordial lead wires, following the contour of the body, and taking care to avoid excessive tension or crossing of the wires, which could both lead to artifacts within the tracing.

Why is it important to follow the Order Of The Draw?

The Order Of The Draw is designed to make sure that the least amount of test contamination occurs, should additive carry over to the tubes that follow.

QRS complex:

The QRS duration represents the time for ventricular depolarization (atria repolarizing simultaneously) The duration is normally 0.06 to 0.10 seconds.

Bozeman Uterine Forceps:

The Shanks of this instrument are curved and provide visibility when used in the uterine cavity. They are used for tissue removal in dilation and curettage (D&C) procedures, inauterine device retrieval, and packing the uterine cavity.

Uterine Sound: (measures depth of uterus from cervix to fundus)

The Uterine Sound is used to gauge the depth and position of the uterine cavity. It measures depth of uterus from cervix to fundus. It's helpful with the placement of IUD's and the verification of the intrauterine position and length for HSG procedures.

What is automaticity?

The ability of the cardiac cells to initiate own electrical impulses without outside stimulation.

A medical assistant is explaining how to understand nutritional information on food labels to a patient. Which of the following statements should the medical assistant make?

The amount of each nutrient is expressed in weight per serving and as a percentage of the daily value.

Micro-organisms can invade:

The body's cells and supplies the basis for infection control.

Homeostasis means:

The body's internal adaption and change to keep body functions in balance.

What is the difference between the bundle of His and Perkinje fibers?

The bundle of His branches into the left and the right bundle branches, which run along the interventricular septum. The left bundle branch further divides into the left anterior and the left posterior fascicles give rise to thin filaments known as Perkinje fibers.

A round structure that is inside the cell, usually near the center. It is the largest organelle in the cell, and it controls:

The cell's chromosomes and DNA

What is a combining vowel?

The combining vowel is a vowel (usually o) that links the word root to another word root or a suffix.

What would the medical assistant note on the tracing if the leads were improperly placed?

The complexes would be negatively deflected.

What is Standard of Care?

The degree of care a responsible person would take to prevent an injury to another person; expected level of skills and care at which lifeguards are expected to perform.

Standard of Care:

The degree of care that a reasonably prudent person should exercise under the same or similar circumstances.

What other factors associated with the electrode placement or the leads could interfere with the recording?

The electrodes could be placed improperly, leading to artifacts. The electrodes should be placed on the fleshy area of the arms and legs, not on bone. Dirty and broken leads can also interfere with the tracing. Leads should always be inspected for damage and cleaned after each use.

For a Holter monitor to detect the electrical activity of the heart:

The electrodes must be securely attached to the skin at all times. (You can place a piece of tape over the electrode if it becomes loose). When a patient is wearing a Holter monitor they should avoid any magnetic fields.

Negligence:

The failure to do something that a reasonably prudent individual would do under similar circumstances.

Filing systems and processes:

The five basic steps for filing. 1.) Conditioning- involves grouping related papers together, removing all paper clips and staples, attaching smaller papers to regular sheets, and fixing damaged records. 2.) Releasing- is marking the form to be filled out with a mark of designated preference (ready to be filed, the provider's initials, using a stamp). 3.) Indexing and coding- is determining where to place the original record in the file and whether it needs to be cross-referenced in another section. A chart number is typically used for this. 4.) Sorting- involves ordering papers in a filing structure and placing the documents in specific groups. 5.) Storing and filing- is securing documents permanently in the file to ensure the medical record documents do not become misplaced.

Verifying Insurance Coverage

The following information is needed - patient's full name, date of birth- policy number- social security number- CCMA should ask the address of where claims should be sent and who they spoke with to obtain information- co-pays or coinsurance.

In cases of divorced parents, which of the parents has physical custody of the child and is considered the one responsible for payment if the child is not insured with a contracted insurance carrier, the parent is called:

The guarantor

After depolarization:

The heart muscle cells must return to a resting state before they can be electrically stimulated again.

What is the hypothalamus regulate?

The hypothalamus is involved in different daily activities like eating or drinking, in the control of the body's temperature and energy maintenance, and in the process of memorizing and in stress control. It also modulates the endocrine system through its connections with the pituitary gland.

A refund on a patients account will usually occur when:

The insurance carrier pays more than anticipated.

Carrier:

The insurance company that pays the claims and collects premiums.

J point represents:

The junction in the middle of the end of the QRS complex and the start of ST-segment.

Kidney position:

The kidney position is much like the lateral position except the patient's abdomen is placed over a lift in the operating table that bends the body to allow access to the retroperitoneal space. A kidney rest is placed under the patient at the location of the lift.

Common Law:

The laws that developed from English court decisions and custom and that form the basis of laws in the US.

Where is the Lead in AVR?

The left arm, and the left leg assist with the right arm tracing.

Where is the Lead in AVL?

The left leg, and the right arm assist with the left arm tracing.

What is the chief complaint (CC)?

The main reason for the patient's visit in the patient's own words. It is the patient's presenting problem.

Does the patient sign the consent to treat form before or after seeing the provider?

The patient needs to sign the consent to treat form before the provider sees them. Unless it is an emergent situation. This is necessary for any treatment or procedures, including examinations.

What are the 2 primary forms of identification the patient needs to provide during the check-in process?

The patient's drivers license or state-issued identification and insurance cards, are the two primary forms of ID to provide when checking in.

The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) Office for Civil Rights (OCR) Can impose fines from:

The penalties for HIPAA non-compliance are based on the perceived level of negligence and can range from $100.00-$50,000.00 per individual violation, with a max penalty of $1.5 million per calendar year for violations. Additionally, violations can also result in jail time for the individuals responsible.

Misfeasance:

The performance of a lawful act in an illegal or improper manner. For example, performing the procedure on the correct patient, but doing so incorrectly.

Defendant:

The person that is being sued or accused of a crime in a court of law.

What is the hallmark of a infarction?

The presence of abnormal Q waves

Preauthorization/Precertification:

The process of obtaining and documenting advanced approval from the health plan by the provider before delivering the medical services needed. This is required when services are of a nonemergent nature.

A medical assistant is part of a team that is caring for a patient who is being discharged from the hospital. Which of the following actions would contribute to a successful transition of care?

The provider discontinues all medications started in the hospital and relays the information to the rest of the team.

What is Confidentiality?

The requirement of Healthcare providers to keep all patient information private among the patient, the patient's insurer, and the providers directly involved in the patient's care.

A medical assistant is assisting a provider with the collection of a fecal occult specimen. Which of the following statements about the collection is true?

The result is positive if a trace of blue color is detected on the edge of the smear.

Where is the lead in AVF?

The right and left arms assist with the left leg tracing.

What is a stethoscope used for?

The stethoscope is a device that helps physicians or health care professionals listen to the internal organs, such as lungs, heart and bowel sounds,and it is also used to check blood pressure. It helps to amplify the internal sounds.

Etiology:

The study of causation or origination. The word is most commonly used to refer to why things occur or even the reason behind the way things act.

When measuring an infant from head to toe, which position is the best position to obtain an accurate measurement?

The supine position

Accounts Receivable:

The total amount of money owed to a provider.

Annual Maximum:

The total dollar amount that an insurance plan will pay for medical care incurred by an individual patient or family (under a family plan) in a specified benefit period, typically a calendar year.

"We didn't see the medical assistant label the tube", at what point in the procedure should the medical assistant place the label on the tube?

The tube should be labeled in front of the patient at the conclusion of the blood draw. The patient should verify that the name is correct on the label.

Meaningful Use (MU):

The utilization of certified EHR technology to improve quality, efficiency, and patient safety in the healthcare system.

When communicating with a patient who is learning impaired and has a caregiver, the CMA should speak directly to:

Their caregiver

What is a Phlebitic Veins and why are these NOT a good choice for venipunctures?

These veins are tender and warm with a red area around them.

What are leads I, II, and III, and what do they do?

They are bipolar, and record impulses that travel from a negative to a positive pole at specific positions of the heart.

What is Sclerotic veins and why are these NOT a good choice for venipunctures?

They are hard or inflexible, and narrow because they can be difficult to puncture. This often comes as people age.

If a CMA has to treat a psychiatric patient:

They must always make sure they are never alone with the patient.

What happens if the Medical Assistant disagrees with the patient's position?

They must not treat the patient any different.

Why are the demographic and registration forms important for the patient to fill out?

They provide all the necessary information to identify the patient, contain emergency contact information, and privacy notice and HIPAA information.

When a patient is wearing a Holter Monitor:

They should avoid any magnetic fields.

What is the responsibilities of the pharmacy employers?

They typically monitor and document the competency of pharmacy technicians.

blood culture and sensitivity (C&S)

This blood test finds out if you have a systemic infection. This is an infection that effects your whole body, not just one part. A sample of blood is studied in a lab to check for bacteria or a type of fungus called yeast. Sample of blood is incubated in the laboratory to check for bacterial growth. If bacteria are present, they are identified and tested to determine which antibiotics they are sensitive to.

The medical assistant should review the patient's medical record to check for further instructions from the provider:

This info helps the medical assistant to schedule a follow-up appointment for the patient, if necessary.

Describes the unlawful act of billing services at a higher rate than contracted to receive a larger reimbursement from a third-party payer:

This is known as "upcoding," "overcoding," "code creep," and "overbilling."

Why is it important to allow the tubes to fill completely before removing them from the needle holder?

This is necessary to have a correct blood to additive ratio. If the ratio is not correct, the test results might not be accurate.

What is a Deductible?

This is the amount the patient is expected to pay before the insurance plan will begin providing coverage.

Payments received:

This is the doctors income.

Whistleblower Protection Act (1989):

This law protects from retaliation from their employers federal employees who tell upper-management, government officials, or the press that their employers are engaged in some unsafe or illegal activity.

Huffman Vaginal Speculum:

This long, thin speculum is narrower than a regular speculum. It's used in teenaged girls who haven't yet been sexually active.

Exclusions and Limitations:

This refers to the medical conditions that the insurer will not cover or provide benefits for such as cosmetic, dentistry, splints, or orthodontics.

4 Prong Retractor Rake, Blunt:

This retractor resembles a small rake with its four wide, blunt prongs. It is helpful in tight spaces such as the medial canthus/lacrimal sac. Examples of it's use include when removing the medial fat pad during a blepharplasty and when performing transcaruncular dissection.

Black-Top Tube (Vac-tec) (ESR tube):

This tube is used for sed rates (ESR). The tube contains 3.8% Sodium Citrate (buffered) as the anticoagulant. It contains Potassium oxalate with Sodium fluoride as the anticoagulant. Forms calcium salts to remove calcium. Na Citrate (Sodium Citrate). Requires a full draw. Uses: Westergen- Ethromycin Sedimentation Rate.

An intradermal injection.

This type of injection is given to patients who are being tested for allergies:

Thumb Forceps:

Thumb forceps are used for holding dressing materials such as cotton and gauze during surgical procedures, changing dressings, or packing wounds (No teeth, with flat serrations.

Standard Thumb Forceps:

Thumb forceps with larger teeth, used to hold tissue forceps 1X2 teeth (notice serrations).

Diseases of the Endocrine System:

Thyroid Disease (hyperthyroid & hypothyroid) and Diabetes Mellitus types 1 & 2, and Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS).

Pen Light:

To check pupil response to light; to check nasal passages; tongue; mouth.

Audit:

To check the accuracy of financial accounts and records.

Which of the following describes the purpose of a patient's discharge summary in a provider's office?

To document information necessary for continuity of care.

(A Multigated Acquisition Scan) A MUGA scan is used:

To evaluate the condition of the heart muscle.

Balfour Retractor:

To hold the abdominal wall open for the performance of surgical procedures.

What is the Health Privacy rule designed to do?

To protect the patient's personal and medical information.

A patient calls the clinic to cancel a postoperative appointment and states she will reschedule at a later date. For which of the following reasons should the medical assistant document this information in the patient's chart?

To prove that the office was not negligent.

A patient calls the clinic to cancel a postoperative appointment and states that she will reschedule at a later date. For which of the following reasons should the medical assistant document this information on the patient's chart?

To prove that the office was not negligent.

Why is a holter monitor done?

To rule out arrhythmia's or ischemia

Internal appointments/established patient:

To schedule an established patient, you will need patient's name and date of birth and reason for appointment, and available time patient can come in.

Following a blood draw, the CMA should watch the patient intently if they start:

To twitch or shake.

What is a medical assistant's primary role?

To work alongside the provider.

Tydings Tonsil Snare:

Tonsil snares are useful when removing the tonsils. This surgical ENT instrument is one of the several other tools used by a specialist in operations that involve the tonsils. The tonsil snares are ideal to use, so that the infection in the tonsils will no longer scatter in the other body parts.

What is Tortuous Veins and why are these NOT a good choice for venipunctures?

Tortuous or Varicose are twisted, dilated, and lack elasticity. They don't run in a straight line, causing it will be easy to push through the wall of the vein. They don't turn easily.

The Trial Balance is created by:

Totaling debit balances and credit balances to confirm that total debits equal total credits.

What is the State Board of Pharmacy?

Training requirements for Pharmacy Technicians are determined by.

Charge Slips:

Transmitted from operatory to business office.

Position in which is most vital for patients whose BP drops rapidly?

Trendelenberg position

List some cardiac markers:

Triponin, CK, LDH, SGOT, AST

What is the outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel?

Tunica adventitia

Whats the inner endothelia tissue of a blood vessel?

Tunica intima

What's the inner smooth layer of a blood vessel?

Tunica media

Manual and computerized billing systems:

Two types of billing methods. Computerized billing system uses software to generate a report for accounts according to the last time a payment was made. Can determine which accounts are 30, 60, or 90 days old. Manual can give the same record entries, collections, and receivables, however, it's more time consuming and requires more time to process than computerized billing system.

_________________ thermometers are an accurate means of taking temperatures in adults and older children because of the closeness to the hypothalamus.

Tympanic

ICD-10-PCS codes:

Typically used within Hospitals for billing, such as for supplies used during surgery, is done using ICD-10 PCS codes.

What is TRICARE?

U.S government health insurance plan for all military personnel, retirees, and their dependents.

Umbilical Scissors:

Umbilical Scissors are especially designed to cut the umbilical cord after delivery. These scissors are typically handheld, manual instruments with two thin, very wide blades with large, rounded, blunt tips that slide past each other (i.e., shearing action).

Leads AVL, AVR, and AVF are:

Unipolar, but do to poor illustration of the waveforms must be Augmented, and therefore get assistance from the two poles to enhance the tracing.

What term describes the act of unlawfully increasing the reimbursement amount of a third party payer?

Uploading

What providers specialize in the treatment and management of interstitial cystitis?

Urologist.

When performing venipuncture, when should you draw blood from the hand veins?

Use a butterfly needle with palm and hand facing upward, with veins on the dorsal side of the hand are the next choice after the antecubital fossa. However, these veins are more fragile than veins in the antecubital fossa, often roll, small in circumference, and more painful. Do not collect from the wrist

During the tube selection process, the medical assistant selected two red top tubes for the CMP and Lipid panel. What could he have done differently?

Use a large light-green tube top (Lithium Heparin gel).

What is the best place for a capillary puncture?

Use middle or ring finger on an adult. Side of the finger is best.

Webster Needle Holder:

Use: holding fine suture needles; used mostly in plastic or ENT surgery.

Foerster Spring Clamps:

Used for atraumatically grasping lung tissue in thoracic surgery. When grasping a surgical sponge in the jaws, Foerster clamps are commonly used for removing small amounts of fluids from the operative area and applying pressure to sites of bleeding. A clamp used to hold materials during gluing; similar to lightweight pliers in which clamping pressure is exerted by a spring. Also known as a sponge clamp, or sponge stick.

Crile-Wood Needle Holder:

Used to hold and guide small to medium size needles and suture materials. Thr Crile-Wood Needle Holder has a gently tapered, blunt tip and is generally more delicate than the Mayo-Hegar but slightly less delicate than Webster, Halsey, or DeBakey Needle holders.

Bandage Scissors:

Used to remove bandages and other dressings. They have a blunt end to avoid damaging the skin.

Insured/Subscriber:

Usually employee earning these benefits.

Scope:

Usually lighted, it is inserted into a body cavity or vessel to visualize the internal structures.

These codes are used to describe encounters with circumstances other than disease or injury:

V codes (codes V01-V91)

visual acuity

VA

Increased Absorption interaction (Do not take with dietary fats):

Valium (diazepam) & Dilantin Infatabs (phenytoin).

Vanna Scissors:

Vanna scissors are delicate spring scissors, which are perfect for right or left hand use. They are used frequently in ophthalmic and neurosurgical applications. The fine scissor blades are sharp. Vanna scissors work well under a dissection microscope.

What is the primary stage of Hemolysis?

Vascular phase and platelet phase together

What is the reading you can get from the RR interval?

Ventricular pulse

Slander:

Verbal or spoken defamation.

telephone order

Verbal order dictated via telephone to authorized staff member.

Which of the following types of bacteria has a structure with a shape similar to a comma?

Vibrio

While preparing a patient for Holter monitoring, you should:

Vigorously dry the patient's skin prior to electrode placement.

Handling visitors in the Dr. office:

Visitors must have an appointment and the provider must be willing to spend the time with them including pharmaceutical representatives vendors, etc. They must have a visitors badge and show ID.

Why are vital signs so important?

Vital signs measure the body's basic functions. Vitals display a snapshot of what is going on in the body. They provide crucial information about the organs. Therefore, the importance of vital signs monitoring is that it allows medical professionals to assess the well-being of the patient.

The most important thing to tell a patient, when collecting a 24 hour urine test is to:

Void the first urine in the morning, because the first urine will be more concentrated.

The Occupational Safety and Health Act:

Was signed into law on December 29, 1970 by President Richard Nixon.

What are the components of cytoplasm?

Water, protein, ions, and nutrients.

Allows three patients' to be scheduled at the same time, to be seen in the order in which they arrive. In this method, one patient arriving late does not disrupt the provider's schedule. What kind of scheduling method is this?

Wave scheduling

Allocates two patients' to arrive at a specified time, and the third to arrive approximately 30 minutes later. This timely sequence is continuous throughout the day. What kind of scheduling method is this?

Wave scheduling modified

McPherson-Vannas Scissors:

Were originally designed for ophthalmologic work requiring fine delicate blades for such intricate work.

Depolarization occurs:

When the electrical system, if the heart stimulates a myocardial cell, resulting in the contraction of the stimulated heart muscle.

When performing an EKG, the lead that is placed on the right shoulder is:

White

What is a Agranulocyte?

White blood cell without high visible granules in its cytoplasm.

Wire retractors:

Wire retractors are the simplest style of retractor. Usually the wire has some spring so that the surgeon can pinch it together, position it and release it. These also free up the surgeon's hands.

In the abdominal cavity, what organs are within?

Within the abdomen, houses the greater part of the digestive tract, the liver and pancreas, the spleen, the kidneys, and the adrenal glands.

In the cranial cavity, what organs are within?

Within the bony cranium, houses the meninges (brain).

In the thoracic cavity, what organs are within?

Within the chest, houses the lungs, heart, and major vessels.

Foerster Tissue Forceps:

Work well when handling delicate tissue. These serrated forceps have the unique octagonal keyhole in the handle, giving your tactical feedback and control. The keyhole also gives you a better grip, especially when when you are wearing gloves. When you need a firm grip and minimal tissue trauma, the Foerster forceps are an excellent choice.

Types of Dietary Fats:

X Bad Fats as they increase risk of disease and increase cholesterol appear as solid at room temperature. Trans Fats are "Bad" and include: X Fried foods X Vegetable shortening X Stick margarine X Packages of snack food X Candy bars X Doughnuts, cake, muffins, pizza dough, pastries, cookies. Saturated Fats are "Bad" & include: X High Fat cut of meat X Chicken with skin X Whole fat dairy X Butter X Cheese X Ice Cream X Palm & Coconut Oil X Lard VS. ♡Good Fats as they provide energy, are good for the heart and lower your cholesterol. Appear as liquid at room temperature. Polyunsaturated Fats are "Good" & include: ♡ Soybean Oil ♡ Corn Oil ♡ Safflower Oil ♡ Walnuts ♡ Sunflower, sesame, flax seeds ♡ Fatty Fish ♡ Tofu ♡ Soymilk Monounsaturated Fats are "Good" & include: ♡ Olive Oil ♡ Canola Oil ♡ Sunflower Oil ♡ Sesame Oil ♡ Peanut Oil ♡ Avacados ♡ Olives ♡ Nuts

A medical assistant is collecting multiple blood samples from a patient. Which of the following vacuum tubes should be filled first?

Yellow (SPS)

The medical assistant was wearing an isolation gown in both scenes. He ruined his scrub jacket when he accidentally spilled providone-iodine on it the day before. Because his new lab jacket doesn't come in for a couple of days, he chose to wear the isolation gown over his scrubs. Does this cover the OSHA standard for performing phlebotomy?

Yes, it more than covers it. OSHA recommends that gloves be worn during phlebotomy procedures. OSHA also states that body surfaces should be covered whenever there is a potential blood splatter. Although, blood splatter is not typical during a blood draw, it can occur if the needle accidentally comes out of the patient's arm. The medical assistant chose to err on the side of caution and wear a gown over his scrubs. Always check facility requirements.

Sinus Arrhythmias are:

a condition in which the heart beats with an irregular or abnormal heartbeat originating from the Sinoatrial (SA node) are easily detected.

Suppository

a cone-shaped, solid drug that is inserted into a body opening; it melts at body temperature (supp).

What is a centriole?

a cylinder-shaped organelle that plays a role in cell division, with each pair in the cell making sure to divide the chromosomes equally to the cells that result from the reproduction process in animal cells.

Contract:

a legally binding agreement between two or more individuals or entities to do something.

Which of the following patients should a medical assistant recognize as the top priority to receive immediate care?

a patient has epistaxis and taking Warfarin.

Define discharge Pharmacy Technician:

a technician specializing in pharmacy services that may be offered to patients upon discharge.

without, away from

a-

without

a-, an-, de-

away from

ab-, apo-, ex-, exo-

abdomen

abd

Excitability or irritability:

ability of cardiac cells to respond to external stimulus

Contractility:

ability of cardiac cells to shorten (muscle contraction) in response to electrical stimulus

before meals

ac-

According to HIPPA guidelines, which of the following documents should a Pharmacy Technician have a new patient sign?

acknowledgment of notice of privacy practices.

as desired

ad lib

toward

ad-, af-

Drugs used for a pharmacologic stress test:

adeosine, dipyridamole, dobutamine

Common roles and responsibilities of medical assistants?

administrative duties: greeting patients, handling correspondence, and answering telephones. Clinical duties include obtaining medical histories from patients, explaining treatments/procedures, drawing laboratory tests, and preparing/administering immunizations.

What is the normal for adult hearing test?

adult should hear up to 25 decibels

A medical assistant is collecting a specimen for testing. When is it appropriate for the medical assistant to label the specimen?

after collecting the specimen.

PC-

after meals

Shake, stir

agita

other, different from usual

allo

Ischemia:

an inadequate blood supply to an organ or part of the body, especially the heart muscles.

et

and

These veins should be the last choice for a venipuncture:

ankle and foot veins, they are difficult to access, easy to injure, and often painful. Use with butterfly needle, do not do on patients with diabetes mellitus (DM), or Peripheral Vascular Disease (PAD). These patients have poor circulation in the lower extremities.

before, in front of

ante-, pre-, pro-

Which of the following sites should the medical assistant use for the administration of an intradermal skin test?

anterior forearm

against

anti-, contra-

An _________________ is a compound or substance that kills or slows down the growth of bacteria.

antibacterial

___________________ are antimicrobial substances that are applied to living tissue/skin to reduce the possibility of infection, sepsis, or putrefaction.

antiseptics

Who can file a privacy complaint to the office of civil rights through email, fax, postal, or via the OCR portal?

anyone

Once the Advance Directives are in place, they can be updated at which of the following times?

anytime

A medical assistant is encouraging a patient to increase her intake of fiber. Which of the following foods should the assistant recommend?

apples

During first aid, control the bleeding of a wound by:

apply layers of gauze

Bonn Tissue Forceps:

are designed for delicate work, and they include a tying platform to assist when you are tying sutures

Rochester-Oschner Tissue Forceps:

are heavy hemostats designed for clamping large vessels or grasping dense tissue. They are serrated for grasping and often have teeth at the tip, too.

What are the responsibilities of Occupational Therapist?

assist patients who have developed conditions that disable them developmentally, emotionally, mentally, and physically.

What are the responsibilities of Pharmacy Technicians?

assist pharmacist with duties that do not require the expertise or judgment of a licensed pharmacist.

A patient who is coughing and sneezing repeatedly enters the reception area at a clinic. Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take?

assist the patient into an examination room.

P wave represents:

atrial depolarization (contraction), QRS complex conceals the atrial repolarization waves.

The medical assistant should notify the next scheduled patient about the delay by:

attempting to call the patient or informing the patient upon her arrival at the office.

ADHD

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

self

auto-

________________________ allows patient's to confirm or cancel appointment times with keystrokes on a telephone.

automated call routing

A medical assistant should identify that which of the following manifestations differentiates binge eating disorder from bulimia nervosa?

avoid self-induced vomiting

Posterior (dorsal)

back of body

A medical assistant is talking with a patient who has a new prescription for amoxicillin. The medical assistant should explain that this medication aids in the destruction of which of the following microorganisms?

bacteria

When bandaging a wound:

bandage from distal to proximal

After a patient has finished an extensive suturing to a laceration, advise the patient to:

be sure to call your provider if you have a fever over 100°degrees.

At which point during a patient's venipuncture process should a medical assistant label the blood specimen tube?

before the patient is discharged

What is competent?

being qualified and capable.

Inferior

below, under

two

bi, di

Which of the following is an example of connective tissue?

blood

What does a Hematologist specialize in?

blood and blood-producing organs.

A small, sterile, disposable instrument used for skin or capillary puncture:

blood lancet

BP

blood pressure

What does a Pathologist specialize in?

body tissues, blood, urine, and other body fluids.

Where do all blood cells originate?

bone marrow

What does an Orthopedist specialize in?

bones, joints, ligaments, muscles, and tendons.

A __________________ is a substance that dilates the bronchi and bronchitis, decreasing resistance in the respiratory airway and increasing airflow to the lungs. This is used commonly by asthma patients.

bronchodilator

A medical assistant is performing phlebotomy on a 80yr. old patient who has small veins. Which of the following venipuncture methods should the medical assistant use for this patient?

butterfly needle

A medical assistant is reviewing dietary minerals with a patient. The medical assistant should identify which of the following minerals as being essential for blood coagulation?

calcium

Specially prepared tests strips or cartridges that are used to test the function of a machine and designed to perform a predetermined result:

calibration devices Quality Control (QC)

Transdermal patches:

can give medications in a way that they are absorbed slowly into the skin creating a constant time released systemic effect.

What does a Neonatologist specialize in?

care of newborns

What does an Obstetrician specialize in?

care of women during a pregnancy and after.

Toward the back, toward the tail

caudal

Which of the following components of the body's cell plays a part in cell division?

centriole

When performing venipuncture, which is the vein you draw as usually 2nd choice?

cephalic vein

A medical assistant notices that the patient is slurring speech and has developed a slight drooping of one side of the mouth. These manifestations are indications of which of the following emergent conditions?

cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

What are the responsibilities of a Medical Receptionist?

check patients in and out, answer phones, and perform filing, faxing, and other taxes.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for an examination. Which of the following is a component of the patient's medical history?

chief complaint

What is the normal for a child hearing test?

child should hear up to 15 decibels

A medical assistant is educating a patient about how to interpret food labels. The assistant should inform the patient that the FDA requires nutrition labels to include measurements of which of the following nutritional elements?

cholesterol

Which of the following is a risk factor for the developmental of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?

chronic hypertension

Which of the following cell structures is instrumental in helping the body mobilize and secrete mucus the respiratory tract?

cilia

Which of the following components of the body's cell helps propel substances through the passageways in the body?

cilia

Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to prevent patient accidents in the clinical setting?

clean a spill in the hallway floor using a towel.

A ___________-__________urine specimen is collected for a culture and sensitivity (C&S).

clean; catch

A medical assistant is preparing a patient to have a mole excised, the medical assistant should:

cleanse the site with surgical soap and an antiseptic.

What kind of alternative therapy is Energy Therapy?

clears cellular memory through the human energy field promoting health, balance, and relaxation.

A medical assistant is reinforcing teaching with a patient about pulse oximetry. Which of the following statements should the medical assistant include in the teaching?

clip the probe onto your second toe

Compound

cmpd

A low-fiber, high-fat diet is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

colorectal cancer

What does a Dermatologist specialize in?

conditions of the skin.

Mostly the child's parent or guardian must give consent for phlebotomy procedures, (some exceptions for teenagers include those married, emancipated by a court order, or otherwise self-supporting and independent). Which type of consent should be used?

consent for minors

The flexibility of the appointment system allows the wave scheduling to allow:

consistent patient flow

A medical assistant is talking with a patient of a child who has molluscum contagiosum warts. The medical assistant should explain that which of the following is the mode of transmission for this infection?

contact

against

contra, counter

A Pharmacy Technician is required to include a patient package insert (PPI) when filling a prescription for which of the following types of medication?

contraceptive

A medical assistant is observing a patient who is undergoing the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). To test the patient's ability to perform in the area of language, the examiner asks the patient to do which of the following?

cope a geometric design

CR

cream

A medical assistant is reviewing the dietary intake of a patient who is lactose intolerant. Which of the following foods should the medical assistant remind the patient to reduce or avoid?

cream cheese

During a pap test, the provider will use a:

cytobrush

Daily/day

d-

Used in health care settings to document, track, and store patient information:

database

Dispense as written (no generic)

daw

without

de-

farther from the surface.

deep

A medical assistant is talking with a patient whose brother died of heart disease a month ago. The patient tells the medical assistant that she blames herself because she should have persuaded her brother to take better care of himself. The medical assistant should identify that the patient is in which of the following of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's stages of grief?

depression

Castroviejo Scissors:

designed for ophthalmologic procedures, which require a delicate incision of tissue. You can make quick, accurate cuts with minimal tissue damage using these sharp blades.

DI

diabetes insipidus

DM

diabetes mellitus

Which of the following diseases affects about 9% of the population of the U.S. and is characterized by the body's inability to produce sufficient insulin?

diabetes mellitus

What are the responsibilities of a Medical Doctor?

diagnose illnesses, provide treatments, perform procedures, such as surgical interventions, and write prescriptions.

What does a Psychiatrist specialize in?

diagnose, treat, and prevent mental illness.

What does a Cardiologist specialize in?

diagnosing and treating conditions of the heart and blood vessels.

Dx, dx

diagnosis

What does a Radiologist specialize in?

diagnostic techniques, such as ultrasound, MRI, and CT scans.

A medical assistant is scheduling a diagnostic test for a patient liver and pancreas. Which of the following systems is being assessed?

digestive

When two patients' are scheduled at the same time to see the same provider. This is often used to work in a patient with an acute illness when no other time is available. It creates delays in the provider's schedule that continues throughout the day. What kind of scheduling method is this?

double-booking

A _____________ item is a piece of equipment that is used repeatedly. Examples include: crutches, wheelchairs, and walkers.

durable (Durable Medical Equipment)

outward, without

e-

Conduction Block:

electrical impulses go down but encounter blocks and delays.

Ectopic rhythms:

electrical impulses originating from somewhere else but the SA node

elix

elixir (liquid medication)

According to HIPAA guidelines, which of the following patient information is considered Protected Health Information (PHI)?

email address

inward

en-

inner, within

endo

upon, over, above

epi-, ep-

quart

equal to 4 cups (qt).

Anatomical position:

erect, feet forward, arms at side with palms facing forward, head facing forward

inward

eso-

normal, good

eu-

What do Preventative Medicine Specialists specialize in?

evaluates mental illness, physical illness, and disability through analyzing patient health needs and providing health education.

q

every

According to the DEA, how often should a Pharmacy Technician conduct an inventory check for controlled substances?

every 2 years

external, outward

ex

extract

ex

A medical assistant is reviewing OSHA regulations regarding sharps container placement, in which of the following locations should the medical assistant place a sharps container?

exam room

outward

exo

Always check the ___________________of a drug before administering it.

expiration date

outside of

extra

What does an Ophthalmologist specialize in?

eye conditions

A patient who uses a wheelchair arrives at the office for an appointment and is visibly upset. Which of the following methods should the medical assistant use to establish positive therapeutic communication with the patient?

face the patient at eye level.

Which of the following health care professionals is legally responsible for the outcomes of a medical assistant's duties and performance?

family practitioner

Which of the following types of providers is qualified to assess patients of all ages with a wide variety of acute to severe medical conditions?

family practitioner

Which of the following processes would a Pharmacy Technician use to file prescription hard copies for controlled substances?

file controlled substances prescription separately from legend prescriptions.

A medical assistant is reviewing a daily diet with a patient. Which of the following foods should the medical assistant recommend to help the patient increase his intake of vitamin D?

fish

A medical assistant receives a splash of potentially infectious material to the eyes while collecting a urine specimen. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to prevent the spread of infection?

flush eyes at an eyewash station for at least 15 minutes.

A medical assistant gets a chemical splash in their eyes. What should the medical assistant do?

flush eyes with tepid water

Which of the following locations should a medical assistant identify as the perfect site for capillary puncture on an adult patient?

fourth digit (ring finger)

Anterior

front, in front of

divides the body into anterior and posterior sections.

frontal or coronal plane

What is the optimal position of the position for a draw?

full extension of the arm, with the palm and hand facing upward.

A medical assistant should identify which of the following types of microorganisms is a mold when it is multicellular?

fungi

Gram

g, gm

Which organ is located in the RUQ of the abdomen?

gallbladder

What body system is pylori stenosis?

gastrointestinal

Generic

gen

Ampule

glass flask containing a single dose of medication for parenteral administration (AMP).

A medical assistant is caring for a patient whose dietary choices have resulted in elevated uric acid levels. As a result of these risk factors, the patient is at risk for developing which of the following musculoskeletal disorders?

gout

A medical assistant is teaching a patient about the major food groups. Which of the following information about grains should the assistant include?

grains help prevent and manage constipation.

Electrocardiogram paper is be displayed in:

graph or or dot matrix format, with vertical and horizontal lines or dots at 1mm intervals.

A secondary hypertension blood pressure reading is:

greater than or equal to 160/100

Drop, drops

gt, gtt, gtts

Hour

h, hr-

Which of the following statements about alcohol-based hand sanitizer is correct?

hand sanitizer should be applied to dry hands.

Which of the following methods should a medical assistant use when storing a disinfected endoscope?

hang it vertically

Waived testing

has the least regulation: follow the manufacturers' directions and/or follow good laboratory practices (run & document controls before reporting results)., Testing that can be done in your home that the results can not be of any danger to the patient. These tests include: pregnancy tests, drug of abuse tests, strep tests, dipsticks, glucometers, etc. All approved by the U.S Food and Drug Administration.

A medical assistant is talking with an older adult patient who expresses frustration about having looked forward to retirement, but finds himself with "too much time on my hands". Before responding, the medical assistant should consider that which of the following is one of the developmental tasks for this patient's age group?

having a sense of self-worth

Which of the following is an anthropometric measurement that a medical assistant should collect from a 2-yr.old child?

head circumference

A medical assistant is talking with a patient who has a new diagnosis of Pediculus Human Capititis. The medical assistant should explain that this is an infestation of which of the following multi-cellular parasites?

head lice

The parent of a child who has pinworms is asking a medical assistant for more information about his child's condition. The medical assistant should begin by explaining the pinworms are which of the following types of microorganism?

helminths

half

hemi-, semi-

different

hetero

Which of the following conditions is characterized by the top portion of the stomach protruding through the diaphragm?

hiatal hernia

A medical assistant should recognize that which of the following is the clinical purpose of contrast media in diagnostic imaging?

highlights the inner contours of body structures.

A medical assistant is using a butterfly needle set to obtain a blood sample from a vein on the patient's hand. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

hold the needle by it's wings

same

homo

What does an Endocrinologist specialize in?

hormonal and glandular conditions

A patient who walks with difficulty as a result of nerve damage on one side of his body enters a clinic for a first visit. After the patient identifies himself to the medical assistant and states he has an appointment, which of the following responses should the medical assistant in the front office make?

how can I make you more comfortable while you wait?

excessive, over, above

hyper

under, below

hypo

one

i

two

ii

three

iii

When is the best time to label tubes?

immediately after collection before the patient leaves the room.

What is a Technician?

individuals who are given a basic level of training designed to help them perform specific tasks.

Which of the following links initiates the chain of infection?

infectious agent

among, between

inter

The EKG artifacts is caused by a disconnection of electrodes and results in tracing paper into margins of the paper. What type of artifact is this?

interrupted baseline

inside, within

intra, endo

When drawing blood cultures, a medical assistant should prepare a patient's skin using which of the following products?

iodine solution

What is Dysmenorrhea?

is a gynecological medical condition of pain during menstruation.

What is a Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)?

is a medical test in which glucose is given and blood samples are taken afterward to determine how quickly it is cleared from the blood.

What is Amenorrhea?

is the absence of a menstrual period in a woman of reproductive age.

What is a Thrombus or Blood Clot?

is the final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis. It is achieved via the aggregation of platelets, that form a platelet plug, and the activation of the coagulation system (i.e., clotting factors). A thrombus is normal in cases of injury, but pathologic in instances of thrombosis.

What is Metastasis or Metastatic Disease?

is the spread of a disease from one organ or part to another non-ajacent organ or part.

Liter

l

Which of the following disposal methods should a medical assistant use in accordance with OSHA guidelines for handling biohazard waste?

label chemicals with their names and data before disposal.

A medical assistant removes a needle from the antecubital space of a patient following a phlebotomy procedure and applies pressure. Which of the following steps should the medical assistant take next?

label the tubes.

A medical assistant should identify which of the following microorganisms as having a helpful function in the human body?

lactobacillus acidophilus

-side, away from the middle

lateral

A medical assistant is collecting information from a patient prior to a physical examination. Which of the following details disclosed by the patient should the medical assistant recognize as an indication of bulimia nervosa?

laxative use

pounds

lbs

Lead I records the electrical activity between the...

left and right arms.

A medical assistant has a request to collect a routine CBC from a healthy 10 month old infant. Which of the following is the most appropriate collection site?

left heel

Sinistro

left side

PR segment:

line from the end of the p wave to the onset of the QRS complex

A patient asks a medical assistant to explain the difference between a liniment and a medicated lotion. Which of the following responses should the medical assistant make?

liniments contain a higher portion of oil than medicated lotion.

liq

liquid, fluid

A medical assistant is preparing to perform pulmonary function test on a patient who is dressed in a suit and tie. When preparing the patient for the test, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to do which of the following?

loosen the tie and top buttons

Recumbent position:

lying down in any position.

Prone position:

lying on abdomen, facing downward.

Which of the following body systems provides the framework to protect the body from pathogenic organisms and maintain fluid balance?

lymphatic system

milliequivalent

mEq

large

macro, mega

What does a Gastroenterologist?

manages diseases of the gastrointestinal tract

instrument to measure pressure

manometer, sphygmomanometer

Microgram

mcg (one millionth of a gram)

When performing venipuncture, which is the vein you draw as usually 1st choice?

median cubital vein

Which of the following veins should a medical assistant recognize as the preferred vein for routine phlebotomy?

median cubital vein

syrup

medication dissolved in a concentrated sugar solution (SYR)

meds

medications

What are the factors that can affect testing?

medications alcohol use cigarette smoking exercise

Medicine

meds

milligram

mg (1/1000 of a gram).

small

micro / mini

divides the body at mid-line into equal right and left sides.

midsagittal plane

mg / dL (milligrams per deciliter)

milligrams per deciliter (glucose monitor)

You should take vital signs for a full:

minute

What is considered less serious than a felony and carries a lesser penalty?

misdemeanors

Which of the following components of the body's cells provides the energy the cell needs to perform it's specific functions?

mitochondrion

Mineral oil

mo

one

mono

one

mono, uni

many

multi-, poly-

Which of the following body systems contains cardiac, skeletal, and smooth tissues?

muscular system

to shut

myo

Nebulizer

neb

new

neo, nov

What is a Granulocytes?

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

Stars and stripes tips of Rochester-Carmalt Forceps:

nicknamed the "stars and stripes hemostat," are characterized by the longitudinal serrations that run the length of the blade with cross-hatching at the tip. These large, crushing hemostatic forceps are a choice instrument for clamping blood vessels and large tissues or ligating pedicles.

A medical assistant is reviewing the last of medications a patient reports currently taking. The medical assistant should recognize that which of the following medication is available in a sublingual form?

nitroglycerin

Do not repeat

non rep

When reviewing a patient's blood work results, a medical assistant notices a fasting blood glucose of 200 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

notify the patient's provider of the results.

An medical assistant is performing an allergen skin test. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

notify the provider immediately if the patient demonstrates signs of anaphylaxis.

no refills (prescriptions)

nr

Which of the following structures in a human cell contain the cell's genetic information?

nucleus

none

nulli-

divides body at an angles. Obliques are odd angles.

oblique plane

Overdose

od

When reporting results to patients, always follow:

office protocol

ointment

oint, ung

Which of the following foods should a medical assistant recommend to a patient who needs to increase her dietary intake of vitamin A?

oranges

Which of the following is outside of a Medical Assistant's Scope Of Practice?

order additional Laboratory test to confirm the patient's condition

A medical assistant is loading prepackaged hemostats into an autoclave. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to ensure sterilization?

organize the packages loosely without touching the walls of the autoclave.

Which of the following conditions is defined as a loss of bone density?

osteoporosis

What are the safety measures when transporting non-blood specimens?

padding and protection from leakage (ex. wrapping the container in an absorbent material and placing it in a biohazard bag). When transported via mail, use a biohazard.

all

pan, omni

Which of the following body structures is part of both the digestive system and the endocrine system?

pancreas

abnormal, two like parts of a pair, beside, near through around.

para-

a "parasagittal" plane is any sagittal plane that does not run perfectly down the midline of the body.

parasagittal plane

A medical assistant is performing venipuncture. Which of the following pieces of information should be included on both the requisition form and the specimen label?

patient's date of birth

Prior to performing a phlebotomy procedure, a medical assistant should ask the patient to verify which of the following information?

patient's date of birth

PCA

patient-controlled administration

through

per

What are the responsibilities of Medical Laboratory Technicians?

perform diagnostic testing on blood, bodily fluids, and other specimens under the supervision of a Medical Technologist.

round

peri-

PPE's

personal protective equipment

Medical assistant in an outside lab are employed as:

phlebotomist or administrative assistant

fear

phobia

A patient who has a cerebral vascular accident (CVA), which of the following types of therapy will assist the patient with regaining motor functions in independence?

physical therapy

During a surgical procedure, a provider request sterile solution from an medical assistant. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

place a sterile container on the field and pour a small amount of sterile solution into the container.

A medical assistant is cleaning a room following a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to ensure proper biohazardous waste handling of used gauze pads?

place gauze pads in a red polyethylene bag.

When measuring infant circumference of the head, the measuring tape must be:

placed at the zero mark of the measuring tape against the infant's forehead.

Which of the following viral diseases resulted in an epidemic in the U.S. and presents with symptoms that include weakness, paralysis of the muscles, fever, and headache?

polio

A medical assistant reviews the results of a urine pregnancy test and sees that a blue line did not appear in the control area. This indicates which of the following?

pregnancy test is not valid

A Pharmacy Technician is storing prescriptions in compliance with document retention regulations. The Technician should file prescriptions sequentially according to which of the following?

prescription serial number

first

primi- (proto-, prot-)

before

pro (pre)

A patient presents a Pharmacy Technician with a prescription for Zolpidem Tartrate that a prescriber wrote 6 weeks ago. Which of the following actions should the Technician take?

process the prescription for the pharmacy to fill.

Which of the following defense mechanisms is characterized by a patient's externalization of guilt, blame, or responsibility?

projection

A provider instructs a medical assistant to position a patient for examination of the patient's dorsal cavity. The medical assistant should place the patient in which of the following positions?

prone

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for an examination. Which of the following findings should the medical assistant recognize as an indication of anorexia nervosa?

protruding bones

What are the responsibilities of Nurse Practitioners?

provide basic patient care services, including diagnosing and prescribing medications for common illnesses.

near, closer to the origin.

proximal

False

pseudo-

Patient

pt

Every

q

Every 4 hours (refers to Rx)

q4h

Every morning

qam

every hour

qh; QH

every night at bedtime

qhs

Four times a day

qid

every other day

qod

four

quadri, tetra-

A medical assistant is preparing to obtain vital signs from an adult patient during a routine physical examination. Which of the following arteries should the medical assistant use to palpate the patient's pulse?

radial

A urine reagent testing pH:

ranges from 4.6-8.0, important when examining urine for bacterial growth.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for a physical examination. The patient tells the medical assistant that she is having problems at work, and she feels so much stress that she cannot focus on anything at work or at home. Based on the patient's anxiety level, which of the following findings should should the medical assistant expect?

rapid respiration

again

re-

When assisting a provider with a punch biopsy of a mole, which of the following task should a medical assistant expected to do?

receive and prepare tissue specimens for processing.

Which of the following duties is a medical assistant allowed to perform independently?

record vital signs

Waveform:

refers to movement away from the isoelectric line either upward (positive) deflection or downward (negative) deflection.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for the Mini-Mental State Examination. The examiner names 3 objects and asks the patient to repeat them. In doing so, the examiner is asking the patient to perform a task in which of the following areas?

registration

The parents of a 5 year. old child tells a medical assistant that his daughter has begun sucking her thumb. He states, "she hasn't done this since she was a baby". The medical assistant should identify that the child is using which of the following defense mechanisms?

regression

A medical assistant is talking with a patient who just learned that she has advanced breast cancer. The patient says, "It's just an infection, I am way too young to have cancer!". Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to help this patient during this stage of grief?

reinforce education about the patient's disease process.

This is used to notify a provider of the denial of the claim by an insurance carrier:

remittance advice (RA)

Which of the following is recommended regarding fingernail care and hand hygiene?

remove artificial nails when working with high-risk populations.

A medical assistant is performing suture removal. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

remove each suture after cutting next to the knot.

A medical assistant discovers an unidentifiable liquid in the clinic's room. What should be done?

remove it with a clean-up kit

To avoid hemoconcentration during venipuncture, which of the following actions should a medical assistant take?

remove the tourniquet before 1 min has elapsed.

Results in myocardial relaxation:

repolarization

A patient reports getting a bill that includes services she did not receive. Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take to reconcile charges?

review that day's encounter form to determine if another patient received the services.

Lead II records the electrical activity between the...

right arm and the left leg.

Which limb is always the ground?

right leg

List the body's four quadrants:

right upper quadrant (RUQ), left upper quadrant (LUQ), right lower quadrant (RLQ), and left lower quadrant (LLQ).

toward the front.

rostral

without correction or glasses

s.gl.

vertical plane that divides the body into right and left sides.

sagittal plane

Identify that Fentanyl patches are included in which of the following controlled substance schedules?

schedule II (2)

A Pharmacy Technician should recognize that anabolic steroids are included in which of the following controlled substance schedules?

schedule III (3)

A Pharmacy Technician should recognize that exempt narcotics are included in which of the following controlled substance schedules?

schedule V (5)

partial, half

semi

To avoid having patients underestimate the specific amount of nutrients in a food product, a medical assistant should remind patients to check which of the following labeling components?

serving size

When performing diagnostic coding, how many characters are used in the highest level of specific ICD-10 CM code?

seven characters

Complex:

several waveforms

A method of filing in which a new report is laid on top of an older report is called:

shingling (because it resembles the shingles on a roof).

According to HIPAA guidelines, which of the following actions should a Pharmacy Technician take to safeguard a patient's PHI?

shred documents that include PHI.

Which of the following organs produces Vitamin D, provides protection, and helps regulate body temperature?

skin

Transdermal patches when placed, they must be rotated each time to avoid:

skin irritation

Which of the following factors puts a patient at high risk of experiencing cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

sleep apnea

Which of the following organizations structures within the digestive system is primarily responsible for the absorption of nutrients?

small intestines

Which of the following diseases caused a Historic Pandemic that led to the creation of the first vaccine?

small pox

A prepared microscope slide to which freshly collected blood is applied:

smear slide

Which of the following factors puts a patient at high risk of developing Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

smoking cigarettes

Minerals include:

sodium, calcium, iron, potassium, phosphorus, and magnesium

What is Medication as a pre-test prep (lab test)?

some tests determine the effectiveness of a medication. Patients should take meds at a pre-determined time, or write down the time they did. Important to then collect specimen at the correct time.

Agent:

someone that acts or exerts power.

What does a Neurologist specialize in?

specialize in the nervous system

What does a Nephrologist specialize in?

specializes in kidney care and treating diseases of the kidney.

A medical assistant is reviewing the results of a urine collection provided by an adult patient at the clinic. Which of the following laboratory results is outside of the expected reference range?

specific gravity at 1.042

A medical assistant recommends the rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE) method to a patient who calls the office to report an injury. Which of the following injuries is the patient likely to have sustained?

sprained ankle

Which of the following tubes should a medical assistant select first when adhering to the proper order of the draw?

sterile blood cultures

What kind of alternative therapy is Acupuncture?

sticking skin and tissues with needles to relieve tension.

What does a Hepatologist specialize in?

studying organs such as the liver, biliary tree, gallbladder, and pancreas.

below, under

sub-, infra-, sup

closer to the surface of the body. Veins are superficial to arteries.

superficial

four

tetra-, quadri-

When performing venipuncture, which is the vein you draw as THE LAST choice?

the basilic vein, it should be the last choice when selecting a site in the antecubital fossa. It lies in the medial aspect of the forearm. It is a large vein, but it lies very close to the brachial artery.

Liabilities are:

the debts one owes.

What does a Gynecologist specialize in?

the female reproductive system.

What is American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA)?

the following agencies provide membership opportunities to medical assistants as students or graduates.

On lead III, which is the positive lead?

the left leg is positive

A medical assistant is collecting initial data for an older adult patient at the clinic visit. Which of the following should suggest to the medical assistant that the patient needs a mental status evaluation?

the patient repeatedly asks the same question.

A medical assistant is performing an ear irrigation. The patient reports dizziness. These symptoms could be caused by which of the following?

the temperature of the water is too cold.

When considering the anatomy of the body, which of the following statement is correct?

the thumb is lateral to the index finger

Which of the following glands is part of both the immune system and the endocrine system?

thymus

Which of the following glans in the endocrine system is located just below the larynx and consists of two lobes, one on each side of the trachea?

thyroid gland

TP interval:

time during which ventricles are relaxing and filling.

tincture

tinc

Telephone order

to

A medical assistant is witnessing a patient sign a consent form. What is the responsibility of the medical assistant?

to validate the patient's signature.

Apply topically

top

across, through

trans-, tran-, tra-

Which of the following places divides the body into upper and lower portions?

transverse

divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.

transverse plane

What does an Oncologists specialize in?

treatment and care for patients with cancer.

What kind of alternative therapy is Chiropractic?

treats mechanical disorders of the musculoskeletal system.

three

tri

A medical assistant is performing a routine hearing test on a patient. Which of the following procedure measures a patient's hearing by using air and bone conduction?

tuning fork test

Treatment

tx

As directed

u.d., ut. dict.

beyond, excess

ultra-

not

un, non (non gmo food)

Sublingual means:

under the tongue.

Ointment

ung, oint

A patient has raised lesions after an antibiotic injection with itchy rash, with pinkishness. What term would you document in the medical record?

urticaria

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who has conjunctivitis. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take when performing an eye instillation?

use gloves when instilling the medication

What are the responsibilities of Osteopathic providers?

use modern medicine and surgical procedures, use Osteopathic Manipulative Therapy (OMT).

What are the responsibilities of Radiology Technicians?

use various types of imaging equipment to assist the provider in diagnosing and treating certain diseases.

A medical assistant is talking with a patient who has Lyme disease. The medical assistant should explain that which of the following is the means of transmission for this infection?

vector

Specially designed needle used with an evacuated tube blood collection system ranging from 19 to 23 gauge and 1" to 1/½" in length is a:

venipuncture collection needle

QRS complex represents:

ventricular depolarization (contraction)

T wave represents:

ventricular repolarization and relaxation

A medical assistant completes a blood collection. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to ensure proper specimen processing?

verify that the requisition form has been completed.

Which of the following is used to indicate hemostasis?

vital signs (VS)

A medical assistant is providing a patient education on bone loss and calcium regulating. Which of the following supplements should the medical assistant recommend for the patient?

vitamin D

Verbal order

vo

Without

w/o

Medical assistant's are qualified to perform only:

waived testing

hydro

water

A medical assistant is providing teaching to a patient about the importance of water intake. Which of the following information should a medical assistant include?

water helps regulate body temperature

Interval:

waveform plus a segment

A medical assistant is washing infectious debris off several sharp surgical instruments, which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

wear utility gloves while sanitizing the instruments.

What is scope of practice?

what individuals may and may not do in their jobs.

What is Fasting as a pre-test prep (lab test)?

when a patient may not eat or drink anything other than water for 8-12 hrs. before collection.

A provider has instructed a medical assistant to prepare a wound for suturing. When performing basic wound care, which of the following steps should the medical assistant take to ensure proper cleansing of the wound area?

wipe the center of the wound with an antiseptic swab, moving toward the edges in a circular motion.

Which of the following steps should a medical assistant take to follow aseptic guidelines when administering injections?

wipe the injection site with an alcohol pad.

A medical assistant is reviewing nutritional guidelines with a patient who is following a high-protein diet. Which of the following statements should the medical assistant make?

without sufficient carbohydrates and fats, the body will burn protein for energy.

An insurance dissallowance results in an adjustment on the patient's account. The provider's usual charge is often more than the established allowed amount. The provider is not allowed to bill the patient for the difference, so the provider should:

write-off the difference, resulting in an adjustment.

Weight

wt

strange, foreign

xeno-

Normal ranges for adult Hemoglobin (Hgb):

• Females 12.0-15.5 g/dL • Males 13.5-17.5 g/dL • Pregnant 10.0-15.0 g/dL

Normal ranges for adult Hematocrit (Hct):

• Females 37 - 47% • Males 42 - 52% • Elderly: levels slightly decreased

The heart's electrical system consists of five structures:

• the sinoatrial (or SA) node, • the atrioventricular ( or AV) node, • the bundle of His, • the right and left bundle branches, • Purkinje fibers

The problem oriented medical record (POMR) is a comprehensive approach to recording and accessing patient medical data. POMR gathers information from all members of the patient's care team in order to determine a diagnosis and create a treatment plan. POMR consists of the following components:

•A defined information database. •A complete problem list, further broken down into: ... •A plan of action for every listed problem broken down into the following: ... •Notes on the progress documenting follow-up, feedback

There are three basic filing methods:

•Alphabetic filing- is a traditional system for patient records in providers office and the most widely used. Files are arranged by last name, first name, and middle initial. •Numeric filing- is typically combined with color coding and used for larger health care centers or hospitals. This method allows for unlimited expansion without the need to shift files to create room. It saves time for retrieving and filing charts, and provides additional patient confidentiality. •Subject filing- is used for general correspondence using the alphabetic or alphanumeric filing method. With this method, all correspondence dealing with a particular subject is placed under a specific tab with subject headings.

What are the types of medical directives?

•Living Will •Durable Power of Attorney •Do Not Resuscitate Orders (DNR) •Organ and Tissue Donation Orders •Medical Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment

What information is required when labeling lab specimens?

•Patient's name •Patient's date of birth •MRN # •Date •Time of collection •Provider's name •What kind and location of specimen •Initials of person who collected the specimen

disease

-pathy

speech

-phasia

attracted to

-phil, -philia

voice

-phonia

carrying

-phoresis

paralysis

-plegia

breathing

-pnea, spir/o

formation

-poiesis, -plasia, -plasm

meal (pertaining to a)

-prandial

drooping eyelid

-ptosis

sutures

-rrhaphy

uterine tube

-salpinx

process of viewing

-scopy

involuntary muscle contraction

-spasm

sperm condition

-spermia

narrowing

-stenosis

muscle coordination

-taxia

pressure

-tension

treatment

-therapy

labor

-tocia

labor and childbirth

-tocia

instrument to cut

-tome (osteotome)

tone (pertaining to)

-tonic

surgical crushing

-tripsy

NSF stands for:

Non-sufficient funds

Sinus Rhythm:

Normal heartbeat triggered by the SA node (60-100 bpm).

separation of

-crit

Hearing

-cusis, -cele

Cell

-cyte

more than the normal number of cells

-cytosis

skin condition

-derma

stabilize, fuse

-desis

thirst

-dipsia

Dilation

-ectasis

surgical removal

-ectomy

swelling

-edema

that which produces

-gen

generates

-genesis

abnormal condition

-iasis, -osis

physician

-iatrist

movement

-kinesia

stone

-lith, -lite

measuring (process of)

-metry

Pennington Hemostatic Forceps:

Used for hemostasis at the base of the vein.

Razor Blade:

Used to cut skin.

Tenaculum Forceps:

Used to grasp tissue during surgery with long curved sharp points.

Give of such doses

DTD (dtd)

Potassium

K+

left eye

OS, OL

four times a day

QID

What is a word root?

The word root is the foundation of the word.

Crocodile Forceps:

To remove foreign bodies from ear or nasal cavities.

Long Transfer Forceps:

Used to transfer sterile instruments.

No sub

no substitutes

state of

-ism, -sis

inflammation

-itis

slipping

-listhesis

destruction

-lytic, -lysis

softening

-malacia

frenzy

-mania

large

-megaly

laws (pertaining to)

-nomics

Number of leukocytes for average adult per micrometer?

5,000 - 10,000

Legality:

Subject matter of the contract must be legal.

Iodine:

Used as a antiseptic when dissolved in alcohol.

cap

capsule

Which of the following body systems works with the respiratory to transport waste products from the body's cells?

cardiovascular system

The average adult has how many liters of blood?

5-6 liters

teaspoon

5ml (tsp)9

A normal blood pressure reading is:

90/60 < 120/80 mm Hg

Anti-anxiety Drugs:

"-LAM" -"PAM" Such as Alprazolam, Diazepam, Clonazepam (For Anxiety). Antidepressants and anxiolytic medications work primarily by affecting the balance of certain chemicals in the brain known as neurotransmitters. Beta-blockers and other types of drugs are used to address the physical symptoms that may accompany an anxiety attack.

Local Anesthetics:

"-caine" Such as Novocaine Local anesthetics, such as Novocaine, block nerve transmission to pain centers in the central nervous system by binding to and inhibiting the function of an ion channel in the cell membrane of nerve cells known as the sodium channel.

Where is the lead for a V4 reading placed?

5th intercostal space in the left midclavicular line (blue)

HIPAA requires that documents must be retained for a minimum of:

6 years

A low hypotension blood pressure reading is:

70/40 < 90/60 mm Hg

The percentage of the target heart rate during a stress test that makes it valid:

85%

medical treatment

-iatry

action

-ion

Fat soluble vitamins include:

A, D, E, K

Before meals

AC-

Which of the following is not a whole grain? A. Brown rice B. Wheat flour C. Popcorn

B. Wheat flour

Twice a day

BID-

When considering a site for an intramuscular injection, which of the following will be appropriate for an infant? A. Deltoid B. Dorsogluteal C. Gluteus medius D. Vastus lateralis

D. Vastus lateralis

External appointments/new patients:

Need demographic information such as full name, address, date of birth, contact phone numbers, insurance information for billing purposes. Social security number and emergency contact number. (New patient's should fill out new patient packet prior to coming in).

What is a common tort in malpractice cases?

Negligence

A removal of a kidney is a:

Nephrectomy

The SA node represents which waveform on the ekg?

Only the P-wave

When is the event monitor used?

Only when symptoms occur

Buccal means: _________ or ___________.

Oral; mouth

Which of the following health care delivery models emphasizes patients involvement in organizing their own health care?

Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH).

What type of health care model is Capitation?

Patients are assigned a per-member, per month payment based on their age, sex, race, lifestyle, medical history, and benefit design.

Administrative supplies:

Pens, Pencils, Reams of Paper, Toner cartridges, paper clips, registration forms, patient information sheets, and clipboards.

Explain a random urine specimen:

Provide the patient with a clean, disposable urine collection container and a label with the patient's information, put the label on the container, and not the lid!

The medical specialty dealing with disease involving the respiratory tract is:

Pulmonology

Sufficient amount

QS

ST segment represents:

Represents electrically neutral period between ventricular depolarization and depolarization. Segment from end of QRS complex to beginning of T wave Usually found along the baseline. IMPORTANT: Any ST elevation in a symptomatic patient should be considered representative of myocardial injury or infarction.

OSHA:

Requires facilities with more than 10 employees to have a written plan of action, with evacuation plan of action, exit routes, protocols for employees who operate equipment and a list of PPE to be used to prevent exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

Self-retaining retractors:

Self-retaining retractors have a mechanical device for holding tissue during surgery, allowing hands-free operations. Self-retaining retractors have a screw, ratchet or some type of clamp to hold the tissue by itself. These allow the surgeon to operate with two free hands.

Thixotropic gel (Primary function):

Serum/plasma separator

What are examples of invasion of privacy?

Sharing information about a patient to another party without their consent.

Senn-Mueller Retractor:

Sharp & blunt ends, holds tissue aside to improve exposure of the operative area.

Uterine Curette:

Sharp, spoon-shaped instrument used to scrape cells from the cervix for a pap test, to remove minor polyps, and to obtain secretion samples for testing.

Label as follows/directions

Sig

What information does the medical assistant need to provide on the referral?

The medical assistant should include in a referral the patient's demographic and insurance information, provider's identification information including National Provider Identification (NPI), diagnosis, and planned procedure or treatment.

Duration of the appointment:

The most important characteristics of an appointment book, consider the provider's preferences, patient's needs, if patient is new or room availability. Effective scheduling the patient should not wait longer than 15 minutes.

Left lateral decubitus:

The patient is lying on his or her left side.

Right lateral decubitus:

The patient is lying on his or her right side.

Sims position:

The patient is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back (Also known as lateral recumbent position).

Reverse Trendelenburg's position

The patient is supine with the head of the bed elevated and the foot of the bed down. This position may be used in surgery to help promote perfusion in obese patients. It can also be helpful in treating venous air embolism and preventing pulmonary aspiration.

Rose Position:

The patient lies supine with the head hanging down over the end of the table (used in surgeries within the mouth or pharynx).

If a patient has not been seen by the physician in over a year:

The patient should complete a new patient registration form.

As part of the verification process, which of the following parts of the DEA numbers shutdown the technician multiply by 2?

The sum of the second, fourth, and sixth digits. (CALC 2,4,6) step to calculate & validate DEA number of provider.

Gross Income:

The total amount of income from wages before any payroll deductions.

Short Transfer Forceps:

Used to grasp tissue and transfer.

How are planes of the body used?

Used with radiographic studies.

The Pegboard System of Bookkeeping is sometimes called the:

Write-it-once system.

at times

X

Diagnostic imaging with radiation:

X-rays, CT scan, angiography, mammography, and nuclear medicine studies.

A patient who has a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 23 is:

a normal weight

around

circum-, peri-

Which of the following body systems experiences a decrease in activity caused by the sympathetic branch of the nervous system during a "flight or fight " response?

digestive system

dilute, dissolve

dil, diss

apart

dis, dif, di

d/c, DISC, DC, disc

discontinue

What does a Urologist specialize in?

disorders of the urinary tract.

dispense

disp

A medical assistant is collecting data from a patient who reports back pain. Which of the following terms should the medical assistant use to describe the patient's pain in the intake notes?

dorsal

Near the upper surface, toward the back.

dorsal

abnormal, difficult, painful

dys-

The (MSDS) is the Safety Data Sheet, it provides:

information regarding chemicals used in a medical facility, and instructs how to respond to a spill or exposure.

Which of the following is a medical assistant's primary role in Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) in the medical office setting?

instructing a patient about examination preparations

The medical assistant drops an instrument on the floor while setting up a sterile tray for a procedure. He picks it up and places it back on the sterile field. A few days later after the procedure, the patient calls the office, concerned that the area surrounding the procedure site is infected. Which of the following torts has the medical assistant committed?

negligence

after

post

before, in front of

pre, ante, pro

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when closing the clinical area at the end of the day?

restock medical supplies in the exam rooms.

backward, behind

retro-

Refills

rf

above

supra-, super-, epi-, ultra-, hyper-

Suspension (small particles suspended in liquid)

susp

A medical assistant is talking with the parents of a 1yr. old infant about developmental achievements and milestones to expect. The medical assistant should be aware that, according to the infant's developmental stage, a lack of achievement of the tasks of that stage can result in which of the following negative outcomes?

suspiciousness

Which of the following procedures requires a medical assistant to use aseptic techniques?

suturing

A medical assistant is speaking with a patient who recently underwent a right-sided radial mastectomy and lymphadenectomy. The medical assistant should inform the patient that which of the following is a manifestation of lymphedema?

swelling of the right arm

fast, rapid

tachy-

A __________ __________is a method of controlling health care costs and quality by reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of care before and after the care is provided.

utilization review

toward the bottom, toward the belly

ventral

What are the Korotkoff Phases?

▪︎K-1 (Phase 1): The appearance of the clear "tapping" sounds as the cuff is gradually deflating. The first clear "tapping" sound is defined as the systolic pressure. ▪︎K-2 (Phase 2): The sounds in K-2 become softer and longer and are characterized by a swishing sound since the blood flow in the artery increases. ▪︎K-3 (Phase 3): The sounds become crisper and louder in K-3 which is similar to the sounds heard in K-1. ▪︎K-4 (Phase 4): As the blood flow starts to become less turbulent in the artery, the sounds in K-4 are muffled and softer. Some professionals record diastolic during Phase 4 and Phase 5. ▪︎K-5 (Phase 5): In K-5, the sounds disappear completely since the blood flow through the artery has returned to normal. The last audible sound is defined as the diastolic pressure.