Private Pilot FAR 2019

91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator - (1) No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. (2) No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness. (3) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. For seaplane and float equipped rotorcraft operations during movement on the surface, the person pushing off the seaplane or rotorcraft from the dock and the person mooring the seaplane or rotorcraft at the dock are excepted from the preceding seating and safety belt requirements. Notwithstanding the preceding requirements of this paragraph, a person may: (i) Be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat or berth, provided that the person being held has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device; (ii) Use the floor of the aircraft as a seat, provided that the person is on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting; or (iii) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, occupy an approved child restraint system furnished by the operator or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section provided that: (A) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of the child during the flight; (B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B)(4) of this action, the approved child restraint system bears one or more labels as follows: (1) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards between January 1, 1981, and February 25, 1985, must bear the label: "This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards"; (2) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 1985, must bear two labels: (i) "This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards"; and (ii) "THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND AIRCRAFT" in red lettering; (3) Seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (a)(3)(iii)(B)(1) and (a)(3)(iii)(B)(2) of this section must bear a label or markings showing: (ii) That the seat was manufactured under the standards of the United Nations; (iii) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the operator was approved by the FAA through Type Certificate or Supplemental Type Certificate; or (iv) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the operator, or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, was approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.8(d) of this chapter or Technical Standard Order C-100b or a later version. The child restraint device manufactured by AmSafe, Inc. (CARES, Part No. 4082) and approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter may continue to bear a label or markings showing FAA approval in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter. (4) Except as provided in § 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iii) and § 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iv), booster-type child restraint systems (as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 571.213)), vest- and harness-type child restraint systems, and lap held child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft; and (C) The operator complies with the following requirements: (1) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved forward-facing seat or berth; (2) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and (3) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s). (b) Unless otherwise stated, this section does not apply to operations conducted under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to persons subject to § 91.105.

AIM 7-3-5 Operations Problem Areas

a. A wake encounter can be catastrophic. In 1972 at Fort Worth a DC−9 got too close to a DC−10 (two miles back), rolled, caught a wingtip, and cartwheeled coming to rest in an inverted position on the runway. All aboard were killed. Serious and even fatal GA accidents induced by wake vortices are not uncommon. However, a wake encounter is not necessarily hazardous. It can be one or more jolts with varying severity depending upon the direction of the encounter, weight of the generating aircraft, size of the encountering aircraft, distance from the generating aircraft, and point of vortex encounter. The probability of induced roll increases when the encountering aircraft's heading is generally aligned with the flight path of the generating aircraft. b. AVOID THE AREA BELOW AND BEHIND THE GENERATING AIRCRAFT, ESPECIALLY AT LOW ALTITUDE WHERE EVEN A MOMENTARY WAKE ENCOUNTER COULD BE HAZARDOUS. This is not easy to do. Some accidents have occurred even though the pilot of the trailing aircraft had carefully noted that the aircraft in front was at a considerably lower altitude. Unfortunately, this does not ensure that the flight path of the lead aircraft will be below that of the trailing aircraft. c. Pilots should be particularly alert in calm wind conditions and situations where the vortices could: 1. Remain in the touchdown area. 2. Drift from aircraft operating on a nearby runway. 3. Sink into the takeoff or landing path from a crossing runway. 4. Sink into the traffic pattern from other airport operations. 5. Sink into the flight path of VFR aircraft operating on the hemispheric altitude 500 feet below. d. Pilots of all aircraft should visualize the location of the vortex trail behind larger aircraft and use proper vortex avoidance procedures to achieve safe operation. It is equally important that pilots of larger aircraft plan or adjust their flight paths to minimize vortex exposure to other aircraft.

AIM 4-4-6 Special VFR Clearances

a. An ATC clearance must be obtained prior to operating within a Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area when the weather is less than that required for VFR flight. A VFR pilot may request and be given a clearance to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and Class E surface areas and some Class B and Class C surface areas in special VFR conditions, traffic permitting, and providing such flight will not delay IFR operations. All special VFR flights must remain clear of clouds. The visibility requirements for special VFR aircraft (other than helicopters) are: 1. At least 1 statute mile flight visibility for operations within Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. 2. At least 1 statute mile ground visibility if taking off or landing. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, the flight visibility must be at least 1 statute mile. 3. The restrictions in subparagraphs 1 and 2 do not apply to helicopters. Helicopters must remain clear of clouds and may operate in Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas with less than 1 statute mile visibility. b. When a control tower is located within the Class B, Class C, or Class D surface area, requests for clearances should be to the tower. In a Class E surface area, a clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center. c. It is not necessary to file a complete flight plan with the request for clearance, but pilots should state their intentions in sufficient detail to permit ATC to fit their flight into the traffic flow. The clearance will not contain a specific altitude as the pilot must remain clear of clouds. The controller may require the pilot to fly at or below a certain altitude due to other traffic, but the altitude specified will permit flight at or above the minimum safe altitude. In addition, at radar AIM 10/12/17 4−4−4 ATC Clearances and Aircraft Separation locations, flights may be vectored if necessary for control purposes or on pilot request. NOTE− The pilot is responsible for obstacle or terrain clearance. REFERENCE− 14 CFR Section 91.119, Minimum safe altitudes: General. d. Special VFR clearances are effective within Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas only. ATC does not provide separation after an aircraft leaves the Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area on a special VFR clearance. e. Special VFR operations by fixed−wing aircraft are prohibited in some Class B and Class C surface areas due to the volume of IFR traffic. A list of these Class B and Class C surface areas is contained in 14 CFR Part 91, Appendix D, Section 3. They are also depicted on sectional aeronautical charts. f. ATC provides separation between Special VFR flights and between these flights and other IFR flights. g. Special VFR operations by fixed−wing aircraft are prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight. h. Pilots arriving or departing an uncontrolled airport that has automated weather broadcast capability (ASOS/AWSS/AWOS) should monitor the broadcast frequency, advise the controller that they have the "one−minute weather" and state intentions prior to operating within the Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface areas.

AIM 4-4-15 Use of Visual Clearing Procedures

a. Before Takeoff. Prior to taxiing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, pilots should scan the approach areas for possible landing traffic and execute the appropriate clearing maneuvers to provide them a clear view of the approach areas. b. Climbs and Descents. During climbs and descents in flight conditions which permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks, left and right at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about them. c. Straight and Level. Sustained periods of straight and level flight in conditions which permit visual detection of other traffic should be broken at intervals with appropriate clearing procedures to provide effective visual scanning. d. Traffic Pattern. Entries into traffic patterns while descending create specific collision hazards and should be avoided. e. Traffic at VOR Sites. All operators should emphasize the need for sustained vigilance in the vicinity of VORs and airway intersections due to the convergence of traffic. f. Training Operations. Operators of pilot training programs are urged to adopt the following practices: 1. Pilots undergoing flight instruction at all levels should be requested to verbalize clearing procedures (call out "clear" left, right, above, or below) to instill and sustain the habit of vigilance during maneuvering. 2. High−wing airplane. Momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look. 3. Low−wing airplane. Momentarily lower the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look. 4. Appropriate clearing procedures should precede the execution of all turns including chandelles, lazy eights, stalls, slow flight, climbs, straight and level, spins, and other combination maneuvers.

AIM 8-1-4 Carbon Monoxide Poisoning in Flight

a. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. When breathed even in minute quantities over a period of time, it can significantly reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Consequently, effects of hypoxia occur. b. Most heaters in light aircraft work by air flowing over the manifold. Use of these heaters while exhaust fumes are escaping through manifold cracks and seals is responsible every year for several nonfatal and fatal aircraft accidents from carbon monoxide poisoning. c. A pilot who detects the odor of exhaust or experiences symptoms of headache, drowsiness, or dizziness while using the heater should suspect carbon monoxide poisoning, and immediately shut off the heater and open air vents. If symptoms are severe or continue after landing, medical treatment should be sought.

AIM 4-1-18 Terminal Radar Services for VFR Aircraft

a. Basic Radar Service: 1. In addition to the use of radar for the control of IFR aircraft, all commissioned radar facilities provide the following basic radar services for VFR aircraft: (a) Safety alerts. (b) Traffic advisories. (c) Limited radar vectoring (on a workload permitting basis). (d) Sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a Letter of Agreement. NOTE− When the stage services were developed, two basic radar services (traffic advisories and limited vectoring) were identified as "Stage I." This definition became unnecessary and the term "Stage I" was eliminated from use. The term "Stage II" has been eliminated in conjunction with the airspace reclassification, and sequencing services to locations with local procedures and/or letters of agreement to provide this service have been included in basic services to VFR aircraft. These basic services will still be provided by all terminal radar facilities whether they include Class B, Class C, Class D or Class E airspace. "Stage III" services have been replaced with "Class B" and "TRSA" service where applicable. 2. Vectoring service may be provided when requested by the pilot or with pilot concurrence when suggested by ATC. 3. Pilots of arriving aircraft should contact approach control on the publicized frequency and give their position, altitude, aircraft call sign, type aircraft, radar beacon code (if transponder equipped), destination, and request traffic information. 4. Approach control will issue wind and runway, except when the pilot states "have numbers" or this information is contained in the ATIS broadcast and the pilot states that the current ATIS information has been received. Traffic information is provided on a workload permitting basis. Approach control will specify the time or place at which the pilot is to contact the tower on local control frequency for further landing information. Radar service is automatically terminated and the aircraft need not be advised of termination when an arriving VFR aircraft receiving radar services to a tower−controlled airport where basic radar service is provided has landed, or to all other airports, is instructed to change to tower or advisory frequency. (See FAA Order JO 7110.65, Air Traffic Control, Paragraph 5−1−13, Radar Service Termination.) 5. Sequencing for VFR aircraft is available at certain terminal locations (see locations listed in the Chart Supplement U.S.). The purpose of the service is to adjust the flow of arriving VFR and IFR aircraft into the traffic pattern in a safe and orderly manner and to provide radar traffic information to departing VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is urged but is not mandatory. Traffic information is provided on a workload permitting basis. Standard radar separation between VFR or between VFR and IFR aircraft is not provided. (a) Pilots of arriving VFR aircraft should initiate radio contact on the publicized frequency with approach control when approximately 25 miles from the airport at which sequencing services are being provided. On initial contact by VFR aircraft, approach control will assume that sequencing service is requested. After radar contact is established, the pilot may use pilot navigation to enter the traffic pattern or, depending on traffic conditions, approach control may provide the pilot with routings or vectors necessary for proper sequencing with other participating VFR and IFR traffic en route to the airport. When a flight is positioned behind a preceding aircraft and the pilot reports having that aircraft in 10/12/17 AIM Services Available to Pilots 4−1−13 sight, the pilot will be instructed to follow the preceding aircraft. THE ATC INSTRUCTION TO FOLLOW THE PRECEDING AIRCRAFT DOES NOT AUTHORIZE THE PILOT TO COMPLY WITH ANY ATC CLEARANCE OR INSTRUCTION ISSUED TO THE PRECEDING AIRCRAFT. If other "nonparticipating" or "local" aircraft are in the traffic pattern, the tower will issue a landing sequence. If an arriving aircraft does not want radar service, the pilot should state "NEGATIVE RADAR SERVICE" or make a similar comment, on initial contact with approach control. (b) Pilots of departing VFR aircraft are encouraged to request radar traffic information by notifying ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight. EXAMPLE− Xray ground control, November One Eight Six, Cessna One Seventy Two, ready to taxi, VFR southbound at 2,500, have information bravo and request radar traffic information. NOTE− Following takeoff, the tower will advise when to contact departure control. (c) Pilots of aircraft transiting the area and in radar contact/communication with approach control will receive traffic information on a controller workload permitting basis. Pilots of such aircraft should give their position, altitude, aircraft call sign, aircraft type, radar beacon code (if transponder equipped), destination, and/or route of flight. b. TRSA Service (Radar Sequencing and Separation Service for VFR Aircraft in a TRSA). 1. This service has been implemented at certain terminal locations. The service is advertised in the Chart Supplement U.S. The purpose of this service is to provide separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft operating within the airspace defined as the Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA). Pilot participation is urged but is not mandatory. 2. If any aircraft does not want the service, the pilot should state "NEGATIVE TRSA SERVICE" or make a similar comment, on initial contact with approach control or ground control, as appropriate. 3. TRSAs are depicted on sectional aeronautical charts and listed in the Chart Supplement U.S. 4. While operating within a TRSA, pilots are provided TRSA service and separation as prescribed in this paragraph. In the event of a radar outage, separation and sequencing of VFR aircraft will be suspended as this service is dependent on radar. The pilot will be advised that the service is not available and issued wind, runway information, and the time or place to contact the tower. Traffic information will be provided on a workload permitting basis. 5. Visual separation is used when prevailing conditions permit and it will be applied as follows: (a) When a VFR flight is positioned behind a preceding aircraft and the pilot reports having that aircraft in sight, the pilot will be instructed by ATC to follow the preceding aircraft. Radar service will be continued to the runway. THE ATC INSTRUCTION TO FOLLOW THE PRECEDING AIRCRAFT DOES NOT AUTHORIZE THE PILOT TO COMPLY WITH ANY ATC CLEARANCE OR INSTRUCTION ISSUED TO THE PRECEDING AIRCRAFT. (b) If other "nonparticipating" or "local" aircraft are in the traffic pattern, the tower will issue a landing sequence. (c) Departing VFR aircraft may be asked if they can visually follow a preceding departure out of the TRSA. The pilot will be instructed to follow the other aircraft provided that the pilot can maintain visual contact with that aircraft. 6. VFR aircraft will be separated from VFR/IFR aircraft by one of the following: (a) 500 feet vertical separation. (b) Visual separation. (c) Target resolution (a process to ensure that correlated radar targets do not touch). 7. Participating pilots operating VFR in a TRSA: (a) Must maintain an altitude when assigned by ATC unless the altitude assignment is to maintain at or below a specified altitude. ATC may assign altitudes for separation that do not conform to 14 CFR Section 91.159. When the altitude assignment is no longer needed for separation or when leaving the TRSA, the instruction will be broadcast, "RESUME APPROPRIATE VFR ALTITUDES." Pilots must then return to an altitude that conforms to 14 CFR Section 91.159 as soon as practicable. AIM 10/12/17 4−1−14 Services Available to Pilots (b) When not assigned an altitude, the pilot should coordinate with ATC prior to any altitude change. 8. Within the TRSA, traffic information on observed but unidentified targets will, to the extent possible, be provided to all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. The pilot will be vectored upon request to avoid the observed traffic, provided the aircraft to be vectored is within the airspace under the jurisdiction of the controller. 9. Departing aircraft should inform ATC of their intended destination and/or route of flight and proposed cruising altitude. 10. ATC will normally advise participating VFR aircraft when leaving the geographical limits of the TRSA. Radar service is not automatically terminated with this advisory unless specifically stated by the controller. c. Class C Service. This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport. d. Class B Service. This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s). e. PILOT RESPONSIBILITY. THESE SERVICES ARE NOT TO BE INTERPRETED AS RELIEVING PILOTS OF THEIR RESPONSIBILITIES TO SEE AND AVOID OTHER TRAFFIC OPERATING IN BASIC VFR WEATHER CONDITIONS, TO ADJUST THEIR OPERATIONS AND FLIGHT PATH AS NECESSARY TO PRECLUDE SERIOUS WAKE ENCOUNTERS, TO MAINTAIN APPROPRIATE TERRAIN AND OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE, OR TO REMAIN IN WEATHER CONDITIONS EQUAL TO OR BETTER THAN THE MINIMUMS REQUIRED BY 14 CFR SECTION 91.155. WHENEVER COMPLIANCE WITH AN ASSIGNED ROUTE, HEADING AND/OR ALTITUDE IS LIKELY TO COMPROMISE PILOT RESPONSIBILITY RESPECTING TERRAIN AND OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE, VORTEX EXPOSURE, AND WEATHER MINIMUMS, APPROACH CONTROL SHOULD BE SO ADVISED AND A REVISED CLEARANCE OR INSTRUCTION OBTAINED. f. ATC services for VFR aircraft participating in terminal radar services are dependent on ATC radar. Services for VFR aircraft are not available during periods of a radar outage and are limited during CENRAP operations. The pilot will be advised when VFR services are limited or not available.

AIM 7-1-7 Categorical Outlooks

a. Categorical outlook terms, describing general ceiling and visibility conditions for advanced planning purposes are used only in area forecasts and are defined as follows: 1. LIFR (Low IFR). Ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile. 2. IFR. Ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility 1 to less than 3 miles. 3. MVFR (Marginal VFR). Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive. 10/12/17 AIM Meteorology 7−1−17 4. VFR. Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles; includes sky clear. b. The cause of LIFR, IFR, or MVFR is indicated by either ceiling or visibility restrictions or both. The contraction "CIG" and/or weather and obstruction to vision symbols are used. If winds or gusts of 25 knots or greater are forecast for the outlook period, the word "WIND" is also included for all categories including VFR. EXAMPLE− 1. LIFR CIG−low IFR due to low ceiling. 2. IFR FG−IFR due to visibility restricted by fog. 3. MVFR CIG HZ FU−marginal VFR due to both ceiling and visibility restricted by haze and smoke. 4. IFR CIG RA WIND−IFR due to both low ceiling and visibility restricted by rain; wind expected to be 25 knots or greater

AIM 3-2-6 Class E Airspace

a. Definition. Class E airspace is controlled airspace that is designated to serve a variety of terminal or en route purposes as described in this paragraph. b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment Requirements: 1. Pilot Certification. No specific certification required. 2. Equipment. No specific equipment required by the airspace. 3. Arrival or Through Flight Entry Requirements. No specific requirements. c. Charts. Class E airspace below 14,500 feet MSL is charted on Sectional, Terminal, and IFR Enroute Low Altitude charts. d. Vertical limits. Except where designated at a lower altitude (see paragraph 3−2−6e, below, for specifics), Class E airspace in the United States consists of: 1. The airspace extending upward from 14,500 feet MSL to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL overlying the 48 contiguous states, the District of Columbia and Alaska, including the waters within nautical 12 miles from the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; excluding: (a) The Alaska peninsula west of longitude 16000'00''W.; and (b) The airspace below 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth unless specifically designated lower (for example, in mountainous terrain higher than 13,000 feet MSL). 2. The airspace above FL 600 is Class E airspace. e. Functions of Class E Airspace. Class E airspace may be designated for the following purposes: 1. Surface area designated for an airport where a control tower is not in operation. Class E surface areas extend upward from the surface to a designated altitude, or to the adjacent or overlying controlled airspace. The airspace will be configured to contain all instrument procedures. (a) To qualify for a Class E surface area, the airport must have weather observation and reporting capability, and communications capability must exist with aircraft down to the runway surface. (b) A Class E surface area may also be designated to accommodate part-time operations at a Class C or Class D airspace location (for example, those periods when the control tower is not in operation). (c) Pilots should refer to the airport page in the applicable Chart Supplement U.S. for surface area status information. 2. Extension to a surface area. Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. Class E airspace extensions begin at the surface and extend up to the overlying controlled airspace. The extensions provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR. Surface area arrival extensions become part of the surface area and are in effect during the same times as the surface area. AIM 10/12/17 3−2−10 Controlled Airspace NOTE− When a Class C or Class D surface area is not in effect continuously (for example, where a control tower only operates part-time), the surface area airspace will change to either a Class E surface area or Class G airspace. In such cases, the "Airspace" entry for the airport in the Chart Supplement U.S. will state "other times Class E" or "other times Class G." When a part-time surface area changes to Class E airspace, the Class E arrival extensions will remain in effect as Class E airspace. If a part-time Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area becomes Class G airspace, the arrival extensions will change to Class G at the same time. 3. Airspace used for transition. Class E airspace areas may be designated for transitioning aircraft to/from the terminal or en route environment. (a) Class E transition areas extend upward from either 700 feet AGL (shown as magenta vignette on sectional charts) or 1,200 feet AGL (blue vignette) and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. (b) The 700-foot/1200-foot AGL Class E airspace transition areas remain in effect continuously, regardless of airport operating hours or surface area status. NOTE− Do not confuse the 700-foot and 1200-foot Class E transition areas with surface areas or surface area extensions. 4. En Route Domestic Areas. There are Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude and are en route domestic airspace areas that provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR en route ATC services but the Federal airway system is inadequate. 5. Federal Airways and Low-Altitude RNAV Routes. Federal airways and low-altitude RNAV routes are Class E airspace areas and, unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including,18,000 feet MSL. (a) Federal airways consist of Low/Medium Frequency (L/MF) airways (colored Federal airways) and VOR Federal airways. (1) L/MF airways are based on non−directional beacons (NDB) and are identified as green, red, amber, or blue. (2) VOR Federal airways are based on VOR/VORTAC facilities and are identified by a "V" prefix. (b) Low-altitude RNAV routes consist of T-routes and helicopter RNAV routes (TK-routes). NOTE− See AIM Paragraph 5-3-4, Airways and Route Systems, for more details and charting information. 6. Offshore Airspace Areas. There are Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL and are designated as offshore airspace areas. These areas provide controlled airspace beyond 12 miles from the coast of the U.S. in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR en route ATC services and within which the U.S. is applying domestic procedures. f. Separation for VFR Aircraft. No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft.

AIM 5-1-4 Flight Plan − VFR Flights

a. Except for operations in or penetrating a Coastal or Domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ a flight plan is not required for VFR flight. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 5−6−1 , National Security b. It is strongly recommended that a flight plan (for a VFR flight) be filed with an FAA FSS. This will ensure that you receive VFR Search and Rescue Protection. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 6−2−6 , Search and Rescue, gives the proper method of filing a VFR flight plan. c. To obtain maximum benefits from the flight plan program, flight plans should be filed directly with the nearest FSS. For your convenience, FSSs provide aeronautical and meteorological briefings while accepting flight plans. Radio may be used to file if no other means are available. NOTE− Some states operate aeronautical communications facilities which will accept and forward flight plans to the FSS for further handling. d. When a "stopover" flight is anticipated, it is recommended that a separate flight plan be filed for AIM 10/12/17 5−1−8 Preflight each "leg" when the stop is expected to be more than 1 hour duration. e. Pilots are encouraged to give their departure times directly to the FSS serving the departure airport or as otherwise indicated by the FSS when the flight plan is filed. This will ensure more efficient flight plan service and permit the FSS to advise you of significant changes in aeronautical facilities or meteorological conditions. When a VFR flight plan is filed, it will be held by the FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time unless: 1. The actual departure time is received. 2. A revised proposed departure time is received. 3. At a time of filing, the FSS is informed that the proposed departure time will be met, but actual time cannot be given because of inadequate communications (assumed departures). f. On pilot's request, at a location having an active tower, the aircraft identification will be forwarded by the tower to the FSS for reporting the actual departure time. This procedure should be avoided at busy airports. g. Although position reports are not required for VFR flight plans, periodic reports to FAA FSSs along the route are good practice. Such contacts permit significant information to be passed to the transiting aircraft and also serve to check the progress of the flight should it be necessary for any reason to locate the aircraft. EXAMPLE− 1. Bonanza 314K, over Kingfisher at (time), VFR flight plan, Tulsa to Amarillo. 2. Cherokee 5133J, over Oklahoma City at (time), Shreveport to Denver, no flight plan. h. Pilots not operating on an IFR flight plan and when in level cruising flight, are cautioned to conform with VFR cruising altitudes appropriate to the direction of flight. i. When filing VFR flight plans, indicate aircraft equipment capabilities by appending the appropriate suffix to aircraft type in the same manner as that prescribed for IFR flight. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 5−1−8 , Flight Plan− Domestic IFR Flights j. Under some circumstances, ATC computer tapes can be useful in constructing the radar history of a downed or crashed aircraft. In each case, knowledge of the aircraft's transponder equipment is necessary in determining whether or not such computer tapes might prove effective. 10/12/17 AIM Preflight 5−1−9 FIG 5−1−1 FAA Flight Plan Form 7233−1 (8−82) U.S. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION (FAA USE ONLY) (FAA USE ONLY) PILOT BRIEFING PILOT BRIEFING VNR STOPOVER STOPOVER TIME STARTED TIME STARTED SPECIALIST INITIALS SPECIALIST INITIALS 1. TYPE 1. TYPE VFR IFR DVFR 3. AIRCRAFT TYPE/ SPECIAL EQUIPMENT 3. AIRCRAFT TYPE/ SPECIAL EQUIPMENT 5. DEPARTURE POINT 5. DEPARTURE POINT 6. DEPARTURE TIME 6. DEPARTURE TIME PROPOSED (Z) PROPOSED (Z) ACTUAL (Z) ACTUAL (Z) 7. CRUISING ALTITUDE 7. CRUISING ALTITUDE 8. ROUTE OF FLIGHT 8. ROUTE OF FLIGHT KTS 9. DESTINATION (Name of airport and city) 9. DESTINATION (Name of airport and city) 10. EST. TIME ENROUTE 10. EST. TIME ENROUTE HOURS HOURS MINUTES MINUTES MINUTES MINUTES 11. REMARKS 11. REMARKS 12. FUEL ON BOARD 12. FUEL ON BOARD 1 3. ALTERNATE AIRPORT(S) 13. ALTERNATE AIRPORT(S) 14. PILOT'S NAME, ADDRESS & TELEPHONE NUMBER & AIRCRAFT HOME BASE 14. PILOT'S NAME, ADDRESS & TELEPHONE NUMBER & AIRCRAFT HOME BASE 15. NUMBER ABOARD 15. NUMBER ABOARD 17. DESTINATION CONTACT/TELEPHONE (OPTIONAL) 17. DESTINATION CONTACT/TELEPHONE (OPTIONAL) 16. COLOR OF AIRCRAFT 16. COLOR OF AIRCRAFT FAA Form 7233-1 FAA Form 7233-1 (8-82) CLOSE VFR FLIGHT PLAN WITH _________________ FSS ON ARRIVAL CLOSE VFR FLIGHT PLAN WITH _________________ FSS ON ARRIVAL FLIGHT PLAN FLIGHT PLAN CIVIL AIRCRAFT PILOTS, FAR 91 requires you file an IFR flight plan to operate under instrument flight rules in controlled airspace. Failure to file could result in a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 for each violation (Section 901 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended). Filing of a VFR flight plan is recommended as a good operating practice. See also Part 99 for requirements concerning DVFR flight plans. 2. AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION 2. AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION 4. TRUE AIRSPEED 4. TRUE AIRSPEED k. Flight Plan Form − (See FIG 5−1−1). l. Explanation of VFR Flight Plan Items. 1. Block 1. Check the type flight plan. Check both the VFR and IFR blocks if composite VFR/IFR. 2. Block 2. Enter your complete aircraft identification including the prefix "N" if applicable. 3. Block 3. Enter the designator for the aircraft, or if unknown, consult an FSS briefer. 4. Block 4. Enter your true airspeed (TAS). 5. Block 5. Enter the departure airport identifier code, or if unknown, the name of the airport. 6. Block 6. Enter the proposed departure time in Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) (Z). If airborne, specify the actual or proposed departure time as appropriate. 7. Block 7. Enter the appropriate VFR altitude (to assist the briefer in providing weather and wind information). 8. Block 8. Define the route of flight by using NAVAID identifier codes and airways. 9. Block 9. Enter the destination airport identifier code, or if unknown, the airport name. NOTE− Include the city name (or even the state name) if needed for clarity. 10. Block 10. Enter your estimated time en route in hours and minutes. 11. Block 11. Enter only those remarks that may aid in VFR search and rescue, such as planned stops en route or student cross country, or remarks pertinent to the clarification of other flight plan information, such as the radiotelephony (call sign) associated with a designator filed in Block 2, if the radiotelephony is new, has changed within the last 60 days, or is a special FAA-assigned temporary radiotelephony. Items of a personal nature are not accepted. AIM 10/12/17 5−1−10 Preflight 12. Block 12. Specify the fuel on board in hours and minutes. 13. Block 13. Specify an alternate airport if desired. 14. Block 14. Enter your complete name, address, and telephone number. Enter sufficient information to identify home base, airport, or operator. NOTE− This information is essential in the event of search and rescue operations. 15. Block 15. Enter total number of persons on board (POB) including crew. 16. Block 16. Enter the predominant colors. 17. Block 17. Record the FSS name for closing the flight plan. If the flight plan is closed with a different FSS or facility, state the recorded FSS name that would normally have closed your flight plan. NOTE− 1. Optional− record a destination telephone number to assist search and rescue contact should you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within 1/2 hour after your estimated time of arrival (ETA). 2. The information transmitted to the destination FSS will consist only of flight plan blocks 2, 3, 9, and 10. Estimated time en route (ETE) will be converted to the correct ETA.

AIM 6-2-4 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)

a. General. 1. ELTs are required for most General Aviation airplanes. REFERENCE− 14 CFR SECTION 91.207. 2. ELTs of various types were developed as a means of locating downed aircraft. These electronic, battery operated transmitters operate on one of three frequencies. These operating frequencies are 121.5 MHz, 243.0 MHz, and the newer 406 MHz. ELTs operating on 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz are analog devices. The newer 406 MHz ELT is a digital transmitter that can be encoded with the owner's contact information or aircraft data. The latest 406 MHz ELT models can also be encoded with the aircraft's position data which can help SAR forces locate the aircraft much more quickly after a crash. The 406 MHz ELTs also transmits a stronger signal when activated than the older 121.5 MHz ELTs. (a) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) requires 406 MHz ELTs be registered with the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) as outlined in the ELTs documentation. The FAA's 406 MHz ELT Technical Standard Order (TSO) TSO−C126 also requires that each 406 MHz ELT be registered with NOAA. The reason is NOAA maintains the owner registration database for U.S. registered 406 MHz alerting devices, which includes ELTs. NOAA also operates the United States' portion of the Cospas−Sarsat satellite distress alerting system designed to detect activated ELTs and other distress alerting devices. (b) In the event that a properly registered 406 MHz ELT activates, the Cospas−Sarsat satellite system can decode the owner's information and provide that data to the appropriate search and rescue (SAR) center. In the United States, NOAA provides the alert data to the appropriate U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) or U.S. Coast Guard Rescue Coordination Center. That RCC can then telephone or contact the owner to verify the status of the aircraft. If the aircraft is safely secured in a hangar, a costly ground or airborne search is avoided. In the case of an inadvertent 406 MHz ELT activation, the owner can deactivate the 406 MHz ELT. If the 406 MHz ELT equipped aircraft is being flown, the RCC can quickly activate a search. 406 MHz ELTs permit the Cospas−Sarsat satellite system to narrow the search area to a more confined area compared to that of a 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz ELT. 406 MHz ELTs also include a low−power 121.5 MHz homing transmitter to aid searchers in finding the aircraft in the terminal search phase. (c) Each analog ELT emits a distinctive downward swept audio tone on 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz. (d) If "armed" and when subject to crash− generated forces, ELTs are designed to automatically activate and continuously emit their respective signals, analog or digital. The transmitters will operate continuously for at least 48 hours over a wide temperature range. A properly installed, maintained, and functioning ELT can expedite search and rescue operations and save lives if it survives the crash and is activated. (e) Pilots and their passengers should know how to activate the aircraft's ELT if manual activation is required. They should also be able to verify the aircraft's ELT is functioning and transmitting an alert after a crash or manual activation. (f) Because of the large number of 121.5 MHz ELT false alerts and the lack of a quick means of verifying the actual status of an activated 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz analog ELT through an owner registration database, U.S. SAR forces do not respond as quickly to initial 121.5/243.0 MHz ELT alerts as the SAR forces do to 406 MHz ELT alerts. Compared to the almost instantaneous detection of a 406 MHz ELT, SAR forces' normal practice is to wait for either a confirmation of a 121.5/243.0 MHz alert by additional satellite passes or through confirmation of an overdue aircraft or similar notification. In some cases, this confirmation process can take hours. SAR forces can initiate a response to 406 MHz alerts in minutes compared to the potential delay of hours for a 121.5/243.0 MHz ELT. 3. The Cospas−Sarsat system has announced the termination of satellite monitoring and reception of the 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz frequencies in 2009. The Cospas−Sarsat system will continue to monitor the 406 MHz frequency. What this means for pilots is that after the termination date, those aircraft with only 10/12/17 AIM Emergency Services Available to Pilots 6−2−3 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz ELT's onboard will have to depend upon either a nearby Air Traffic Control facility receiving the alert signal or an overflying aircraft monitoring 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz detecting the alert. To ensure adequate monitoring of these frequencies and timely alerts after 2009, all airborne pilots should periodically monitor these frequencies to try and detect an activated 121.5/243.0 MHz ELT. b. Testing. 1. ELTs should be tested in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, preferably in a shielded or screened room or specially designed test container to prevent the broadcast of signals which could trigger a false alert. 2. When this cannot be done, aircraft operational testing is authorized as follows: (a) Analog 121.5/243 MHz ELTs should only be tested during the first 5 minutes after any hour. If operational tests must be made outside of this period, they should be coordinated with the nearest FAA Control Tower. Tests should be no longer than three audible sweeps. If the antenna is removable, a dummy load should be substituted during test procedures. (b) Digital 406 MHz ELTs should only be tested in accordance with the unit's manufacturer's instructions. (c) Airborne tests are not authorized. c. False Alarms. 1. Caution should be exercised to prevent the inadvertent activation of ELTs in the air or while they are being handled on the ground. Accidental or unauthorized activation will generate an emergency signal that cannot be distinguished from the real thing, leading to expensive and frustrating searches. A false ELT signal could also interfere with genuine emergency transmissions and hinder or prevent the timely location of crash sites. Frequent false alarms could also result in complacency and decrease the vigorous reaction that must be attached to all ELT signals. 2. Numerous cases of inadvertent activation have occurred as a result of aerobatics, hard landings, movement by ground crews and aircraft maintenance. These false alarms can be minimized by monitoring 121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz as follows: (a) In flight when a receiver is available. (b) Before engine shut down at the end of each flight. (c) When the ELT is handled during installation or maintenance. (d) When maintenance is being performed near the ELT. (e) When a ground crew moves the aircraft. (f) If an ELT signal is heard, turn off the aircraft's ELT to determine if it is transmitting. If it has been activated, maintenance might be required before the unit is returned to the "ARMED" position. You should contact the nearest Air Traffic facility and notify it of the inadvertent activation. d. Inflight Monitoring and Reporting. 1. Pilots are encouraged to monitor 121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz while inflight to assist in identifying possible emergency ELT transmissions. On receiving a signal, report the following information to the nearest air traffic facility: (a) Your position at the time the signal was first heard. (b) Your position at the time the signal was last heard. (c) Your position at maximum signal strength. (d) Your flight altitudes and frequency on which the emergency signal was heard: 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz. If possible, positions should be given relative to a navigation aid. If the aircraft has homing equipment, provide the bearing to the emergency signal with each reported position.

AIM 4-3-18 Taxiing

a. General. Approval must be obtained prior to moving an aircraft or vehicle onto the movement area during the hours an Airport Traffic Control Tower is in operation. 1. Always state your position on the airport when calling the tower for taxi instructions. 2. The movement area is normally described in local bulletins issued by the airport manager or control tower. These bulletins may be found in FSSs, fixed base operators offices, air carrier offices, and operations offices. 3. The control tower also issues bulletins describing areas where they cannot provide ATC service due to nonvisibility or other reasons. 4. A clearance must be obtained prior to taxiing on a runway, taking off, or landing during the hours an Airport Traffic Control Tower is in operation. 5. A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing any runway. ATC will issue an explicit clearance for all runway crossings. 6. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. This does not authorize the aircraft to "enter" or "cross" the assigned departure runway at any point. In order to preclude misunderstandings in radio communications, ATC will not use the word "cleared" in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. 7. When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point to taxi to, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. NOTE− ATC is required to obtain a readback from the pilot of all runway hold short instructions. 8. If a pilot is expected to hold short of a runway approach ("APPCH") area or ILS holding position (see FIG 2−3−15, Taxiways Located in Runway Approach Area), ATC will issue instructions. 9. When taxi instructions are received from the controller, pilots should always read back: (a) The runway assignment. (b) Any clearance to enter a specific runway. (c) Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait. Controllers are required to request a readback of runway hold short assignment when it is not received from the pilot/vehicle. b. ATC clearances or instructions pertaining to taxiing are predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions. Therefore, it is important that pilots clearly understand the clearance or instruction. Although an ATC clearance is issued for taxiing purposes, when operating in accordance with the CFRs, it is the responsibility of the pilot to avoid collision with other aircraft. Since "the pilot−in−command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft" the pilot should obtain clarification of any clearance or instruction which is not understood. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 7−3−1 , General 1. Good operating practice dictates that pilots acknowledge all runway crossing, hold short, or takeoff clearances unless there is some misunderstanding, at which time the pilot should query the controller until the clearance is understood. NOTE− Air traffic controllers are required to obtain from the pilot a readback of all runway hold short instructions. 2. Pilots operating a single pilot aircraft should monitor only assigned ATC communications after being cleared onto the active runway for departure. Single pilot aircraft should not monitor other than ATC communications until flight from Class B, Class C, or Class D surface area is completed. This same procedure should be practiced from after receipt of the clearance for landing until the landing and taxi activities are complete. Proper effective scanning for other aircraft, surface vehicles, or other objects should be continuously exercised in all cases. 3. If the pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or for any reason confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing, a request may be made for progressive taxi instructions which include step−by−step routing directions. Progressive instructions may also be issued if the controller deems it necessary due to traffic or field conditions (for example, construction or closed taxiways). c. At those airports where the U.S. Government operates the control tower and ATC has authorized 10/12/17 AIM Airport Operations 4−3−23 noncompliance with the requirement for two−way radio communications while operating within the Class B, Class C, or Class D surface area, or at those airports where the U.S. Government does not operate the control tower and radio communications cannot be established, pilots must obtain a clearance by visual light signal prior to taxiing on a runway and prior to takeoff and landing. d. The following phraseologies and procedures are used in radiotelephone communications with aeronautical ground stations. 1. Request for taxi instructions prior to departure. State your aircraft identification, location, type of operation planned (VFR or IFR), and the point of first intended landing. EXAMPLE− Aircraft: "Washington ground, Beechcraft One Three One Five Niner at hangar eight, ready to taxi, I−F−R to Chicago." Tower: "Beechcraft one three one five niner, Washington ground, runway two seven, taxi via taxiways Charlie and Delta, hold short of runway three three left." Aircraft: "Beechcraft One Three One Five Niner, hold short of runway three three left." 2. Receipt of ATC clearance. ARTCC clearances are relayed to pilots by airport traffic controllers in the following manner. EXAMPLE− Tower: "Beechcraft One Three One Five Niner, cleared to the Chicago Midway Airport via Victor Eight, maintain eight thousand." Aircraft: "Beechcraft One Three One Five Niner, cleared to the Chicago Midway Airport via Victor Eight, maintain eight thousand." NOTE− Normally, an ATC IFR clearance is relayed to a pilot by the ground controller. At busy locations, however, pilots may be instructed by the ground controller to "contact clearance delivery" on a frequency designated for this purpose. No surveillance or control over the movement of traffic is exercised by this position of operation. 3. Request for taxi instructions after landing. State your aircraft identification, location, and that you request taxi instructions. EXAMPLE− Aircraft: "Dulles ground, Beechcraft One Four Two Six One clearing runway one right on taxiway echo three, request clearance to Page." Tower: "Beechcraft One Four Two Six One, Dulles ground, taxi to Page via taxiways echo three, echo one, and echo niner." or Aircraft: "Orlando ground, Beechcraft One Four Two Six One clearing runway one eight left at taxiway bravo three, request clearance to Page." Tower: "Beechcraft One Four Two Six One, Orlando ground, hold short of runway one eight right." Aircraft: "Beechcraft One Four Two Six One, hold short of runway one eight right."

AIM 8-1-3 Hyperventilation in Flight

a. Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. As hyperventilation "blows off" excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, and coolness and react to them with even greater hyperventilation. Incapacitation can eventually result from incoordination, disorientation, and painful muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur. b. The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought back under control. The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth. c. Early symptoms of hyperventilation and hypoxia are similar. Moreover, hyperventilation and hypoxia can occur at the same time. Therefore, if a pilot is using an oxygen system when symptoms are experienced, the oxygen regulator should immediately be set to deliver 100 percent oxygen, and then the system checked to assure that it has been functioning effectively before giving attention to rate and depth of breathing

AIM 8-1-2 Effects of Altitude

a. Hypoxia. 1. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space. 2. Although a deterioration in night vision occurs at a cabin pressure altitude as low as 5,000 feet, other significant effects of altitude hypoxia usually do not occur in the normal healthy pilot below 12,000 feet. From 12,000 to 15,000 feet of altitude, judgment, memory, alertness, coordination and ability to make calculations are impaired, and headache, drowsiness, dizziness and either a sense of well-being (euphoria) or belligerence occur. The effects appear following increasingly shorter periods of exposure to increasing altitude. In fact, pilot performance can seriously deteriorate within 15 minutes at 15,000 feet. 3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, the periphery of the visual field grays out to a point where only central vision remains (tunnel vision). A blue coloration (cyanosis) of the fingernails and lips develops. The ability to take corrective and protective action is lost in 20 to 30 minutes at 18,000 feet and 5 to 12 minutes at 20,000 feet, followed soon thereafter by unconsciousness. 4. The altitude at which significant effects of hypoxia occur can be lowered by a number of factors. Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes, lowered hemoglobin (anemia), and certain medications can reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood to the degree that the amount of oxygen provided to body tissues will already be equivalent to the oxygen provided to the tissues when exposed to a cabin pressure altitude of several thousand feet. Small amounts of alcohol and low doses of certain drugs, such as antihistamines, tranquilizers, sedatives and analgesics can, through their depressant action, render the brain much more susceptible to hypoxia. Extreme heat and cold, fever, and anxiety increase the body's demand for oxygen, and hence its susceptibility to hypoxia. 5. The effects of hypoxia are usually quite difficult to recognize, especially when they occur gradually. Since symptoms of hypoxia do not vary in an individual, the ability to recognize hypoxia can be greatly improved by experiencing and witnessing the effects of hypoxia during an altitude chamber "flight." The FAA provides this opportunity through aviation physiology training, which is conducted at the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute and at many military facilities across the U.S. To attend the Physiological Training Program at the Civil Aeromedical Institute, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, Oklahoma City, OK, contact by telephone (405) 954−6212, or by writing Aerospace Medical Education Division, AAM−400, CAMI, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. NOTE− To attend the physiological training program at one of the military installations having the training capability, an application form and a fee must be submitted. Full particulars about location, fees, scheduling procedures, course content, individual requirements, etc., are contained in the Physiological Training Application, Form Number AC 3150−7, which is obtained by contacting the accident prevention specialist or the office forms manager in the nearest FAA office. 6. Hypoxia is prevented by heeding factors that reduce tolerance to altitude, by enriching the inspired air with oxygen from an appropriate oxygen system, and by maintaining a comfortable, safe cabin pressure altitude. For optimum protection, pilots are encouraged to use supplemental oxygen above AIM 10/12/17 8−1−4 Fitness for Flight 10,000 feet during the day, and above 5,000 feet at night. The CFRs require that at the minimum, flight crew be provided with and use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes of exposure to cabin pressure altitudes between 12,500 and 14,000 feet and immediately on exposure to cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet. Every occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet. b. Ear Block. 1. As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases during ascent, the expanding air in the middle ear pushes the eustachian tube open, and by escaping down it to the nasal passages, equalizes in pressure with the cabin pressure. But during descent, the pilot must periodically open the eustachian tube to equalize pressure. This can be accomplished by swallowing, yawning, tensing muscles in the throat, or if these do not work, by a combination of closing the mouth, pinching the nose closed, and attempting to blow through the nostrils (Valsalva maneuver). 2. Either an upper respiratory infection, such as a cold or sore throat, or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion around the eustachian tube to make equalization difficult. Consequently, the difference in pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin can build up to a level that will hold the eustachian tube closed, making equalization difficult if not impossible. The problem is commonly referred to as an "ear block." 3. An ear block produces severe ear pain and loss of hearing that can last from several hours to several days. Rupture of the ear drum can occur in flight or after landing. Fluid can accumulate in the middle ear and become infected. 4. An ear block is prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition. Adequate protection is usually not provided by decongestant sprays or drops to reduce congestion around the eustachian tubes. Oral decongestants have side effects that can significantly impair pilot performance. 5. If an ear block does not clear shortly after landing, a physician should be consulted. c. Sinus Block. 1. During ascent and descent, air pressure in the sinuses equalizes with the aircraft cabin pressure through small openings that connect the sinuses to the nasal passages. Either an upper respiratory infection, such as a cold or sinusitis, or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion around an opening to slow equalization, and as the difference in pressure between the sinus and cabin mounts, eventually plug the opening. This "sinus block" occurs most frequently during descent. 2. A sinus block can occur in the frontal sinuses, located above each eyebrow, or in the maxillary sinuses, located in each upper cheek. It will usually produce excruciating pain over the sinus area. A maxillary sinus block can also make the upper teeth ache. Bloody mucus may discharge from the nasal passages. 3. A sinus block is prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition. Adequate protection is usually not provided by decongestant sprays or drops to reduce congestion around the sinus openings. Oral decongestants have side effects that can impair pilot performance. 4. If a sinus block does not clear shortly after landing, a physician should be consulted. d. Decompression Sickness After Scuba Diving. 1. A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression sickness due to evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a serious inflight emergency. 2. The recommended waiting time before going to flight altitudes of up to 8,000 feet is at least 12 hours after diving which has not required controlled ascent (nondecompression stop diving), and at least 24 hours after diving which has required controlled ascent (decompression stop diving). The waiting time before going to flight altitudes above 8,000 feet should be at least 24 hours after any SCUBA dive. These recommended altitudes are actual flight altitudes above mean sea level (AMSL) and not pressurized cabin altitudes. This takes into consideration the risk of decompression of the aircraft during flight.

AIM 8-1-5 Illusions in Flight

a. Introduction. Many different illusions can be experienced in flight. Some can lead to spatial disorientation. Others can lead to landing errors. Illusions rank among the most common factors cited as contributing to fatal aircraft accidents. b. Illusions Leading to Spatial Disorientation. 1. Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable, fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments. 2. The leans. An abrupt correction of a banked attitude, which has been entered too slowly to stimulate the motion sensing system in the inner ear, can create the illusion of banking in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will roll the aircraft back into its original dangerous attitude, or if level flight is maintained, will feel compelled to lean in the perceived vertical plane until this illusion subsides. (a) Coriolis illusion. An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis. The disoriented pilot will maneuver the aircraft into a dangerous attitude in an attempt to stop rotation. This most overwhelming of all illusions in flight may be prevented by not making sudden, extreme head movements, particularly while making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions. (b) Graveyard spin. A proper recovery from a spin that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of spinning in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will return the aircraft to its original spin. (c) Graveyard spiral. An observed loss of altitude during a coordinated constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of being in a descent with the wings level. The disoriented pilot will pull back on the controls, tightening the spiral and increasing the loss of altitude. (d) Somatogravic illusion. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being AIM 10/12/17 8−1−6 Fitness for Flight in a nose up attitude. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low, or dive attitude. A rapid deceleration by a quick reduction of the throttles can have the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up, or stall attitude. (e) Inversion illusion. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of tumbling backwards. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft abruptly into a nose low attitude, possibly intensifying this illusion. (f) Elevator illusion. An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low attitude. An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, has the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up attitude. (g) False horizon. Sloping cloud formations, an obscured horizon, a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars, and certain geometric patterns of ground light can create illusions of not being aligned correctly with the actual horizon. The disoriented pilot will place the aircraft in a dangerous attitude. (h) Autokinesis. In the dark, a static light will appear to move about when stared at for many seconds. The disoriented pilot will lose control of the aircraft in attempting to align it with the light. 3. Illusions Leading to Landing Errors. (a) Various surface features and atmospheric conditions encountered in landing can create illusions of incorrect height above and distance from the runway threshold. Landing errors from these illusions can be prevented by anticipating them during approaches, aerial visual inspection of unfamiliar airports before landing, using electronic glide slope or VASI systems when available, and maintaining optimum proficiency in landing procedures. (b) Runway width illusion. A narrowerthan-usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. A wider-thanusual runway can have the opposite effect, with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway. (c) Runway and terrain slopes illusion. An upsloping runway, upsloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. A downsloping runway, downsloping approach terrain, or both, can have the opposite effect. (d) Featureless terrain illusion. An absence of ground features, as when landing over water, darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. (e) Atmospheric illusions. Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach. Penetration of fog can create the illusion of pitching up. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will steepen the approach, often quite abruptly. (f) Ground lighting illusions. Lights along a straight path, such as a road, and even lights on moving trains can be mistaken for runway and approach lights. Bright runway and approach lighting systems, especially where few lights illuminate the surrounding terrain, may create the illusion of less distance to the runway. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a higher approach. Conversely, the pilot overflying terrain which has few lights to provide height cues may make a lower than normal approach.

AIM 8-1-6 Vision in Flight

a. Introduction. Of the body senses, vision is the most important for safe flight. Major factors that determine how effectively vision can be used are the level of illumination and the technique of scanning the sky for other aircraft. b. Vision Under Dim and Bright Illumination. 1. Under conditions of dim illumination, small print and colors on aeronautical charts and aircraft instruments become unreadable unless adequate cockpit lighting is available. Moreover, another aircraft must be much closer to be seen unless its navigation lights are on. 10/12/17 AIM Fitness for Flight 8−1−7 2. In darkness, vision becomes more sensitive to light, a process called dark adaptation. Although exposure to total darkness for at least 30 minutes is required for complete dark adaptation, a pilot can achieve a moderate degree of dark adaptation within 20 minutes under dim red cockpit lighting. Since red light severely distorts colors, especially on aeronautical charts, and can cause serious difficulty in focusing the eyes on objects inside the aircraft, its use is advisable only where optimum outside night vision capability is necessary. Even so, white cockpit lighting must be available when needed for map and instrument reading, especially under IFR conditions. Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet, carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking and from exhaust fumes, deficiency of Vitamin A in the diet, and by prolonged exposure to bright sunlight. Since any degree of dark adaptation is lost within a few seconds of viewing a bright light, a pilot should close one eye when using a light to preserve some degree of night vision. 3. Excessive illumination, especially from light reflected off the canopy, surfaces inside the aircraft, clouds, water, snow, and desert terrain, can produce glare, with uncomfortable squinting, watering of the eyes, and even temporary blindness. Sunglasses for protection from glare should absorb at least 85 percent of visible light (15 percent transmittance) and all colors equally (neutral transmittance), with negligible image distortion from refractive and prismatic errors. c. Scanning for Other Aircraft. 1. Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key factor in collision avoidance. It should be used continuously by the pilot and copilot (or right seat passenger) to cover all areas of the sky visible from the cockpit. Although pilots must meet specific visual acuity requirements, the ability to read an eye chart does not ensure that one will be able to efficiently spot other aircraft. Pilots must develop an effective scanning technique which maximizes one's visual capabilities. The probability of spotting a potential collision threat obviously increases with the time spent looking outside the cockpit. Thus, one must use timesharing techniques to efficiently scan the surrounding airspace while monitoring instruments as well. 2. While the eyes can observe an approximate 200 degree arc of the horizon at one glance, only a very small center area called the fovea, in the rear of the eye, has the ability to send clear, sharply focused messages to the brain. All other visual information that is not processed directly through the fovea will be of less detail. An aircraft at a distance of 7 miles which appears in sharp focus within the foveal center of vision would have to be as close as 7/10 of a mile in order to be recognized if it were outside of foveal vision. Because the eyes can focus only on this narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Although horizontal back-and-forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots, each pilot should develop a scanning pattern that is most comfortable and then adhere to it to assure optimum scanning. 3. Studies show that the time a pilot spends on visual tasks inside the cabin should represent no more that 1/4 to 1/3 of the scan time outside, or no more than 4 to 5 seconds on the instrument panel for every 16 seconds outside. Since the brain is already trained to process sight information that is presented from left to right, one may find it easier to start scanning over the left shoulder and proceed across the windshield to the right. 4. Pilots should realize that their eyes may require several seconds to refocus when switching views between items in the cockpit and distant objects. The eyes will also tire more quickly when forced to adjust to distances immediately after close-up focus, as required for scanning the instrument panel. Eye fatigue can be reduced by looking from the instrument panel to the left wing past the wing tip to the center of the first scan quadrant when beginning the exterior scan. After having scanned from left to right, allow the eyes to return to the cabin along the right wing from its tip inward. Once back inside, one should automatically commence the panel scan. 5. Effective scanning also helps avoid "emptyfield myopia." This condition usually occurs when flying above the clouds or in a haze layer that provides nothing specific to focus on outside the aircraft. This causes the eyes to relax and seek a AIM 10/12/17 8−1−8 Fitness for Flight comfortable focal distance which may range from 10 to 30 feet. For the pilot, this means looking without seeing, which is dangerous.

AIM 8-1-8 Judgment Aspects of Collision Avoidance

a. Introduction. The most important aspects of vision and the techniques to scan for other aircraft are described in paragraph 8−1−6, Vision in Flight. Pilots should also be familiar with the following information to reduce the possibility of mid-air collisions. b. Determining Relative Altitude. Use the horizon as a reference point. If the other aircraft is above the horizon, it is probably on a higher flight path. If the aircraft appears to be below the horizon, it is probably flying at a lower altitude. c. Taking Appropriate Action. Pilots should be familiar with rules on right-of-way, so if an aircraft is on an obvious collision course, one can take immediate evasive action, preferably in compliance with applicable Federal Aviation Regulations. d. Consider Multiple Threats. The decision to climb, descend, or turn is a matter of personal judgment, but one should anticipate that the other pilot may also be making a quick maneuver. Watch the other aircraft during the maneuver and begin your scanning again immediately since there may be other aircraft in the area. e. Collision Course Targets. Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course. Also, if a target shows no lateral or vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive action. 10/12/17 AIM Fitness for Flight 8−1−9 f. Recognize High Hazard Areas. 1. Airways, especially near VORs, and Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas are places where aircraft tend to cluster. 2. Remember, most collisions occur during days when the weather is good. Being in a "radar environment" still requires vigilance to avoid collisions. g. Cockpit Management. Studying maps, checklists, and manuals before flight, with other proper preflight planning; e.g., noting necessary radio frequencies and organizing cockpit materials, can reduce the amount of time required to look at these items during flight, permitting more scan time. h. Windshield Conditions. Dirty or bugsmeared windshields can greatly reduce the ability of pilots to see other aircraft. Keep a clean windshield. i. Visibility Conditions. Smoke, haze, dust, rain, and flying towards the sun can also greatly reduce the ability to detect targets. j. Visual Obstructions in the Cockpit. 1. Pilots need to move their heads to see around blind spots caused by fixed aircraft structures, such as door posts, wings, etc. It will be necessary at times to maneuver the aircraft; e.g., lift a wing, to facilitate seeing. 2. Pilots must ensure curtains and other cockpit objects; e.g., maps on glare shield, are removed and stowed during flight. k. Lights On. 1. Day or night, use of exterior lights can greatly increase the conspicuity of any aircraft. 2. Keep interior lights low at night. l. ATC Support. ATC facilities often provide radar traffic advisories on a workload-permitting basis. Flight through Class C and Class D airspace requires communication with ATC. Use this support whenever possible or when required.

AIM 7-4-6 Flights Over Charted U.S. Wildlife Refuges, Parks, and Forest Service Areas

a. The landing of aircraft is prohibited on lands or waters administered by the National Park Service, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, or U.S. Forest Service without authorization from the respective agency. Exceptions include: 1. When forced to land due to an emergency beyond the control of the operator; 2. At officially designated landing sites; or 3. An approved official business of the Federal Government. b. Pilots are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface of the following: National Parks, Monuments, Seashores, Lakeshores, Recreation Areas and Scenic Riverways administered by the National Park Service, National Wildlife Refuges, Big Game Refuges, Game Ranges and Wildlife Ranges administered by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and Wilderness and Primitive areas administered by the U.S. Forest Service. NOTE− FAA Advisory Circular AC 91−36, Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flight Near Noise-Sensitive Areas, defines the surface of a national park area (including parks, forests, primitive areas, wilderness areas, recreational areas, national seashores, national monuments, national lakeshores, and national wildlife refuge and range areas) as: the highest terrain within 2,000 feet laterally of the route of flight, or the upper-most rim of a canyon or valley. c. Federal statutes prohibit certain types of flight activity and/or provide altitude restrictions over designated U.S. Wildlife Refuges, Parks, and Forest Service Areas. These designated areas, for example: Boundary Waters Canoe Wilderness Areas, Minnesota; Haleakala National Park, Hawaii; Yosemite National Park, California; and Grand Canyon National Park, Arizona, are charted on Sectional Charts. d. Federal regulations also prohibit airdrops by parachute or other means of persons, cargo, or objects from aircraft on lands administered by the three agencies without authorization from the respective agency. Exceptions include: 1. Emergencies involving the safety of human life; or 2. Threat of serious property loss.

AIM 7-3-3 Vortex Strength

a. The strength of the vortex is governed by the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft can also be changed by extension of flaps or other wing configuring devices as well as by change in speed. However, as the basic factor is weight, the vortex strength increases proportionately. Peak vortex tangential speeds exceeding 300 feet per second have been recorded. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is HEAVY, CLEAN, and SLOW. b. Induced Roll 1. In rare instances a wake encounter could cause inflight structural damage of catastrophic proportions. However, the usual hazard is associated with induced rolling moments which can exceed the roll−control authority of the encountering aircraft. In flight experiments, aircraft have been intentionally flown directly up trailing vortex cores of larger aircraft. It was shown that the capability of an aircraft to counteract the roll imposed by the wake vortex primarily depends on the wingspan and counter− control responsiveness of the encountering aircraft. AIM 10/12/17 7−3−2 Wake Turbulence 2. Counter control is usually effective and induced roll minimal in cases where the wingspan and ailerons of the encountering aircraft extend beyond the rotational flow field of the vortex. It is more difficult for aircraft with short wingspan (relative to the generating aircraft) to counter the imposed roll induced by vortex flow. Pilots of short span aircraft, even of the high performance type, must be especially alert to vortex encounters. (See FIG 7−3−2.) FIG 7−3−2 Wake Encounter Counter Control COUNTER CONTROL 3. The wake of larger aircraft requires the respect of all pilots

AIM 5-1-13 Change in Proposed Departure Time

a. To prevent computer saturation in the en route environment, parameters have been established to delete proposed departure flight plans which have not been activated. Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time or Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT). To ensure that a flight plan remains active, pilots whose actual departure time will be delayed 2 hours or more beyond their filed departure time, are requested to notify ATC of their new proposed departure time. b. Due to traffic saturation, ATC personnel frequently will be unable to accept these revisions via radio. It is recommended that you forward these revisions to a flight plan service provider or FSS.

AIM 7-3-4 Vortex Behavior

haracteristics which can help a pilot visualize the wake location and thereby take avoidance precautions. 1. An aircraft generates vortices from the moment it rotates on takeoff to touchdown, since trailing vortices are a by−product of wing lift. Prior to takeoff or touchdown pilots should note the rotation or touchdown point of the preceding aircraft. (See FIG 7−3−3.) 2. The vortex circulation is outward, upward and around the wing tips when viewed from either ahead or behind the aircraft. Tests with large aircraft have shown that the vortices remain spaced a bit less than a wingspan apart, drifting with the wind, at altitudes greater than a wingspan from the ground. In view of this, if persistent vortex turbulence is encountered, a slight change of altitude and lateral position (preferably upwind) will provide a flight path clear of the turbulence. 3. Flight tests have shown that the vortices from larger (transport category) aircraft sink at a rate of several hundred feet per minute, slowing their descent and diminishing in strength with time and distance behind the generating aircraft. Atmospheric turbulence hastens breakup. Pilots should fly at or above the preceding aircraft's flight path, altering course as necessary to avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft. (See FIG 7−3−4.) However, vertical separation of 1,000 feet may be considered safe. 4. When the vortices of larger aircraft sink close to the ground (within 100 to 200 feet), they tend to move laterally over the ground at a speed of 2 or 3 knots. (See FIG 7−3−5.) FIG 7−3−3 Wake Ends/Wake Begins Touchdown Rotation Wake Ends Wake Begins 10/12/17 AIM Wake Turbulence 7−3−3 FIG 7−3−4 Vortex Flow Field AVOID Nominally 500-1000 Ft. Nominally 500-1000 Ft. Sink Rate Several Hundred Ft.,/Min. Sink Rate Several Hundred Ft.,/Min. FIG 7−3−5 Vortex Movement Near Ground − No Wind No Wind No Wind 3K 3K FIG 7−3−6 Vortex Movement Near Ground − with Cross Winds 6K (3K + 3K) (3K + 3K) 3K Wind 3K Wind 0 (3K - 3K) 0 (3K - 3K) AIM 10/12/17 7−3−4 Wake Turbulence 5. There is a small segment of the aviation community that have become convinced that wake vortices may "bounce" up to twice their nominal steady state height. With a 200−foot span aircraft, the "bounce" height could reach approximately 200 feet AGL. This conviction is based on a single unsubstantiated report of an apparent coherent vortical flow that was seen in the volume scan of a research sensor. No one can say what conditions cause vortex bouncing, how high they bounce, at what angle they bounce, or how many times a vortex may bounce. On the other hand, no one can say for certain that vortices never "bounce." Test data have shown that vortices can rise with the air mass in which they are embedded. Wind shear, particularly, can cause vortex flow field "tilting." Also, ambient thermal lifting and orographic effects (rising terrain or tree lines) can cause a vortex flow field to rise. Notwithstanding the foregoing, pilots are reminded that they should be alert at all times for possible wake vortex encounters when conducting approach and landing operations. The pilot has the ultimate responsibility for ensuring appropriate separations and positioning of the aircraft in the terminal area to avoid the wake turbulence created by a preceding aircraft. b. A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus a light wind with a cross runway component of 1 to 5 knots could result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone for a period of time and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway. (See FIG 7−3−6.) Similarly, a tailwind condition can move the vortices of the preceding aircraft forward into the touchdown zone. THE LIGHT QUARTERING TAILWIND REQUIRES MAXIMUM CAUTION. Pilots should be alert to large aircraft upwind from their approach and takeoff flight paths.

91.313 Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

(a) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft - (1) For other than the special purpose for which it is certificated; or (2) In an operation other than one necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with that special purpose. (b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations are considered necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with a special purpose operation: (1) Flights conducted for flight crewmember training in a special purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated. (2) Flights conducted to satisfy proficiency check and recent flight experience requirements under part 61 of this chapter provided the flight crewmember holds the appropriate category, class, and type ratings and is employed by the operator to perform the appropriate special purpose operation. (3) Flights conducted to relocate the aircraft for delivery, repositioning, or maintenance. (c) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. For the purposes of this paragraph (c), a special purpose operation involving the carriage of persons or material necessary to accomplish that operation, such as crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and banner towing (including the carrying of required persons or material to the location of that operation), an operation for the purpose of providing flight crewmember training in a special purpose operation, and an operation conducted under the authority provided in paragraph (h) of this section are not considered to be the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire. (d) No person may be carried on a restricted category civil aircraft unless that person - (1) Is a flight crewmember; (2) Is a flight crewmember trainee; (3) Performs an essential function in connection with a special purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated; (4) Is necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with that special purpose; or (5) Is necessary to accomplish an operation under paragraph (h) of this section. (e) Except when operating in accordance with the terms and conditions of a certificate of waiver or special operating limitations issued by the Administrator, no person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft within the United States - (1) Over a densely populated area; (2) In a congested airway; or (3) Near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are conducted. (f) This section does not apply to nonpassenger-carrying civil rotorcraft external-load operations conducted under part 133 of this chapter. (g) No person may operate a small restricted-category civil airplane manufactured after July 18, 1978, unless an approved shoulder harness or restraint system is installed for each front seat. The shoulder harness or restraint system installation at each flightcrew station must permit the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened or the restraint system engaged, to perform all functions necessary for flight operation. For purposes of this paragraph - (1) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data; and (2) A front seat is a seat located at a flight crewmember station or any seat located alongside such a seat. (h) (1) An operator may apply for deviation authority from the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section to conduct operations for the following purposes: (i) Flight training and the practical test for issuance of a type rating provided - (A) The pilot being trained and tested holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft type; (B) The pilot receiving flight training is employed by the operator to perform a special purpose operation; and (C) The flight training is conducted by the operator who employs the pilot to perform a special purpose operation. (ii) Flights to designate an examiner or qualify an FAA inspector in the aircraft type and flights necessary to provide continuing oversight and evaluation of an examiner. (2) The FAA will issue this deviation authority as a letter of deviation authority. (3) The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority at any time. (4) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator at least 60 days before the date of intended operations. A request for deviation authority must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and justification that establishes a level of safety equivalent to that provided under the regulations for the deviation requested.

61.23 Medical Certificates: Requirement and Duration

(a) Operations requiring a medical certificate. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a person - (1) Must hold a first-class medical certificate: (i) When exercising the pilot-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate; (ii) When exercising the second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 of this chapter that requires three or more pilots; or (iii) When serving as a required pilot flightcrew member in an operation conducted under part 121 of this chapter if the pilot has reached his or her 60th birthday. (2) Must hold at least a second class medical certificate when exercising: (i) Second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate in part 121 of this chapter (other than operations specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section); or (ii) Privileges of a commercial pilot certificate; or (3) Must hold at least a third-class medical certificate - (i) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or student pilot certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); (ii) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flightcrew member, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); (iii) When taking a practical test in an aircraft for a recreational pilot, private pilot, commercial pilot, or airline transport pilot certificate, or for a flight instructor certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or (iv) When performing the duties as an Examiner in an aircraft when administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization. (b) Operations not requiring a medical certificate. A person is not required to hold a medical certificate - (1) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking - (i) A sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges; or (ii) A pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon class rating; (2) When exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with privileges in a glider or balloon; (3) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon class rating in a glider or a balloon, as appropriate; (4) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with - (i) A sport pilot rating in a glider or balloon; or (ii) A glider category rating; (5) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate if the person is not acting as pilot in command or serving as a required pilot flight crewmember; (6) When exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate; (7) When serving as an Examiner or check airman and administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a glider, balloon, flight simulator, or flight training device; (8) When taking a practical test or a proficiency check for a certificate, rating, authorization or operating privilege conducted in a glider, balloon, flight simulator, or flight training device; or (9) When a military pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces can show evidence of an up-to-date medical examination authorizing pilot flight status issued by the U.S. Armed Forces and - (i) The flight does not require higher than a third-class medical certificate; and (ii) The flight conducted is a domestic flight operation within U.S. airspace. (c) Operations requiring either a medical certificate or U.S. driver's license. (1) A person must hold and possess either a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a U.S. driver's license when - (i) Exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking sport pilot privileges in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (ii) Exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (iii) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating while acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flight crewmember of a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (iv) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (v) Exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or (vi) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flight crewmember if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i). (2) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while exercising sport pilot privileges must - (i) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order applying to the operation of a motor vehicle; (ii) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate); (iii) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn; and (iv) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make that person unable to operate a light-sport aircraft in a safe manner. (3) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while operating under the conditions and limitations of § 61.113(i) must meet the following requirements - (i) The person must - (A) Comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated with his or her U.S. driver's license; (B) At any point after July 14, 2006, have held a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter; (C) Complete the medical education course set forth in § 68.3 of this chapter during the 24-calendar months before acting as pilot in command in an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and retain a certification of course completion in accordance with § 68.3(b)(1) of this chapter; (D) Receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the 48 months before acting as pilot in command of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and that medical examination is conducted in accordance with the requirements in part 68 of this chapter; and (E) If the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly, be under the care and treatment of a State-licensed physician when acting as pilot in command of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i). (ii) The most recently issued medical certificate - (A) May include an authorization for special issuance; (B) May be expired; and (C) Cannot have been suspended or revoked. (iii) The most recently issued Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate cannot have been withdrawn; and (iv) The most recent application for an airman medical certificate submitted to the FAA cannot have been completed and denied. (d) Duration of a medical certificate. Use the following table to determine duration for each class of medical certificate: If you holdAnd on the date ofexamination for your most recent medical certificate you wereAnd you are conducting an operationrequiringThen your medical certificate expires, for that operation, at the end of the last day of the(1) A first-class medical certificate(i) Under age 40an airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in-command privileges, or for second-in-command privileges in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 requiring three or more pilots12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(ii) Age 40 or olderan airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in-command privileges, for second-in-command privileges in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 requiring three or more pilots, or for a pilot flightcrew member in part 121 operations who has reached his or her 60th birthday.6th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(iii) Any agea commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(iv) Under age 40a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(v) Age 40 or oldera recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(2) A second-class medical certificate(i) Any agean airline transport pilot certificate for second-in-command privileges (other than the operations specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section), a commercial pilot certificate, or an air traffic control tower operator certificate12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(ii) Under age 40a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(iii) Age 40 or oldera recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(3) A third-class medical certificate(i) Under age 40a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.(ii) Age 40 or oldera recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

AIM 5-1-14 Closing VFR/DVFR Flight Plans

A pilot is responsible for ensuring that his/her VFR or DVFR flight plan is canceled. You should close your flight plan with the nearest FSS, or if one is not available, you may request any ATC facility to relay your cancellation to the FSS. Control towers do not automatically close VFR or DVFR flight plans since they do not know if a particular VFR aircraft is on a flight plan. If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within 1/2 hour after your ETA, search and rescue procedures are started.

AIM 7-1-9 Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) (Alaska Only)

Equipment is provided in Alaska by which meteorological and aeronautical data are recorded on tapes and broadcast continuously over selected L/MF and VOR facilities. Broadcasts are made from a series of individual tape recordings, and changes, as they occur, are transcribed onto the tapes. The information provided varies depending on the type equipment available. Generally, the broadcast contains a summary of adverse conditions, surface weather observations, pilot weather reports, and a density altitude statement (if applicable). At the discretion of the broadcast facility, recordings may also include a synopsis, winds aloft forecast, en route and terminal forecast data, and radar reports. At selected locations, telephone access to the TWEB has been provided (TEL−TWEB). Telephone numbers for this service are found in the Chart Supplement Alaska. These broadcasts are made available primarily for preflight and inflight planning, and as such, should not be considered as a substitute for specialist−provided preflight briefings.

AIM 7-3-2 Vortex Generation

Lift is generated by the creation of a pressure differential over the wing surface. The lowest pressure occurs over the upper wing surface and the highest pressure under the wing. This pressure differential triggers the roll up of the airflow aft of the wing resulting in swirling air masses trailing downstream of the wing tips. After the roll up is completed, the wake consists of two counter−rotating cylindrical vortices. (See FIG 7−3−1.) Most of the energy is within a few feet of the center of each vortex, but pilots should avoid a region within about 100 feet of the vortex core.

AIM 3-5-5 Published VFR Routes

Published VFR routes for transitioning around, under and through complex airspace such as Class B airspace were developed through a number of FAA and industry initiatives. All of the following terms, i.e., "VFR Flyway" "VFR Corridor" and "Class B Airspace VFR Transition Route" have been used when referring to the same or different types of routes or airspace. The following paragraphs identify and clarify the functionality of each type of route, and specify where and when an ATC clearance is required. a. VFR Flyways. 1. VFR Flyways and their associated Flyway Planning Charts were developed from the recommendations of a National Airspace Review Task Group. A VFR Flyway is defined as a general flight path not defined as a specific course, for use by pilots in planning flights into, out of, through or near complex terminal airspace to avoid Class B airspace. An ATC clearance is NOT required to fly these routes. AIM 10/12/17 3−5−6 Other Airspace Areas FIG 3−5−1 VFR Flyway Planning Chart 10/12/17 AIM Other Airspace Areas 3−5−7 2. VFR Flyways are depicted on the reverse side of some of the VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC), commonly referred to as Class B airspace charts. (See FIG 3−5−1.) Eventually all TACs will include a VFR Flyway Planning Chart. These charts identify VFR flyways designed to help VFR pilots avoid major controlled traffic flows. They may further depict multiple VFR routings throughout the area which may be used as an alternative to flight within Class B airspace. The ground references provide a guide for improved visual navigation. These routes are not intended to discourage requests for VFR operations within Class B airspace but are designed solely to assist pilots in planning for flights under and around busy Class B airspace without actually entering Class B airspace. 3. It is very important to remember that these suggested routes are not sterile of other traffic. The entire Class B airspace, and the airspace underneath it, may be heavily congested with many different types of aircraft. Pilot adherence to VFR rules must be exercised at all times. Further, when operating beneath Class B airspace, communications must be established and maintained between your aircraft and any control tower while transiting the Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas of those airports under Class B airspace. b. VFR Corridors. 1. The design of a few of the first Class B airspace areas provided a corridor for the passage of uncontrolled traffic. A VFR corridor is defined as airspace through Class B airspace, with defined vertical and lateral boundaries, in which aircraft may operate without an ATC clearance or communication with air traffic control. 2. These corridors are, in effect, a "hole" through Class B airspace. (See FIG 3−5−2.) A classic example would be the corridor through the Los Angeles Class B airspace, which has been subsequently changed to Special Flight Rules airspace (SFR). A corridor is surrounded on all sides by Class B airspace and does not extend down to the surface like a VFR Flyway. Because of their finite lateral and vertical limits, and the volume of VFR traffic using a corridor, extreme caution and vigilance must be exercised. FIG 3−5−2 Class B Airspace 3. Because of the heavy traffic volume and the procedures necessary to efficiently manage the flow of traffic, it has not been possible to incorporate VFR corridors in the development or modifications of Class B airspace in recent years. c. Class B Airspace VFR Transition Routes. 1. To accommodate VFR traffic through certain Class B airspace, such as Seattle, Phoenix and Los Angeles, Class B Airspace VFR Transition Routes were developed. A Class B Airspace VFR Transition Route is defined as a specific flight course depicted on a TAC for transiting a specific Class B airspace. These routes include specific ATC-assigned altitudes, and pilots must obtain an ATC clearance prior to entering Class B airspace on the route. 2. These routes, as depicted in FIG 3−5−3, are designed to show the pilot where to position the aircraft outside of, or clear of, the Class B airspace where an ATC clearance can normally be expected with minimal or no delay. Until ATC authorization is received, pilots must remain clear of Class B airspace. On initial contact, pilots should advise ATC of their position, altitude, route name desired, and direction of flight. After a clearance is received, pilots must fly the route as depicted and, most importantly, adhere to ATC instructions.

FAR Part 1 1.1

REVIEW GENERAL TERMS... THERES ALOT

NTSB 830.5 Immediate notification.

The operator of any civil aircraft, or any public aircraft not operated by the Armed Forces or an intelligence agency of the United States, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) office, 1 when: 1 NTSB headquarters is located at 490 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594. Contact information for the NTSB's regional offices is available at http://www.ntsb.gov. To report an accident or incident, you may call the NTSB Response Operations Center, at 844-373-9922 or 202-314-6290. (a) An aircraft accident or any of the following listed serious incidents occur: (1) Flight control system malfunction or failure; (2) Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; (3) Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris other than out the exhaust path; (4) In-flight fire; (5) Aircraft collision in flight; (6) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less. (7) For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight): (i) In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a back-up source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air-driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments; (ii) In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces; (iii) Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and (iv) An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized. (8) Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft, excluding release caused solely by ground contact; (9) A complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50 percent of an aircraft's cockpit displays known as: (i) Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) displays; (ii) Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) displays; (iii) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (ECAM) displays; or (iv) Other displays of this type, which generally include a primary flight display (PFD), primary navigation display (PND), and other integrated displays; (10) Airborne Collision and Avoidance System (ACAS) resolution advisories issued when an aircraft is being operated on an instrument flight rules flight plan and compliance with the advisory is necessary to avert a substantial risk of collision between two or more aircraft. (11) Damage to helicopter tail or main rotor blades, including ground damage, that requires major repair or replacement of the blade(s); (12) Any event in which an operator, when operating an airplane as an air carrier at a public-use airport on land: (i) Lands or departs on a taxiway, incorrect runway, or other area not designed as a runway; or (ii) Experiences a runway incursion that requires the operator or the crew of another aircraft or vehicle to take immediate corrective action to avoid a collision. (b) An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

61.31 Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements.

a) Type ratings required. A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft: (1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air). (2) Turbojet-powered airplanes. (3) Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures. (b) Authorization in lieu of a type rating. A person may be authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an aircraft requiring a type rating, provided - (1) The Administrator has authorized the flight or series of flights; (2) The Administrator has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be achieved through the operating limitations on the authorization; (3) The person shows that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section is impracticable for the flight or series of flights; and (4) The flight - (i) Involves only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or practical test for a pilot certificate or rating; (ii) Is within the United States; (iii) Does not involve operations for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft for training or taking a practical test; and (iv) Involves only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered essential for the flight. (5) If the flight or series of flights cannot be accomplished within the time limit of the authorization, the Administrator may authorize an additional period of up to 60 days to accomplish the flight or series of flights. (c) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on the carriage of persons, or operating for compensation or hire. Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire. That person also may not act as pilot in command of that aircraft for compensation or hire. (d) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on operating an aircraft as the pilot in command. To serve as the pilot in command of an aircraft, a person must - (1) Hold the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown; or (2) Have received training required by this part that is appropriate to the pilot certification level, aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and have received an endorsement for solo flight in that aircraft from an authorized instructor. (e) Additional training required for operating complex airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, unless the person has - (i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a complex airplane. (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section is not required if - (i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane prior to August 4, 1997; or (ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency check under § 135.293 of this chapter in a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane which must be documented in the pilot's logbook or training record. (f) Additional training required for operating high-performance airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), unless the person has - (i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane. (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section is not required if - (i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997; or (ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency check under § 135.293 of this chapter in a high performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high performance airplane which must be documented in the pilot's logbook or training record. (g) Additional training required for operating pressurized aircraft capable of operating at high altitudes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL), unless that person has received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies the person has satisfactorily accomplished the ground training. The ground training must include at least the following subjects: (i) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology; (ii) Respiration; (iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-altitude sickness; (iv) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen; (v) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen; (vi) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation; (vii) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble formation, and high-altitude sickness; (viii) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression; and (ix) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft unless that person has received and logged training from an authorized instructor in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a pressurized aircraft. The flight training must include at least the following subjects: (i) Normal cruise flight operations while operating above 25,000 feet MSL; (ii) Proper emergency procedures for simulated rapid decompression without actually depressurizing the aircraft; and (iii) Emergency descent procedures. (3) The training and endorsement required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section are not required if that person can document satisfactory accomplishment of any of the following in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft: (i) Serving as pilot in command before April 15, 1991; (ii) Completing a pilot proficiency check for a pilot certificate or rating before April 15, 1991; (iii) Completing an official pilot-in-command check conducted by the military services of the United States; or (iv) Completing a pilot-in-command proficiency check under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter conducted by the Administrator or by an approved pilot check airman. (h) Additional aircraft type-specific training. No person may serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that the Administrator has determined requires aircraft type-specific training unless that person has - (1) Received and logged type-specific training in the aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that type of aircraft; and (2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who has found the person proficient in the operation of the aircraft and its systems. (i) Additional training required for operating tailwheel airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane. The flight training must include at least the following maneuvers and procedures: (i) Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings; (ii) Wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against such landings); and (iii) Go-around procedures. (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section is not required if the person logged pilot-in-command time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15, 1991. (j) Additional training required for operating a glider. (1) No person may act as pilot in command of a glider - (i) Using ground-tow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on ground-tow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in ground-tow procedures and operations; (ii) Using aerotow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in aerotow procedures and operations; or (iii) Using self-launch procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on self-launch procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in self-launch procedures and operations. (2) The holder of a glider rating issued prior to August 4, 1997, is considered to be in compliance with the training and logbook endorsement requirements of this paragraph for the specific operating privilege for which the holder is already qualified. (k) Additional training required for night vision goggle operations. (1) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision goggles only if that person receives and logs ground training from an authorized instructor and obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies the person completed the ground training. The ground training must include the following subjects: (i) Applicable portions of this chapter that relate to night vision goggle limitations and flight operations; (ii) Aeromedical factors related to the use of night vision goggles, including how to protect night vision, how the eyes adapt to night, self-imposed stresses that affect night vision, effects of lighting on night vision, cues used to estimate distance and depth perception at night, and visual illusions; (iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations of night vision goggle equipment; (iv) Night vision goggle performance and scene interpretation; and (v) Night vision goggle operation flight planning, including night terrain interpretation and factors affecting terrain interpretation. (2) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision goggles only if that person receives and logs flight training from an authorized instructor and obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the use of night vision goggles. The flight training must include the following tasks: (i) Preflight and use of internal and external aircraft lighting systems for night vision goggle operations; (ii) Preflight preparation of night vision goggles for night vision goggle operations; (iii) Proper piloting techniques when using night vision goggles during the takeoff, climb, enroute, descent, and landing phases of flight; and (iv) Normal, abnormal, and emergency flight operations using night vision goggles. (3) The requirements under paragraphs (k)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply if a person can document satisfactory completion of any of the following pilot proficiency checks using night vision goggles in an aircraft: (i) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations conducted by the U.S. Armed Forces. (ii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations under part 135 of this chapter conducted by an Examiner or Check Airman. (iii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations conducted by a night vision goggle manufacturer or authorized instructor, when the pilot - (A) Is employed by a Federal, State, county, or municipal law enforcement agency; and (B) Has logged at least 20 hours as pilot in command in night vision goggle operations. (l) Exceptions. (1) This section does not require a category and class rating for aircraft not type-certificated as airplanes, rotorcraft, gliders, lighter-than-air aircraft, powered-lifts, powered parachutes, or weight-shift-control aircraft. (2) The rating limitations of this section do not apply to - (i) An applicant when taking a practical test given by an examiner; (ii) The holder of a student pilot certificate; (iii) The holder of a pilot certificate when operating an aircraft under the authority of - (A) A provisional type certificate; or (B) An experimental certificate, unless the operation involves carrying a passenger; (iv) The holder of a pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating when operating a balloon; (v) The holder of a recreational pilot certificate operating under the provisions of § 61.101(h); or (vi) The holder of a sport pilot certificate when operating a light-sport aircraft.

AIM 5-2-4 Line Up and Wait (LUAW)

a. Line up and wait is an air traffic control (ATC) procedure designed to position an aircraft onto the runway for an imminent departure. The ATC instruction "LINE UP AND WAIT" is used to instruct a pilot to taxi onto the departure runway and line up and wait. EXAMPLE− Tower: "N234AR Runway 24L, line up and wait." b. This ATC instruction is not an authorization to takeoff. In instances where the pilot has been instructed to line up and wait and has been advised of a reason/condition (wake turbulence, traffic on an intersecting runway, etc.) or the reason/condition is clearly visible (another aircraft that has landed on or is taking off on the same runway), and the reason/ condition is satisfied, the pilot should expect an imminent takeoff clearance, unless advised of a delay. If you are uncertain about any ATC instruction or clearance, contact ATC immediately. c. If a takeoff clearance is not received within a reasonable amount of time after clearance to line up and wait, ATC should be contacted. EXAMPLE− Aircraft: Cessna 234AR holding in position Runway 24L. Aircraft: Cessna 234AR holding in position Runway 24L at Bravo. NOTE− FAA analysis of accidents and incidents involving aircraft holding in position indicate that two minutes or more elapsed between the time the instruction was issued to line up and wait and the resulting event (for example, land−over or go−around). Pilots should consider the length of time that they have been holding in position whenever they HAVE NOT been advised of any expected delay to determine when it is appropriate to query the controller. REFERENCE− Advisory Circulars 91−73A, Part 91 and Part 135 Single−Pilot Procedures during Taxi Operations, and 120−74A, Parts 91, 121, 125, and 135 Flightcrew Procedures during Taxi Operations d. Situational awareness during line up and wait operations is enhanced by monitoring ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft. Pilots should listen carefully if another aircraft is on frequency that has a similar call sign and pay close attention to communications between ATC and other aircraft. If you are uncertain of an ATC instruction or clearance, query ATC immediately. Care should be taken to not inadvertently execute a clearance/ instruction for another aircraft. e. Pilots should be especially vigilant when conducting line up and wait operations at night or during reduced visibility conditions. They should scan the full length of the runway and look for aircraft on final approach or landing roll out when taxiing onto a runway. ATC should be contacted anytime there is a concern about a potential conflict. f. When two or more runways are active, aircraft may be instructed to "LINE UP AND WAIT" on two or more runways. When multiple runway operations are being conducted, it is important to listen closely for your call sign and runway. Be alert for similar sounding call signs and acknowledge all instructions with your call sign. When you are holding in position and are not sure if the takeoff clearance was for you, ask ATC before you begin takeoff roll. ATC prefers that you confirm a takeoff clearance rather than mistake another aircraft's clearance for your own. g. When ATC issues intersection "line up and wait" and takeoff clearances, the intersection designator will be used. If ATC omits the intersection designator, call ATC for clarification. EXAMPLE− Aircraft: "Cherokee 234AR, Runway 24L at November 4, line up and wait." h. If landing traffic is a factor during line up and wait operations, ATC will inform the aircraft in position of the closest traffic within 6 flying miles requesting a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, or an unrestricted low approach to the same runway. Pilots should take care to note the position of landing traffic. ATC will also advise the landing traffic when an aircraft is authorized to "line up and wait" on the same runway. 10/12/17 AIM Departure Procedures 5−2−3 EXAMPLE− Tower: "Cessna 234AR, Runway 24L, line up and wait. Traffic a Boeing 737, six mile final." Tower: "Delta 1011, continue, traffic a Cessna 210 holding in position Runway 24L." NOTE− ATC will normally withhold landing clearance to arrival aircraft when another aircraft is in position and holding on the runway. i. Never land on a runway that is occupied by another aircraft, even if a landing clearance was issued. Do not hesitate to ask the controller about the traffic on the runway and be prepared to execute a go− around.

AIM 2-1-2 Visual Glideslope Indicators

a. ALS provide the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing. Operational requirements dictate the sophistication and configuration of the approach light system for a particular runway. b. ALS are a configuration of signal lights starting at the landing threshold and extending into the approach area a distance of 2400−3000 feet for precision instrument runways and 1400−1500 feet for nonprecision instrument runways. Some systems include sequenced flashing lights which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling towards the runway at high speed (twice a second). (See FIG 2−1−1.) 2−1−2. Visual Glideslope Indicators a. Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) 1. VASI installations may consist of either 2, 4, 6, 12, or 16 light units arranged in bars referred to as near, middle, and far bars. Most VASI installations consist of 2 bars, near and far, and may consist of 2, 4, or 12 light units. Some VASIs consist of three bars, near, middle, and far, which provide an additional visual glide path to accommodate high cockpit aircraft. This installation may consist of either 6 or 16 light units. VASI installations consisting of 2, 4, or 6 light units are located on one side of the runway, usually the left. Where the installation consists of 12 or 16 light units, the units are located on both sides of the runway. 2. Two−bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path which is normally set at 3 degrees. Three−bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The lower glide path is provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at 3 degrees while the upper glide path, provided by the middle and far bars, is normally 1/4 degree higher. This higher glide path is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height. Although normal glide path angles are three degrees, angles at some locations may be as high as 4.5 degrees to give proper obstacle clearance. Pilots of high performance aircraft are cautioned that use of VASI angles in excess of 3.5 degrees may cause an increase in runway length required for landing and rollout. 3. The basic principle of the VASI is that of color differentiation between red and white. Each light unit projects a beam of light having a white segment in the upper part of the beam and red segment in the lower part of the beam. The light units are arranged so that the pilot using the VASIs during an approach will see the combination of lights shown below. 4. The VASI is a system of lights so arranged to provide visual descent guidance information during the approach to a runway. These lights are visible from 3−5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles or more at night. The visual glide path of the VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 NM from the runway threshold. Descent, using the VASI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned with the runway. Lateral course guidance is provided by the runway or runway lights. In certain circumstances, the safe obstruction clearance area may be reduced by narrowing the beam width or shortening the usable distance due to local limitations, or the VASI may be offset from the extended runway centerline. This will be noted in the Chart Supplement U.S. and/or applicable notices to airmen (NOTAM). AIM 10/12/17 2−1−2 Airport Lighting Aids FIG 2−1−1 Precision & Nonprecision Configurations NOTE− Civil ALSF−2 may be operated as SSALR during favorable weather conditions. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Lighting Aids 2−1−3 5. For 2−bar VASI (4 light units) see FIG 2−1−2. FIG 2−1−2 2−Bar VASI Far Bar = Red = White Near Bar Below Glide Path On Glide Path Above Glide Path 6. For 3−bar VASI (6 light units) see FIG 2−1−3. FIG 2−1−3 3−Bar VASI Far Bar Middle Bar Near Bar Below Both Glide Paths On Lower Glide Path On Upper Glide Path Above Both Glide Paths 7. For other VASI configurations see FIG 2−1−4. FIG 2−1−4 VASI Variations 2 Bar 2 Light Units On Glide Path 2 Bar 12 Light Units On Glide Path 3 Bar 16 Light Units on Lower Glide Path AIM 10/12/17 2−1−4 Airport Lighting Aids b. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI). The precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. These lights are visible from about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The visual glide path of the PAPI typically provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 3.4 NM from the runway threshold. Descent, using the PAPI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned with the runway. The row of light units is normally installed on the left side of the runway and the glide path indications are as depicted. Lateral course guidance is provided by the runway or runway lights. In certain circumstances, the safe obstruction clearance area may be reduced by narrowing the beam width or shortening the usable distance due to local limitations, or the PAPI may be offset from the extended runway centerline. This will be noted in the Chart Supplement U.S. and/or applicable NOTAMs. (See FIG 2−1−5.) FIG 2−1−5 Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Slightly High (3.2 Degrees) White Red High (More Than 3,5 Degrees) On Glide Path (3 Degrees) Slightly Low (2.8 Degrees) Low (Less Than 2.5 Degrees) c. Tri−color Systems. Tri−color visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a three−color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below glide path indication is red, the above glide path indication is amber, and the on glide path indication is green. These types of indicators have a useful range of approximately one−half to one mile during the day and up to five miles at night depending upon the visibility conditions. (See FIG 2−1−6.) FIG 2−1−6 Tri−Color Visual Approach Slope Indicator Amber Above Glide Path On Glide Path Below Glide Path Amber Green Red NOTE− 1. Since the tri−color VASI consists of a single light source which could possibly be confused with other light sources, pilots should exercise care to properly locate and identify the light signal. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Lighting Aids 2−1−5 2. When the aircraft descends from green to red, the pilot may see a dark amber color during the transition from green to red. FIG 2−1−7 Pulsating Visual Approach Slope Indicator Above Glide Path On Glide Path Below Glide Path Slightly Below Glide Path Threshold PULSATING WHITE PULSATING RED STEADY WHITE STEADY RED NOTE− Since the PVASI consists of a single light source which could possibly be confused with other light sources, pilots should exercise care to properly locate and identify the light signal. FIG 2−1−8 Alignment of Elements Above Glide Path On Glide Path Below Glide Path d. Pulsating Systems. Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two−color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The on glide path indication is a steady white light. The slightly below glide path indication is a steady red light. If the aircraft descends further below the glide path, the red light starts to pulsate. The above glide path indication is a pulsating white light. The pulsating rate increases as the aircraft gets further above or below the desired glide slope. The useful range of the system is about four miles during the day and up to ten miles at night. (See FIG 2−1−7.) e. Alignment of Elements Systems. Alignment of elements systems are installed on some small general aviation airports and are a low−cost system consisting of painted plywood panels, normally black and white or fluorescent orange. Some of these systems are lighted for night use. The useful range of these systems is approximately three−quarter miles. AIM 10/12/17 2−1−6 Airport Lighting Aids To use the system the pilot positions the aircraft so the elements are in alignment. The glide path indications are shown in FIG 2−1−8.

AIM 7-1-3 Use of Aviation Weather Products

a. Air carriers and operators certificated under the provisions of 14 CFR Part 119 are required to use the aeronautical weather information systems defined in the Operations Specifications issued to that certificate holder by the FAA. These systems may utilize basic FAA/National Weather Service (NWS) weather services, contractor− or operator−proprietary weather services and/or Enhanced Weather Information System (EWINS) when approved in the Operations Specifications. As an integral part of this system approval, the procedures for collecting, producing and disseminating aeronautical weather information, as well as the crew member and dispatcher training to support the use of system weather products, must be accepted or approved. b. Operators not certificated under the provisions of 14 CFR Part 119 are encouraged to use FAA/NWS products through Flight Service Stations, Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS), Lockheed Martin Flight Services, and/or Flight Information Services−Broadcast (FIS−B). c. The suite of available aviation weather product types is expanding, with the development of new sensor systems, algorithms and forecast models. The FAA and NWS, supported by various weather research laboratories and corporations under contract to the Government, develop and implement new aviation weather product types. The FAA's NextGen Aviation Weather Research Program (AWRP) facilitates collaboration between the NWS, the FAA, and various industry and research representatives. This collaboration ensures that user needs and technical readiness requirements are met before experimental products mature to operational application. d. The AWRP manages the transfer of aviation weather R&D to operational use through technical review panels and conducting safety assessments to ensure that newly developed aviation weather products meet regulatory requirements and enhance safety. 10/12/17 AIM Meteorology 7−1−3 FIG 7−1−1 Weather Elements Conversion Tables AIM 10/12/17 7−1−4 Meteorology e. The AWRP review and decision−making process applies criteria to weather products at various stages . The stages are composed of the following: 1. Sponsorship of user needs. 2. R & D and controlled testing. 3. Experimental application. 4. Operational application. f. Pilots and operators should be aware that weather services provided by entities other than FAA, NWS or their contractors (such as the DUATS and Lockheed Martin Flight Services DUATS II) may not meet FAA/NWS quality control standards. Hence, operators and pilots contemplating using such services should request and/or review an appropriate description of services and provider disclosure. This should include, but is not limited to, the type of weather product (for example, current weather or forecast weather), the currency of the product (that is, product issue and valid times), and the relevance of the product. Pilots and operators should be cautious when using unfamiliar products, or products not supported by FAA/NWS technical specifications. NOTE− When in doubt, consult with a FAA Flight Service Station Specialist. g. In addition, pilots and operators should be aware there are weather services and products available from government organizations beyond the scope of the AWRP process mentioned earlier in this section. For example, governmental agencies such as the NWS and the Aviation Weather Center (AWC), or research organizations such as the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR) display weather "model data" and "experimental" products which require training and/or expertise to properly interpret and use. These products are developmental prototypes that are subject to ongoing research and can change without notice. Therefore, some data on display by government organizations, or government data on display by independent organizations may be unsuitable for flight planning purposes. Operators and pilots contemplating using such services should request and/or review an appropriate description of services and provider disclosure. This should include, but is not limited to, the type of weather product (for example, current weather or forecast weather), the currency of the product (i.e., product issue and valid times), and the relevance of the product. Pilots and operators should be cautious when using unfamiliar weather products. NOTE− When in doubt, consult with a FAA Flight Service Station Specialist. h. With increased access to weather products via the public Internet, the aviation community has access to an over whelming amount of weather information and data that support self-briefing. FAA AC 00-45 (current edition) describes the weather products distributed by the NWS. Pilots and operators using the public Internet to access weather from a third party vendor should request and/or review an appropriate description of services and provider disclosure. This should include, but is not limited to, the type of weather product (for example, current weather or forecast weather), the currency of the product (i.e., product issue and valid times), and the relevance of the product. Pilots and operators should be cautious when using unfamiliar weather products and when in doubt, consult with a Flight Service Specialist. i. The development of new weather products, coupled with the termination of some legacy textual and graphical products may create confusion between regulatory requirements and the new products. All flight−related, aviation weather decisions must be based on all available pertinent weather products. As every flight is unique and the weather conditions for that flight vary hour by hour, day to day, multiple weather products may be necessary to meet aviation weather regulatory requirements. Many new weather products now have a Precautionary Use Statement that details the proper use or application of the specific product. j. The FAA has identified three distinct types of weather information available to pilots and operators. 1. Observations. Raw weather data collected by some type of sensor suite including surface and airborne observations, radar, lightning, satellite imagery, and profilers. 2. Analysis. Enhanced depiction and/or interpretation of observed weather data. 3. Forecasts. Predictions of the development and/or movement of weather phenomena based on meteorological observations and various mathematical models. k. Not all sources of aviation weather information are able to provide all three types of weather 10/12/17 AIM Meteorology 7−1−5 information. The FAA has determined that operators and pilots may utilize the following approved sources of aviation weather information: 1. Federal Government. The FAA and NWS collect raw weather data, analyze the observations, and produce forecasts. The FAA and NWS disseminate meteorological observations, analyses, and forecasts through a variety of systems. In addition, the Federal Government is the only approval authority for sources of weather observations; for example, contract towers and airport operators may be approved by the Federal Government to provide weather observations. 2. Enhanced Weather Information System (EWINS). An EWINS is an FAA authorized, proprietary system for tracking, evaluating, reporting, and forecasting the presence or lack of adverse weather phenomena. The FAA authorizes a certificate holder to use an EWINS to produce flight movement forecasts, adverse weather phenomena forecasts, and other meteorological advisories. For more detailed information regarding EWINS, see the Aviation Weather Services Advisory Circular 00−45 and the Flight Standards Information Management System 8900.1. 3. Commercial Weather Information Providers. In general, commercial providers produce proprietary weather products based on NWS/FAA products with formatting and layout modifications but no material changes to the weather information itself. This is also referred to as "repackaging." In addition, commercial providers may produce analyses, forecasts, and other proprietary weather products that substantially alter the information contained in government−produced products. However, those proprietary weather products that substantially alter government− produced weather products or information, may only be approved for use by 14 CFR Part 121 and Part 135 certificate holders if the commercial provider is EWINS qualified.

AIM 4-3-23 Use of Aircraft Lights

a. Aircraft position lights are required to be lighted on aircraft operated on the surface and in flight from sunset to sunrise. In addition, aircraft equipped with an anti−collision light system are required to operate that light system during all types of operations (day and night). However, during any adverse meteorological conditions, the pilot−in−command may determine that the anti−collision lights should be turned off when their light output would constitute a hazard to safety (14 CFR Section 91.209). Supplementary strobe lights should be turned off on the ground when they adversely affect ground personnel or other pilots, and in flight when there are adverse reflection from clouds. b. An aircraft anti−collision light system can use one or more rotating beacons and/or strobe lights, be colored either red or white, and have different (higher than minimum) intensities when compared to other aircraft. Many aircraft have both a rotating beacon and a strobe light system. c. The FAA has a voluntary pilot safety program, Operation Lights On, to enhance the see−and−avoid concept. Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights during takeoff; i.e., either after takeoff clearance has been received or when beginning takeoff roll. Pilots are further encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, especially when operating within 10 miles of any airport, or in conditions of reduced visibility and in areas where flocks of birds may be expected, i.e., coastal areas, lake areas, around refuse dumps, etc. Although turning on aircraft lights does enhance the see−and−avoid concept, pilots should not become complacent about keeping a sharp lookout for other aircraft. Not all aircraft are equipped with lights and some pilots may not have their lights turned on. Aircraft manufacturer's recommendations for operation of landing lights and electrical systems should be observed. d. Prop and jet blast forces generated by large aircraft have overturned or damaged several smaller aircraft taxiing behind them. To avoid similar results, and in the interest of preventing upsets and injuries to ground personnel from such forces, the FAA recommends that air carriers and commercial operators turn on their rotating beacons anytime their aircraft engines are in operation. General aviation pilots using rotating beacon equipped aircraft are also encouraged to participate in this program which is designed to alert others to the potential hazard. Since this is a voluntary program, exercise caution and do not rely solely on the rotating beacon as an indication that aircraft engines are in operation. e. Prior to commencing taxi, it is recommended to turn on navigation, position, anti-collision, and logo lights (if equipped). To signal intent to other pilots, consider turning on the taxi light when the aircraft is moving or intending to move on the ground, and turning it off when stopped or yielding to other ground traffic. Strobe lights should not be illuminated during taxi if they will adversely affect the vision of other pilots or ground personnel. f. At the discretion of the pilot-in-command, all exterior lights should be illuminated when taxiing on or across any runway. This increases the conspicuousness of the aircraft to controllers and other pilots approaching to land, taxiing, or crossing the runway. Pilots should comply with any equipment operating limitations and consider the effects of landing and strobe lights on other aircraft in their vicinity. g. When entering the departure runway for takeoff or to "line up and wait," all lights, except for landing lights, should be illuminated to make the aircraft conspicuous to ATC and other aircraft on approach. Landing lights should be turned on when takeoff clearance is received or when commencing takeoff roll at an airport without an operating control tower.

AIM 3-5-2 Military Training Routes

a. National security depends largely on the deterrent effect of our airborne military forces. To be proficient, the military services must train in a wide range of airborne tactics. One phase of this training involves "low level" combat tactics. The required maneuvers and high speeds are such that they may occasionally make the see-and-avoid aspect of VFR flight more difficult without increased vigilance in areas containing such operations. In an effort to ensure the greatest practical level of safety for all flight operations, the Military Training Route (MTR) program was conceived. b. The MTR program is a joint venture by the FAA and the Department of Defense (DOD). MTRs are mutually developed for use by the military for the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high-speed training. The routes above 1,500 feet AGL are developed to be flown, to the maximum extent possible, under IFR. The routes at 1,500 feet AGL and below are generally developed to be flown under VFR. c. Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. However, route segments may be defined at higher altitudes for purposes of route continuity. For example, route segments may be defined for descent, climbout, and mountainous terrain. There are IFR and VFR routes as follows: 1. IFR Military Training Routes−(IR). Operations on these routes are conducted in accordance with IFR regardless of weather conditions. 2. VFR Military Training Routes−(VR). Operations on these routes are conducted in accordance with VFR except flight visibility must be AIM 10/12/17 3−5−2 Other Airspace Areas 5 miles or more; and flights must not be conducted below a ceiling of less than 3,000 feet AGL. d. Military training routes will be identified and charted as follows: 1. Route identification. (a) MTRs with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL must be identified by four number characters; e.g., IR1206, VR1207. (b) MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL must be identified by three number characters; e.g., IR206, VR207. (c) Alternate IR/VR routes or route segments are identified by using the basic/principal route designation followed by a letter suffix, e.g., IR008A, VR1007B, etc. 2. Route charting. (a) IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart. This chart will depict all IR routes and all VR routes that accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL. (b) VFR Sectional Aeronautical Charts. These charts will depict military training activities such as IR, VR, MOA, Restricted Area, Warning Area, and Alert Area information. (c) Area Planning (AP/1B) Chart (DOD Flight Information Publication−FLIP). This chart is published by the National Geospatial−Intelligence Agency (NGA) primarily for military users and contains detailed information on both IR and VR routes. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 9−1−5 , Subparagraph a, National Geospatial−Intelligence Agency (NGA) Products e. The FLIP contains charts and narrative descriptions of these routes. To obtain this publication contact: Defense Logistics Agency for Aviation Mapping Customer Operations (DLA AVN/QAM) 8000 Jefferson Davis Highway Richmond, VA 23297−5339 Toll free phone: 1−800−826−0342 Commercial: 804−279−6500 This NGA FLIP is available for pilot briefings at FSS and many airports. f. Nonparticipating aircraft are not prohibited from flying within an MTR; however, extreme vigilance should be exercised when conducting flight through or near these routes. Pilots should contact FSSs within 100 NM of a particular MTR to obtain current information or route usage in their vicinity. Information available includes times of scheduled activity, altitudes in use on each route segment, and actual route width. Route width varies for each MTR and can extend several miles on either side of the charted MTR centerline. Route width information for IR and VR MTRs is also available in the FLIP AP/1B along with additional MTR (slow routes/air refueling routes) information. When requesting MTR information, pilots should give the FSS their position, route of flight, and destination in order to reduce frequency congestion and permit the FSS specialist to identify the MTR which could be a factor

AIM 2-3-5 Holding Position Markings

a. Runway Holding Position Markings. For runways, these markings indicate where aircraft MUST STOP when approaching a runway. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six or twelve inches apart, and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft must hold. There are three locations where runway holding position markings are encountered. 1. Runway Holding Position Markings on Taxiways. These markings identify the locations on a taxiway where aircraft MUST STOP when a clearance has not been issued to proceed onto the runway. Generally, runway holding position markings also identify the boundary of the runway safety area (RSA) for aircraft exiting the runway. Runway holding position markings are shown in FIG 2−3−13 and FIG 2−3−16. When instructed by ATC, "Hold short of Runway XX," the pilot MUST STOP so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the runway holding position marking. When approaching runways at airports with an operating control tower, pilots must not cross the runway holding position marking without ATC clearance. Pilots approaching runways at airports without an operating control tower must ensure adequate separation from other aircraft, vehicles, and pedestrians prior to crossing the holding position markings. An aircraft exiting a runway is not clear of the runway until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the applicable holding position marking. NOTE− Runway holding position markings identify the beginning of an RSA, and a pilot MUST STOP to get clearance before crossing (at airports with operating control towers). REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−3−20 , Exiting the Runway After Landing 2. Runway Holding Position Markings on Runways. These markings identify the locations on runways where aircraft MUST STOP. These markings are located on runways used by ATC for Land And Hold Short Operations (for example, see FIG 4−3−8) and Taxiing operations. For taxiing operations, the pilot MUST STOP prior to the holding position markings unless explicitly authorized to cross by ATC. A sign with a white inscription on a red background is located adjacent to these holding position markings. (See FIG 2−3−14.) The holding position markings are placed on runways prior to the intersection with another runway, or some designated point. Pilots receiving and accepting instructions "Cleared to land Runway XX, hold short of Runway YY" from ATC must either exit Runway XX prior to the holding position markings, or stop at the holding position markings prior to Runway YY. Otherwise, pilots are authorized to use the entire landing length of the runway and disregard the holding position markings. 3. Holding Position Markings on Taxiways Located in Runway Approach Areas. These markings are used at some airports where it is necessary to hold an aircraft on a taxiway located in the approach or departure area of a runway so that the aircraft does not interfere with the operations on that runway. This marking is collocated with the runway approach area holding position sign. When specifically instructed by ATC, "Hold short of Runway XX approach area," the pilot MUST STOP so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the holding position marking. (See Subparagraph 2−3−8b2, Runway Approach Area Holding Position Sign, and FIG 2−3−15.) b. Holding Position Markings for Instrument Landing System (ILS). Holding position markings for ILS critical areas consist of two yellow solid lines spaced two feet apart connected by pairs of solid lines spaced ten feet apart extending across the width of the taxiway as shown. (See FIG 2−3−16.) A sign with an inscription in white on a red background is located adjacent to these hold position markings. When instructed by ATC to hold short of the ILS critical area, pilots MUST STOP so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the holding position marking. When approaching the holding position marking, pilots must not cross the marking without ATC clearance. The ILS critical area is not clear until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the applicable holding position marking. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 1−1−9 , Instrument Landing System (ILS) c. Holding Position Markings for Intersecting Taxiways Holding position markings for intersecting taxiways consist of a single dashed line extending across the width of the taxiway as shown. (See FIG 2−3−17.) They are located on taxiways where ATC holds aircraft short of a taxiway intersection. When instructed by ATC, "Hold short of Taxiway XX," the pilot MUST STOP so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the holding position marking. When the marking is not present, the pilot MUST 10/12/17 AIM Airport Marking Aids and Signs 2−3−13 STOP the aircraft at a point which provides adequate clearance from an aircraft on the intersecting taxiway. d. Surface Painted Holding Position Signs. Surface painted holding position signs have a red background with a white inscription and supplement the signs located at the holding position. This type of marking is normally used where the width of the holding position on the taxiway is greater than 200 feet (60 m). It is located to the left side of the taxiway centerline on the holding side and prior to the holding position marking.

AIM 1-1-17 Global Positioning System (GPS)

a. System Overview 1. System Description. The Global Positioning System is a space-based radio navigation system used to determine precise position anywhere in the world. The 24 satellite constellation is designed to ensure at least five satellites are always visible to a user worldwide. A minimum of four satellites is necessary for receivers to establish an accurate three−dimensional position. The receiver uses data from satellites above the mask angle (the lowest angle above the horizon at which a receiver can use a satellite). The Department of Defense (DOD) is responsible for operating the GPS satellite constellation and monitors the GPS satellites to ensure proper operation. Each satellite's orbital parameters (ephemeris data) are sent to each satellite for broadcast as 10/12/17 AIM Navigation Aids 1−1−17 part of the data message embedded in the GPS signal. The GPS coordinate system is the Cartesian earth−centered, earth−fixed coordinates as specified in the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS−84). 2. System Availability and Reliability. (a) The status of GPS satellites is broadcast as part of the data message transmitted by the GPS satellites. GPS status information is also available by means of the U.S. Coast Guard navigation information service: (703) 313−5907, Internet: http://www.navcen.uscg.gov/. Additionally, satellite status is available through the Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) system. (b) GNSS operational status depends on the type of equipment being used. For GPS−only equipment TSO−C129 or TSO-C196(), the operational status of non−precision approach capability for flight planning purposes is provided through a prediction program that is embedded in the receiver or provided separately. 3. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM). RAIM is the capability of a GPS receiver to perform integrity monitoring on itself by ensuring available satellite signals meet the integrity requirements for a given phase of flight. Without RAIM, the pilot has no assurance of the GPS position integrity. RAIM provides immediate feedback to the pilot. This fault detection is critical for performance-based navigation (PBN)(see Paragraph 1−2−1, Performance−Based Navigation (PBN) and Area Navigation (RNAV), for an introduction to PBN), because delays of up to two hours can occur before an erroneous satellite transmission is detected and corrected by the satellite control segment. (a) In order for RAIM to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information, at least one satellite, in addition to those required for navigation, must be in view for the receiver to perform the RAIM function. RAIM requires a minimum of 5 satellites, or 4 satellites and barometric altimeter input (baro−aiding), to detect an integrity anomaly. Baro−aiding is a method of augmenting the GPS integrity solution by using a non-satellite input source in lieu of the fifth satellite. Some GPS receivers also have a RAIM capability, called fault detection and exclusion (FDE), that excludes a failed satellite from the position solution; GPS receivers capable of FDE require 6 satellites or 5 satellites with baro−aiding. This allows the GPS receiver to isolate the corrupt satellite signal, remove it from the position solution, and still provide an integrity-assured position. To ensure that baro−aiding is available, enter the current altimeter setting into the receiver as described in the operating manual. Do not use the GPS derived altitude due to the large GPS vertical errors that will make the integrity monitoring function invalid. (b) There are generally two types of RAIM fault messages. The first type of message indicates that there are not enough satellites available to provide RAIM integrity monitoring. The GPS navigation solution may be acceptable, but the integrity of the solution cannot be determined. The second type indicates that the RAIM integrity monitor has detected a potential error and that there is an inconsistency in the navigation solution for the given phase of flight. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. 4. Selective Availability. Selective Availability (SA) is a method by which the accuracy of GPS is intentionally degraded. This feature was designed to deny hostile use of precise GPS positioning data. SA was discontinued on May 1, 2000, but many GPS receivers are designed to assume that SA is still active. New receivers may take advantage of the discontinuance of SA based on the performance values in ICAO Annex 10. b. Operational Use of GPS. U.S. civil operators may use approved GPS equipment in oceanic airspace, certain remote areas, the National Airspace System and other States as authorized (please consult the applicable Aeronautical Information Publication). Equipage other than GPS may be required for the desired operation. GPS navigation is used for both Visual Flight Rules (VFR) and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations. 1. VFR Operations (a) GPS navigation has become an asset to VFR pilots by providing increased navigational capabilities and enhanced situational awareness. Although GPS has provided many benefits to the VFR pilot, care must be exercised to ensure that system capabilities are not exceeded. VFR pilots should integrate GPS navigation with electronic navigation (when possible), as well as pilotage and dead reckoning. AIM 10/12/17 1−1−18 Navigation Aids (b) GPS receivers used for VFR navigation vary from fully integrated IFR/VFR installation used to support VFR operations to hand−held devices. Pilots must understand the limitations of the receivers prior to using in flight to avoid misusing navigation information. (See TBL 1−1−6.) Most receivers are not intuitive. The pilot must learn the various keystrokes, knob functions, and displays that are used in the operation of the receiver. Some manufacturers provide computer−based tutorials or simulations of their receivers that pilots can use to become familiar with operating the equipment. (c) When using GPS for VFR operations, RAIM capability, database currency, and antenna location are critical areas of concern. (1) RAIM Capability. VFR GPS panel mount receivers and hand−held units have no RAIM alerting capability. This prevents the pilot from being alerted to the loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error. Pilots should use a systematic cross−check with other navigation techniques to verify position. Be suspicious of the GPS position if a disagreement exists between the two positions. (2) Database Currency. Check the currency of the database. Databases must be updated for IFR operations and should be updated for all other operations. However, there is no requirement for databases to be updated for VFR navigation. It is not recommended to use a moving map with an outdated database in and around critical airspace. Pilots using an outdated database should verify waypoints using current aeronautical products; for example, Chart Supplement U.S., Sectional Chart, or En Route Chart. (3) Antenna Location. The antenna location for GPS receivers used for IFR and VFR operations may differ. VFR antennae are typically placed for convenience more than performance, while IFR installations ensure a clear view is provided with the satellites. Antennae not providing a clear view have a greater opportunity to lose the satellite navigational signal. This is especially true in the case of hand−held GPS receivers. Typically, suction cups are used to place the GPS antennas on the inside of cockpit windows. While this method has great utility, the antenna location is limited to the cockpit or cabin which rarely provides a clear view of all available satellites. Consequently, signal losses may occur due to aircraft structure blocking satellite signals, causing a loss of navigation capability. These losses, coupled with a lack of RAIM capability, could present erroneous position and navigation information with no warning to the pilot. While the use of a hand−held GPS for VFR operations is not limited by regulation, modification of the aircraft, such as installing a panel− or yoke−mounted holder, is governed by 14 CFR Part 43. Consult with your mechanic to ensure compliance with the regulation and safe installation. (d) Do not solely rely on GPS for VFR navigation. No design standard of accuracy or integrity is used for a VFR GPS receiver. VFR GPS receivers should be used in conjunction with other forms of navigation during VFR operations to ensure a correct route of flight is maintained. Minimize head−down time in the aircraft by being familiar with your GPS receiver's operation and by keeping eyes outside scanning for traffic, terrain, and obstacles. (e) VFR Waypoints (1) VFR waypoints provide VFR pilots with a supplementary tool to assist with position awareness while navigating visually in aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers. VFR waypoints should be used as a tool to supplement current navigation procedures. The uses of VFR waypoints include providing navigational aids for pilots unfamiliar with an area, waypoint definition of existing reporting points, enhanced navigation in and around Class B and Class C airspace, and enhanced navigation around Special Use Airspace. VFR pilots should rely on appropriate and current aeronautical charts published specifically for visual navigation. If operating in a terminal area, pilots should take advantage of the Terminal Area Chart available for that area, if published. The use of VFR waypoints does not relieve the pilot of any responsibility to comply with the operational requirements of 14 CFR Part 91. (2) VFR waypoint names (for computer− entry and flight plans) consist of five letters beginning with the letters "VP" and are retrievable from navigation databases. The VFR waypoint names are not intended to be pronounceable, and they are not for use in ATC communications. On VFR charts, stand−alone VFR waypoints will be portrayed using the same four−point star symbol used for IFR waypoints. VFR waypoints collocated with visual check points on the chart will be identified by small 10/12/17 AIM Navigation Aids 1−1−19 magenta flag symbols. VFR waypoints collocated with visual check points will be pronounceable based on the name of the visual check point and may be used for ATC communications. Each VFR waypoint name will appear in parentheses adjacent to the geographic location on the chart. Latitude/longitude data for all established VFR waypoints may be found in the appropriate regional Chart Supplement U.S. (3) VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans. VFR waypoints are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing purposes. (4) Pilots may use the five−letter identifier as a waypoint in the route of flight section on a VFR flight plan. Pilots may use the VFR waypoints only when operating under VFR conditions. The point may represent an intended course change or describe the planned route of flight. This VFR filing would be similar to how a VOR would be used in a route of flight. (5) VFR waypoints intended for use during flight should be loaded into the receiver while on the ground. Once airborne, pilots should avoid programming routes or VFR waypoint chains into their receivers. (6) Pilots should be vigilant to see and avoid other traffic when near VFR waypoints. With the increased use of GPS navigation and accuracy, expect increased traffic near VFR waypoints. Regardless of the class of airspace, monitor the available ATC frequency for traffic information on other aircraft operating in the vicinity. See Paragraph 7−5−2, VFR in Congested Areas, for more information. 2. IFR Use of GPS (a) General Requirements. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires: (1) GPS navigation equipment used for IFR operations must be approved in accordance with the requirements specified in Technical Standard Order (TSO) TSO−C129(), TSO−C196(), TSO−C145(), or TSO−C146(), and the installation must be done in accordance with Advisory Circular AC 20−138, Airworthiness Approval of Positioning and Navigation Systems. Equipment approved in accordance with TSO−C115a does not meet the requirements of TSO−C129. Visual flight rules (VFR) and hand−held GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a principal instrument flight reference. (2) Aircraft using un-augmented GPS (TSO-C129() or TSO-C196()) for navigation under IFR must be equipped with an alternate approved and operational means of navigation suitable for navigating the proposed route of flight. (Examples of alternate navigation equipment include VOR or DME/DME/IRU capability). Active monitoring of alternative navigation equipment is not required when RAIM is available for integrity monitoring. Active monitoring of an alternate means of navigation is required when the GPS RAIM capability is lost. (3) Procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur. In situations where RAIM is predicted to be unavailable, the flight must rely on other approved navigation equipment, re-route to where RAIM is available, delay departure, or cancel the flight. (4) The GPS operation must be conducted in accordance with the FAA−approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement. Flight crew members must be thoroughly familiar with the particular GPS equipment installed in the aircraft, the receiver operation manual, and the AFM or flight manual supplement. Operation, receiver presentation and capabilities of GPS equipment vary. Due to these differences, operation of GPS receivers of different brands, or even models of the same brand, under IFR should not be attempted without thorough operational knowledge. Most receivers have a built−in simulator mode, which allows the pilot to become familiar with operation prior to attempting operation in the aircraft. (5) Aircraft navigating by IFR−approved GPS are considered to be performance−based navigation (PBN) aircraft and have special equipment suffixes. File the appropriate equipment suffix in accordance with TBL 5−1−3 on the ATC flight plan. If GPS avionics become inoperative, the pilot should advise ATC and amend the equipment suffix. (6) Prior to any GPS IFR operation, the pilot must review appropriate NOTAMs and aeronautical information. (See GPS NOTAMs/Aeronautical Information). AIM 10/12/17 1−1−20 Navigation Aids (b) Database Requirements. The onboard navigation data must be current and appropriate for the region of intended operation and should include the navigation aids, waypoints, and relevant coded terminal airspace procedures for the departure, arrival, and alternate airfields. (1) Further database guidance for terminal and en route requirements may be found in AC 90-100, U.S. Terminal and En Route Area Navigation (RNAV) Operations. (2) Further database guidance on Required Navigation Performance (RNP) instrument approach operations, RNP terminal, and RNP en route requirements may be found in AC 90-105, Approval Guidance for RNP Operations and Barometric Vertical Navigation in the U.S. National Airspace System. (3) All approach procedures to be flown must be retrievable from the current airborne navigation database supplied by the equipment manufacturer or other FAA−approved source. The system must be able to retrieve the procedure by name from the aircraft navigation database, not just as a manually entered series of waypoints. Manual entry of waypoints using latitude/longitude or place/bearing is not permitted for approach procedures. (4) Prior to using a procedure or waypoint retrieved from the airborne navigation database, the pilot should verify the validity of the database. This verification should include the following preflight and inflight steps: [a] Preflight: [1] Determine the date of database issuance, and verify that the date/time of proposed use is before the expiration date/time. [2] Verify that the database provider has not published a notice limiting the use of the specific waypoint or procedure. [b] Inflight: [1] Determine that the waypoints and transition names coincide with names found on the procedure chart. Do not use waypoints which do not exactly match the spelling shown on published procedure charts. [2] Determine that the waypoints are logical in location, in the correct order, and their orientation to each other is as found on the procedure chart, both laterally and vertically. NOTE− There is no specific requirement to check each waypoint latitude and longitude, type of waypoint and/or altitude constraint, only the general relationship of waypoints in the procedure, or the logic of an individual waypoint's location. [3] If the cursory check of procedure logic or individual waypoint location, specified in [b] above, indicates a potential error, do not use the retrieved procedure or waypoint until a verification of latitude and longitude, waypoint type, and altitude constraints indicate full conformity with the published data. (5) Air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. [a] During domestic operations for commerce or for hire, operators must have a second navigation system capable of reversion or contingency operations. [b] Operators must have two independent navigation systems appropriate to the route to be flown, or one system that is suitable and a second, independent backup capability that allows the operator to proceed safely and land at a different airport, and the aircraft must have sufficient fuel (reference 14 CFR 121.349, 125.203, 129.17, and 135.165). These rules ensure the safety of the operation by preventing a single point of failure. NOTE− An aircraft approved for multi-sensor navigation and equipped with a single navigation system must maintain an ability to navigate or proceed safely in the event that any one component of the navigation system fails, including the flight management system (FMS). Retaining a FMS-independent VOR capability would satisfy this requirement. [c] The requirements for a second system apply to the entire set of equipment needed to achieve the navigation capability, not just the individual components of the system such as the radio navigation receiver. For example, to use two RNAV systems (e.g., GPS and DME/DME/IRU) to comply with the requirements, the aircraft must be equipped with two independent radio navigation receivers and two independent navigation computers (e.g., flight management systems (FMS)). Alternatively, to comply with the requirements using a single RNAV system with an installed and operable VOR 10/12/17 AIM Navigation Aids 1−1−21 capability, the VOR capability must be independent of the FMS. [d] To satisfy the requirement for two independent navigation systems, if the primary navigation system is GPS−based, the second system must be independent of GPS (for example, VOR or DME/DME/IRU). This allows continued navigation in case of failure of the GPS or WAAS services. Recognizing that GPS interference and test events resulting in the loss of GPS services have become more common, the FAA requires operators conducting IFR operations under 14 CFR 121.349, 125.203, 129.17 and 135.65 to retain a non-GPS navigation capability consisting of either DME/DME, IRU, or VOR for en route and terminal operations, and VOR and ILS for final approach. Since this system is to be used as a reversionary capability, single equipage is sufficient. 3. Oceanic, Domestic, En Route, and Terminal Area Operations (a) Conduct GPS IFR operations in oceanic areas only when approved avionics systems are installed. TSO−C196() users and TSO−C129() GPS users authorized for Class A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, or C2 operations may use GPS in place of another approved means of long−range navigation, such as dual INS. (See TBL 1−1−5 and TBL 1−1−6.) Aircraft with a single installation GPS, meeting the above specifications, are authorized to operate on short oceanic routes requiring one means of long−range navigation (reference AC 20-138, Appendix 1). (b) Conduct GPS domestic, en route, and terminal IFR operations only when approved avionics systems are installed. Pilots may use GPS via TSO−C129() authorized for Class A1, B1, B3, C1, or C3 operations GPS via TSO-C196(); or GPS/WAAS with either TSO-C145() or TSO-C146(). When using TSO-C129() or TSO-C196() receivers, the avionics necessary to receive all of the ground−based facilities appropriate for the route to the destination airport and any required alternate airport must be installed and operational. Ground−based facilities necessary for these routes must be operational. (1) GPS en route IFR operations may be conducted in Alaska outside the operational service volume of ground−based navigation aids when a TSO−C145() or TSO−C146() GPS/wide area augmentation system (WAAS) system is installed and operating. WAAS is the U.S. version of a satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS). [a] In Alaska, aircraft may operate on GNSS Q-routes with GPS (TSO-C129 () or TSO-C196 ()) equipment while the aircraft remains in Air Traffic Control (ATC) radar surveillance or with GPS/WAAS (TSO-C145 () or TSO-C146 ()) which does not require ATC radar surveillance. [b] In Alaska, aircraft may only operate on GNSS T-routes with GPS/WAAS (TSO-C145 () or TSO-C146 ()) equipment. (2) Ground−based navigation equipment is not required to be installed and operating for en route IFR operations when using GPS/WAAS navigation systems. All operators should ensure that an alternate means of navigation is available in the unlikely event the GPS/WAAS navigation system becomes inoperative. (3) Q-routes and T-routes outside Alaska. Q-routes require system performance currently met by GPS, GPS/WAAS, or DME/DME/IRU RNAV systems that satisfy the criteria discussed in AC 90−100, U.S. Terminal and En Route Area Navigation (RNAV) Operations. T-routes require GPS or GPS/WAAS equipment. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 5−3−4 , Airways and Route Systems (c) GPS IFR approach/departure operations can be conducted when approved avionics systems are installed and the following requirements are met: (1) The aircraft is TSO−C145() or TSO− C146() or TSO−C196() or TSO−C129() in Class A1, B1, B3, C1, or C3; and (2) The approach/departure must be retrievable from the current airborne navigation database in the navigation computer. The system must be able to retrieve the procedure by name from the aircraft navigation database. Manual entry of waypoints using latitude/longitude or place/bearing is not permitted for approach procedures. (3) The authorization to fly instrument approaches/departures with GPS is limited to U.S. airspace. (4) The use of GPS in any other airspace must be expressly authorized by the FAA Administrator. AIM 10/12/17 1−1−22 Navigation Aids (5) GPS instrument approach/departure operations outside the U.S. must be authorized by the appropriate sovereign authority. 4. Departures and Instrument Departure Procedures (DPs) The GPS receiver must be set to terminal (±1 NM) CDI sensitivity and the navigation routes contained in the database in order to fly published IFR charted departures and DPs. Terminal RAIM should be automatically provided by the receiver. (Terminal RAIM for departure may not be available unless the waypoints are part of the active flight plan rather than proceeding direct to the first destination.) Certain segments of a DP may require some manual intervention by the pilot, especially when radar vectored to a course or required to intercept a specific course to a waypoint. The database may not contain all of the transitions or departures from all runways and some GPS receivers do not contain DPs in the database. It is necessary that helicopter procedures be flown at 70 knots or less since helicopter departure procedures and missed approaches use a 20:1 obstacle clearance surface (OCS), which is double the fixed−wing OCS, and turning areas are based on this speed as well. 5. GPS Instrument Approach Procedures (a) GPS overlay approaches are designated non−precision instrument approach procedures that pilots are authorized to fly using GPS avionics. Localizer (LOC), localizer type directional aid (LDA), and simplified directional facility (SDF) procedures are not authorized. Overlay procedures are identified by the "name of the procedure" and "or GPS" (e.g., VOR/DME or GPS RWY 15) in the title. Authorized procedures must be retrievable from a current onboard navigation database. The navigation database may also enhance position orientation by displaying a map containing information on conventional NAVAID approaches. This approach information should not be confused with a GPS overlay approach (see the receiver operating manual, AFM, or AFM Supplement for details on how to identify these approaches in the navigation database). NOTE− Overlay approaches do not adhere to the design criteria described in Paragraph 5−4−5m, Area Navigation (RNAV) Instrument Approach Charts, for stand−alone GPS approaches. Overlay approach criteria is based on the design criteria used for ground−based NAVAID approaches. (b) Stand−alone approach procedures specifically designed for GPS systems have replaced many of the original overlay approaches. All approaches that contain "GPS" in the title (e.g., "VOR or GPS RWY 24," "GPS RWY 24," or "RNAV (GPS) RWY 24") can be flown using GPS. GPS−equipped aircraft do not need underlying ground−based NAVAIDs or associated aircraft avionics to fly the approach. Monitoring the underlying approach with ground−based NAVAIDs is suggested when able. Existing overlay approaches may be requested using the GPS title; for example, the VOR or GPS RWY 24 may be requested as "GPS RWY 24." Some GPS procedures have a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) with an underlining RNAV approach. (c) For flight planning purposes, TSO-C129() and TSO-C196()−equipped users (GPS users) whose navigation systems have fault detection and exclusion (FDE) capability, who perform a preflight RAIM prediction for the approach integrity at the airport where the RNAV (GPS) approach will be flown, and have proper knowledge and any required training and/or approval to conduct a GPS-based IAP, may file based on a GPS−based IAP at either the destination or the alternate airport, but not at both locations. At the alternate airport, pilots may plan for: (1) Lateral navigation (LNAV) or circling minimum descent altitude (MDA); (2) LNAV/vertical navigation (LNAV/ VNAV) DA, if equipped with and using approved barometric vertical navigation (baro-VNAV) equipment; (3) RNP 0.3 DA on an RNAV (RNP) IAP, if they are specifically authorized users using approved baro-VNAV equipment and the pilot has verified required navigation performance (RNP) availability through an approved prediction program. (d) If the above conditions cannot be met, any required alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure other than GPS− based that is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, and which the aircraft is equipped to fly. 10/12/17 AIM Navigation Aids 1−1−23 (e) Procedures for Accomplishing GPS Approaches (1) An RNAV (GPS) procedure may be associated with a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA). The basic design of the RNAV procedure is the "T" design or a modification of the "T" (See Paragraph 5-4-5d, Terminal Arrival Area (TAA), for complete information). (2) Pilots cleared by ATC for an RNAV (GPS) approach should fly the full approach from an Initial Approach Waypoint (IAWP) or feeder fix. Randomly joining an approach at an intermediate fix does not assure terrain clearance. (3) When an approach has been loaded in the navigation system, GPS receivers will give an "arm" annunciation 30 NM straight line distance from the airport/heliport reference point. Pilots should arm the approach mode at this time if not already armed (some receivers arm automatically). Without arming, the receiver will not change from en route CDI and RAIM sensitivity of ±5 NM either side of centerline to ±1 NM terminal sensitivity. Where the IAWP is inside this 30 mile point, a CDI sensitivity change will occur once the approach mode is armed and the aircraft is inside 30 NM. Where the IAWP is beyond 30 NM from the airport/heliport reference point and the approach is armed, the CDI sensitivity will not change until the aircraft is within 30 miles of the airport/heliport reference point. Feeder route obstacle clearance is predicated on the receiver being in terminal (±1 NM) CDI sensitivity and RAIM within 30 NM of the airport/heliport reference point; therefore, the receiver should always be armed (if required) not later than the 30 NM annunciation. (4) The pilot must be aware of what bank angle/turn rate the particular receiver uses to compute turn anticipation, and whether wind and airspeed are included in the receiver's calculations. This information should be in the receiver operating manual. Over or under banking the turn onto the final approach course may significantly delay getting on course and may result in high descent rates to achieve the next segment altitude. (5) When within 2 NM of the Final Approach Waypoint (FAWP) with the approach mode armed, the approach mode will switch to active, which results in RAIM and CDI changing to approach sensitivity. Beginning 2 NM prior to the FAWP, the full scale CDI sensitivity will smoothly change from ±1 NM to ±0.3 NM at the FAWP. As sensitivity changes from ±1 NM to ±0.3 NM approaching the FAWP, with the CDI not centered, the corresponding increase in CDI displacement may give the impression that the aircraft is moving further away from the intended course even though it is on an acceptable intercept heading. Referencing the digital track displacement information (cross track error), if it is available in the approach mode, may help the pilot remain position oriented in this situation. Being established on the final approach course prior to the beginning of the sensitivity change at 2 NM will help prevent problems in interpreting the CDI display during ramp down. Therefore, requesting or accepting vectors which will cause the aircraft to intercept the final approach course within 2 NM of the FAWP is not recommended. (6) When receiving vectors to final, most receiver operating manuals suggest placing the receiver in the non−sequencing mode on the FAWP and manually setting the course. This provides an extended final approach course in cases where the aircraft is vectored onto the final approach course outside of any existing segment which is aligned with the runway. Assigned altitudes must be maintained until established on a published segment of the approach. Required altitudes at waypoints outside the FAWP or stepdown fixes must be considered. Calculating the distance to the FAWP may be required in order to descend at the proper location. (7) Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during an approach will cancel the approach mode annunciation. If the approach mode is not armed by 2 NM prior to the FAWP, the approach mode will not become active at 2 NM prior to the FAWP, and the equipment will flag. In these conditions, the RAIM and CDI sensitivity will not ramp down, and the pilot should not descend to MDA, but fly to the MAWP and execute a missed approach. The approach active annunciator and/or the receiver should be checked to ensure the approach mode is active prior to the FAWP. (8) Do not attempt to fly an approach unless the procedure in the onboard database is current and identified as "GPS" on the approach chart. The navigation database may contain information about non−overlay approach procedures that enhances position orientation generally by providing a map, AIM 10/12/17 1−1−24 Navigation Aids while flying these approaches using conventional NAVAIDs. This approach information should not be confused with a GPS overlay approach (see the receiver operating manual, AFM, or AFM Supplement for details on how to identify these procedures in the navigation database). Flying point to point on the approach does not assure compliance with the published approach procedure. The proper RAIM sensitivity will not be available and the CDI sensitivity will not automatically change to ±0.3 NM. Manually setting CDI sensitivity does not automatically change the RAIM sensitivity on some receivers. Some existing non−precision approach procedures cannot be coded for use with GPS and will not be available as overlays. (9) Pilots should pay particular attention to the exact operation of their GPS receivers for performing holding patterns and in the case of overlay approaches, operations such as procedure turns. These procedures may require manual intervention by the pilot to stop the sequencing of waypoints by the receiver and to resume automatic GPS navigation sequencing once the maneuver is complete. The same waypoint may appear in the route of flight more than once consecutively (for example, IAWP, FAWP, MAHWP on a procedure turn). Care must be exercised to ensure that the receiver is sequenced to the appropriate waypoint for the segment of the procedure being flown, especially if one or more fly−overs are skipped (for example, FAWP rather than IAWP if the procedure turn is not flown). The pilot may have to sequence past one or more fly−overs of the same waypoint in order to start GPS automatic sequencing at the proper place in the sequence of waypoints. (10) Incorrect inputs into the GPS receiver are especially critical during approaches. In some cases, an incorrect entry can cause the receiver to leave the approach mode. (11) A fix on an overlay approach identified by a DME fix will not be in the waypoint sequence on the GPS receiver unless there is a published name assigned to it. When a name is assigned, the along track distance (ATD) to the waypoint may be zero rather than the DME stated on the approach chart. The pilot should be alert for this on any overlay procedure where the original approach used DME. (12) If a visual descent point (VDP) is published, it will not be included in the sequence of waypoints. Pilots are expected to use normal piloting techniques for beginning the visual descent, such as ATD. (13) Unnamed stepdown fixes in the final approach segment may or may not be coded in the waypoint sequence of the aircraft's navigation database and must be identified using ATD. Stepdown fixes in the final approach segment of RNAV (GPS) approaches are being named, in addition to being identified by ATD. However, GPS avionics may or may not accommodate waypoints between the FAF and MAP. Pilots must know the capabilities of their GPS equipment and continue to identify stepdown fixes using ATD when necessary. (f) Missed Approach (1) A GPS missed approach requires pilot action to sequence the receiver past the MAWP to the missed approach portion of the procedure. The pilot must be thoroughly familiar with the activation procedure for the particular GPS receiver installed in the aircraft and must initiate appropriate action after the MAWP. Activating the missed approach prior to the MAWP will cause CDI sensitivity to immediately change to terminal (±1NM) sensitivity and the receiver will continue to navigate to the MAWP. The receiver will not sequence past the MAWP. Turns should not begin prior to the MAWP. If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display an extension of the inbound final approach course and the ATD will increase from the MAWP until it is manually sequenced after crossing the MAWP. (2) Missed approach routings in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint require additional action by the pilot to set the course. Being familiar with all of the inputs required is especially critical during this phase of flight. (g) GPS NOTAMs/Aeronautical Information (1) GPS satellite outages are issued as GPS NOTAMs both domestically and internationally. However, the effect of an outage on the intended operation cannot be determined unless the pilot has a RAIM availability prediction program which allows excluding a satellite which is predicted to be out of service based on the NOTAM information. 10/12/17 AIM Navigation Aids 1−1−25 (2) The terms UNRELIABLE and MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE are used in conjunction with GPS NOTAMs. Both UNRELIABLE and MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE are advisories to pilots indicating the expected level of service may not be available. UNRELIABLE does not mean there is a problem with GPS signal integrity. If GPS service is available, pilots may continue operations. If the LNAV or LNAV/VNAV service is available, pilots may use the displayed level of service to fly the approach. GPS operation may be NOTAMed UNRELIABLE or MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE due to testing or anomalies. (Pilots are encouraged to report GPS anomalies, including degraded operation and/or loss of service, as soon as possible, reference paragraph 1−1−13.) When GPS testing NOTAMS are published and testing is actually occurring, Air Traffic Control will advise pilots requesting or cleared for a GPS or RNAV (GPS) approach that GPS may not be available and request intentions. If pilots have reported GPS anomalies, Air Traffic Control will request the pilot's intentions and/or clear the pilot for an alternate approach, if available and operational. EXAMPLE− The following is an example of a GPS testing NOTAM: !GPS 06/001 ZAB NAV GPS (INCLUDING WAAS, GBAS, AND ADS-B) MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE WITHIN A 468NM RADIUS CENTERED AT 330702N1062540W (TCS 093044) FL400-UNL DECREASING IN AREA WITH A DECREASE IN ALTITUDE DEFINED AS: 425NM RADIUS AT FL250, 360NM RADIUS AT 10000FT, 354NM RADIUS AT 4000FT AGL, 327NM RADIUS AT 50FT AGL. 1406070300-1406071200. (3) Civilian pilots may obtain GPS RAIM availability information for non−precision approach procedures by using a manufacturer-supplied RAIM prediction tool, or using the Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT) on the FAA en route and terminal RAIM prediction website. Pilots can also request GPS RAIM aeronautical information from a flight service station during preflight briefings. GPS RAIM aeronautical information can be obtained for a period of 3 hours (for example, if you are scheduled to arrive at 1215 hours, then the GPS RAIM information is available from 1100 to 1400 hours) or a 24−hour timeframe at a particular airport. FAA briefers will provide RAIM information for a period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA hour, unless a specific timeframe is requested by the pilot. If flying a published GPS departure, a RAIM prediction should also be requested for the departure airport. (4) The military provides airfield specific GPS RAIM NOTAMs for non−precision approach procedures at military airfields. The RAIM outages are issued as M−series NOTAMs and may be obtained for up to 24 hours from the time of request. (5) Receiver manufacturers and/or database suppliers may supply "NOTAM" type information concerning database errors. Pilots should check these sources, when available, to ensure that they have the most current information concerning their electronic database. (h) Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) (1) RAIM outages may occur due to an insufficient number of satellites or due to unsuitable satellite geometry which causes the error in the position solution to become too large. Loss of satellite reception and RAIM warnings may occur due to aircraft dynamics (changes in pitch or bank angle). Antenna location on the aircraft, satellite position relative to the horizon, and aircraft attitude may affect reception of one or more satellites. Since the relative positions of the satellites are constantly changing, prior experience with the airport does not guarantee reception at all times, and RAIM availability should always be checked. (2) If RAIM is not available, use another type of navigation and approach system, select another route or destination, or delay the trip until RAIM is predicted to be available on arrival. On longer flights, pilots should consider rechecking the RAIM prediction for the destination during the flight. This may provide an early indication that an unscheduled satellite outage has occurred since takeoff. (3) If a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP), the approach should not be completed since GPS no longer provides the required integrity. The receiver performs a RAIM prediction by 2 NM prior to the FAWP to ensure that RAIM is available as a condition for entering the approach mode. The pilot should ensure the receiver has sequenced from "Armed" to "Approach" prior to the FAWP (normally occurs 2 NM prior). Failure to sequence may be an indication of the detection of a satellite anomaly, failure to arm the receiver (if required), or other problems which preclude flying the approach. AIM 10/12/17 1−1−26 Navigation Aids (4) If the receiver does not sequence into the approach mode or a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, the pilot must not initiate the approach or descend, but instead proceed to the missed approach waypoint ( MAWP) via the FAWP, perform a missed approach, and contact ATC as soon as practical. The GPS receiver may continue to operate after a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears, but the navigation information should be considered advisory only. Refer to the receiver operating manual for specific indications and instructions associated with loss of RAIM prior to the FAF. (5) If the RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after the FAWP, the pilot should initiate a climb and execute the missed approach. The GPS receiver may continue to operate after a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears, but the navigation information should be considered advisory only. Refer to the receiver operating manual for operating mode information during a RAIM annunciation. (i) Waypoints (1) GPS receivers navigate from one defined point to another retrieved from the aircraft's onboard navigational database. These points are waypoints (5-letter pronounceable name), existing VHF intersections, DME fixes with 5−letter pronounceable names and 3-letter NAVAID IDs. Each waypoint is a geographical location defined by a latitude/longitude geographic coordinate. These 5−letter waypoints, VHF intersections, 5−letter pronounceable DME fixes and 3−letter NAVAID IDs are published on various FAA aeronautical navigation products (IFR Enroute Charts, VFR Charts, Terminal Procedures Publications, etc.). (2) A Computer Navigation Fix (CNF) is also a point defined by a latitude/longitude coordinate and is required to support Performance−Based Navigation (PBN) operations. The GPS receiver uses CNFs in conjunction with waypoints to navigate from point to point. However, CNFs are not recognized by ATC. ATC does not maintain CNFs in their database and they do not use CNFs for any air traffic control purpose. CNFs may or may not be charted on FAA aeronautical navigation products, are listed in the chart legends, and are for advisory purposes only. Pilots are not to use CNFs for point to point navigation (proceed direct), filing a flight plan, or in aircraft/ATC communications. CNFs that do appear on aeronautical charts allow pilots increased situational awareness by identifying points in the aircraft database route of flight with points on the aeronautical chart. CNFs are random five-letter identifiers, not pronounceable like waypoints and placed in parenthesis. Eventually, all CNFs will begin with the letters "CF" followed by three consonants (for example, CFWBG). This five-letter identifier will be found next to an "x" on enroute charts and possibly on an approach chart. On instrument approach procedures (charts) in the terminal procedures publication, CNFs may represent unnamed DME fixes, beginning and ending points of DME arcs, and sensor (ground-based signal i.e., VOR, NDB, ILS) final approach fixes on GPS overlay approaches. These CNFs provide the GPS with points on the procedure that allow the overlay approach to mirror the ground-based sensor approach. These points should only be used by the GPS system for navigation and should not be used by pilots for any other purpose on the approach. The CNF concept has not been adopted or recognized by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). (3) GPS approaches use fly−over and fly−by waypoints to join route segments on an approach. Fly−by waypoints connect the two segments by allowing the aircraft to turn prior to the current waypoint in order to roll out on course to the next waypoint. This is known as turn anticipation and is compensated for in the airspace and terrain clearances. The MAWP and the missed approach holding waypoint (MAHWP) are normally the only two waypoints on the approach that are not fly−by waypoints. Fly−over waypoints are used when the aircraft must overfly the waypoint prior to starting a turn to the new course. The symbol for a fly-over waypoint is a circled waypoint. Some waypoints may have dual use; for example, as a fly−by waypoint when used as an IF for a NoPT route and as a fly-over waypoint when the same waypoint is also used as an IAF/IF hold-in-lieu of PT. When this occurs, the less restrictive (fly-by) symbology will be charted. Overlay approach charts and some early stand−alone GPS approach charts may not reflect this convention. 10/12/17 AIM Navigation Aids 1−1−27 (4) Unnamed waypoints for each airport will be uniquely identified in the database. Although the identifier may be used at different airports (for example, RW36 will be the identifier at each airport with a runway 36), the actual point, at each airport, is defined by a specific latitude/longitude coordinate. (5) The runway threshold waypoint, normally the MAWP, may have a five−letter identifier (for example, SNEEZ) or be coded as RW## (for example, RW36, RW36L). MAWPs located at the runway threshold are being changed to the RW## identifier, while MAWPs not located at the threshold will have a five−letter identifier. This may cause the approach chart to differ from the aircraft database until all changes are complete. The runway threshold waypoint is also used as the center of the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) on most GPS approaches. (j) Position Orientation. Pilots should pay particular attention to position orientation while using GPS. Distance and track information are provided to the next active waypoint, not to a fixed navigation aid. Receivers may sequence when the pilot is not flying along an active route, such as when being vectored or deviating for weather, due to the proximity to another waypoint in the route. This can be prevented by placing the receiver in the non-sequencing mode. When the receiver is in the non-sequencing mode, bearing and distance are provided to the selected waypoint and the receiver will not sequence to the next waypoint in the route until placed back in the auto sequence mode or the pilot selects a different waypoint. The pilot may have to compute the ATD to stepdown fixes and other points on overlay approaches, due to the receiver showing ATD to the next waypoint rather than DME to the VOR or ILS ground station. (k) Impact of Magnetic Variation on PBN Systems (1) Differences may exist between PBN systems and the charted magnetic courses on ground−based NAVAID instrument flight procedures (IFP), enroute charts, approach charts, and Standard Instrument Departure/Standard Terminal Arrival (SID/STAR) charts. These differences are due to the magnetic variance used to calculate the magnetic course. Every leg of an instrument procedure is first computed along a desired ground track with reference to true north. A magnetic variation correction is then applied to the true course in order to calculate a magnetic course for publication. The type of procedure will determine what magnetic variation value is added to the true course. A ground−based NAVAID IFP applies the facility magnetic variation of record to the true course to get the charted magnetic course. Magnetic courses on PBN procedures are calculated two different ways. SID/STAR procedures use the airport magnetic variation of record, while IFR enroute charts use magnetic reference bearing. PBN systems make a correction to true north by adding a magnetic variation calculated with an algorithm based on aircraft position, or by adding the magnetic variation coded in their navigational database. This may result in the PBN system and the procedure designer using a different magnetic variation, which causes the magnetic course displayed by the PBN system and the magnetic course charted on the IFP plate to be different. It is important to understand, however, that PBN systems, (with the exception of VOR/DME RNAV equipment) navigate by reference to true north and display magnetic course only for pilot reference. As such, a properly functioning PBN system, containing a current and accurate navigational database, should fly the correct ground track for any loaded instrument procedure, despite differences in displayed magnetic course that may be attributed to magnetic variation application. Should significant differences between the approach chart and the PBN system avionics' application of the navigation database arise, the published approach chart, supplemented by NOTAMs, holds precedence. (2) The course into a waypoint may not always be 180 degrees different from the course leaving the previous waypoint, due to the PBN system avionics' computation of geodesic paths, distance between waypoints, and differences in magnetic variation application. Variations in distances may also occur since PBN system distance−to−waypoint values are ATDs computed to the next waypoint and the DME values published on underlying procedures are slant−range distances measured to the station. This difference increases with aircraft altitude and proximity to the NAVAID. AIM 10/12/17 1−1−28 Navigation Aids (l) GPS Familiarization Pilots should practice GPS approaches in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) until thoroughly proficient with all aspects of their equipment (receiver and installation) prior to attempting flight in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). Pilots should be proficient in the following areas: (1) Using the receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) prediction function; (2) Inserting a DP into the flight plan, including setting terminal CDI sensitivity, if required, and the conditions under which terminal RAIM is available for departure; (3) Programming the destination airport; (4) Programming and flying the approaches (especially procedure turns and arcs); (5) Changing to another approach after selecting an approach; (6) Programming and flying "direct" missed approaches; (7) Programming and flying "routed" missed approaches; (8) Entering, flying, and exiting holding patterns, particularly on approaches with a second waypoint in the holding pattern; (9) Programming and flying a "route" from a holding pattern; (10) Programming and flying an approach with radar vectors to the intermediate segment; (11) Indication of the actions required for RAIM failure both before and after the FAWP; and (12) Programming a radial and distance from a VOR (often used in departure instructions). TBL 1−1−5 GPS IFR Equipment Classes/Categories TSO−C129 Equipment Class RAIM Int. Nav. Sys. to Prov. RAIM Equiv. Oceanic En Route Terminal Non−precision Approach Capable Class A − GPS sensor and navigation capability.

AIM 7-1-4 Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA)

a. The GFA website is intended to provide the necessary aviation weather information to give users a complete picture of the weather that may affect flight in the continental United States (CONUS). The website includes observational data, forecasts, and warnings that can be viewed from 14 hours in the past to 15 hours in the future, including thunderstorms, clouds, flight category, precipitation, icing, turbulence, and wind. Hourly model data and forecasts, including information on clouds, flight category, precipitation, icing, turbulence, wind, and graphical output from the National Weather Service's (NWS) National Digital Forecast Data (NDFD) are available. Wind, icing, and turbulence forecasts are available in 3,000 ft increments from the surface up to 30,000 ft MSL, and in 6,000 ft increments from 30,000 ft MSL to 48,000 ft MSL. Turbulence forecasts are also broken into low (below 18,000 ft MSL) and high (at or above 18,000 ft MSL) graphics. A maximum icing graphic and maximum wind velocity graphic (regardless of altitude) are also available. Built with modern geospatial information tools, users can pan and zoom to focus on areas of greatest interest. Target users are commercial and general aviation pilots, operators, briefers, and dispatchers. b. Weather Products. 1. The Aviation Forecasts include gridded displays of various weather parameters as well as NWS textual weather observations, forecasts, and warnings. Icing, turbulence, and wind gridded products are three−dimensional. Other gridded products are two−dimensional and may represent a "composite" of a three−dimensional weather phenomenon or a surface weather variable, such as horizontal visibility. The following are examples of aviation forecasts depicted on the GFA: (a) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) (b) Ceiling & Visibility (CIG/VIS) (c) Clouds (d) Precipitation / Weather (PCPN/WX) (e) Thunderstorm (TS) (f) Winds (g) Turbulence (h) Ice AIM 10/12/17 7−1−6 Meteorology 2. Observations & Warnings (Obs/Warn). The Obs/Warn option provides an option to display weather data for the current time and the previous 14 hours (rounded to the nearest hour). Users may advance through time using the arrow buttons or by clicking on the desired hour. Provided below are the Obs/Warn product tabs available on the GFA website: (a) METAR (b) Precipitation/Weather (PCPN/WX) (c) Ceiling & Visibility (CIG/VIS) (d) Pilot Reports (PIREP) (e) Radar & Satellite (RAD/SAT) 3. The GFA will be continuously updated and available online at http://new.aviationweather.gov/ areafcst. Upon clicking the link above, select INFO on the top right corner of the map display. The next screen presents the option of selecting Overview, Products, and Tutorial. Simply select the tab of interest to explore the enhanced digital and graphical weather products designed to replace the legacy FA. Users should also refer to AC 00−45, Aviation Weather Services, for more detailed information on the GFA. 4. GFA Static Images. Some users with limited internet connectivity may access static images via the Aviation Weather Center (AWC) at: http://www.aviationweather.gov/gfa/plot. There are two static graphical images available, titled Aviation Cloud Forecast and Aviation Surface Forecast. The Aviation Cloud Forecast provides cloud coverage, bases, layers, and tops with Airmet Sierra for mountain obscuration and Airmet Zulu for icing overlaid. The Aviation Surface Forecast provides visibility, weather phenomena, and winds (including wind gusts) with Airmet Sierra for instrument flight rules conditions and Airmet Tango for sustained surface winds of 30 knots or more overlaid. These images are presented on ten separate maps providing forecast views for the entire CONUS on one and nine regional views which provide more detail for the user. They are updated every 3 hours and provide forecast snapshots for 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, and 18 hours into the future.

AIM 7-3-6 Vortex Avoidance Procedures

a. Under certain conditions, airport traffic controllers apply procedures for separating IFR aircraft. If a pilot accepts a clearance to visually follow a preceding aircraft, the pilot accepts responsibility for separation and wake turbulence avoidance. The controllers will also provide to VFR aircraft, with whom they are in communication and which in the tower's opinion may be adversely affected by wake turbulence from a larger aircraft, the position, altitude and direction of flight of larger aircraft followed by the phrase "CAUTION − WAKE TURBULENCE." After issuing the caution for wake turbulence, the airport traffic controllers generally do not provide additional information to the following aircraft unless the airport traffic controllers know the following aircraft is overtaking the preceding aircraft. WHETHER OR NOT A WARNING OR INFORMATION HAS BEEN GIVEN, HOWEVER, THE PILOT IS EXPECTED TO ADJUST AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS AND FLIGHT PATH AS NECESSARY TO PRECLUDE SERIOUS WAKE ENCOUNTERS. When any doubt exists about maintaining safe separation distances between aircraft during approaches, pilots should ask the control tower for updates on separation distance and aircraft groundspeed. b. The following vortex avoidance procedures are recommended for the various situations: 1. Landing behind a larger aircraft− same runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path−note its touchdown point−land beyond it. 2. Landing behind a larger aircraft− when parallel runway is closer than 2,500 feet. Consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path− note its touchdown point. 3. Landing behind a larger aircraft− crossing runway. Cross above the larger aircraft's flight path. 4. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft− same runway. Note the larger aircraft's rotation point− land well prior to rotation point. 5. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft− crossing runway. Note the larger aircraft's rotation point− if past the intersection− continue the approach− land prior to the intersection. If larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight AIM 10/12/17 7−3−6 Wake Turbulence below the larger aircraft's flight path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection. 6. Departing behind a larger aircraft. Note the larger aircraft's rotation point and rotate prior to the larger aircraft's rotation point. Continue climbing above the larger aircraft's climb path until turning clear of the larger aircraft's wake. Avoid subsequent headings which will cross below and behind a larger aircraft. Be alert for any critical takeoff situation which could lead to a vortex encounter. 7. Intersection takeoffs− same runway. Be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, particularly upwind of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid subsequent heading which will cross below a larger aircraft's path. 8. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach, or touch−and−go landing. Because vortices settle and move laterally near the ground, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a larger aircraft has executed a low approach, missed approach, or a touch−and−go landing, particular in light quartering wind conditions. You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before your takeoff or landing. 9. En route VFR (thousand−foot altitude plus 500 feet). Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft's path. If a larger aircraft is observed above on the same track (meeting or overtaking) adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

AIM 3-4-4 Warning Areas

A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S., that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such warning areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both.

61.56 Flight Review

1. A flight review must have been satisfactorily completed within the previous 24 calendar months to act as pilot in command of an aircraft for which that pilot is rated. A flight review consists of a minimum 1 hour of flight training by an authorized instructor and 1 hour of ground training. 2. The expiration of the 24-month period for the flight review falls on the last day of the 24th month after the month of the examination date (i.e. 24 calendar months)

61.60 Change of address

1. You must notify the FAA Certification Branch in writing of any change in your permanent mailing address 2. You may not exercise the privileges of your pilot certificate after 30 days from moving unless you make this notification.

AIM 4-1-9 Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports Without Operating Control Towers

a. Airport Operations Without Operating Control Tower 1. There is no substitute for alertness while in the vicinity of an airport. It is essential that pilots be alert and look for other traffic and exchange traffic information when approaching or departing an airport without an operating control tower. This is of particular importance since other aircraft may not have communication capability or, in some cases, pilots may not communicate their presence or intentions when operating into or out of such airports. To achieve the greatest degree of safety, it is essential that all radio-equipped aircraft transmit/receive on a common frequency identified for the purpose of airport advisories. 2. An airport may have a full or part-time tower or FSS located on the airport, a full or part-time UNICOM station or no aeronautical station at all. There are three ways for pilots to communicate their intention and obtain airport/traffic information when operating at an airport that does not have an operating tower: by communicating with an FSS, a UNICOM operator, or by making a self-announce broadcast. NOTE− FSS airport advisories are available only in Alaska. 3. Many airports are now providing completely automated weather, radio check capability and airport advisory information on an automated UNICOM system. These systems offer a variety of features, typically selectable by microphone clicks, on the UNICOM frequency. Availability of the automated UNICOM will be published in the Chart Supplement U.S. and approach charts. b. Communicating on a Common Frequency 1. The key to communicating at an airport without an operating control tower is selection of the correct common frequency. The acronym CTAF which stands for Common Traffic Advisory Frequency, is synonymous with this program. A CTAF is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications. NOTE− FSS frequencies are available only in Alaska. 10/12/17 AIM Services Available to Pilots 4−1−3 TBL 4−1−1 Summary of Recommended Communication Procedures Communication/Broadcast Procedures Facility at Airport Frequency Use Outbound Inbound Practice Instrument Approach 1. UNICOM (No Tower or FSS) Communicate with UNICOM station on published CTAF frequency (122.7; 122.8; 122.725; 122.975; or 123.0). If unable to contact UNICOM station, use self-announce procedures on CTAF. Before taxiing and before taxiing on the runway for departure. 10 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway. 2. No Tower, FSS, or UNICOM Self-announce on MULTICOM frequency 122.9. Before taxiing and before taxiing on the runway for departure. 10 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway. Departing final approach fix (name) or on final approach segment inbound. 3. No Tower in operation, FSS open (Alaska only) Communicate with FSS on CTAF frequency. Before taxiing and before taxiing on the runway for departure. 10 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway. Approach completed/terminated. 4. FSS Closed (No Tower) Self-announce on CTAF. Before taxiing and before taxiing on the runway for departure. 10 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway. 5. Tower or FSS not in operation Self-announce on CTAF. Before taxiing and before taxiing on the runway for departure. 10 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway. 6. Designated CTAF Area (Alaska Only) Self-announce on CTAF designated on chart or Chart Supplement Alaska. Before taxiing and before taxiing on the runway for departure until leaving designated area. When entering designated CTAF area. 2. CTAF (Alaska Only). In Alaska, a CTAF may also be designated for the purpose of carrying out advisory practices while operating in designated areas with a high volume of VFR traffic. 3. The CTAF frequency for a particular airport or area is contained in the Chart Supplement U.S., Chart Supplement Alaska, Alaska Terminal Publication, Instrument Approach Procedure Charts, and Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts. Also, the CTAF frequency can be obtained by contacting any FSS. Use of the appropriate CTAF, combined with a visual alertness and application of the following recommended good operating practices, will enhance safety of flight into and out of all uncontrolled airports. c. Recommended Traffic Advisory Practices 1. Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless the CFRs or local procedures require otherwise. 2. Pilots of aircraft conducting other than arriving or departing operations at altitudes normally used by arriving and departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency while within 10 miles of the airport unless required to do otherwise by the CFRs or local procedures. Such AIM 10/12/17 4−1−4 Services Available to Pilots operations include parachute jumping/dropping, en route, practicing maneuvers, etc. 3. In Alaska, pilots of aircraft conducting other than arriving or departing operations in designated CTAF areas should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency while within the designated area, unless required to do otherwise by CFRs or local procedures. Such operations include parachute jumping/dropping, en route, practicing maneuvers, etc. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 3−5−4 , Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations d. Airport Advisory/Information Services Provided by a FSS 1. There are two advisory type services provided at selected airports. (a) Local Airport Advisory (LAA) is available only in Alaska and provided at airports that have a FSS physically located on the airport, which does not have a control tower or where the tower is operated on a part−time basis. The CTAF for LAA airports is disseminated in the appropriate aeronautical publications. (b) Remote Airport Information Service (RAIS) is provided in support of special events at nontowered airports by request from the airport authority. 2. In communicating with a CTAF FSS, check the airport's automated weather and establish two−way communications before transmitting outbound/inbound intentions or information. An inbound aircraft should initiate contact approximately 10 miles from the airport, reporting aircraft identification and type, altitude, location relative to the airport, intentions (landing or over flight), possession of the automated weather, and request airport advisory or airport information service. A departing aircraft should initiate contact before taxiing, reporting aircraft identification and type, VFR or IFR, location on the airport, intentions, direction of take−off, possession of the automated weather, and request airport advisory or information service. Also, report intentions before taxiing onto the active runway for departure. If you must change frequencies for other service after initial report to FSS, return to FSS frequency for traffic update. (a) Inbound EXAMPLE− Vero Beach radio, Centurion Six Niner Delta Delta is ten miles south, two thousand, landing Vero Beach. I have the automated weather, request airport advisory. (b) Outbound EXAMPLE− Vero Beach radio, Centurion Six Niner Delta Delta, ready to taxi to runway 22, VFR, departing to the southwest. I have the automated weather, request airport advisory. 3. Airport advisory service includes wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, altimeter setting, known airborne and ground traffic, NOTAMs, airport taxi routes, airport traffic pattern information, and instrument approach procedures. These elements are varied so as to best serve the current traffic situation. Some airport managers have specified that under certain wind or other conditions designated runways be used. Pilots should advise the FSS of the runway they intend to use. CAUTION− All aircraft in the vicinity of an airport may not be in communication with the FSS. e. Information Provided by Aeronautical Advisory Stations (UNICOM) 1. UNICOM is a nongovernment air/ground radio communication station which may provide airport information at public use airports where there is no tower or FSS. 2. On pilot request, UNICOM stations may provide pilots with weather information, wind direction, the recommended runway, or other necessary information. If the UNICOM frequency is designated as the CTAF, it will be identified in appropriate aeronautical publications. f. Unavailability of Information from FSS or UNICOM Should LAA by an FSS or Aeronautical Advisory Station UNICOM be unavailable, wind and weather information may be obtainable from nearby controlled airports via Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) or Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) frequency. g. Self-Announce Position and/or Intentions 1. General. Self-announce is a procedure whereby pilots broadcast their position or intended flight activity or ground operation on the designated CTAF. This procedure is used primarily at airports which do not have an FSS on the airport. The 10/12/17 AIM Services Available to Pilots 4−1−5 self-announce procedure should also be used if a pilot is unable to communicate with the FSS on the designated CTAF. Pilots stating, "Traffic in the area, please advise" is not a recognized Self−Announce Position and/or Intention phrase and should not be used under any condition. 2. If an airport has a tower and it is temporarily closed, or operated on a part-time basis and there is no FSS on the airport or the FSS is closed, use the CTAF to self-announce your position or intentions. 3. Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures. Such airports will be identified in appropriate aeronautical information publications. 4. Practice Approaches. Pilots conducting practice instrument approaches should be particularly alert for other aircraft that may be departing in the opposite direction. When conducting any practice approach, regardless of its direction relative to other airport operations, pilots should make announcements on the CTAF as follows: (a) Departing the final approach fix, inbound (nonprecision approach) or departing the outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker, inbound (precision approach); (b) Established on the final approach segment or immediately upon being released by ATC; (c) Upon completion or termination of the approach; and (d) Upon executing the missed approach procedure. 5. Departing aircraft should always be alert for arrival aircraft coming from the opposite direction. 6. Recommended self-announce phraseologies: It should be noted that aircraft operating to or from another nearby airport may be making self-announce broadcasts on the same UNICOM or MULTICOM frequency. To help identify one airport from another, the airport name should be spoken at the beginning and end of each self-announce transmission. (a) Inbound EXAMPLE− Strawn traffic, Apache Two Two Five Zulu, (position), (altitude), (descending) or entering downwind/base/final (as appropriate) runway one seven full stop, touch−and− go, Strawn. Strawn traffic Apache Two Two Five Zulu clear of runway one seven Strawn. (b) Outbound EXAMPLE− Strawn traffic, Queen Air Seven One Five Five Bravo (location on airport) taxiing to runway two six Strawn. Strawn traffic, Queen Air Seven One Five Five Bravo departing runway two six. Departing the pattern to the (direction), climbing to (altitude) Strawn. (c) Practice Instrument Approach EXAMPLE− Strawn traffic, Cessna Two One Four Three Quebec (position from airport) inbound descending through (altitude) practice (name of approach) approach runway three five Strawn. Strawn traffic, Cessna Two One Four Three Quebec practice (type) approach completed or terminated runway three five Strawn. h. UNICOM Communications Procedures 1. In communicating with a UNICOM station, the following practices will help reduce frequency congestion, facilitate a better understanding of pilot intentions, help identify the location of aircraft in the traffic pattern, and enhance safety of flight: (a) Select the correct UNICOM frequency. (b) State the identification of the UNICOM station you are calling in each transmission. (c) Speak slowly and distinctly. (d) Report approximately 10 miles from the airport, reporting altitude, and state your aircraft type, aircraft identification, location relative to the airport, state whether landing or overflight, and request wind information and runway in use. (e) Report on downwind, base, and final approach. (f) Report leaving the runway. 2. Recommended UNICOM phraseologies: (a) Inbound PHRASEOLOGY− FREDERICK UNICOM CESSNA EIGHT ZERO ONE TANGO FOXTROT 10 MILES SOUTHEAST DESCENDING THROUGH (altitude) LANDING FREDERICK, REQUEST WIND AND RUNWAY INFORMATION FREDERICK. FREDERICK TRAFFIC CESSNA EIGHT ZERO ONE TANGO FOXTROT ENTERING DOWNWIND/BASE/ AIM 10/12/17 4−1−6 Services Available to Pilots FINAL (as appropriate) FOR RUNWAY ONE NINER (full stop/touch−and−go) FREDERICK. FREDERICK TRAFFIC CESSNA EIGHT ZERO ONE TANGO FOXTROT CLEAR OF RUNWAY ONE NINER FREDERICK. (b) Outbound PHRASEOLOGY− FREDERICK UNICOM CESSNA EIGHT ZERO ONE TANGO FOXTROT (location on airport) TAXIING TO RUNWAY ONE NINER, REQUEST WIND AND TRAFFIC INFORMATION FREDERICK. FREDERICK TRAFFIC CESSNA EIGHT ZERO ONE TANGO FOXTROT DEPARTING RUNWAY ONE NINER.

61.101 Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.

(a) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may: (1) Carry no more than one passenger; and (2) Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees. (b) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has - (1) Received ground and flight training for takeoff, departure, arrival, and landing procedures at the departure airport; (2) Received ground and flight training for the area, terrain, and aids to navigation that are in the vicinity of the departure airport; (3) Been found proficient to operate the aircraft at the departure airport and the area within 50 nautical miles from that airport; and (4) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried in the person's possession in the aircraft, that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport. (c) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has - (1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held; (2) Been found proficient in cross-country flying; and (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried on the person's possession in the aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found proficient in the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held. (d) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, provided that person has - (1) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation, as appropriate to the aircraft rating held: (i) The use of radios, communications, navigation system and facilities, and radar services. (ii) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower. (iii) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control clearances; (2) Been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried on the person's possession or readily accessible in the aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. (e) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (i) of this section, a recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft - (1) That is certificated - (i) For more than four occupants; (ii) With more than one powerplant; (iii) With a powerplant of more than 180 horsepower, except aircraft certificated in the rotorcraft category; or (iv) With retractable landing gear; (2) That is classified as a multiengine airplane, powered-lift, glider, airship, balloon, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft; (3) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or hire; (4) For compensation or hire; (5) In furtherance of a business; (6) Between sunset and sunrise; (7) In Class A, B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower; (8) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher; (9) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute miles; (10) Without visual reference to the surface; (11) On a flight outside the United States, unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; (12) To demonstrate that aircraft in flight as an aircraft salesperson to a prospective buyer; (13) That is used in a passenger-carrying airlift and sponsored by a charitable organization; and (14) That is towing any object. (f) A recreational pilot may not act as a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when: (1) Receiving flight training from a person authorized to provide flight training on board an airship; and (2) No person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft. (g) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate, has logged fewer than 400 flight hours, and has not logged pilot-in-command time in an aircraft within the 180 days preceding the flight shall not act as pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot receives flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor, and the instructor certifies that the person is proficient to act as pilot in command of the aircraft. This requirement can be met in combination with the requirements of §§ 61.56 and 61.57 of this part, at the discretion of the authorized instructor. (h) A recreational pilot certificate issued under this subpart carries the notation, "Holder does not meet ICAO requirements." (i) For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or ratings while under the supervision of an authorized instructor, a recreational pilot may fly as the sole occupant of an aircraft: (1) For which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating; (2) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control; or (3) Between sunset and sunrise, provided the flight or surface visibility is at least 5 statute miles. (j) In order to fly solo as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, the recreational pilot must meet the appropriate aeronautical knowledge and flight training requirements of § 61.87 for that aircraft. When operating an aircraft under the conditions specified in paragraph (i) of this section, the recreational pilot shall carry the logbook that has been endorsed for each flight by an authorized instructor who: (1) Has given the recreational pilot training in the make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be made; (2) Has found that the recreational pilot has met the applicable requirements of § 61.87; and (3) Has found that the recreational pilot is competent to make solo flights in accordance with the logbook endorsement. (k) A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted consistent with this section and the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the requirements of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a recreational pilot must comply with this section.

91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.

(a) General. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3) and (e) of this section, no person may operate a powered civil aircraft with a standard category U.S. airworthiness certificate in any operation described in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section unless that aircraft contains the instruments and equipment specified in those paragraphs (or FAA-approved equivalents) for that type of operation, and those instruments and items of equipment are in operable condition. (b) Visual-flight rules (day). For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required: (1) Airspeed indicator. (2) Altimeter. (3) Magnetic direction indicator. (4) Tachometer for each engine. (5) Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system. (6) Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine. (7) Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine. (8) Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine. (9) Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank. (10) Landing gear position indicator, if the aircraft has a retractable landing gear. (11) For small civil airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996, in accordance with part 23 of this chapter, an approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light system, operation of the aircraft may continue to a location where repairs or replacement can be made. (12) If the aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant and, unless the aircraft is operating under part 121 of this subchapter, at least one pyrotechnic signaling device. As used in this section, "shore" means that area of the land adjacent to the water which is above the high water mark and excludes land areas which are intermittently under water. (13) An approved safety belt with an approved metal-to-metal latching device, or other approved restraint system for each occupant 2 years of age or older. (14) For small civil airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978, an approved shoulder harness or restraint system for each front seat. For small civil airplanes manufactured after December 12, 1986, an approved shoulder harness or restraint system for all seats. Shoulder harnesses installed at flightcrew stations must permit the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all functions necessary for flight operations. For purposes of this paragraph - (i) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data; and (ii) A front seat is a seat located at a flightcrew member station or any seat located alongside such a seat. (15) An emergency locator transmitter, if required by § 91.207. (16) [Reserved] (17) For rotorcraft manufactured after September 16, 1992, a shoulder harness for each seat that meets the requirements of § 27.2 or § 29.2 of this chapter in effect on September 16, 1991. (c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the following instruments and equipment are required: (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (2) Approved position lights. (3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system on all U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Anticollision light systems initially installed after August 11, 1971, on aircraft for which a type certificate was issued or applied for before August 11, 1971, must at least meet the anticollision light standards of part 23, 25, 27, or 29 of this chapter, as applicable, that were in effect on August 10, 1971, except that the color may be either aviation red or aviation white. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light system, operations with the aircraft may be continued to a stop where repairs or replacement can be made. (4) If the aircraft is operated for hire, one electric landing light. (5) An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment. (6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight. (d) Instrument flight rules. For IFR flight, the following instruments and equipment are required: (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and, for night flight, instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (c) of this section. (2) Two-way radio communication and navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown. (3) Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator, except on the following aircraft: (i) Airplanes with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch and roll and installed in accordance with the instrument requirements prescribed in § 121.305(j) of this chapter; and (ii) Rotorcraft with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of ±80 degrees of pitch and ±120 degrees of roll and installed in accordance with § 29.1303(g) of this chapter. (4) Slip-skid indicator. (5) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure. (6) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweep-second pointer or digital presentation. (7) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity. (8) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon). (9) Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent). (e) Flight at and above 24,000 feet MSL (FL 240). If VOR navigation equipment is required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 states and the District of Columbia at or above FL 240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. When the DME or RNAV system required by this paragraph fails at and above FL 240, the pilot in command of the aircraft must notify ATC immediately, and then may continue operations at and above FL 240 to the next airport of intended landing where repairs or replacement of the equipment can be made. (f) Category II operations. The requirements for Category II operations are the instruments and equipment specified in - (1) Paragraph (d) of this section; and (2) Appendix A to this part. (g) Category III operations. The instruments and equipment required for Category III operations are specified in paragraph (d) of this section. (h) Night vision goggle operations. For night vision goggle operations, the following instruments and equipment must be installed in the aircraft, functioning in a normal manner, and approved for use by the FAA: (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section, instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (c) of this section; (2) Night vision goggles; (3) Interior and exterior aircraft lighting system required for night vision goggle operations; (4) Two-way radio communications system; (5) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon); (6) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity for the required instruments and equipment; and (7) Radar altimeter. (i) Exclusions. Paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section do not apply to operations conducted by a holder of a certificate issued under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.

91.409 Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

(a) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft - (1) For other than the special purpose for which it is certificated; or (2) In an operation other than one necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with that special purpose. (b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations are considered necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with a special purpose operation: (1) Flights conducted for flight crewmember training in a special purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated. (2) Flights conducted to satisfy proficiency check and recent flight experience requirements under part 61 of this chapter provided the flight crewmember holds the appropriate category, class, and type ratings and is employed by the operator to perform the appropriate special purpose operation. (3) Flights conducted to relocate the aircraft for delivery, repositioning, or maintenance. (c) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. For the purposes of this paragraph (c), a special purpose operation involving the carriage of persons or material necessary to accomplish that operation, such as crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and banner towing (including the carrying of required persons or material to the location of that operation), an operation for the purpose of providing flight crewmember training in a special purpose operation, and an operation conducted under the authority provided in paragraph (h) of this section are not considered to be the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire. (d) No person may be carried on a restricted category civil aircraft unless that person - (1) Is a flight crewmember; (2) Is a flight crewmember trainee; (3) Performs an essential function in connection with a special purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated; (4) Is necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with that special purpose; or (5) Is necessary to accomplish an operation under paragraph (h) of this section. (e) Except when operating in accordance with the terms and conditions of a certificate of waiver or special operating limitations issued by the Administrator, no person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft within the United States - (1) Over a densely populated area; (2) In a congested airway; or (3) Near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are conducted. (f) This section does not apply to nonpassenger-carrying civil rotorcraft external-load operations conducted under part 133 of this chapter. (g) No person may operate a small restricted-category civil airplane manufactured after July 18, 1978, unless an approved shoulder harness or restraint system is installed for each front seat. The shoulder harness or restraint system installation at each flightcrew station must permit the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened or the restraint system engaged, to perform all functions necessary for flight operation. For purposes of this paragraph - (1) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data; and (2) A front seat is a seat located at a flight crewmember station or any seat located alongside such a seat. (h) (1) An operator may apply for deviation authority from the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section to conduct operations for the following purposes: (i) Flight training and the practical test for issuance of a type rating provided - (A) The pilot being trained and tested holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft type; (B) The pilot receiving flight training is employed by the operator to perform a special purpose operation; and (C) The flight training is conducted by the operator who employs the pilot to perform a special purpose operation. (ii) Flights to designate an examiner or qualify an FAA inspector in the aircraft type and flights necessary to provide continuing oversight and evaluation of an examiner. (2) The FAA will issue this deviation authority as a letter of deviation authority. (3) The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority at any time. (4) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator at least 60 days before the date of intended operations. A request for deviation authority must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and justification that establishes a level of safety equivalent to that provided under the regulations for the deviation requested.

91.111 Operating near other aircraft

(a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. (b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. (c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

91.207 Emergency locator transmitters

1. ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 cumulative hour of use or after 50% of their useful life expires 2. ELTs may only be tested on the ground during the first 5 min after the hour. No airborne checks are allowed(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil airplane unless - (1) There is attached to the airplane an approved automatic type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition for the following operations, except that after June 21, 1995, an emergency locator transmitter that meets the requirements of TSO-C91 may not be used for new installations: (i) Those operations governed by the supplemental air carrier and commercial operator rules of parts 121 and 125; (ii) Charter flights governed by the domestic and flag air carrier rules of part 121 of this chapter; and (iii) Operations governed by part 135 of this chapter; or (2) For operations other than those specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, there must be attached to the airplane an approved personal type or an approved automatic type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition, except that after June 21, 1995, an emergency locator transmitter that meets the requirements of TSO-C91 may not be used for new installations. (b) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of this section must be attached to the airplane in such a manner that the probability of damage to the transmitter in the event of crash impact is minimized. Fixed and deployable automatic type transmitters must be attached to the airplane as far aft as practicable. (c) Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable) - (1) When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or (2) When 50 percent of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals. (d) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of this section must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection for - (1) Proper installation; (2) Battery corrosion; (3) Operation of the controls and crash sensor; and (4) The presence of a sufficient signal radiated from its antenna. (e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a person may - (1) Ferry a newly acquired airplane from the place where possession of it was taken to a place where the emergency locator transmitter is to be installed; and (2) Ferry an airplane with an inoperative emergency locator transmitter from a place where repairs or replacements cannot be made to a place where they can be made. No person other than required crewmembers may be carried aboard an airplane being ferried under paragraph (e) of this section. (f) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to - (1) Before January 1, 2004, turbojet-powered aircraft; (2) Aircraft while engaged in scheduled flights by scheduled air carriers; (3) Aircraft while engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50-nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began; (4) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to design and testing; (5) New aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to their manufacture, preparation, and delivery; (6) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to the aerial application of chemicals and other substances for agricultural purposes; (7) Aircraft certificated by the Administrator for research and development purposes; (8) Aircraft while used for showing compliance with regulations, crew training, exhibition, air racing, or market surveys; (9) Aircraft equipped to carry not more than one person. (10) An aircraft during any period for which the transmitter has been temporarily removed for inspection, repair, modification, or replacement, subject to the following: (i) No person may operate the aircraft unless the aircraft records contain an entry which includes the date of initial removal, the make, model, serial number, and reason for removing the transmitter, and a placard located in view of the pilot to show "ELT not installed." (ii) No person may operate the aircraft more than 90 days after the ELT is initially removed from the aircraft; and (11) On and after January 1, 2004, aircraft with a maximum payload capacity of more than 18,000 pounds when used in air transportation.

AIM 3-2-5 Class D Airspace

a. Definition. Generally, Class D airspace extends upward from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures. 1. Class D surface areas may be designated as full-time (24 hour tower operations) or part-time. Part-time Class D effective times are published in the Chart Supplement U.S. 2. Where a Class D surface area is part-time, the airspace may revert to either a Class E surface area (see paragraph 3−2−6e1) or Class G airspace. When a part-time Class D surface area changes to Class G, the surface area becomes Class G airspace up to, but not including, the overlying controlled airspace. NOTE− 1. The airport listing in the Chart Supplement U.S. will state the part-time surface area status (for example, "other times CLASS E" or "other times CLASS G"). 2. Normally, the overlying controlled airspace is the Class E transition area airspace that begins at either 700 feet AGL (charted as magenta vignette) or 1200 feet AGL (charted as blue vignette). This may be determined by consulting the applicable VFR Sectional or Terminal Area Charts. b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment Requirements: 1. Pilot Certification. No specific certification required. 2. Equipment. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable two−way radio is required. 3. Arrival or Through Flight Entry Requirements. Two−way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in the Class D airspace. Pilots of arriving aircraft should contact the control tower on the publicized frequency and give their position, altitude, destination, and any request(s). Radio contact should be initiated far enough from the Class D airspace boundary to preclude entering the Class D airspace before two−way radio communications are established. NOTE− 1. If the controller responds to a radio call with, "[aircraft callsign] standby," radio communications have been established and the pilot can enter the Class D airspace. 2. If workload or traffic conditions prevent immediate entry into Class D airspace, the controller will inform the pilot to remain outside the Class D airspace until conditions permit entry. EXAMPLE− 1. "[Aircraft callsign] remain outside the Class Delta airspace and standby." It is important to understand that if the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft callsign, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class D airspace. 2. "Aircraft calling Manassas tower standby." At those airports where the control tower does not operate 24 hours a day, the operating hours of the tower will be listed on the appropriate charts and in the Chart Supplement U.S. During the hours the tower is not in operation, the Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules to 700 feet above ground level and Class G rules to the surface will become applicable. Check the Chart Supplement U.S. for specifics. 4. Departures from: (a) A primary or satellite airport with an operating control tower. Two-way radio communications must be established and maintained with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class D airspace. (b) A satellite airport without an operating control tower. Two-way radio communications must be established as soon as practicable after departing with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace as soon as practicable after departing. 10/12/17 AIM Controlled Airspace 3−2−9 5. Aircraft Speed. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph). c. Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional and Terminal charts with blue segmented lines, and on IFR En Route Lows with a boxed [D]. d. Surface area arrival extensions: 1. Class D surface area arrival extensions for instrument approach procedures may be Class D or Class E airspace. As a general rule, if all extensions are 2 miles or less, they remain part of the Class D surface area. However, if any one extension is greater than 2 miles, then all extensions will be Class E airspace. 2. Surface area arrival extensions are effective during the published times of the surface area. For part-time Class D surface areas that revert to Class E airspace, the arrival extensions will remain in effect as Class E airspace. For part-time Class D surface areas that change to Class G airspace, the arrival extensions will become Class G at the same time. e. Separation for VFR Aircraft. No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft.

AIM 3-2-3 Class B Airspace

a. Definition. Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft that are so cleared receive separation services within the airspace. The cloud clearance requirement for VFR operations is "clear of clouds." b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment Requirements for VFR Operations. Regardless of weather conditions, an ATC clearance is required prior to operating within Class B airspace. Pilots should not request a clearance to operate within Class B airspace unless the requirements of 14 CFR Section 91.215 and 14 CFR Section 91.131 are met. Included among these requirements are: 1. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft must be equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace. 2. No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at the following primary airports within Class B airspace unless the pilot−in−command holds at least a private pilot certificate: (a) Andrews Air Force Base, MD (b) Atlanta Hartsfield Airport, GA (c) Boston Logan Airport, MA (d) Chicago O'Hare Intl. Airport, IL (e) Dallas/Fort Worth Intl. Airport, TX (f) Los Angeles Intl. Airport, CA (g) Miami Intl. Airport, FL (h) Newark Intl. Airport, NJ (i) New York Kennedy Airport, NY (j) New York La Guardia Airport, NY (k) Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport, DC (l) San Francisco Intl. Airport, CA 3. No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within Class B airspace or operate a civil aircraft within Class B airspace unless: (a) The pilot−in−command holds at least a private pilot certificate; or 10/12/17 AIM Controlled Airspace 3−2−3 (b) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot or recreational pilot who seeks private pilot certification and has met the requirements of 14 CFR Section 61.95. 4. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a large turbine engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport must operate at or above the designated floors while within the lateral limits of Class B airspace. 5. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft must be equipped as follows: (a) For IFR operations, an operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system; and (b) For all operations, a two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that area; and (c) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment. NOTE− ATC may, upon notification, immediately authorize a deviation from the altitude reporting equipment requirement; however, a request for a deviation from the 4096 transponder equipment requirement must be submitted to the controlling ATC facility at least one hour before the proposed operation. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−1−20 , Transponder Operation 6. Mode C Veil. The airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in Appendix D, Section 1 of 14 CFR Part 91 (generally primary airports within Class B airspace areas), from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft operating within this airspace must be equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having Mode C capability. However, an aircraft that was not originally certificated with an engine−driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with a system installed may conduct operations within a Mode C veil provided the aircraft remains outside Class A, B or C airspace; and below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower. c. Charts. Class B airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts. d. Flight Procedures. 1. Flights. Aircraft within Class B airspace are required to operate in accordance with current IFR procedures. A clearance for a visual approach to a primary airport is not authorization for turbine− powered airplanes to operate below the designated floors of the Class B airspace. 2. VFR Flights. (a) Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance prior to entering Class B airspace and must contact ATC on the appropriate frequency, and in relation to geographical fixes shown on local charts. Although a pilot may be operating beneath the floor of the Class B airspace on initial contact, communications with ATC should be established in relation to the points indicated for spacing and sequencing purposes. (b) Departing aircraft require a clearance to depart Class B airspace and should advise the clearance delivery position of their intended altitude and route of flight. ATC will normally advise VFR aircraft when leaving the geographical limits of the Class B airspace. Radar service is not automatically terminated with this advisory unless specifically stated by the controller. (c) Aircraft not landing or departing the primary airport may obtain an ATC clearance to transit the Class B airspace when traffic conditions permit and provided the requirements of 14 CFR Section 91.131 are met. Such VFR aircraft are encouraged, to the extent possible, to operate at altitudes above or below the Class B airspace or transit through established VFR corridors. Pilots operating in VFR corridors are urged to use frequency 122.750 MHz for the exchange of aircraft position information. e. ATC Clearances and Separation. An ATC clearance is required to enter and operate within Class B airspace. VFR pilots are provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−1−18 , Terminal Radar Services for VFR Aircraft AIM 10/12/17 3−2−4 Controlled Airspace NOTE− 1. Separation and sequencing of VFR aircraft will be suspended in the event of a radar outage as this service is dependent on radar. The pilot will be advised that the service is not available and issued wind, runway information and the time or place to contact the tower. 2. Separation of VFR aircraft will be suspended during CENRAP operations. Traffic advisories and sequencing to the primary airport will be provided on a workload permitting basis. The pilot will be advised when center radar presentation (CENRAP) is in use. 1. VFR aircraft are separated from all VFR/IFR aircraft which weigh 19,000 pounds or less by a minimum of: (a) Target resolution, or (b) 500 feet vertical separation, or (c) Visual separation. 2. VFR aircraft are separated from all VFR/IFR aircraft which weigh more than 19,000 and turbojets by no less than: (a) 1 1/2 miles lateral separation, or (b) 500 feet vertical separation, or (c) Visual separation. 3. This program is not to be interpreted as relieving pilots of their responsibilities to see and avoid other traffic operating in basic VFR weather conditions, to adjust their operations and flight path as necessary to preclude serious wake encounters, to maintain appropriate terrain and obstruction clearance or to remain in weather conditions equal to or better than the minimums required by 14 CFR Section 91.155. Approach control should be advised and a revised clearance or instruction obtained when compliance with an assigned route, heading and/or altitude is likely to compromise pilot responsibility with respect to terrain and obstruction clearance, vortex exposure, and weather minimums. 4. ATC may assign altitudes to VFR aircraft that do not conform to 14 CFR Section 91.159. "RESUME APPROPRIATE VFR ALTITUDES" will be broadcast when the altitude assignment is no longer needed for separation or when leaving Class B airspace. Pilots must return to an altitude that conforms to 14 CFR Section 91.159. f. Proximity operations. VFR aircraft operating in proximity to Class B airspace are cautioned against operating too closely to the boundaries, especially where the floor of the Class B airspace is 3,000 feet or less above the surface or where VFR cruise altitudes are at or near the floor of higher levels. Observance of this precaution will reduce the potential for encountering an aircraft operating at the altitudes of Class B floors. Additionally, VFR aircraft are encouraged to utilize the VFR Planning Chart as a tool for planning flight in proximity to Class B airspace. Charted VFR Flyway Planning Charts are published on the back of the existing VFR Terminal Area Charts.

AIM 3-2-4 Class C Airspace

a. Definition. Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends no lower than 1,200 feet up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. b. Charts. Class C airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts where appropriate. c. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment Requirements: 1. Pilot Certification. No specific certification required. 2. Equipment. (a) Two-way radio; and (b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment. NOTE− See paragraph 4−1−20, Transponder Operation, subparagraph f2(c) for Mode C transponder requirements for operating above Class C airspace. 3. Arrival or Through Flight Entry Requirements. Two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in Class C airspace. Pilots of 10/12/17 AIM Controlled Airspace 3−2−5 arriving aircraft should contact the Class C airspace ATC facility on the publicized frequency and give their position, altitude, radar beacon code, destination, and request Class C service. Radio contact should be initiated far enough from the Class C airspace boundary to preclude entering Class C airspace before two-way radio communications are established. NOTE− 1. If the controller responds to a radio call with, "(aircraft callsign) standby," radio communications have been established and the pilot can enter the Class C airspace. 2. If workload or traffic conditions prevent immediate provision of Class C services, the controller will inform the pilot to remain outside the Class C airspace until conditions permit the services to be provided. 3. It is important to understand that if the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft identification, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class C airspace. 4. Though not requiring regulatory action, Class C airspace areas have a procedural Outer Area. Normally this area is 20 NM from the primary Class C airspace airport. Its vertical limit extends from the lower limits of radio/radar coverage up to the ceiling of the approach control's delegated airspace, excluding the Class C airspace itself, and other airspace as appropriate. (This outer area is not charted.) 5. Pilots approaching an airport with Class C service should be aware that if they descend below the base altitude of the 5 to 10 mile shelf during an instrument or visual approach, they may encounter nontransponder, VFR aircraft. EXAMPLE− 1. [Aircraft callsign] "remain outside the Class Charlie airspace and standby." 2. "Aircraft calling Dulles approach control, standby." 4. Departures from: (a) A primary or satellite airport with an operating control tower. Two-way radio communications must be established and maintained with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in Class C airspace. (b) A satellite airport without an operating control tower. Two-way radio communications must be established as soon as practicable after departing with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace. 5. Aircraft Speed. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph). d. Air Traffic Services. When two-way radio communications and radar contact are established, all VFR aircraft are: 1. Sequenced to the primary airport. 2. Provided Class C services within the Class C airspace and the outer area. 3. Provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on a workload permitting basis. This can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates. e. Aircraft Separation. Separation is provided within the Class C airspace and the outer area after two-way radio communications and radar contact are established. VFR aircraft are separated from IFR aircraft within the Class C airspace by any of the following: 1. Visual separation. 2. 500 feet vertical separation. 3. Target resolution. 4. Wake turbulence separation will be provided to all aircraft operating: (a) Behind and less than 1,000 feet below super or heavy aircraft, (b) To small aircraft operating behind and less than 500 feet below B757 aircraft, and (c) To small aircraft following a large aircraft on final approach. NOTE− 1. Separation and sequencing of VFR aircraft will be suspended in the event of a radar outage as this service is dependent on radar. The pilot will be advised that the service is not available and issued wind, runway information and the time or place to contact the tower. 2. Separation of VFR aircraft will be suspended during CENRAP operations. Traffic advisories and sequencing to the primary airport will be provided on a workload permitting basis. The pilot will be advised when CENRAP is in use. 3. Pilot participation is voluntary within the outer area and can be discontinued, within the outer area, at the pilot's request. Class C services will be provided in the outer area unless the pilot requests termination of the service. AIM 10/12/17 3−2−6 Controlled Airspace 4. Some facilities provide Class C services only during published hours. At other times, terminal IFR radar service will be provided. It is important to note that the communications and transponder requirements are dependent of the class of airspace established outside of the published hours. f. Secondary Airports 1. In some locations Class C airspace may overlie the Class D surface area of a secondary airport. In order to allow that control tower to provide service to aircraft, portions of the overlapping Class C airspace may be procedurally excluded when the secondary airport tower is in operation. Aircraft operating in these procedurally excluded areas will only be provided airport traffic control services when in communication with the secondary airport tower. 2. Aircraft proceeding inbound to a satellite airport will be terminated at a sufficient distance to allow time to change to the appropriate tower or advisory frequency. Class C services to these aircraft will be discontinued when the aircraft is instructed to contact the tower or change to advisory frequency. 3. Aircraft departing secondary controlled airports will not receive Class C services until they have been radar identified and two-way communications have been established with the Class C airspace facility. 4. This program is not to be interpreted as relieving pilots of their responsibilities to see and avoid other traffic operating in basic VFR weather conditions, to adjust their operations and flight path as necessary to preclude serious wake encounters, to maintain appropriate terrain and obstruction clearance or to remain in weather conditions equal to or better than the minimums required by 14 CFR Section 91.155. Approach control should be advised and a revised clearance or instruction obtained when compliance with an assigned route, heading and/or altitude is likely to compromise pilot responsibility with respect to terrain and obstruction clearance, vortex exposure, and weather minimums. g. Class C Airspace Areas by State These states currently have designated Class C airspace areas that are depicted on sectional charts. Pilots should consult current sectional charts and NOTAMs for the latest information on services available. Pilots should be aware that some Class C airspace underlies or is adjacent to Class B airspace. (See TBL 3−2−1.) TBL 3−2−1 Class C Airspace Areas by State State/City Airport

61.15 offenses involving drugs or alcohol

(a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. (b) Committing an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. (c) For the purposes of paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, a motor vehicle action means: (1) A conviction after November 29, 1990, for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug; (2) The cancellation, suspension, or revocation of a license to operate a motor vehicle after November 29, 1990, for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug; or (3) The denial after November 29, 1990, of an application for a license to operate a motor vehicle for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug. (d) Except for a motor vehicle action that results from the same incident or arises out of the same factual circumstances, a motor vehicle action occurring within 3 years of a previous motor vehicle action is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the last motor vehicle action; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. (e) Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), P.O. Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. The report must include: (1) The person's name, address, date of birth, and airman certificate number; (2) The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the administrative action; (3) The date of the conviction or administrative action; (4) The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative action; and (5) A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related to a previously reported motor vehicle action. (f) Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the motor vehicle action; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

61.95 Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within Class B airspace.

(a) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace unless: (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on that Class B airspace area, and the flight training was received in the specific Class B airspace area for which solo flight is authorized; (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by the authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that Class B airspace area; and (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific Class B airspace area. (b) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight to, from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace pursuant to § 91.131(b) of this chapter unless: (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an instructor authorized to provide training to operate at that airport, and the flight and ground training has been received at the specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized; (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by an authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at that airport; and (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight operations at that specific airport. (c) This section does not apply to a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate.

91.119 Minimum Safe Altitudes: General

(a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. (b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. (c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. (d) Helicopters, powered parachutes, and weight-shift-control aircraft. If the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface - (1) A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, provided each person operating the helicopter complies with any routes or altitudes specifically prescribed for helicopters by the FAA; and (2) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.

91.135 Operations in class A airspace

(a) Clearance. Operations may be conducted only under an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace. (b) Communications. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on a frequency assigned by ATC. Each pilot must maintain two-way radio communications with ATC while operating in Class A airspace. (c) Equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in § 91.215, and after January 1, 2020, § 91.225. (d) ATC authorizations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction of the airspace concerned. In the case of an inoperative transponder, ATC may immediately approve an operation within a Class A airspace area allowing flight to continue, if desired, to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made, or both. Requests for deviation from any provision of this section must be submitted in writing, at least 4 days before the proposed operation. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight.

91.105 Flight crew members and stations

(a) During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall - (1) Be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs; and (2) Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. (b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This paragraph does not apply if - (1) The seat at the crewmember's station is not equipped with a shoulder harness; or (2) The crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.

91.121 Altimeter settings

(a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be, by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating - (1) Below 18,000 feet MSL, to - (i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft; (ii) If there is no station within the area prescribed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station; or (iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure; or (2) At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92″ Hg. (b) The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric pressure in the area of operation as shown in the following table: Current altimeter settingLowest usable flight level29.92 (or higher)18029.91 through 29.4218529.41 through 28.9219028.91 through 28.4219528.41 through 27.9220027.91 through 27.4220527.41 through 26.92210 (c) To convert minimum altitude prescribed under §§ 91.119 and 91.177 to the minimum flight level, the pilot shall take the flight level equivalent of the minimum altitude in feet and add the appropriate number of feet specified below, according to the current reported altimeter setting: Current altimeter settingAdjustment factor29.92 (or higher)None29.91 through 29.4250029.41 through 28.921,00028.91 through 28.421,50028.41 through 27.922,00027.91 through 27.422,50027.41 through 26.923,000

91.157 Special VFR weather minimums

(a) Except as provided in appendix D, section 3, of this part, special VFR operations may be conducted under the weather minimums and requirements of this section, instead of those contained in § 91.155, below 10,000 feet MSL within the airspace contained by the upward extension of the lateral boundaries of the controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport. (b) Special VFR operations may only be conducted - (1) With an ATC clearance; (2) Clear of clouds; (3) Except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile; and (4) Except for helicopters, between sunrise and sunset (or in Alaska, when the sun is 6 degrees or more below the horizon) unless - (i) The person being granted the ATC clearance meets the applicable requirements for instrument flight under part 61 of this chapter; and (ii) The aircraft is equipped as required in § 91.205(d). (c) No person may take off or land an aircraft (other than a helicopter) under special VFR - (1) Unless ground visibility is at least 1 statute mile; or (2) If ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term flight visibility includes the visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in takeoff position if: (i) The flight is conducted under this part 91; and (ii) The airport at which the aircraft is located is a satellite airport that does not have weather reporting capabilities. (d) The determination of visibility by a pilot in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not an official weather report or an official ground visibility report.

91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and § 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table: AirspaceFlight visibilityDistance from cloudsClass ANot ApplicableNot Applicable.Class B3 statute milesClear of Clouds.Class C3 statute miles500 feet below.1,000 feet above.2,000 feet horizontal.Class D3 statute miles500 feet below.1,000 feet above.2,000 feet horizontal.Class E:Less than 10,000 feet MSL3 statute miles500 feet below.1,000 feet above.2,000 feet horizontal.At or above 10,000 feet MSL5 statute miles1,000 feet below.1,000 feet above.1 statute mile horizontal.Class G:1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude)For aircraft other than helicopters:Day, except as provided in § 91.155(b)1 statute mileClear of clouds.Night, except as provided in § 91.155(b)3 statute miles500 feet below.1,000 feet above.2,000 feet horizontal.For helicopters:Day1/2 statute mileClear of cloudsNight, except as provided in § 91.155(b)1 statute mileClear of clouds.More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSLDay1 statute mile500 feet below.1,000 feet above.2,000 feet horizontal.Night3 statute miles500 feet below.1,000 feet above.2,000 feet horizontal.More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL5 statute miles1,000 feet below.1,000 feet above.1 statute mile horizontal. (b) Class G Airspace. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface: (1) Helicopter. A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway or helipad of intended landing if the flight visibility is not less than 1/2 statute mile. (2) Airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft. If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway, you may operate an airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft clear of clouds. (c) Except as provided in § 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. (d) Except as provided in § 91.157 of this part, no person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport - (1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or (2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles. (e) For the purpose of this section, an aircraft operating at the base altitude of a Class E airspace area is considered to be within the airspace directly below that area.

91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certificating authority of the country of registry. (b) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft - (1) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is required by § 21.5 of this chapter unless there is available in the aircraft a current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or the manual provided for in § 121.141(b); and (2) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is not required by § 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. (c) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless that aircraft is identified in accordance with part 45 of this chapter. (d) Any person taking off or landing a helicopter certificated under part 29 of this chapter at a heliport constructed over water may make such momentary flight as is necessary for takeoff or landing through the prohibited range of the limiting height-speed envelope established for the helicopter if that flight through the prohibited range takes place over water on which a safe ditching can be accomplished and if the helicopter is amphibious or is equipped with floats or other emergency flotation gear adequate to accomplish a safe emergency ditching on open water.

61.113 Private pilot privilege and limitations: Pilot in command

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section, no person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft. (b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if: (1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and (2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire. (c) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. (d) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event flight described in § 91.146, if the sponsor and pilot comply with the requirements of § 91.146. (e) A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of: (1) A local, State, or Federal agency; or (2) An organization that conducts search and location operations. (f) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer. (g) A private pilot who meets the requirements of § 61.69 may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle. (h) A private pilot may act as pilot in command for the purpose of conducting a production flight test in a light-sport aircraft intended for certification in the light-sport category under § 21.190 of this chapter, provided that - (1) The aircraft is a powered parachute or a weight-shift-control aircraft; (2) The person has at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the category and class of aircraft flown; and (3) The person is familiar with the processes and procedures applicable to the conduct of production flight testing, to include operations conducted under a special flight permit and any associated operating limitations. (i) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and complies with this section and all of the following conditions and limitations: (1) The aircraft is authorized to carry not more than 6 occupants, has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds, and is operated with no more than five passengers on board; and (2) The flight, including each portion of the flight, is not carried out - (i) At an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea level; (ii) Outside the United States unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; or (iii) At an indicated airspeed exceeding 250 knots; and (3) The pilot has available in his or her logbook - (i) The completed medical examination checklist required under § 68.7 of this chapter; and (ii) The certificate of course completion required under § 61.23(c)(3).

91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required

(a) Except as provided in § 91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following: (1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. airworthiness certificate used to comply with this subparagraph (except a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable operations specifications issued under § 21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate sections of the air carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this chapter containing that portion of the operations specifications issued under § 21.197(c), or an authorization under § 91.611) must have on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 of this chapter. However, the airworthiness certificate need not have on it an assigned special identification number before 10 days after that number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness certificate having on it an assigned special identification number, that has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be obtained upon application to the responsible Flight Standards office. (2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second copy of the Aircraft registration Application as provided for in § 47.31(c), a Certificate of Aircraft registration as provided in part 48, or a registration certification issued under the laws of a foreign country. (b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under § 91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew. (c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment unless the installation was accomplished pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, and a copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation is on board the aircraft. (d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) into or out of an airport in the United States unless it complies with the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this chapter.

91.417 Maintenance records

(a) Except for work performed in accordance with §§ 91.411 and 91.413, each registered owner or operator shall keep the following records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section: (1) Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration and records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft (including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance of an aircraft. The records must include - (i) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of the work performed; and (ii) The date of completion of the work performed; and (iii) The signature, and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for return to service. (2) Records containing the following information: (i) The total time in service of the airframe, each engine, each propeller, and each rotor. (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. (iii) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis. (iv) The current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since the last inspection required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained. (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) and safety directives including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD or safety directive number and revision date. If the AD or safety directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required. (vi) Copies of the forms prescribed by § 43.9(d) of this chapter for each major alteration to the airframe and currently installed engines, rotors, propellers, and appliances. (b) The owner or operator shall retain the following records for the periods prescribed: (1) The records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or for 1 year after the work is performed. (2) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be retained and transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold. (3) A list of defects furnished to a registered owner or operator under § 43.11 of this chapter shall be retained until the defects are repaired and the aircraft is approved for return to service. (c) The owner or operator shall make all maintenance records required to be kept by this section available for inspection by the Administrator or any authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). In addition, the owner or operator shall present Form 337 described in paragraph (d) of this section for inspection upon request of any law enforcement officer. (d) When a fuel tank is installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, a copy of FAA Form 337 shall be kept on board the modified aircraft by the owner or operator.

91.211 Supplemental oxygen

(a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry - (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and (3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen. (b) Pressurized cabin aircraft. (1) No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry with a pressurized cabin - (i) At flight altitudes above flight level 250 unless at least a 10-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy paragraph (a) of this section, is available for each occupant of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization; and (ii) At flight altitudes above flight level 350 unless one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed and that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL), except that the one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below flight level 410 if there are two pilots at the controls and each pilot has a quick-donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face with one hand from the ready position within 5 seconds, supplying oxygen and properly secured and sealed. (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember's station.

91.130 Operations in class C airspace

(a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft operation in Class C airspace must be conducted in compliance with this section and § 91.129. For the purpose of this section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class C airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class C airspace area. (b) Traffic patterns. No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns. (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class C airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements: (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace. (2) Departing flight. Each person - (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class C airspace area; or (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing. (d) Equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in § 91.215, and after January 1, 2020, § 91.225. (e) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, as appropriate.

91.129 Operations in Class D airspace

(a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area, each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must comply with the applicable provisions of this section. In addition, each person must comply with §§ 91.126 and 91.127. For the purpose of this section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class D airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class D airspace area. (b) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, as appropriate. (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements: (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace. (2) Departing flight. Each person - (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class D airspace area; or (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing. (d) Communications failure. Each person who operates an aircraft in a Class D airspace area must maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area. (1) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185 of the part. (2) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if - (i) Weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums; (ii) Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and (iii) A clearance to land is received. (e) Minimum altitudes when operating to an airport in Class D airspace. (1) Unless required by the applicable distance-from-cloud criteria, each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane must enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing. (2) Each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane approaching to land on a runway served by an instrument approach procedure with vertical guidance, if the airplane is so equipped, must: (i) Operate that airplane at an altitude at or above the glide path between the published final approach fix and the decision altitude (DA), or decision height (DH), as applicable; or (ii) If compliance with the applicable distance-from-cloud criteria requires glide path interception closer in, operate that airplane at or above the glide path, between the point of interception of glide path and the DA or the DH. (3) Each pilot operating an airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator must maintain an altitude at or above the glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. (4) Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section do not prohibit normal bracketing maneuvers above or below the glide path that are conducted for the purpose of remaining on the glide path. (f) Approaches. Except when conducting a circling approach under part 97 of this chapter or unless otherwise required by ATC, each pilot must - (1) Circle the airport to the left, if operating an airplane; or (2) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft, if operating a helicopter. (g) Departures. No person may operate an aircraft departing from an airport except in compliance with the following: (1) Each pilot must comply with any departure procedures established for that airport by the FAA. (2) Unless otherwise required by the prescribed departure procedure for that airport or the applicable distance from clouds criteria, each pilot of a turbine-powered airplane and each pilot of a large airplane must climb to an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface as rapidly as practicable. (h) Noise abatement. Where a formal runway use program has been established by the FAA, each pilot of a large or turbine-powered airplane assigned a noise abatement runway by ATC must use that runway. However, consistent with the final authority of the pilot in command concerning the safe operation of the aircraft as prescribed in § 91.3(a), ATC may assign a different runway if requested by the pilot in the interest of safety. (i) Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any airport with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance is received from ATC.

91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace.

(a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class G airspace area must comply with the requirements of this section. (b) Direction of turns. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace - (1) Each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right; and (2) Each pilot of a helicopter or a powered parachute must avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft. (c) Flap settings. Except when necessary for training or certification, the pilot in command of a civil turbojet-powered aircraft must use, as a final flap setting, the minimum certificated landing flap setting set forth in the approved performance information in the Airplane Flight Manual for the applicable conditions. However, each pilot in command has the final authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the pilot's airplane, and may use a different flap setting for that airplane if the pilot determines that it is necessary in the interest of safety. (d) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185.

91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations

(a) Inapplicability. This section does not apply to the operation of an aircraft on water. (b) General. When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. When a rule of this section gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear. (c) In distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic. (d) Converging. When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. If the aircraft are of different categories - (1) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft; (2) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, powered parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft. (3) An airship has the right-of-way over a powered parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft. However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft. (e) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right. (f) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear. (g) Landing. Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

91.17 Alcohol or Drugs

(a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft - (1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage; (2) While under the influence of alcohol; (3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety; or (4) While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen. Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath. (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft. (c) A crewmember shall do the following: (1) On request of a law enforcement officer, submit to a test to indicate the alcohol concentration in the blood or breath, when - (i) The law enforcement officer is authorized under State or local law to conduct the test or to have the test conducted; and (ii) The law enforcement officer is requesting submission to the test to investigate a suspected violation of State or local law governing the same or substantially similar conduct prohibited by paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section. (2) Whenever the FAA has a reasonable basis to believe that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section, on request of the FAA, that person must furnish to the FAA the results, or authorize any clinic, hospital, or doctor, or other person to release to the FAA, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates an alcohol concentration in the blood or breath specimen. (d) Whenever the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(3) of this section, that person shall, upon request by the Administrator, furnish the Administrator, or authorize any clinic, hospital, doctor, or other person to release to the Administrator, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates the presence of any drugs in the body. (e) Any test information obtained by the Administrator under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section may be evaluated in determining a person's qualifications for any airman certificate or possible violations of this chapter and may be used as evidence in any legal proceeding under section 602, 609, or 901 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958.

91.151 Fuel requirements for flying in VFR conditions

(a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed - (1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or (2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes. (b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

91.309 Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles.

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle unless - (1) The pilot in command of the towing aircraft is qualified under § 61.69 of this chapter; (2) The towing aircraft is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind, and installed in a manner, that is approved by the Administrator; (3) The towline used has breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle and not more than twice this operating weight. However, the towline used may have a breaking strength more than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle if - (i) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the towline to the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle with a breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle and not greater than twice this operating weight; (ii) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the towline to the towing aircraft with a breaking strength greater, but not more than 25 percent greater, than that of the safety link at the towed glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle end of the towline and not greater than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle; (4) Before conducting any towing operation within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport, or before making each towing flight within such controlled airspace if required by ATC, the pilot in command notifies the control tower. If a control tower does not exist or is not in operation, the pilot in command must notify the FAA flight service station serving that controlled airspace before conducting any towing operations in that airspace; and (5) The pilots of the towing aircraft and the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle have agreed upon a general course of action, including takeoff and release signals, airspeeds, and emergency procedures for each pilot. (b) No pilot of a civil aircraft may intentionally release a towline, after release of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, in a manner that endangers the life or property of another.

91.319 Aircraft having experimental certificates: operating limitations

(a) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate - (1) For other than the purpose for which the certificate was issued; or (2) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. (b) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate outside of an area assigned by the Administrator until it is shown that - (1) The aircraft is controllable throughout its normal range of speeds and throughout all the maneuvers to be executed; and (2) The aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics or design features. (c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in special operating limitations, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested airway. The Administrator may issue special operating limitations for particular aircraft to permit takeoffs and landings to be conducted over a densely populated area or in a congested airway, in accordance with terms and conditions specified in the authorization in the interest of safety in air commerce. (d) Each person operating an aircraft that has an experimental certificate shall - (1) Advise each person carried of the experimental nature of the aircraft; (2) Operate under VFR, day only, unless otherwise specifically authorized by the Administrator; and (3) Notify the control tower of the experimental nature of the aircraft when operating the aircraft into or out of airports with operating control towers. (e) No person may operate an aircraft that is issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191(i) of this chapter for compensation or hire, except a person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191(i)(1) for compensation or hire to - (1) Tow a glider that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with § 91.309; or (2) Conduct flight training in an aircraft which that person provides prior to January 31, 2010. (f) No person may lease an aircraft that is issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191(i) of this chapter, except in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section. (g) No person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter to tow a glider that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire or to conduct flight training for compensation or hire in an aircraft which that persons provides unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has - (1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; or (2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. (h) The FAA may issue deviation authority providing relief from the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section for the purpose of conducting flight training. The FAA will issue this deviation authority as a letter of deviation authority. (1) The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority at any time. (2) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority to the FAA at least 60 days before the date of intended operations. A request for deviation authority must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and justification that establishes a level of safety equivalent to that provided under the regulations for the deviation requested. (i) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the Administrator considers necessary, including limitations on the persons that may be carried in the aircraft. (j) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate under § 61.113(i) of this chapter unless the aircraft is carrying not more than 6 occupants.

91.407 Operation after Maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding or alteration

(a) No person may operate any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless - (1) It has been approved for return to service by a person authorized under § 43.7 of this chapter; and (2) The maintenance record entry required by § 43.9 or § 43.11, as applicable, of this chapter has been made. (b) No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records. (c) The aircraft does not have to be flown as required by paragraph (b) of this section if, prior to flight, ground tests, inspection, or both show conclusively that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration has not appreciably changed the flight characteristics or substantially affected the flight operation of the aircraft.

91.413 ATC transponder testes and inspections

(a) No persons may use an ATC transponder that is specified in 91.215(a), 121.345(c), or § 135.143(c) of this chapter unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been tested and inspected and found to comply with appendix F of part 43 of this chapter; and (b) Following any installation or maintenance on an ATC transponder where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter. (c) The tests and inspections specified in this section must be conducted by - (1) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those functions and holding - (i) A radio rating, Class III; (ii) A limited radio rating appropriate to the make and model transponder to be tested; (iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed; (2) A holder of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in part 121 or § 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter; or (3) The manufacturer of the aircraft on which the transponder to be tested is installed, if the transponder was installed by that manufacturer.

91.307 Parachutes and parachuting.

(a) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type and has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger - (1) Within the preceding 180 days, if its canopy, shrouds, and harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar synthetic fiber or materials that are substantially resistant to damage from mold, mildew, or other fungi and other rotting agents propagated in a moist environment; or (2) Within the preceding 60 days, if any part of the parachute is composed of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber or materials not specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot in command may allow, and no person may conduct, a parachute operation from an aircraft within the United States except in accordance with part 105 of this chapter. (c) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds - (1) A bank of 60 degrees relative to the horizon; or (2) A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon. (d) Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to - (1) Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or (2) Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by - (i) A certificated flight instructor; or (ii) An airline transport pilot instructing in accordance with § 61.67 of this chapter. (e) For the purposes of this section, approved parachute means - (1) A parachute manufactured under a type certificate or a technical standard order (C-23 series); or (2) A personnel-carrying military parachute identified by an NAF, AAF, or AN drawing number, an AAF order number, or any other military designation or specification number.

91.131 Operations in Class B airspace

(a) Operating rules. No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area except in compliance with § 91.129 and the following rules: (1) The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area. (2) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a large turbine engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport for which a Class B airspace area is designated must operate at or above the designated floors of the Class B airspace area while within the lateral limits of that area. (3) Any person conducting pilot training operations at an airport within a Class B airspace area must comply with any procedures established by ATC for such operations in that area. (b) Pilot requirements. (1) No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless - (i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate; (ii) The pilot in command holds a recreational pilot certificate and has met - (A) The requirements of § 61.101(d) of this chapter; or (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in § 61.94 of this chapter; (iii) The pilot in command holds a sport pilot certificate and has met - (A) The requirements of § 61.325 of this chapter; or (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in § 61.94 of this chapter; or (iv) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of § 61.94 or § 61.95 of this chapter, as applicable. (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iii) and (b)(1)(iv) of this section, no person may take off or land a civil aircraft at those airports listed in section 4 of appendix D to this part unless the pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate. (c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with - (1) For IFR operation. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system; and (2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area. (d) Other equipment requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with - (1) The applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in § 91.215 (a), except as provided in § 91.215 (e), and (2) After January 1, 2020, the applicable Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast Out equipment specified in § 91.225.

FAR Part 61 61.3 Requirements for certificates ratings, and authorizations.

(a) Required pilot certificate for operating a civil aircraft of the United States. No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of the United States, unless that person: (1) Has in the person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization - (i) A pilot certificate issued under this part and in accordance with § 61.19; (ii) A special purpose pilot authorization issued under § 61.77; (iii) A temporary certificate issued under § 61.17; (iv) A document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges issued by the Airmen Certification Branch under § 61.29(e); (v) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121 or 135 of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that certificate holder under an approved certificate verification plan; (vi) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a fractional ownership program manager authorized to conduct operations under part 91, subpart K, of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that program manager under an approved certificate verification plan; or (vii) When operating an aircraft within a foreign country, a pilot license issued by that country may be used. (2) Has a photo identification that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. The photo identification must be a: (i) Driver's license issued by a State, the District of Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States; (ii) Government identification card issued by the Federal government, a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States; (iii) U.S. Armed Forces' identification card; (iv) Official passport; (v) Credential that authorizes unescorted access to a security identification display area at an airport regulated under 49 CFR part 1542; or (vi) Other form of identification that the Administrator finds acceptable. (b) Required pilot certificate for operating a foreign-registered aircraft within the United States. No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within the United States, unless - (1) That person's pilot certificate or document issued under § 61.29(e) is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate; and (2) Has been issued in accordance with this part, or has been issued or validated by the country in which the aircraft is registered. (c) Medical certificate. (1) A person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft only if that person holds the appropriate medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides certain exceptions to the requirement to hold a medical certificate. (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person - (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating, a balloon class rating, or glider or balloon privileges; (ii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's license; (iii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control aircraft category rating or a powered parachute category rating and holds a U.S. driver's license; (iv) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges; (v) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's license. A person who has applied for or held a medical certificate may exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate using a U.S. driver's license only if that person - (A) Has been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application; and (B) Has not had his or her most recently issued medical certificate suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn. (vi) Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and is piloting or providing training in a balloon as appropriate; (vii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider, as appropriate; (viii) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember; (ix) Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate; (x) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that license; (xi) Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under § 61.75, and holds a medical certificate issued by the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that airman certificate; (xii) Is a pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces, has an up-to-date U.S. military medical examination, and holds military pilot flight status; (xiii) Is exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license; or (xiv) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as pilot in command for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license. (d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under this part must have that certificate, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that flight instructor certificate. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part with the appropriate rating on that certificate may - (i) Give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight; (ii) Endorse an applicant for a - (A) Pilot certificate or rating issued under this part; (B) Flight instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or (C) Ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or (iv) Endorse a logbook for solo operating privileges. (3) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary - (i) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft; (ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter; (iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program; (iv) Under paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(C), and (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a ground instructor certificate in accordance with the privileges of the certificate; or (v) Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part. (e) Instrument rating. No person may act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight unless that person holds: (1) The appropriate aircraft category, class, type (if required), and instrument rating on that person's pilot certificate for any airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift being flown; (2) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category, class, and type rating (if required) for the aircraft being flown; (3) For a glider, a pilot certificate with a glider category rating and an airplane instrument rating; or (4) For an airship, a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating and airship class rating. (f) Category II pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting Category II operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not: (1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person - (i) Holds a Category II pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category II operations. (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person - (i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft; (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft; or (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category II operations. (g) Category III pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting Category III operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not: (1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person - (i) Holds a Category III pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category III operations. (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person - (i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft; (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft; or (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category III operations. (h) Category A aircraft pilot authorization. The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization for a Category II or Category III operation to the pilot of a small aircraft that is a Category A aircraft, as identified in § 97.3(b)(1) of this chapter if: (1) The Administrator determines that the Category II or Category III operation can be performed safely by that pilot under the terms of the certificate of authorization; and (2) The Category II or Category III operation does not involve the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire. (i) Ground instructor certificate. (1) Each person who holds a ground instructor certificate issued under this part must have that certificate or a temporary document issued under § 61.29(e) in that person's physical possession or immediately accessible when exercising the privileges of that certificate. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a ground instructor certificate, issued under this part or part 143, with the appropriate rating on that certificate may - (i) Give ground training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight; (ii) Endorse an applicant for a knowledge test required for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show ground training given. (3) A ground instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary - (i) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part in accordance with the privileges of that certificate; (ii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft; (iii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter; (iv) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program; or (v) Under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part. (j) Age limitation for certain operations. (1) Age limitation. No person who holds a pilot certificate issued under this part may serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday or, in the case of operations with more than one pilot, his or her 65th birthday: (i) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes; (ii) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; (iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or (iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. (2) Definitions. (i) "International air service," as used in this paragraph (j), means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country. (ii) "International air transportation," as used in this paragraph (j), means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country. (k) Special purpose pilot authorization. Any person that is required to hold a special purpose pilot authorization, issued in accordance with § 61.77 of this part, must have that authorization and the person's foreign pilot license in that person's physical possession or have it readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that authorization. (l) Inspection of certificate. Each person who holds an airman certificate, temporary document in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(v) or (vi) of this section, medical certificate, documents establishing alternative medical qualification under part 68 of this chapter, authorization, or license required by this part must present it and their photo identification as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for inspection upon a request from: (1) The Administrator; (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or (4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security Administration.

91.405 Maintenance required

(a) Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of this part and shall between required inspections, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in part 43 of this chapter; (b) Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service; (c) Shall have any inoperative instrument or item of equipment, permitted to be inoperative by § 91.213(d)(2) of this part, repaired, replaced, removed, or inspected at the next required inspection; and (d) When listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or equipment, shall ensure that a placard has been installed as required by § 43.11 of this chapter.(a) Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of this part and shall between required inspections, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in part 43 of this chapter; (b) Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service; (c) Shall have any inoperative instrument or item of equipment, permitted to be inoperative by § 91.213(d)(2) of this part, repaired, replaced, removed, or inspected at the next required inspection; and (d) When listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or equipment, shall ensure that a placard has been installed as required by § 43.11 of this chapter.

71.71 Class E airspace.

(a) The airspace of the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, extending upward from 14,500 feet MSL up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above FL600, excluding - (1) The Alaska peninsula west of longitude 160°00′00″ W.; and (2) The airspace below 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth. (b) The airspace areas designated for an airport in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.11D (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) within which all aircraft operators are subject to the operating rules specified in part 91 of this chapter. (c) The airspace areas listed as domestic airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.11D (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) which extend upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of the earth when designated in conjunction with an airport for which an approved instrument approach procedure has been prescribed, or from 1,200 feet or more above the surface of the earth for the purpose of transitioning to or from the terminal or en route environment. When such areas are designated in conjunction with airways or routes, the extent of such designation has the lateral extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends upward from 1,200 feet or higher. Unless otherwise specified, the airspace areas in the paragraph extend upward from 1,200 feet or higher above the surface to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. (d) The Federal airways described in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.11D (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1). (e) The airspace areas listed as en route domestic airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.11D (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1). Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area has a lateral extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends upward from 1,200 feet above the surface of the earth to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. (f) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.11D (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) that are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic ATC procedures are applied. Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area extends upward from a specified altitude up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

NTSB 830.10 Preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records.

(a) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident for which notification must be given is responsible for preserving to the extent possible any aircraft wreckage, cargo, and mail aboard the aircraft, and all records, including all recording mediums of flight, maintenance, and voice recorders, pertaining to the operation and maintenance of the aircraft and to the airmen until the Board takes custody thereof or a release is granted pursuant to § 831.12(b) of this chapter. (b) Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary: (1) To remove persons injured or trapped; (2) To protect the wreckage from further damage; or (3) To protect the public from injury. (c) Where it is necessary to move aircraft wreckage, mail or cargo, sketches, descriptive notes, and photographs shall be made, if possible, of the original positions and condition of the wreckage and any significant impact marks. (d) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident shall retain all records, reports, internal documents, and memoranda dealing with the accident or incident, until authorized by the Board to the contrary.

91.403 General Airworthiness Responsibility

(a) The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 of this chapter. (b) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this subpart and other applicable regulations, including part 43 of this chapter. (c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an airworthiness limitations section unless the mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection intervals and related procedures set forth in an operations specification approved by the Administrator under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or in accordance with an inspection program approved under § 91.409(e) have been complied with. (d) A person must not alter an aircraft based on a supplemental type certificate unless the owner or operator of the aircraft is the holder of the supplemental type certificate, or has written permission from the holder.

91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.

(a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. (b) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency. (c) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

91.117 Aircraft speed

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 m.p.h.). (b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph.). This paragraph (b) does not apply to any operations within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section. (c) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph). (d) If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in this section, the aircraft may be operated at that minimum speed.

91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace.

(a) Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter or unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class E airspace area, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class E airspace area must comply with the requirements of § 91.126. (b) Departures. Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this chapter. (c) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185.

91.123 Compliance with ATC Clearances and instructions

(a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. However, except in Class A airspace, a pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if the operation is being conducted in VFR weather conditions. When a pilot is uncertain of an ATC clearance, that pilot shall immediately request clarification from ATC. (b) Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction in an area in which air traffic control is exercised. (c) Each pilot in command who, in an emergency, or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible. (d) Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC. (e) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person operating an aircraft may operate that aircraft according to any clearance or instruction that has been issued to the pilot of another aircraft for radar air traffic control purposes.

91.103 Preflight action

1. Pilots are required to familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight prior to every flight, and specifically to determine, a. For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use and the airplanes takeoff and landing requirements and b. for IFR flights or those not in the vicinity of an airport 1)Weather forecasts and reports 2) Fuel requirements 3) Alternatives available in the planned flight cannot be completed, and 4) Any known traffic delays

91.115 Right of way rules: Water operations

91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations. (a) General. Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, insofar as possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation, and shall give way to any vessel or other aircraft that is given the right-of-way by any rule of this section. (b) Crossing. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way. (c) Approaching head-on. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are approaching head-on, or nearly so, each shall alter its course to the right to keep well clear. (d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has the right-of-way, and the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well clear. (e) Special circumstances. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, approach so as to involve risk of collision, each aircraft or vessel shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances, including the limitations of the respective craft.

AIM 1-1-16 Doppler Radar

Doppler Radar is a semiautomatic self−contained dead reckoning navigation system (radar sensor plus computer) which is not continuously dependent on information derived from ground based or external aids. The system employs radar signals to detect and measure ground speed and drift angle, using the aircraft compass system as its directional reference. Doppler is less accurate than INS, however, and the use of an external reference is required for periodic updates if acceptable position accuracy is to be achieved on long range flights.

91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level

Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless otherwise authorized by ATC: (a) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and - (1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500); or (2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500). (b) When operating above 18,000 feet MSL, maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC.

91.303 Aerobatic flight.

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight - (a) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; (b) Over an open air assembly of persons; (c) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; (d) Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; (e) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or (f) When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

91.15 Dropping objects.

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

FAR Part 1 1.2

REVIEW GENERAL TERMS... THERES ALOT

AIM 4-1-15 Radar Traffic Information Service

This is a service provided by radar ATC facilities. Pilots receiving this service are advised of any radar target observed on the radar display which may be in such proximity to the position of their aircraft or its intended route of flight that it warrants their attention. This service is not intended to relieve the pilot of the responsibility for continual vigilance to see and avoid other aircraft. a. Purpose of the Service 1. The issuance of traffic information as observed on a radar display is based on the principle of assisting and advising a pilot that a particular radar target's position and track indicates it may intersect or pass in such proximity to that pilot's intended flight path that it warrants attention. This is to alert the pilot to the traffic, to be on the lookout for it, and thereby be in a better position to take appropriate action should the need arise. 2. Pilots are reminded that the surveillance radar used by ATC does not provide altitude information unless the aircraft is equipped with Mode C and the radar facility is capable of displaying altitude information. b. Provisions of the Service 1. Many factors, such as limitations of the radar, volume of traffic, controller workload and communications frequency congestion, could prevent the controller from providing this service. Controllers possess complete discretion for determining whether they are able to provide or continue to provide this service in a specific case. The controller's reason against providing or continuing to provide the service in a particular case is not subject to question nor need it be communicated to the pilot. In other words, the provision of this service is entirely dependent upon whether controllers believe they are in a position to provide it. Traffic information is routinely provided to all aircraft operating on IFR flight plans except when the pilot declines the service, or the pilot is operating within Class A airspace. Traffic information may be provided to flights not operating on IFR flight plans when requested by pilots of such flights. NOTE− Radar ATC facilities normally display and monitor both primary and secondary radar when it is available, except that secondary radar may be used as the sole display source in Class A airspace, and under some circumstances outside of Class A airspace (beyond primary coverage and in en route areas where only secondary is available). Secondary radar may also be used outside Class A airspace as the sole display source when the primary radar is temporarily unusable or out of service. Pilots in contact with the affected ATC facility are normally advised when a temporary outage occurs; i.e., "primary radar out of service; traffic advisories available on transponder aircraft only." This means simply that only the aircraft which have transponders installed and in use will be depicted on ATC radar indicators when the primary radar is temporarily out of service. 2. When receiving VFR radar advisory service, pilots should monitor the assigned frequency at all times. This is to preclude controllers' concern for radio failure or emergency assistance to aircraft under the controller's jurisdiction. VFR radar advisory service does not include vectors away from conflicting traffic unless requested by the pilot. When advisory service is no longer desired, advise the controller before changing frequencies and then change your transponder code to 1200, if applicable. Pilots should also inform the controller when changing VFR cruising altitude. Except in programs where radar service is automatically terminated, the controller will advise the aircraft when radar is terminated. NOTE− Participation by VFR pilots in formal programs implemented at certain terminal locations constitutes pilot request. This also applies to participating pilots at those locations where arriving VFR flights are encouraged to make their first contact with the tower on the approach control frequency. c. Issuance of Traffic Information. Traffic information will include the following concerning a target which may constitute traffic for an aircraft that is: 1. Radar identified (a) Azimuth from the aircraft in terms of the 12 hour clock, or (b) When rapidly maneuvering civil test or military aircraft prevent accurate issuance of traffic as in (a) above, specify the direction from an aircraft's AIM 10/12/17 4−1−10 Services Available to Pilots position in terms of the eight cardinal compass points (N, NE, E, SE, S, SW, W, NW). This method must be terminated at the pilot's request. (c) Distance from the aircraft in nautical miles; (d) Direction in which the target is proceeding; and (e) Type of aircraft and altitude if known. EXAMPLE− Traffic 10 o'clock, 3 miles, west-bound (type aircraft and altitude, if known, of the observed traffic). The altitude may be known, by means of Mode C, but not verified with the pilot for accuracy. (To be valid for separation purposes by ATC, the accuracy of Mode C readouts must be verified. This is usually accomplished upon initial entry into the radar system by a comparison of the readout to pilot stated altitude, or the field elevation in the case of continuous readout being received from an aircraft on the airport.) When necessary to issue traffic advisories containing unverified altitude information, the controller will issue the advisory in the same manner as if it were verified due to the accuracy of these readouts. The pilot may upon receipt of traffic information, request a vector (heading) to avoid such traffic. The vector will be provided to the extent possible as determined by the controller provided the aircraft to be vectored is within the airspace under the jurisdiction of the controller. 2. Not radar identified (a) Distance and direction with respect to a fix; (b) Direction in which the target is proceeding; and (c) Type of aircraft and altitude if known. EXAMPLE− Traffic 8 miles south of the airport northeastbound, (type aircraft and altitude if known). d. The examples depicted in the following figures point out the possible error in the position of this traffic when it is necessary for a pilot to apply drift correction to maintain this track. This error could also occur in the event a change in course is made at the time radar traffic information is issued. FIG 4−1−1 Induced Error in Position of Traffic TRACK (A) (B) WIND TRACK EXAMPLE− In FIG 4−1−1 traffic information would be issued to the pilot of aircraft "A" as 12 o'clock. The actual position of the traffic as seen by the pilot of aircraft "A" would be 2 o'clock. Traffic information issued to aircraft "B" would also be given as 12 o'clock, but in this case, the pilot of "B" would see the traffic at 10 o'clock. FIG 4−1−2 Induced Error in Position of Traffic TRACK (C) (D) WIND TRACK EXAMPLE− In FIG 4−1−2 traffic information would be issued to the pilot of aircraft "C" as 2 o'clock. The actual position of the traffic as seen by the pilot of aircraft "C" would be 3 o'clock. Traffic information issued to aircraft "D" would be at an 11 o'clock position. Since it is not necessary for the pilot of aircraft "D" to apply wind correction (crab) to remain on track, the actual position of the traffic issued would be correct. Since the radar controller can only observe aircraft track (course) on the radar display, traffic advisories are issued accordingly, and pilots should give due consideration to this fact when looking for reported traffic.

AIM 4-1-13 Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)

a. ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas. Its purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information. The information is continuously broadcast over a discrete VHF radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID. Arrival ATIS transmissions on a discrete VHF radio frequency are engineered according to the individual facility requirements, which would normally be a protected service volume of 20 NM to 60 NM from the ATIS site and a maximum altitude of 25,000 feet AGL. In the case of a departure ATIS, the protected service volume cannot exceed 5 NM and 100 feet AGL. At most locations, ATIS signals may be received on the surface of the airport, but local conditions may limit the maximum ATIS reception distance and/or altitude. Pilots are urged to cooperate in the ATIS program as it relieves frequency congestion on approach control, ground control, and local control frequencies. The Chart Supplement U.S. indicates airports for which ATIS is provided. b. ATIS information includes: 1. Airport/facility name 2. Phonetic letter code 3. Time of the latest weather sequence (UTC) 4. Weather information consisting of: (a) Wind direction and velocity (b) Visibility (c) Obstructions to vision (d) Present weather consisting of: sky condition, temperature, dew point, altimeter, a density altitude advisory when appropriate, and other pertinent remarks included in the official weather observation 5. Instrument approach and runway in use. The ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted from the ATIS broadcast if the ceiling is above 5,000 feet and the visibility is more than 5 miles. The departure runway will only be given if different from the landing runway except at locations having a separate ATIS for departure. The broadcast may include the appropriate frequency and instructions for VFR arrivals to make initial contact with approach control. Pilots of aircraft arriving or departing the terminal area can receive the continuous ATIS broadcast at times when cockpit duties are least pressing and listen to as many repeats as desired. ATIS broadcast must be updated upon the receipt of any official hourly and special weather. A new recording will also be made when there is a change in other pertinent data such as runway change, instrument approach in use, etc. EXAMPLE− Dulles International information Sierra. One four zero zero zulu. Wind three five zero at eight. Visibility one zero. Ceiling four thousand five hundred broken. Temperature three four. Dew point two eight. Altimeter three zero one zero. ILS runway one right approach in use. Departing runway three zero. Advise on initial contact you have information sierra. c. Pilots should listen to ATIS broadcasts whenever ATIS is in operation. d. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast. AIM 10/12/17 4−1−8 Services Available to Pilots EXAMPLE− "Information Sierra received." e. When a pilot acknowledges receipt of the ATIS broadcast, controllers may omit those items contained in the broadcast if they are current. Rapidly changing conditions will be issued by ATC and the ATIS will contain words as follows: EXAMPLE− "Latest ceiling/visibility/altimeter/wind/(other conditions) will be issued by approach control/tower." NOTE− The absence of a sky condition or ceiling and/or visibility on ATIS indicates a sky condition or ceiling of 5,000 feet or above and visibility of 5 miles or more. A remark may be made on the broadcast, "the weather is better than 5000 and 5," or the existing weather may be broadcast. f. Controllers will issue pertinent information to pilots who do not acknowledge receipt of a broadcast or who acknowledge receipt of a broadcast which is not current. g. To serve frequency limited aircraft, FSSs are equipped to transmit on the omnirange frequency at most en route VORs used as ATIS voice outlets. Such communication interrupts the ATIS broadcast. Pilots of aircraft equipped to receive on other FSS frequencies are encouraged to do so in order that these override transmissions may be kept to an absolute minimum. h. While it is a good operating practice for pilots to make use of the ATIS broadcast where it is available, some pilots use the phrase "have numbers" in communications with the control tower. Use of this phrase means that the pilot has received wind, runway, and altimeter information ONLY and the tower does not have to repeat this information. It does not indicate receipt of the ATIS broadcast and should never be used for this purpose.

AIM 2-1-10 Airport/Heliport Beacons

a. Airport and heliport beacons have a vertical light distribution to make them most effective from one to ten degrees above the horizon; however, they can be seen well above and below this peak spread. The beacon may be an omnidirectional capacitor−discharge device, or it may rotate at a constant speed which produces the visual effect of flashes at regular intervals. Flashes may be one or two colors alternately. The total number of flashes are: 1. 24 to 30 per minute for beacons marking airports, landmarks, and points on Federal airways. 2. 30 to 45 per minute for beacons marking heliports. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Lighting Aids 2−1−15 b. The colors and color combinations of beacons are: 1. White and Green− Lighted land airport. 2. *Green alone− Lighted land airport. 3. White and Yellow− Lighted water airport. 4. *Yellow alone− Lighted water airport. 5. Green, Yellow, and White− Lighted heliport. NOTE− *Green alone or yellow alone is used only in connection with a white−and−green or white−and−yellow beacon display, respectively. c. Military airport beacons flash alternately white and green, but are differentiated from civil beacons by dualpeaked (two quick) white flashes between the green flashes. d. In Class B, Class C, Class D and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with 14 CFR Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. At some locations with operating control towers, ATC personnel turn the beacon on or off when controls are in the tower. At many airports the airport beacon is turned on by a photoelectric cell or time clocks and ATC personnel cannot control them. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation and it is the pilot's responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Section 91.103.

AIM 4-2-13 Communications with Tower when Aircraft Transmitter or Receiver or Both are Inoperative

a. Arriving Aircraft. 1. Receiver inoperative. (a) If you have reason to believe your receiver is inoperative, remain outside or above the Class D surface area until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined; then, advise the tower of your type aircraft, position, altitude, intention to land, and request that you be controlled with light signals. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−3−13 , Traffic Control Light Signals (b) When you are approximately 3 to 5 miles from the airport, advise the tower of your position and join the airport traffic pattern. From this point on, watch the tower for light signals. Thereafter, if a complete pattern is made, transmit your position downwind and/or turning base leg. 2. Transmitter inoperative. Remain outside or above the Class D surface area until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined; then, join the airport traffic pattern. Monitor the primary local control frequency as depicted on Sectional Charts for landing or traffic information, and look for a light signal which may be addressed to your aircraft. During hours of daylight, acknowledge tower transmissions or light signals by rocking your wings. At night, acknowledge by blinking the landing or navigation lights. To acknowledge tower transmissions during daylight hours, hovering helicopters will turn in the direction of the controlling facility and flash the landing light. While in flight, helicopters should show their acknowledgement of receiving a transmission by making shallow banks in opposite directions. At night, helicopters will acknowledge receipt of transmissions by flashing either the landing or the search light. 3. Transmitter and receiver inoperative. Remain outside or above the Class D surface area until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined; then, join the airport traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals. Acknowledge light signals as noted above. b. Departing Aircraft. If you experience radio failure prior to leaving the parking area, make every effort to have the equipment repaired. If you are unable to have the malfunction repaired, call the tower by telephone and request authorization to depart without two-way radio communications. If tower authorization is granted, you will be given departure information and requested to monitor the tower frequency or watch for light signals as appropriate. During daylight hours, acknowledge tower transmissions or light signals by moving the ailerons or rudder. At night, acknowledge by blinking the landing or navigation lights. If radio malfunction AIM 10/12/17 4−2−8 Radio Communications Phraseology occurs after departing the parking area, watch the tower for light signals or monitor tower frequency.

AIM 4-3-3 Traffic Patterns

a. At most airports and military air bases, traffic pattern altitudes for propeller−driven aircraft generally extend from 600 feet to as high as 1,500 feet above the ground. Also, traffic pattern altitudes for military turbojet aircraft sometimes extend up to 2,500 feet above the ground. Therefore, pilots of en route aircraft should be constantly on the alert for other aircraft in traffic patterns and avoid these areas whenever possible. Traffic pattern altitudes should be maintained unless otherwise required by the applicable distance from cloud criteria (14 CFR Section 91.155). (See FIG 4−3−2 and FIG 4−3−3.) Unless otherwise indicated, all turns in the traffic pattern should be made to the left. On Sectional Aeronautical and VFR Terminal Area Charts, right traffic patterns are indicated at public-use and joint-use airports by the abbreviation "RP" (for Right Pattern), followed by the appropriate runway number(s), at the bottom of the airport data block. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Operations 4−3−3 EXAMPLE− RP 9, 18, 22R NOTE− 1. RP* indicates special conditions exist and refers pilots to the Chart Supplement U.S. 2. Right traffic patterns are not shown at airports with full−time control towers. b. Wind conditions affect all airplanes in varying degrees. Figure 4-3-4 is an example of a chart used to determine the headwind, crosswind, and tailwind components based on wind direction and velocity relative to the runway. Pilots should refer to similar information provided by the aircraft manufacturer when determining these wind components. FIG 4−3−2 Traffic Pattern Operations Single Runway EXAMPLE− Key to traffic pattern operations 1. Enter pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway, at pattern altitude. (1,000' AGL is recommended pattern altitude unless established otherwise. . .) 2. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam approach end of the landing runway on downwind leg. 3. Complete turn to final at least 1/4 mile from the runway. 4. Continue straight ahead until beyond departure end of runway. 5. If remaining in the traffic pattern, commence turn to crosswind leg beyond the departure end of the runway within 300 feet of pattern altitude. 6. If departing the traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45 degree turn (to the left when in a left−hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right−hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude. AIM 10/12/17 4−3−4 Airport Operations FIG 4−3−3 Traffic Pattern Operations Parallel Runways EXAMPLE− Key to traffic pattern operations 1. Enter pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway, at pattern altitude. (1,000' AGL is recommended pattern altitude unless established otherwise. . .) 2. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam approach end of the landing runway on downwind leg. 3. Complete turn to final at least 1/4 mile from the runway. 4. Continue straight ahead until beyond departure end of runway. 5. If remaining in the traffic pattern, commence turn to crosswind leg beyond the departure end of the runway within 300 feet of pattern altitude. 6. If departing the traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45 degree turn (to the left when in a left−hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right−hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude. 7. Do not overshoot final or continue on a track which will penetrate the final approach of the parallel runway. 8. Do not continue on a track which will penetrate the departure path of the parallel runway. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Operations 4−3−5 FIG 4−3−4 Headwind/Tailwind/Crosswind Component Calculator

AIM 4-3-4 Visual Indicators at Airports Without an Operating Control Tower

a. At those airports without an operating control tower, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designed to provide traffic pattern information. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−1−9 , Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports Without Operating Control Towers b. The segmented circle system consists of the following components: 1. The segmented circle. Located in a position affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground and providing a centralized location for other elements of the system. 2. The wind direction indicator. A wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee installed near the operational runway to indicate wind direction. The large end of the wind cone/wind sock points into the wind as does the large end (cross bar) of the wind tee. In lieu of a tetrahedron and where a wind sock or wind cone is collocated with a wind tee, the wind tee may be manually aligned with the runway in use to indicate landing direction. These signaling devices may be located in the center of the segmented circle and may be lighted for night use. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron to indicate wind direction. 3. The landing direction indicator. A tetrahedron is installed when conditions at the airport warrant its use. It may be used to indicate the direction of landings and takeoffs. A tetrahedron may be located at the center of a segmented circle and may be lighted for night operations. The small end of the tetrahedron points in the direction of landing. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron for any purpose other than as an indicator of landing direction. Further, pilots should use extreme caution when making runway selection by use of a tetrahedron in very light or calm wind conditions as the tetrahedron may not be aligned with the designated calm−wind runway. At airports with control towers, the tetrahedron should only be referenced when the control tower is not in operation. Tower instructions supersede tetrahedron indications. 4. Landing strip indicators. Installed in pairs as shown in the segmented circle diagram and used to show the alignment of landing strips. 5. Traffic pattern indicators. Arranged in pairs in conjunction with landing strip indicators and used to indicate the direction of turns when there is a variation from the normal left traffic pattern. (If there is no segmented circle installed at the airport, traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.) c. Preparatory to landing at an airport without a control tower, or when the control tower is not in operation, pilots should concern themselves with the indicator for the approach end of the runway to be used. When approaching for landing, all turns must be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right. If the pilot will mentally enlarge the indicator for the runway to be used, the base and final approach legs of the traffic pattern to be flown immediately become apparent. Similar treatment of the indicator at the departure end of the runway will clearly indicate the direction of turn after takeoff. d. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the pilot of the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right−of−way over the pilot of the aircraft at the higher altitude. However, the pilot operating at the lower altitude should not take advantage of another aircraft, which is on final approach to land, by cutting in front of, or overtaking that aircraft.

AIM 3-2-1 General

a. Controlled Airspace. A generic term that covers the different classification of airspace (Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace) and defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. (See FIG 3−2−1.) b. IFR Requirements. IFR operations in any class of controlled airspace requires that a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance. c. IFR Separation. Standard IFR separation is provided to all aircraft operating under IFR in controlled airspace. d. VFR Requirements. It is the responsibility of the pilot to ensure that ATC clearance or radio communication requirements are met prior to entry into Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace. The pilot retains this responsibility when receiving ATC radar advisories. (See 14 CFR Part 91.) e. Traffic Advisories. Traffic advisories will be provided to all aircraft as the controller's work situation permits. f. Safety Alerts. Safety Alerts are mandatory services and are provided to ALL aircraft. There are two types of Safety Alerts: 1. Terrain/Obstruction Alert. A Terrain/ Obstruction Alert is issued when, in the controller's judgment, an aircraft's altitude places it in unsafe proximity to terrain and/or obstructions; and 2. Aircraft Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert. An Aircraft Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert is issued if the controller observes another aircraft which places it in an unsafe proximity. When feasible, the controller will offer the pilot an alternative course of action. FIG 3−2−1 Airspace Classes MSL - mean sea level AGL - above ground level FL - flight level CLASS B CLASS B CLASS C CLASS C CLASS E CLASS E CLASS D CLASS D CLASS G CLASS G CLASS G CLASS G CLASS G CLASS G Nontowered Airport Nontowered Airport FL 600 18,000 MSL FL 600 18,000 MSL 14,500 MSL 14,500 MSL 700 AGL 1,200 AGL CLASS A CLASS A AIM 10/12/17 3−2−2 Controlled Airspace g. Ultralight Vehicles. No person may operate an ultralight vehicle within Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport unless that person has prior authorization from the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that airspace. (See 14 CFR Part 103.) h. Unmanned Free Balloons. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an unmanned free balloon below 2,000 feet above the surface within the lateral boundaries of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport. (See 14 CFR Part 101.) i. Parachute Jumps. No person may make a parachute jump, and no pilot−in−command may allow a parachute jump to be made from that aircraft, in or into Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace without, or in violation of, the terms of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace. (See 14 CFR Part 105.)

AIM 2-3-11 Destination Signs

a. Destination signs also have a yellow background with a black inscription indicating a destination on the airport. These signs always have an arrow showing the direction of the taxiing route to that destination. FIG 2−3−38 is an example of a typical destination sign. When the arrow on the destination sign indicates a turn, the sign is located prior to the intersection. b. Destinations commonly shown on these types of signs include runways, aprons, terminals, military areas, civil aviation areas, cargo areas, international areas, and fixed base operators. An abbreviation may be used as the inscription on the sign for some of these destinations. c. When the inscription for two or more destinations having a common taxiing route are placed on a sign, the destinations are separated by a "dot" () and one arrow would be used, as shown in FIG 2−3−39. When the inscription on a sign contains two or more destinations having different taxiing routes, each destination will be accompanied by an arrow and will be separated from the other destinations on the sign with a vertical black message divider

AIM 2-3-3 Runway Markings

a. General. There are three types of markings for runways: visual, nonprecision instrument, and precision instrument. TBL 2−3−1 identifies the marking elements for each type of runway and TBL 2−3−2 identifies runway threshold markings. TBL 2−3−1 Runway Marking Elements Marking Element Visual Runway Nonprecision Instrument Runway Precision Instrument Runway Designation X X X Centerline X X X Threshold X1 X X Aiming Point X2 X X Touchdown Zone X Side Stripes X 1 On runways used, or intended to be used, by international commercial transports. 2 On runways 4,000 feet (1200 m) or longer used by jet aircraft. AIM 10/12/17 2−3−2 Airport Marking Aids and Signs FIG 2−3−1 Precision Instrument Runway Markings b. Runway Designators. Runway numbers and letters are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north. The letters, differentiate between left (L), right (R), or center (C) parallel runways, as applicable: 1. For two parallel runways "L" "R." 2. For three parallel runways "L" "C" "R." c. Runway Centerline Marking. The runway centerline identifies the center of the runway and provides alignment guidance during takeoff and landings. The centerline consists of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps. d. Runway Aiming Point Marking. The aiming point marking serves as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft. These two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe located on each side of the runway centerline and approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold, as shown in FIG 2−3−1, Precision Instrument Runway Markings. e. Runway Touchdown Zone Markers. The touchdown zone markings identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500 feet (150m) increments. These markings consist of groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline, as shown in FIG 2−3−1. For runways having touchdown zone markings on both ends, those pairs of markings which extend to within 900 feet (270 m) of the midpoint between the thresholds are eliminated. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Marking Aids and Signs 2−3−3 FIG 2−3−2 Nonprecision Instrument Runway and Visual Runway Markings 20 20 AIMING POINT MARKING THRESHOLD THRESHOLD MARKINGS DESIGNATION MARKING PAVEMENT EDGE AIMING POINT MARKING PAVEMENT EDGE DESIGNATION MARKING THRESHOLD NONPRECISION INSTRUMENT RUNWAY MARKINGS VISUAL RUNWAY MARKINGS f. Runway Side Stripe Marking. Runway side stripes delineate the edges of the runway. They provide a visual contrast between runway and the abutting terrain or shoulders. Side stripes consist of continuous white stripes located on each side of the runway as shown in FIG 2−3−4. g. Runway Shoulder Markings. Runway shoulder stripes may be used to supplement runway side stripes to identify pavement areas contiguous to the runway sides that are not intended for use by aircraft. Runway shoulder stripes are yellow. (See FIG 2−3−5.) h. Runway Threshold Markings. Runway threshold markings come in two configurations. They either consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline (as shown in FIG 2−3−1) or the number of stripes is related to the runway width as indicated in TBL 2−3−2. A threshold marking helps identify the beginning of the runway that is available for landing. In some instances, the landing threshold may be relocated or displaced. TBL 2−3−2 Number of Runway Threshold Stripes Runway Width Number of Stripes 60 feet (18 m) 4 75 feet (23 m) 6 100 feet (30 m) 8 150 feet (45 m) 12 200 feet (60 m) 16 AIM 10/12/17 2−3−4 Airport Marking Aids and Signs 1. Relocation of a Threshold. Sometimes construction, maintenance, or other activities require the threshold to be relocated towards the rollout end of the runway. (See FIG 2−3−3.) When a threshold is relocated, it closes not only a set portion of the approach end of a runway, but also shortens the length of the opposite direction runway. In these cases, a NOTAM should be issued by the airport operator identifying the portion of the runway that is closed (for example, 10/28 W 900 CLSD). Because the duration of the relocation can vary from a few hours to several months, methods identifying the new threshold may vary. One common practice is to use a ten feet wide white threshold bar across the width of the runway. Although the runway lights in the area between the old threshold and new threshold will not be illuminated, the runway markings in this area may or may not be obliterated, removed, or covered. 2. Displaced Threshold. A displaced threshold is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Displacement of a threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. A ten feet wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. White arrow heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar, as shown in FIG 2−3−4. NOTE− Airport operator. When reporting the relocation or displacement of a threshold, the airport operator should avoid language which confuses the two. i. Demarcation Bar. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway. A demarcation bar is 3 feet (1m) wide and yellow, since it is not located on the runway, as shown in FIG 2−3−6. 1. Chevrons. These markings are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow. (See FIG 2−3−7.) j. Runway Threshold Bar. A threshold bar delineates the beginning of the runway that is available for landing when the threshold has been relocated or displaced. A threshold bar is 10 feet (3m) in width and extends across the width of the runway, as shown in FIG 2−3−4. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Marking Aids and Signs 2−3−5 FIG 2−3−3 Relocation of a Threshold with Markings for Taxiway

AIM 4-3-10 Intersection Takeoffs

a. In order to enhance airport capacities, reduce taxiing distances, minimize departure delays, and provide for more efficient movement of air traffic, controllers may initiate intersection takeoffs as well as approve them when the pilot requests. If for ANY reason a pilot prefers to use a different intersection or the full length of the runway or desires to obtain the distance between the intersection and the runway end, THE PILOT IS EXPECTED TO INFORM ATC ACCORDINGLY. b. Pilots are expected to assess the suitability of an intersection for use at takeoff during their preflight planning. They must consider the resultant length reduction to the published runway length and to the published declared distances from the intersection intended to be used for takeoff. The minimum runway required for takeoff must fall within the reduced runway length and the reduced declared distances before the intersection can be accepted for takeoff. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−3−6 , Use of Runways/Declared Distances c. Controllers will issue the measured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded "down" to the nearest 50 feet to any pilot who requests and to all military aircraft, unless use of the intersection is covered in appropriate directives. Controllers, however, will not be able to inform pilots of the distance from the intersection to the end of any of the published declared distances. REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Paragraph 3−7−1, Ground Traffic Movement d. An aircraft is expected to taxi to (but not onto) the end of the assigned runway unless prior approval for an intersection departure is received from ground control. e. Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection. EXAMPLE− Cleveland Tower, Apache Three Seven Two Two Papa, at the intersection of taxiway Oscar and runway two three right, ready for departure. f. Controllers are required to separate small aircraft that are departing from an intersection on the same runway (same or opposite direction) behind a large nonheavy aircraft (except B757), by ensuring that at least a 3−minute interval exists between the time the preceding large aircraft has taken off and the succeeding small aircraft begins takeoff roll. The 3−minute separation requirement will also be applied to small aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 12,500 pounds or less departing behind a small aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 12,500 pounds. To inform the pilot of the required 3−minute hold, the controller will state, "Hold for wake turbulence." If after considering wake turbulence hazards, the pilot feels that a lesser time interval is appropriate, the pilot may request a waiver to the 3−minute interval. To initiate such a request, simply say "Request waiver to 3−minute interval" or a similar statement. Controllers may then issue a takeoff clearance if other traffic permits, since the pilot has accepted the responsibility for wake turbulence separation. g. The 3−minute interval is not required when the intersection is 500 feet or less from the departure point of the preceding aircraft and both aircraft are taking off in the same direction. Controllers may permit the small aircraft to alter course after takeoff to avoid the flight path of the preceding departure. h. A 4−minute interval is mandatory for small, large, and heavy aircraft behind a super aircraft. The 3−minute interval is mandatory behind a heavy aircraft in all cases, and for small aircraft behind a B757.

AIM 4-3-11 Pilot Responsibilities When Conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)

a. LAHSO is an acronym for "Land and Hold Short Operations." These operations include landing and holding short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. (See FIG 4−3−8, FIG 4−3−9, FIG 4−3−10.) b. Pilot Responsibilities and Basic Procedures. 1. LAHSO is an air traffic control procedure that requires pilot participation to balance the needs for increased airport capacity and system efficiency, consistent with safety. This procedure can be done safely provided pilots and controllers are knowledgeable and understand their responsibilities. The following paragraphs outline specific pilot/operator responsibilities when conducting LAHSO. 2. At controlled airports, air traffic may clear a pilot to land and hold short. Pilots may accept such a AIM 10/12/17 4−3−16 Airport Operations clearance provided that the pilot−in−command determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the Available Landing Distance (ALD). ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Chart Supplement U.S. and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide ALD data upon request. Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. 3. The pilot−in−command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance. The safety and operation of the aircraft remain the responsibility of the pilot. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will compromise safety. 4. To conduct LAHSO, pilots should become familiar with all available information concerning LAHSO at their destination airport. Pilots should have, readily available, the published ALD and runway slope information for all LAHSO runway combinations at each airport of intended landing. Additionally, knowledge about landing performance data permits the pilot to readily determine that the ALD for the assigned runway is sufficient for safe LAHSO. As part of a pilot's preflight planning process, pilots should determine if their destination airport has LAHSO. If so, their preflight planning process should include an assessment of which LAHSO combinations would work for them given their aircraft's required landing distance. Good pilot decision making is knowing in advance whether one can accept a LAHSO clearance if offered. FIG 4−3−8 Land and Hold Short of an Intersecting Runway EXAMPLE− FIG 4−3−10 − holding short at a designated point may be required to avoid conflicts with the runway safety area/flight path of a nearby runway. NOTE− Each figure shows the approximate location of LAHSO markings, signage, and in−pavement lighting when installed. REFERENCE− AIM, Chapter 2, Aeronautical Lighting and Other Airport Visual Aids. FIG 4−3−9 Land and Hold Short of an Intersecting Taxiway 10/12/17 AIM Airport Operations 4−3−17 FIG 4−3−10 Land and Hold Short of a Designated Point on a Runway Other Than an Intersecting Runway or Taxiway 5. If, for any reason, such as difficulty in discerning the location of a LAHSO intersection, wind conditions, aircraft condition, etc., the pilot elects to request to land on the full length of the runway, to land on another runway, or to decline LAHSO, a pilot is expected to promptly inform air traffic, ideally even before the clearance is issued. A LAHSO clearance, once accepted, must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. A LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing. 6. A pilot who accepts a LAHSO clearance should land and exit the runway at the first convenient taxiway (unless directed otherwise) before reaching the hold short point. Otherwise, the pilot must stop and hold at the hold short point. If a rejected landing becomes necessary after accepting a LAHSO clearance, the pilot should maintain safe separation from other aircraft or vehicles, and should promptly notify the controller. 7. Controllers need a full read back of all LAHSO clearances. Pilots should read back their LAHSO clearance and include the words, "HOLD SHORT OF (RUNWAY/TAXIWAY/OR POINT)" in their acknowledgment of all LAHSO clearances. In order to reduce frequency congestion, pilots are encouraged to read back the LAHSO clearance without prompting. Don't make the controller have to ask for a read back! c. LAHSO Situational Awareness 1. Situational awareness is vital to the success of LAHSO. Situational awareness starts with having current airport information in the cockpit, readily accessible to the pilot. (An airport diagram assists pilots in identifying their location on the airport, thus reducing requests for "progressive taxi instructions" from controllers.) 2. Situational awareness includes effective pilot−controller radio communication. ATC expects pilots to specifically acknowledge and read back all LAHSO clearances as follows: EXAMPLE− ATC: "(Aircraft ID) cleared to land runway six right, hold short of taxiway bravo for crossing traffic (type aircraft)." Aircraft: "(Aircraft ID), wilco, cleared to land runway six right to hold short of taxiway bravo." ATC: "(Aircraft ID) cross runway six right at taxiway bravo, landing aircraft will hold short." Aircraft: "(Aircraft ID), wilco, cross runway six right at bravo, landing traffic (type aircraft) to hold." 3. For those airplanes flown with two crewmembers, effective intra−cockpit communication between cockpit crewmembers is also critical. There have been several instances where the pilot working the radios accepted a LAHSO clearance but then simply forgot to tell the pilot flying the aircraft. 4. Situational awareness also includes a thorough understanding of the airport markings, signage, and lighting associated with LAHSO. These visual aids consist of a three−part system of yellow hold−short markings, red and white signage and, in certain cases, in−pavement lighting. Visual aids assist the pilot in determining where to hold short. FIG 4−3−8, FIG 4−3−9, FIG 4−3−10 depict how these markings, signage, and lighting combinations will appear once installed. Pilots are cautioned that not all airports conducting LAHSO have installed any or all of the above markings, signage, or lighting. 5. Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The intent of having "basic" VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations. Pilots should consider the effects of prevailing inflight visibility (such as landing into the sun) and how it may affect overall AIM 10/12/17 4−3−18 Airport Operations situational awareness. Additionally, surface vehicles and aircraft being taxied by maintenance personnel may also be participating in LAHSO, especially in those operations that involve crossing an active runway.

AIM 3-4-5 Military Operations Areas

a. MOAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever a MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through a MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC. Otherwise, ATC will reroute or restrict nonparticipating IFR traffic. b. Examples of activities conducted in MOAs include, but are not limited to: air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low−altitude tactics. Military pilots flying in an active MOA are exempted from the provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.303(c) and (d) which prohibits aerobatic flight within Class D and Class E surface areas, and within Federal airways. Additionally, the Department of Defense has been issued an authorization to operate aircraft at indicated airspeeds in excess of 250 knots below 10,000 feet MSL within active MOAs. c. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted. The activity status (active/inactive) of MOAs may change frequently. Therefore, pilots should contact any FSS within 100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories. d. MOAs are depicted on sectional, VFR Terminal Area, and Enroute Low Altitude charts.

AIM 4-1-8 Approach Control Service for VFR Arriving Aircraft

a. Numerous approach control facilities have established programs for arriving VFR aircraft to contact approach control for landing information. This information includes: wind, runway, and altimeter setting at the airport of intended landing. This information may be omitted if contained in the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) broadcast and the pilot states the appropriate ATIS code. NOTE− Pilot use of "have numbers" does not indicate receipt of the ATIS broadcast. In addition, the controller will provide traffic advisories on a workload permitting basis. b. Such information will be furnished upon initial contact with concerned approach control facility. The pilot will be requested to change to the tower frequency at a predetermined time or point, to receive further landing information. c. Where available, use of this procedure will not hinder the operation of VFR flights by requiring excessive spacing between aircraft or devious routing. d. Compliance with this procedure is not mandatory but pilot participation is encouraged.

AIM 2-1-8 Control of Lighting Systems

a. Operation of approach light systems and runway lighting is controlled by the control tower (ATCT). At some locations the FSS may control the lights where there is no control tower in operation. b. Pilots may request that lights be turned on or off. Runway edge lights, in−pavement lights and approach lights also have intensity controls which may be varied to meet the pilots request. Sequenced A pilot on departure from the runway should disregard any observations of flashing PAPI lights. d. Pilot Actions: When a pilot observes a flashing PAPI at 500 feet above ground level (AGL), the pilot must look for and attempt to acquire the traffic on the runway. At 300 feet AGL, the pilot must contact ATC for resolution if the FAROS indication is in conflict with the clearance (see FIG 2−1−11). If the PAPI lights continue to flash and the pilot cannot visually determine that it is safe to land, the pilot must execute an immediate "go around". As with operations at non-FAROS airports, it is always the pilot's responsibility to determine whether or not it is safe to continue with the approach and to land on the runway.

AIM 4-3-14 Communications

a. Pilots of departing aircraft should communicate with the control tower on the appropriate ground control/clearance delivery frequency prior to starting engines to receive engine start time, taxi and/or clearance information. Unless otherwise advised by the tower, remain on that frequency during taxiing and runup, then change to local control frequency when ready to request takeoff clearance. NOTE− Pilots are encouraged to monitor the local tower frequency as soon as practical consistent with other ATC requirements. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−1−13 , Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) b. The tower controller will consider that pilots of turbine−powered aircraft are ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warm−up block unless advised otherwise. c. The majority of ground control frequencies are in the 121.6−121.9 MHz bandwidth. Ground control frequencies are provided to eliminate frequency congestion on the tower (local control) frequency and are limited to communications between the tower and aircraft on the ground and between the tower and utility vehicles on the airport, provide a clear VHF channel for arriving and departing aircraft. They are used for issuance of taxi information, clearances, and other necessary contacts between the tower and aircraft or other vehicles operated on the airport. A pilot who has just landed should not change from the tower frequency to the ground control frequency until directed to do so by the controller. Normally, only one ground control frequency is assigned at an airport; however, at locations where the amount of traffic so warrants, a second ground control frequency and/or another frequency designated as a clearance delivery frequency, may be assigned. d. A controller may omit the ground or local control frequency if the controller believes the pilot knows which frequency is in use. If the ground control frequency is in the 121 MHz bandwidth the controller may omit the numbers preceding the decimal point; e.g., 121.7, "CONTACT GROUND POINT SEVEN." However, if any doubt exists as to what frequency is in use, the pilot should promptly request the controller to provide that information. e. Controllers will normally avoid issuing a radio frequency change to helicopters, known to be single−piloted, which are hovering, air taxiing, or flying near the ground. At times, it may be necessary for pilots to alert ATC regarding single pilot operations to minimize delay of essential ATC communications. Whenever possible, ATC instructions will be relayed through the frequency being monitored until a frequency change can be accomplished. You must promptly advise ATC if you are unable to comply with a frequency change. Also, you should advise ATC if you must land to accomplish the frequency change unless it is clear the landing will have no impact on other air traffic; e.g., on a taxiway or in a helicopter operating area.

AIM 3-5-4 Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations

a. Procedures relating to parachute jump areas are contained in 14 CFR Part 105. Tabulations of parachute jump areas in the U.S. are contained in the Chart Supplement U.S. b. Pilots of aircraft engaged in parachute jump operations are reminded that all reported altitudes must be with reference to mean sea level, or flight level, as appropriate, to enable ATC to provide meaningful traffic information. c. Parachute operations in the vicinity of an airport without an operating control tower − there is no substitute for alertness while in the vicinity of an airport. It is essential that pilots conducting parachute operations be alert, look for other traffic, and exchange traffic information as recommended in Paragraph 4−1−9, Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports Without Operating Control Towers. In addition, pilots should avoid releasing parachutes while in an airport traffic pattern when there are other aircraft in that pattern. Pilots should make appropriate broadcasts on the designated Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF), and monitor that CTAF until all parachute activity has terminated or the aircraft has left the area. Prior to commencing a jump operation, the pilot should broadcast the aircraft's altitude and position in relation to the airport, the approximate relative time when the jump will commence and terminate, and listen to the position reports of other aircraft in the area.

AIM 3-4-3 Restricted Areas

a. Restricted areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature or limitations imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities or both. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. Restricted areas are published in the Federal Register and constitute 14 CFR Part 73. b. ATC facilities apply the following procedures when aircraft are operating on an IFR clearance (including those cleared by ATC to maintain VFR-on-top) via a route which lies within joint-use restricted airspace. 1. If the restricted area is not active and has been released to the controlling agency (FAA), the ATC facility will allow the aircraft to operate in the restricted airspace without issuing specific clearance for it to do so. 2. If the restricted area is active and has not been released to the controlling agency (FAA), the ATC facility will issue a clearance which will ensure the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace unless it is on an approved altitude reservation mission or has obtained its own permission to operate in the airspace and so informs the controlling facility. NOTE− The above apply only to joint-use restricted airspace and not to prohibited and nonjoint-use airspace. For the latter categories, the ATC facility will issue a clearance so the aircraft will avoid the restricted airspace unless it is on an approved altitude reservation mission or has obtained its own permission to operate in the airspace and so informs the controlling facility. c. Restricted airspace is depicted on the en route chart appropriate for use at the altitude or flight level being flown. For joint-use restricted areas, the name of the controlling agency is shown on these charts. For all prohibited areas and nonjoint-use restricted areas, unless otherwise requested by the using agency, the phrase "NO A/G" is shown.

AIM 1-1-4 VOR Receiver Check

a. The FAA VOR test facility (VOT) transmits a test signal which provides users a convenient means to determine the operational status and accuracy of a VOR receiver while on the ground where a VOT is located. The airborne use of VOT is permitted; however, its use is strictly limited to those areas/altitudes specifically authorized in the Chart Supplement U.S. or appropriate supplement. b. To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT frequency on your VOR receiver. With the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) centered, the omni−bearing selector should read 0 degrees with the to/from indication showing "from" or the omni−bearing selector should read 180 degrees with the to/from indication showing "to." Should the VOR receiver operate an RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator), it will indicate 180 degrees on any omni−bearing selector (OBS) setting. Two means of identification are used. One is a series of dots and the other is a continuous tone. Information concerning an individual test signal can be obtained from the local FSS. c. Periodic VOR receiver calibration is most important. If a receiver's Automatic Gain Control or modulation circuit deteriorates, it is possible for it to display acceptable accuracy and sensitivity close into the VOR or VOT and display out−of−tolerance readings when located at greater distances where weaker signal areas exist. The likelihood of this deterioration varies between receivers, and is generally considered a function of time. The best assurance of having an accurate receiver is periodic calibration. Yearly intervals are recommended at which time an authorized repair facility should recalibrate the receiver to the manufacturer's specifications. AIM 10/12/17 1−1−4 Navigation Aids d. Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR Section 91.171) provides for certain VOR equipment accuracy checks prior to flight under instrument flight rules. To comply with this requirement and to ensure satisfactory operation of the airborne system, the FAA has provided pilots with the following means of checking VOR receiver accuracy: 1. VOT or a radiated test signal from an appropriately rated radio repair station. 2. Certified airborne check points. 3. Certified check points on the airport surface. e. A radiated VOT from an appropriately rated radio repair station serves the same purpose as an FAA VOR signal and the check is made in much the same manner as a VOT with the following differences: 1. The frequency normally approved by the Federal Communications Commission is 108.0 MHz. 2. Repair stations are not permitted to radiate the VOR test signal continuously; consequently, the owner or operator must make arrangements with the repair station to have the test signal transmitted. This service is not provided by all radio repair stations. The aircraft owner or operator must determine which repair station in the local area provides this service. A representative of the repair station must make an entry into the aircraft logbook or other permanent record certifying to the radial accuracy and the date of transmission. The owner, operator or representative of the repair station may accomplish the necessary checks in the aircraft and make a logbook entry stating the results. It is necessary to verify which test radial is being transmitted and whether you should get a "to" or "from" indication. f. Airborne and ground check points consist of certified radials that should be received at specific points on the airport surface or over specific landmarks while airborne in the immediate vicinity of the airport. 1. Should an error in excess of plus or minus 4 degrees be indicated through use of a ground check, or plus or minus 6 degrees using the airborne check, Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) flight must not be attempted without first correcting the source of the error. CAUTION− No correction other than the correction card figures supplied by the manufacturer should be applied in making these VOR receiver checks. 2. Locations of airborne check points, ground check points and VOTs are published in the Chart Supplement U.S. 3. If a dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, one system may be checked against the other. Turn both systems to the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated bearing to that station. The maximum permissible variations between the two indicated bearings is 4 degrees.

AIM 4-1-11 Designated UNICOM/MULTICOM Frequencies

a. The following listing depicts UNICOM and MULTICOM frequency uses as designated by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC). (See TBL 4−1−2.) TBL 4−1−2 Unicom/Multicom Frequency Usage Use Frequency Airports without an operating control tower. 122.700 122.725 122.800 122.975 123.000 123.050 123.075 (MULTICOM FREQUENCY) Activities of a temporary, seasonal, emergency nature or search and rescue, as well as, airports with no tower, FSS, or UNICOM. 122.900 (MULTICOM FREQUENCY) Forestry management and fire suppression, fish and game management and protection, and environmental monitoring and protection. 122.925 Airports with a control tower or FSS on airport. 122.950 NOTE− 1. In some areas of the country, frequency interference may be encountered from nearby airports using the same UNICOM frequency. Where there is a problem, UNICOM operators are encouraged to develop a "least interference" frequency assignment plan for airports concerned using the frequencies designated for airports without operating control towers. UNICOM licensees are encouraged to apply for UNICOM 25 kHz spaced channel frequencies. Due to the extremely limited number of frequencies with 50 kHz channel spacing, 25 kHz channel spacing should be implemented. UNICOM licensees may then request FCC to assign frequencies in accordance with the plan, which FCC will review and consider for approval. 2. Wind direction and runway information may not be available on UNICOM frequency 122.950. b. The following listing depicts other frequency uses as designated by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC). (See TBL 4−1−3.) 10/12/17 AIM Services Available to Pilots 4−1−7 TBL 4−1−3 Other Frequency Usage Designated by FCC Use Frequency Air-to-air communication (private fixed wing aircraft). 122.750 Air-to-air communications (general aviation helicopters). 123.025 Aviation instruction, Glider, Hot Air Balloon (not to be used for advisory service). 123.300 123.500

AIM 3-5-1 Airport Advisory/Information Services

a. There are two advisory type services available at selected airports. 1. Local Airport Advisory (LAA) service is available only in Alaska and is operated within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a FSS is located on the airport. At such locations, the FSS provides a complete local airport advisory service to arriving and departing aircraft. During periods of fast changing weather the FSS will automatically provide Final Guard as part of the service from the time the aircraft reports "on−final" or "taking−the−active−runway" until the aircraft reports "on−the−ground" or "airborne." NOTE− Current policy, when requesting remote ATC services, requires that a pilot monitor the automated weather broadcast at the landing airport prior to requesting ATC services. The FSS automatically provides Final Guard, when appropriate, during LAA/Remote Airport Advisory (RAA) operations. Final Guard is a value added wind/altimeter monitoring service, which provides an automatic wind and altimeter check during active weather situations when the pilot reports on−final or taking the active runway. During the landing or take−off operation when the winds or altimeter are actively changing the FSS will blind broadcast significant changes when the specialist believes the change might affect the operation. Pilots should acknowledge the first wind/altimeter check but due to cockpit activity no acknowledgement is expected for the blind broadcasts. It is prudent for a pilot to report on−the−ground or airborne to end the service. 2. Remote Airport Information Service (RAIS) is provided in support of short term special events like small to medium fly−ins. The service is advertised by NOTAM D only. The FSS will not have access to a continuous readout of the current winds and altimeter; therefore, RAIS does not include weather and/or Final Guard service. However, known traffic, special event instructions, and all other services are provided. NOTE− The airport authority and/or manager should request RAIS support on official letterhead directly with the manager of the FSS that will provide the service at least 60 days in advance. Approval authority rests with the FSS manager and is based on workload and resource availability. REFERENCE− AIM, Paragraph 4−1−9 , Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports Without Operating Control Towers b. It is not mandatory that pilots participate in the Airport Advisory programs. Participation enhances safety for everyone operating around busy GA airports; therefore, everyone is encouraged to participate and provide feedback that will help improve the program.

AIM 2-3-8 Mandatory Instruction Signs

a. These signs have a red background with a white inscription and are used to denote: 1. An entrance to a runway or critical area; and 2. Areas where an aircraft is prohibited from entering. b. Typical mandatory signs and applications are: 1. Runway Holding Position Sign. This sign is located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that intersect other runways. The inscription on the sign contains the designation of the intersecting runway, as shown in FIG 2−3−24. The runway numbers on the sign are arranged to correspond to the respective runway threshold. For example, "15−33" indicates that the threshold for Runway 15 is to the left and the threshold for Runway 33 is to the right. (a) On taxiways that intersect the beginning of the takeoff runway, only the designation of the takeoff runway may appear on the sign (as shown in FIG 2−3−25), while all other signs will have the designation of both runway directions. 10/12/17 AIM Airport Marking Aids and Signs 2−3−21 FIG 2−3−26 Holding Position Sign for a Taxiway that Intersects the Intersection of Two Runways FIG 2−3−27 Holding Position Sign for a Runway Approach Area (b) If the sign is located on a taxiway that intersects the intersection of two runways, the designations for both runways will be shown on the sign along with arrows showing the approximate alignment of each runway, as shown in FIG 2−3−26. In addition to showing the approximate runway alignment, the arrow indicates the direction to the threshold of the runway whose designation is immediately next to the arrow. (c) A runway holding position sign on a taxiway will be installed adjacent to holding position markings on the taxiway pavement. On runways, holding position markings will be located only on the runway pavement adjacent to the sign, if the runway is normally used by ATC for "Land, Hold Short" operations or as a taxiway. The holding position markings are described in Paragraph 2−3−5, Holding Position Markings. 2. Runway Approach Area Holding Position Sign. At some airports, it is necessary to hold an aircraft on a taxiway located in the approach or departure area for a runway so that the aircraft does not interfere with operations on that runway. In these situations, a sign with the designation of the approach end of the runway followed by a "dash" (−) and letters "APCH" will be located at the holding position on the taxiway. Holding position markings in accordance with Paragraph 2−3−5, Holding Position Markings, will be located on the taxiway pavement. An example of this sign is shown in FIG 2−3−27. In this example, the sign may protect the approach to Runway 15 and/or the departure for Runway 33. AIM 10/12/17 2−3−22 Airport Marking Aids and Signs FIG 2−3−28 Holding Position Sign for ILS Critical Area FIG 2−3−29 Sign Prohibiting Aircraft Entry into an Area 3. ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign. At some airports, when the instrument landing system is being used, it is necessary to hold an aircraft on a taxiway at a location other than the holding position described in Paragraph 2−3−5, Holding Position Markings. In these situations, the holding position sign for these operations will have the inscription "ILS" and be located adjacent to the holding position marking on the taxiway described in paragraph 2−3−5. An example of this sign is shown in FIG 2−3−28. 4. No Entry Sign. This sign, shown in FIG 2−3−29, prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways, or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway or other aircraft movement surface. NOTE− Holding position signs provide the pilot with a visual cue as to the location of the holding position marking.

AIM 4-2-9 Altitudes and Flight Levels

a. Up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, state the separate digits of the thousands plus the hundreds if appropriate. EXAMPLE− 1. 12,000 one two thousand ..... 2. 12,500 one two thousand five hundred ..... b. At and above 18,000 feet MSL (FL 180), state the words "flight level" followed by the separate digits of the flight level. EXAMPLE− 1. 190 Flight Level One Niner Zero ........ 2. 275 Flight Level Two Seven Five

61.69 Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and training requirements.

ogbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles and is proficient in - (i) The techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles, including airspeed limitations; (ii) Emergency procedures; (iii) Signals used; and (iv) Maximum angles of bank. (4) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has logged at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, or has simulated towing flight procedures in an aircraft while accompanied by a pilot who meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. (5) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has received a logbook endorsement from the pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, certifying that the person has accomplished at least 3 flights in an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, or while simulating towing flight procedures; and (6) Within 24 calendar months before the flight has - (i) Made at least three actual or simulated tows of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle while accompanied by a qualified pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or (ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle towed by an aircraft. (b) Any person who, before May 17, 1967, has made and logged 10 or more flights as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with a certificate of waiver need not comply with paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section. (c) The pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, who endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges must have - (1) Met the requirements of this section prior to endorsing the logbook of the person seeking towing privileges; and (2) Logged at least 10 flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle. (d) If the pilot described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section holds only a private pilot certificate, then that pilot must have - (1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in airplanes, or 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in a combination of powered and other-than-powered aircraft; and (2) Performed and logged at least three flights within the 12 calendar months preceding the month that pilot accompanies or endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges - (i) In an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle accompanied by another pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or (ii) As pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle being towed by another aircraft.

91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use

(a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. For operations not conducted under part 121 or 135 of this chapter, ATC transponder equipment installed must meet the performance and environmental requirements of any class of TSO-C74b (Mode A) or any class of TSO-C74c (Mode A with altitude reporting capability) as appropriate, or the appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S). (b) All airspace. Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section, unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified by ATC, or a Mode S capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified by ATC and intermode and Mode S interrogations in accordance with the applicable provisions specified in TSO C-112, and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability that automatically replies to Mode C interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information in 100-foot increments. This requirement applies - (1) All aircraft. In Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas; (2) All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL; (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, any aircraft which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon or glider may conduct operations in the airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part provided such operations are conducted - (i) Outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and (ii) Below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower; and (4) All aircraft in all airspace above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL; and (5) All aircraft except any aircraft which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or glider - (i) In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface; and (ii) In the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL within a 10-nautical-mile radius of any airport listed in appendix D, section 2 of this part, excluding the airspace below 1,200 feet outside of the lateral boundaries of the surface area of the airspace designated for that airport. (c) Transponder-on operation. While in the airspace as specified in paragraph (b) of this section or in all controlled airspace, each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder maintained in accordance with § 91.413 of this part shall operate the transponder, including Mode C equipment if installed, and shall reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC, unless otherwise directed by ATC when transmitting would jeopardize the safe execution of air traffic control functions. (d) ATC authorized deviations. Requests for ATC authorized deviations must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the concerned airspace within the time periods specified as follows: (1) For operation of an aircraft with an operating transponder but without operating automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability, the request may be made at any time. (2) For operation of an aircraft with an inoperative transponder to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made or both, the request may be made at any time. (3) For operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with a transponder, the request must be made at least one hour before the proposed operation.

91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness.

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition. (b) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

91.403 General Airworthiness Responsibility

1. The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition and for complying with all Airworthiness Directives (Ads) 2. An operator is a person who uses, or causes to use or authorizes to use, an aircraft for the purpose of air navigation, including the piloting of an aircraft, with or without the right of legal control a. Thus, the pilot in common is also responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition and that there is compliance with all ADs

61.57 Recent Flight experience Pilot in command

1. To carry passengers, you must have made three landings and three takeoffs within the preceding 90 days. a. all three landings must be made in aircraft of the same category, class, and, if a type rating is required, type as the one in which passengers are to be carried. 1) These categories are airplane, rotocraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. 2) These classes are single-engione land, single-engine sea, multi-engine land, and multi-engine sea b. the landings must be to a full stop if the airplane is tailwheel (conventional) rather than nose wheel. 2. To carry passengers at night you must, within 90 days, have made three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if required. a. Night in this case is defined as the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

91.125 ATC light signals

ATC light signals have the meaning shown in the following table: Color and type of signalMeaning with respect to aircraft on the surfaceMeaning with respect to aircraft in flightSteady greenCleared for takeoffCleared to land.Flashing greenCleared to taxiReturn for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time).Steady redStopGive way to other aircraft and continue circling.Flashing redTaxi clear of runway in useAirport unsafe - do not land.Flashing whiteReturn to starting point on airportNot applicable.Alternating red and greenExercise extreme cautionExercise extreme caution.

AIM 2-1-9 Pilot Control of Airport Lighting

Radio control of lighting is available at selected airports to provide airborne control of lights by keying the aircraft's microphone. Control of lighting systems is often available at locations without specified hours for lighting and where there is no control tower or FSS or when the tower or FSS is closed (locations with a part−time tower or FSS) or specified hours. All lighting systems which are radio controlled at an airport, whether on a single runway or multiple runways, operate on the same radio frequency. (See TBL 2−1−1 and TBL 2−1−2.) AIM 10/12/17 2−1−12 Airport Lighting Aids FIG 2−1−12 Runway Entrance Lights FIG 2−1−13 Takeoff Hold Lights 10/12/17 AIM Airport Lighting Aids 2−1−13 FIG 2−1−14 Taxiway Lead−On Light Configuration TBL 2−1−1 Runways With Approach Lights Lighting System No. of Int. Steps Status During Nonuse Period Intensity Step Selected Per No. of Mike Clicks 3 Clicks 5 Clicks 7 Clicks Approach Lights (Med. Int.) 2 Off Low Low High Approach Lights (Med. Int.) 3 Off Low Med High MIRL 3 Off or Low HIRL 5 Off or Low VASI 2 Off NOTES: Predetermined intensity step. Low intensity for night use. High intensity for day use as determined by photocell control. TBL 2−1−2 Runways Without Approach Lights Lighting System No. of Int. Steps Status During Nonuse Period Intensity Step Selected Per No. of Mike Clicks 3 Clicks 5 Clicks 7 Clicks MIRL 3 Off or Low Low Med. High HIRL 5 Off or Low Step 1 or 2 Step 3 High NOTES: Low intensity for night use. High intensity for day use as determined by photocell control. The control of VASI and/or REIL may be independent of other lighting systems. AIM 10/12/17 2−1−14 Airport Lighting Aids a. With FAA approved systems, various combinations of medium intensity approach lights, runway lights, taxiway lights, VASI and/or REIL may be activated by radio control. On runways with both approach lighting and runway lighting (runway edge lights, taxiway lights, etc.) systems, the approach lighting system takes precedence for air−to−ground radio control over the runway lighting system which is set at a predetermined intensity step, based on expected visibility conditions. Runways without approach lighting may provide radio controlled intensity adjustments of runway edge lights. Other lighting systems, including VASI, REIL, and taxiway lights may be either controlled with the runway edge lights or controlled independently of the runway edge lights. b. The control system consists of a 3−step control responsive to 7, 5, and/or 3 microphone clicks. This 3−step control will turn on lighting facilities capable of either 3−step, 2−step or 1−step operation. The 3−step and 2−step lighting facilities can be altered in intensity, while the 1−step cannot. All lighting is illuminated for a period of 15 minutes from the most recent time of activation and may not be extinguished prior to end of the 15 minute period (except for 1−step and 2−step REILs which may be turned off when desired by keying the mike 5 or 3 times respectively). c. Suggested use is to always initially key the mike 7 times; this assures that all controlled lights are turned on to the maximum available intensity. If desired, adjustment can then be made, where the capability is provided, to a lower intensity (or the REIL turned off) by keying 5 and/or 3 times. Due to the close proximity of airports using the same frequency, radio controlled lighting receivers may be set at a low sensitivity requiring the aircraft to be relatively close to activate the system. Consequently, even when lights are on, always key mike as directed when overflying an airport of intended landing or just prior to entering the final segment of an approach. This will assure the aircraft is close enough to activate the system and a full 15 minutes lighting duration is available. Approved lighting systems may be activated by keying the mike (within 5 seconds) as indicated in TBL 2−1−3. TBL 2−1−3 Radio Control System Key Mike Function 7 times within 5 seconds Highest intensity available 5 times within 5 seconds Medium or lower intensity (Lower REIL or REIL−off) 3 times within 5 seconds Lowest intensity available (Lower REIL or REIL−off) d. For all public use airports with FAA standard systems the Chart Supplement U.S. contains the types of lighting, runway and the frequency that is used to activate the system. Airports with IAPs include data on the approach chart identifying the light system, the runway on which they are installed, and the frequency that is used to activate the system. NOTE− Although the CTAF is used to activate the lights at many airports, other frequencies may also be used. The appropriate frequency for activating the lights on the airport is provided in the Chart Supplement U.S. and the standard instrument approach procedures publications. It is not identified on the sectional charts. e. Where the airport is not served by an IAP, it may have either the standard FAA approved control system or an independent type system of different specification installed by the airport sponsor. The Chart Supplement U.S. contains descriptions of pilot controlled lighting systems for each airport having other than FAA approved systems, and explains the type lights, method of control, and operating frequency in clear text.

71.5 Reporting points.

The reporting points listed in subpart H of FAA Order 7400.11D(incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of geographic locations at which the position of an aircraft must be reported in accordance with part 91 of this chapter.

NTSB 830.15

Unknown

AIM 4-1-20 Transponder Operation

a. General 1. Pilots should be aware that proper application of transponder operating procedures will provide both VFR and IFR aircraft with a higher degree of safety while operating on the ground and airborne. Transponders with altitude reporting mode turned ON (Mode C or S) substantially increase the capability of surveillance systems to see an aircraft, thus providing the Air Traffic Controller increased situational awareness and the ability to identify potential traffic conflicts. Even VFR pilots who are not in contact with ATC will be afforded greater protection from IFR aircraft and VFR aircraft which are receiving traffic advisories. Nevertheless, pilots should never relax their visual scanning for other aircraft. 2. Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS) is similar to and compatible with military coded radar beacon equipment. Civil Mode A is identical to military Mode 3. 3. Transponder and ADS-B operations on the ground. Civil and military aircraft should operate with the transponder in the altitude reporting mode (consult the aircraft's flight manual to determine the specific transponder position to enable altitude reporting) and ADS-B Out transmissions enabled (if equipped) at all airports, any time the aircraft is positioned on any portion of an airport movement area. This includes all defined taxiways and runways. Pilots must pay particular attention to ATIS and airport diagram notations, General Notes (included on airport charts), and comply with directions pertaining to transponder and ADS-B usage. Generally, these directions are: (a) Departures. Select the transponder mode which allows altitude reporting and enable ADS-B (if equipped) during pushback or taxi-out from parking spot. Select TA or TA/RA (if equipped with TCAS) when taking the active runway. (b) Arrivals. Maintain transponder to the altitude reporting mode or if TCAS-equipped (TA or TA/RA), select the transponder to altitude reporting mode. Maintain ADS-B Out transmissions (if equipped) after clearing the active runway. Select STBY or OFF for transponder and ADS-B (if equipped) upon arriving at the aircraft's parking spot or gate. 4. Transponder and ADS-B Operations in the Air. EACH PILOT OPERATING AN AIRCRAFT EQUIPPED WITH AN OPERABLE ATC TRANSPONDER, MAINTAINED IN ACCORDANCE WITH 14 CFR SECTION 91.413 OR ADS-B TRANSMITTER, MUST OPERATE THE TRANSPONDER/TRANSMITTER, INCLUDING MODE C/S IF INSTALLED, ON THE APPROPRIATE MODE 3/A CODE OR AS ASSIGNED BY ATC. EACH PERSON OPERATING AN AIRCRAFT EQUIPPED WITH ADS-B OUT MUST OPERATE THIS EQUIPMENT IN THE TRANSMIT MODE AT ALL TIMES WHILE AIRBORNE UNLESS OTHERWISE REQUESTED BY ATC. 5. A pilot on an IFR flight who elects to cancel the IFR flight plan prior to reaching destination, should adjust the transponder according to VFR operations. 6. If entering a U.S. OFFSHORE AIRSPACE AREA from outside the U.S., the pilot should advise on first radio contact with a U.S. radar ATC facility that such equipment is available by adding "transponder" to the aircraft identification. 7. It should be noted by all users of ATC transponders and ADS−B Out systems that the surveillance coverage they can expect is limited to "line of sight" with ground radar and ADS−B radio sites. Low altitude or aircraft antenna shielding by the aircraft itself may result in reduced range or loss of aircraft contact. Surveillance coverage can be improved by climbing to a higher altitude. NOTE− Pilots of aircraft equipped with ADS−B should refer to AIM, Automatic Dependent Surveillance − Broadcast Services, Paragraph 4−5−7 , for a complete description of operating limitations and procedures. b. Transponder Code Designation 1. For ATC to utilize one or a combination of the 4096 discrete codes FOUR DIGIT CODE DESIGNATION will be used; for example, code 2100 will be expressed as TWO ONE ZERO ZERO. Due to the AIM 10/12/17 4−1−16 Services Available to Pilots operational characteristics of the rapidly expanding automated ATC system, THE LAST TWO DIGITS OF THE SELECTED TRANSPONDER CODE SHOULD ALWAYS READ "00" UNLESS SPECIFICALLY REQUESTED BY ATC TO BE OTHERWISE. c. Automatic Altitude Reporting (Mode C) 1. Some transponders are equipped with a Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. This system converts aircraft altitude in 100 foot increments to coded digital information which is transmitted together with Mode C framing pulses to the interrogating radar facility. The manner in which transponder panels are designed differs, therefore, a pilot should be thoroughly familiar with the operation of the transponder so that ATC may realize its full capabilities. 2. Adjust transponder to reply on the Mode A/3 code specified by ATC and, if equipped, to reply on Mode C with altitude reporting capability activated unless deactivation is directed by ATC or unless the installed aircraft equipment has not been tested and calibrated as required by 14 CFR Section 91.217. If deactivation is required by ATC, turn off the altitude reporting feature of your transponder. An instruction by ATC to "STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK, ALTITUDE DIFFERS (number of feet) FEET," may be an indication that your transponder is transmitting incorrect altitude information or that you have an incorrect altimeter setting. While an incorrect altimeter setting has no effect on the Mode C altitude information transmitted by your transponder (transponders are preset at 29.92), it would cause you to fly at an actual altitude different from your assigned altitude. When a controller indicates that an altitude readout is invalid, the pilot should initiate a check to verify that the aircraft altimeter is set correctly. 3. Pilots of aircraft with operating Mode C altitude reporting transponders should report exact altitude or flight level to the nearest hundred foot increment when establishing initial contact with an ATC facility. Exact altitude or flight level reports on initial contact provide ATC with information that is required prior to using Mode C altitude information for separation purposes. This will significantly reduce altitude verification requests. d. Transponder IDENT Feature 1. The transponder must be operated only as specified by ATC. Activate the "IDENT" feature only upon request of the ATC controller. e. Code Changes 1. When making routine code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of Codes 7500, 7600 or 7700 thereby causing momentary false alarms at automated ground facilities. For example, when switching from Code 2700 to Code 7200, switch first to 2200 then to 7200, NOT to 7700 and then 7200. This procedure applies to nondiscrete Code 7500 and all discrete codes in the 7600 and 7700 series (i.e., 7600−7677, 7700−7777) which will trigger special indicators in automated facilities. Only nondiscrete Code 7500 will be decoded as the hijack code. 2. Under no circumstances should a pilot of a civil aircraft operate the transponder on Code 7777. This code is reserved for military interceptor operations. 3. Military pilots operating VFR or IFR within restricted/warning areas should adjust their transponders to Code 4000 unless another code has been assigned by ATC. f. Mode C Transponder Requirements 1. Specific details concerning requirements to carry and operate Mode C transponders, as well as exceptions and ATC authorized deviations from the requirements are found in 14 CFR Section 91.215 and 14 CFR Section 99.12. 2. In general, the CFRs require aircraft to be equipped with Mode C transponders when operating: (a) At or above 10,000 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia, excluding that airspace below 2,500 feet AGL; (b) Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL. Balloons, gliders, and aircraft not equipped with an engine driven electrical system are excepted from the above requirements when operating below the floor of Class A airspace and/or; outside of a Class B airspace and below the ceiling of the Class B airspace (or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower); (c) Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSL; (d) Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding that airspace which is both outside 10/12/17 AIM Services Available to Pilots 4−1−17 the Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AGL. Balloons, gliders and aircraft not equipped with an engine driven electrical system are excepted from this requirement. 3. 14 CFR Section 99.13 requires all aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous U.S. ADIZ be equipped with a Mode C or Mode S transponder. Balloons, gliders and aircraft not equipped with an engine driven electrical system are excepted from this requirement. 4. Pilots must ensure that their aircraft transponder is operating on an appropriate ATC assigned VFR/IFR code and Mode C when operating in such airspace. If in doubt about the operational status of either feature of your transponder while airborne, contact the nearest ATC facility or FSS and they will advise you what facility you should contact for determining the status of your equipment. 5. In-flight requests for "immediate" deviation from the transponder requirement may be approved by controllers only when the flight will continue IFR or when weather conditions prevent VFR descent and continued VFR flight in airspace not affected by the CFRs. All other requests for deviation should be made by contacting the nearest Flight Service or Air Traffic facility in person or by telephone. The nearest ARTCC will normally be the controlling agency and is responsible for coordinating requests involving deviations in other ARTCC areas. g. Transponder Operation Under Visual Flight Rules (VFR) 1. Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility, adjust transponder to reply on Mode 3/A Code 1200 regardless of altitude. NOTE− 1. Aircraft not in contact with an ATC facility may squawk 1255 in lieu of 1200 while en route to, from, or within the designated fire fighting area(s). 2. VFR aircraft which fly authorized SAR missions for the USAF or USCG may be advised to squawk 1277 in lieu of 1200 while en route to, from, or within the designated search area. 3. Gliders not in contact with an ATC facility should squawk 1202 in lieu of 1200. REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.66, National Beacon Code Allocation Plan. 2. Adjust transponder to reply on Mode C, with altitude reporting capability activated if the aircraft is so equipped, unless deactivation is directed by ATC or unless the installed equipment has not been tested and calibrated as required by 14 CFR Section 91.217. If deactivation is required and your transponder is so designed, turn off the altitude reporting switch and continue to transmit Mode C framing pulses. If this capability does not exist, turn off Mode C. h. Radar Beacon Phraseology Air traffic controllers, both civil and military, will use the following phraseology when referring to operation of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS). Instructions by ATC refer only to Mode A/3 or Mode C operation and do not affect the operation of the transponder on other Modes. 1. SQUAWK (number). Operate radar beacon transponder on designated code in Mode A/3. 2. IDENT. Engage the "IDENT" feature (military I/P) of the transponder. 3. SQUAWK (number) and IDENT. Operate transponder on specified code in Mode A/3 and engage the "IDENT" (military I/P) feature. 4. SQUAWK STANDBY. Switch transponder to standby position. 5. SQUAWK LOW/NORMAL. Operate transponder on low or normal sensitivity as specified. Transponder is operated in "NORMAL" position unless ATC specifies "LOW" ("ON" is used instead of "NORMAL" as a master control label on some types of transponders.) 6. SQUAWK ALTITUDE. Activate Mode C with automatic altitude reporting. 7. STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK. Turn off altitude reporting switch and continue transmitting Mode C framing pulses. If your equipment does not have this capability, turn off Mode C. 8. STOP SQUAWK (mode in use). Switch off specified mode. (Used for military aircraft when the controller is unaware of military service requirements for the aircraft to continue operation on another Mode.) 9. STOP SQUAWK. Switch off transponder. 10. SQUAWK MAYDAY. Operate transponder in the emergency position (Mode A Code 7700 for civil transponder. Mode 3 Code 7700 and emergency feature for military transponder.) AIM 10/12/17 4−1−18 Services Available to Pilots 11. SQUAWK VFR. Operate radar beacon transponder on Code 1200 in the Mode A/3, or other appropriate VFR code

AIM 4-2-3 Contact Procedures

a. Initial Contact. 1. The terms initial contact or initial callup means the first radio call you make to a given facility or the first call to a different controller or FSS specialist within a facility. Use the following format: AIM 10/12/17 4−2−2 Radio Communications Phraseology (a) Name of the facility being called; (b) Your full aircraft identification as filed in the flight plan or as discussed in paragraph 4−2−4, Aircraft Call Signs; (c) When operating on an airport surface, state your position. (d) The type of message to follow or your request if it is short; and (e) The word "Over" if required. EXAMPLE− 1. "New York Radio, Mooney Three One One Echo." 2. "Columbia Ground, Cessna Three One Six Zero Foxtrot, south ramp, I−F−R Memphis." 3. "Miami Center, Baron Five Six Three Hotel, request V−F−R traffic advisories." 2. Many FSSs are equipped with Remote Communications Outlets (RCOs) and can transmit on the same frequency at more than one location. The frequencies available at specific locations are indicated on charts above FSS communications boxes. To enable the specialist to utilize the correct transmitter, advise the location and the frequency on which you expect a reply. EXAMPLE− St. Louis FSS can transmit on frequency 122.3 at either Farmington, Missouri, or Decatur, Illinois, if you are in the vicinity of Decatur, your callup should be "Saint Louis radio, Piper Six Niner Six Yankee, receiving Decatur One Two Two Point Three." 3. If radio reception is reasonably assured, inclusion of your request, your position or altitude, and the phrase "(ATIS) Information Charlie received" in the initial contact helps decrease radio frequency congestion. Use discretion; do not overload the controller with information unneeded or superfluous. If you do not get a response from the ground station, recheck your radios or use another transmitter, but keep the next contact short. EXAMPLE− "Atlanta Center, Duke Four One Romeo, request V−F−R traffic advisories, Twenty Northwest Rome, seven thousand five hundred, over." b. Initial Contact When Your Transmitting and Receiving Frequencies are Different. 1. If you are attempting to establish contact with a ground station and you are receiving on a different frequency than that transmitted, indicate the VOR name or the frequency on which you expect a reply. Most FSSs and control facilities can transmit on several VOR stations in the area. Use the appropriate FSS call sign as indicated on charts. EXAMPLE− New York FSS transmits on the Kennedy, the Hampton, and the Calverton VORTACs. If you are in the Calverton area, your callup should be "New York radio, Cessna Three One Six Zero Foxtrot, receiving Calverton V−O−R, over." 2. If the chart indicates FSS frequencies above the VORTAC or in the FSS communications boxes, transmit or receive on those frequencies nearest your location. 3. When unable to establish contact and you wish to call any ground station, use the phrase "ANY RADIO (tower) (station), GIVE CESSNA THREE ONE SIX ZERO FOXTROT A CALL ON (frequency) OR (V−O−R)." If an emergency exists or you need assistance, so state. c. Subsequent Contacts and Responses to Callup from a Ground Facility. Use the same format as used for the initial contact except you should state your message or request with the callup in one transmission. The ground station name and the word "Over" may be omitted if the message requires an obvious reply and there is no possibility for misunderstandings. You should acknowledge all callups or clearances unless the controller or FSS specialist advises otherwise. There are some occasions when controllers must issue time-critical instructions to other aircraft, and they may be in a position to observe your response, either visually or on radar. If the situation demands your response, take appropriate action or immediately advise the facility of any problem. Acknowledge with your aircraft identification, either at the beginning or at the end of your transmission, and one of the words "Wilco," "Roger," "Affirmative," "Negative," or other appropriate remarks; e.g., "PIPER TWO ONE FOUR LIMA, ROGER." If you have been receiving services; e.g., VFR traffic advisories and you are leaving the area or changing frequencies, advise the ATC facility and terminate contact. d. Acknowledgement of Frequency Changes. 1. When advised by ATC to change frequencies, acknowledge the instruction. If you select the new frequency without an acknowledgement, the controller's workload is increased because there is no way of knowing whether you received the instruction or have had radio communications failure. 10/12/17 AIM Radio Communications Phraseology 4−2−3 2. At times, a controller/specialist may be working a sector with multiple frequency assignments. In order to eliminate unnecessary verbiage and to free the controller/specialist for higher priority transmissions, the controller/specialist may request the pilot "(Identification), change to my frequency 123.4." This phrase should alert the pilot that the controller/specialist is only changing frequencies, not controller/specialist, and that initial callup phraseology may be abbreviated. EXAMPLE− "United Two Twenty−Two on one two three point four" or "one two three point four, United Two Twenty−Two." e. Compliance with Frequency Changes. When instructed by ATC to change frequencies, select the new frequency as soon as possible unless instructed to make the change at a specific time, fix, or altitude. A delay in making the change could result in an untimely receipt of important information. If you are instructed to make the frequency change at a specific time, fix, or altitude, monitor the frequency you are on until reaching the specified time, fix, or altitudes unless instructed otherwise by ATC.