Private Pilot Written Practice Questions
(Refer to Figure 60.) How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
1. Find the moments left and right of the fulcrum, and set them equal to one another. left = right 500(X) = 250(20) + 200(15) 500X = 8,000 X = 16 inches 2. The 500-pound weight must be 16 inches from the fulcrum to be in balance. It is currently located at 15 inches, therefore the weight should be shifted 1 inch to the left.
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed
A constant gliding speed should be maintained because variations of gliding speed nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and the landing spot.
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
A person holding at least a private pilot certificate may approve an aircraft for return to service after performing preventive maintenance.
What is true altitude?
Actual height above mean sea level (MSL)
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
An aircraft must display lighted position lights from sunset to sunrise. Answer (A) is incorrect because it applies to logging of night time. Answer (B) is incorrect because it applies to the night landing requirement.
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
An airway below 10,000 feet MSL is in either Class B, C, or D, or E airspace, and requires a cloud clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
(Refer to Figures 23 and 58.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280° at 08 knots, the true airspeed is 85 knots, and the magnetic variation is 5 degrees West.
1. Plot the course from Claxton-Evans County Airport to Hampton Varnville Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route (044°). 3. Use a flight computer to find the true heading (Wind Correction on FLT menu using CX-3): Wind direction is 280° (given in question) Wind speed is 8 knots (given in question) True course is 044° (found in Step 2) True airspeed is 85 knots (given in question) Therefore, the true heading is 040°. 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by adding the westerly variation (5°W) to the true heading (040°). MH = TH ± VAR MH = 040° + 5°W MH = 045° 5. Note that the compass deviation card in Figure 58 indicates that in order to fly a magnetic course of 030°, the pilot must steer a compass heading of 027° or a 3° compass deviation. To fly a magnetic course of 060°, the pilot must steer a compass heading of 056° or a 4° compass deviation. Interpolate between these to find the compass correction for 045° (3.5°). Calculate the compass heading (CH´âa¼Üé³jë) by subtracting the compass deviation (3.5°) from the magnetic heading (045°): CH = MH +/- DEV, CH = 045° - 3.5°, CH = 41.5°
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts Class D airspace which means a control tower is in operation. Answer (A) is incorrect because Class B airspace is depicted by a solid blue line. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class C airspace is depicted by a solid magenta line.
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
A constant-speed propeller permits the pilot to select the blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance for a particular flight condition. A low blade angle allows higher RPM and horsepower, desirable for takeoffs. An intermediate position can be used for subsequent climb. After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade may be changed to a higher angle for lower RPM, reduced engine noise, generally lower vibration, and greater fuel efficiency. Answer (A) is incorrect because a constant-speed propeller is not used to maintain airspeed, but rather constant engine RPM. Answer (C) is incorrect because a constant-speed propeller may not be smoother or operate with less vibration than a fixed-pitch propeller.
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
A flight control system malfunction or failure requires immediate NTSB notification.
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have
A high-performance airplane is one with more than 200 horsepower. No person holding a Private or Commercial pilot certificate may pilot a high-performance aircraft unless he or she has received ground and flight instruction and has been certified proficient in his/her logbook Answer (A) is incorrect because landings are only required in order to carry passengers, and they don't need to be solo. Answer (B) is incorrect because a flight test is not required.
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
A private pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization, and for which the passengers make a donation to the organization. This can be done if the sponsor of the airlift notifies the FAA General Aviation District Office having jurisdiction over the area concerned, at least 7 days before the flight, and furnishes any essential information that the office requests.
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
A spin results when a sufficient degree of rolling or yawing control input is imposed on an airplane in the stalled condition. If the wing is not stalled, a spin cannot occur. Answer (A) is incorrect because the aircraft must be at a full stall in order to spin. Answer (B) is incorrect because an airplane is not necessarily stalled when in a steep diving spiral.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas, but often develops deep in continental areas. Advection fog deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots. Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus. Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Answer (A) is incorrect because radiation fog and ice fog do not depend upon wind in order to exist. Answer (B) is incorrect because ground fog does not depend upon wind in order to exist.
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
Advisory circulars which are offered for sale or free may be ordered from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office.
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
Airspeed.
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
All altimeter settings are corrected to sea level. Unequal heating of the Earth's surface causes pressure differences.
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
What is a characteristic of stable air?
Answer: Stratiform clouds Explanation: Cumulus clouds and good visibility - unstable air
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
Appendix II of the Advisory Circular Checklist contains the Circular Numbering System wherein advisory circular numbers relate to Federal Aviation Regulations subchapter titles and correspond to the Parts and/or sections of the regulations. The four to remember are: 20 -- Aircraft; 60 -- Airmen; 70 -- Airspace; and 90 -- Air Traffic and General Operating Rules
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
As water vapor condenses or sublimates on condensation nuclei, liquid or ice particles begin to grow. Some condensation nuclei have an affinity for water and can induce condensation or sublimation even when air is almost, but not completely, saturated. Answer (B) is incorrect because the presence of water vapor does not result in clouds, fog, or dew unless condensation occurs. Answer (C) is incorrect because it is possible to have 100% humidity without the occurrence of condensation, which is necessary for clouds, fog, or dew to form.
Where does wind shear occur?
At all altitudes, in all directions.
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
At slow speeds, the maximum available lifting force of the wing is only slightly greater than the amount necessary to support the weight of the airplane. However, at high speeds, the capacity of the elevator controls, or a strong gust, may increase the load factor beyond safe limits.
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from objects on the ground and in the air.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
Class C airspace consists of two circles, both centered on the primary/Class C airspace airport. The surface area has a radius of 5 NM. The shelf area usually has a radius of 10 NM. The airspace of the surface area usually extends from the surface of the Class C airspace airport up to 4,000 feet above that airport. The airspace area between the 5 and 10 NM rings usually begins at a height of 1,200 feet AGL and extends to the same altitude cap as the inner circle. These dimensions may be varied to meet individual situations.
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as
Crests of standing waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as standing lenticular clouds.
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally
The normal radius of the outer area will be 20 NM.
(Refer to Figure 47.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
The two-bar VASI on-glide slope indication is red over white lights.
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
V(Y) (best rate) is the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane will obtain the maximum increase in altitude per unit of time (feet per minute) after takeoff. Answer (B) is incorrect because V(X) is the best angle of climb. Answer (C) is incorrect because V(A) is the design maneuvering speed.
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft`s
aerodynamic balance and controllability.
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if
visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
Each pilot must have completed a biennial flight review since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot-in-command. A calendar month always ends at midnight of the last day of the month. If a pilot had a flight review on August 8, the next flight review would be due on August 31, two years later.
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
Each pilot-in-command who deviated from an ATC clearance during an emergency must submit a detailed report within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over other than congested areas below an altitude of 500 feet above the surface except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In that case, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
(Refer to Figure 65.) Sign F confirms your position on
F is a runway location sign, which identifies the runway on which the aircraft is located.
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
For VFR flight during daylight hours, between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL, in Class E airspace, visibility and cloud clearances require 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
For a cumulonimbus cloud or thunderstorm to form, the air must have: 1. Sufficient water vapor, 2. An unstable lapse rate, and 3. An initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
Hyperventilation is most likely to occur during periods of stress or anxiety.
(Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
IR644 begins at the lower left (eastbound) and turns northeast as a thin gray line. IR644 has three digits, which mean: generally above 1,500 feet AGL (but some segments below), operations under IFR, and (as with all MTRs) may be over 250 knots.
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitude.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
If on a northerly heading and a turn is made toward east or west, the initial indication of the compass lags, or indicates a turn in the opposite direction. Answer (A) is incorrect because a left turn would indicate a turn toward the east, while turning west. Answer (C) is incorrect because acceleration error does not occur on a north or south heading.
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
Immediately after hard landings and before parking, check radio frequency 121.5 MHz.
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
In the case of an aircraft departing an airport without an operating control tower, comply with any FAA traffic pattern for that airport.
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished
Inexperienced pilots often have a tendency to make approaches and landings at night with excessive airspeed. Every effort should be made to execute the approach and landing in the same manner as during the day.
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
It reduces climb performance.
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
Magnetic disturbances from magnetic fields produced by metals and electrical accessories in an aircraft disturb the compass card and produce an additional error which is referred to as deviation. Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes acceleration error. Answer (C) is incorrect because the difference between magnetic north and true north is called variation.
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
Meridians of longitude encircle the earth from pole to pole, and all meridians cross the equator at right angles. Answer (A) is incorrect because lines of latitude are parallel to the equator. Answer (C) is incorrect because the 0° line of longitude passes through Greenwich, England.
The definition of nighttime is
Night is the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight converted to local time, as published in the American Air Almanac. Answer (A) is incorrect because it refers to the time when lighted position lights are required. Answer (B) is incorrect because it refers to the currency requirement to carry passengers.
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
No person may act as pilot-in-command (PIC), or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he/she has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current pilot certificate and a photo ID. Except for free balloon pilots piloting balloons and glider pilots piloting gliders, no person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft unless he/she has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft an appropriate current medical certificate or other documentation acceptable to the FAA. Answer (A) is incorrect because proof of a flight review does not need to be in your possession while acting as pilot-in-command. Answer (C) is incorrect because proof of a flight review does not need to be in your possession while acting as pilot-in-command.
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately-rated pilot with at least a Private Pilot Certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
No person may operate a civil aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
No person may operate an aircraft (other than a helicopter) in a Class D airspace under special weather minimums between sunset and sunrise unless the airplane and pilot are certified for instrument flight.
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless, if a chair type, it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately-rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
No pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from an aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.
(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 7.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
Observe from illustration #7 of FAA Figure 28, that there is no TO/FROM indication and the CDI is deflected left with an OBS set on 030°. The aircraft is somewhere along the perpendicular line (120/300°). The CDI left means the 030° radial is to the left, or west, of the aircraft position. "Southeast" is the only answer choice placing the aircraft on the 120° radial, or southeast of the station.
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless the CFRs or local procedures require otherwise.
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted. No clearance is necessary to enter a MOA.
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
Precipitation from stratiform clouds is usually steady and there is little or no turbulence.
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
Preignition is defined as ignition of the fuel prior to normal ignition. Answer (A) is incorrect because combustion is the normal engine process. Answer (C) is incorrect because detonation is the exploding of the fuel/air mixture.
(Refer to Figure 20 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
Restricted Areas denote the presence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of Restricted Areas without authorization of the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. Answer (A) is incorrect because this defines a military operations area. Answer (C) is incorrect because this defines an alert area.
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?
Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
V(SO) is defined as the
Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
Steam fog forms in the winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm ocean waters. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in a steam fog.
How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
The GPS receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution.
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
(Refer to Figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
The caution range (yellow arc) includes speeds which should only be flown in smooth air; the maximum speed in the caution range is 208 knots for this airplane. Answer (A) is incorrect because 100 knots is the upper limit of the white arc, which is the maximum flaps-extended speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because 165 knots is the upper limit of the green arc, which is the maximum structural cruising speed.
What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
The difference between the existing lapse rate of a given mass of air and the adiabatic rates of cooling in upward moving air determines if the air is stable or unstable.
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
The downward-moving blade on the right side of the propeller has a higher angle of attack and greater action and reaction than the upward moving blade on the left. This results in a tendency for the airplane to yaw around the vertical axis to the left.
(Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is
The intensity and type of icing is listed in a PIREP after the 'IC' heading. /IC LGT-MDT RIME 072-089 means light (LGT) to moderate (MDT) rime icing from 7,200 feet MSL to 8,900 feet MSL.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
The local altimeter setting corrects for the difference between existing pressure and standard atmospheric pressure. Whether local pressure is higher or lower than standard, it will indicate true altitude (MSL) at ground level, when the aircraft altimeter is set to the local altimeter setting (assuming no setting scale error). Answer (A) is incorrect because 'calibrated' does not apply to altitudes; it only applies to airspeeds. Answer (B) is incorrect because absolute altitude is the height above the ground.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the center of gravity with respect to the center of lift determines to a great extent the longitudinal stability of an airplane. Center of gravity aft of the center of lift will result in an undesirable pitch-up moment during flight. An airplane with the center of gravity forward of the center of lift will pitch down when power is reduced. This will increase the airspeed and the downward force on the elevators. This increased downward force on the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable the airplane. Answer (B) is incorrect because the rudder and rudder trim tab control the yaw. Answer (C) is incorrect because the relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag affects speed and altitude.
(Refer to Figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
The miniature airplane 'C' is adjusted so that the wings overlap the horizon bar 'B' when the airplane is in straight-and-level cruising flight. Answer (A) is incorrect because adjustment is only made to the miniature airplane. Answer (B) is incorrect because adjustment is only made to the miniature airplane.
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
The pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance. The safety and operation of the aircraft remain the responsibility of the pilot.
Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
The primary concern is to avoid undue stress on the airframe. This can best be done by attempting to maintain a constant attitude while keeping the airspeed below design maneuvering speed (V(A)). Answer (A) is incorrect because attempting to maintain a constant altitude or airspeed may result in overstressing the aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because a constant angle of attack would be impossible to maintain with the wind shear and shifts encountered in severe turbulence.
(Refer to Figure 59, area 3.) The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is
The town of Findlay is outlined in yellow just north of Findlay (FDY) Airport. Findlay's magenta segmented line depicts surface area Class E airspace.
(Refer to Figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
The valid period of the TAF is 1218/1324. The first two numbers in each four number grouping identify the date followed by the time in Zulu. It reads as 12th at 1800Z to the 13th at 2400Z.
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
To prevent detonation, the pilot should use the correct grade of fuel, maintain a sufficiently rich mixture, open the throttle smoothly, and keep the temperature of the engine within recommended operating limits. Some aircraft have an automatically enriched mixture for enhanced cooling in takeoff and climb-out at full throttle. Lowering the nose will allow the aircraft to gain airspeed, which eventually lowers the engine temperature. Answer (A) is incorrect because leaning the mixture increases engine temperatures; detonation results from excessively high engine temperatures. Answer (C) is incorrect because although a richer fuel mixture results from applying carburetor heat, the heat may offset the cooling effect of the mixture change. The most efficient initial action would be to increase airspeed.
What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
Towering cumulus signifies a relatively deep layer of unstable air. They show considerable vertical development and have billowing cauliflower tops. Showers can result from these clouds. Expect very strong turbulence, and perhaps some clear icing above the freezing level.
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
True altitude will be lower than indicated altitude in colder than standard air temperature, even with an accurate altimeter set to 29.92.
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
Two fuel pump systems are used on most airplanes. The main pump system is engine driven and an auxiliary electric driven pump is provided for use in the event the engine pump fails. The auxiliary pump, commonly known as the 'boost pump,' provides added reliability to the fuel system, and is also used as an aid in engine starting. The electric auxiliary pump is controlled by a switch in the cockpit.
What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
Unjustified reliance on the pilot's short and long term memory, regular flying skills, repetitive and familiar routes usually results in neglect of flight planning, preflight inspections, and checklists.
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft, carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute an intentional maneuver that exceeds 60° bank or 30° nose up or down, relative to the horizon.
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date is otherwise established by the Administrator, Standard Airworthiness Certificates and Airworthiness Certificates issued for restricted or limited category aircraft are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with Parts 43 and 91 and the aircraft are registered in the United States.
(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
Use the following steps: 1. Convert the EDT takeoff time to UTC: 0945 EDT takeoff time + 0400 conversion = 1345Z UTC (also called 'ZULU' time) 2. Add the flight time to the ZULU time of takeoff: 1345Z takeoff time + 0200 = 1545Z time of landing
Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 -- Fuel, 48 gal 288 -- Oil, 8 qt -- --
Use the following steps: 1. Find the total weight and moment index by using the loading graph from FAA Figure 34. Item Weight Moment/1,000 B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in Pilot & Pax (a) 380 lbs 14.0 lbs-in Fuel (b) 288 lbs 13.8 lbs-in Oil (c) 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in Total 2,033 lbs 79.1 lbs-in 2. Plot the position of the point determined by 2,033 lbs. and a moment of 79.1 lbs-in/1,000. The point is within the normal category envelope.
(Refer to Figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course from Sandpoint Airport to St. Maries Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route (181°). 3. Find the true heading using a flight computer (Wind Correction on FLT menu using CX-3): Wind direction is 215° (given in question) Wind speed is 25 knots (given in question) True course is 181° (found in Step 2) True airspeed is 125 knots (given in question) Therefore, the true heading is 187°. 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the easterly variation (15°) from the true heading (187°). MH = TH ± VAR MH = 187° - 15°E MH = 172°
(Refer to Figure 26.) Determine the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).
Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course from Tomlinson Airport to Jamestown Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route (158°). 3. Note that the variation is 5° East as shown on the dashed isogonic line. 4. Using the formula: MC = TC ± VAR MC = 158 - 5° East MC = 153°
(Refer to Figure 21.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out.
Use your CX-3 electronic flight computer to find the answer: 1. Use your plotter on Figure 21 to identifying the distance (58 NM) and course (12 degrees) between Mercer and Minot airports. 2. Next determine your ground speed using your CX-3 and the following information: distance 58 NM, TAS 100 knots, course 15 degrees, wind direction 330, and wind speed 25 knots. This results in a GS of 80 knots. (Wined Correction on FLT menu) 3. Determine your time enroute using your CX-3, 43 minutes. (Ground Speed on FLT menu) 4. Add 3-1/2 minutes per the question requirements, 46-1/2 minutes.
(Refer to Figure 78, 79 and Legend 3.) Where in relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport?
Using Legend 3 you can determine that an airport beacon is depicted by a star feature. In both Figure 78 and on the airport diagram of Figure 79, locate the star feature on the east side of the airport or east of runway 17-35.
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
When a transmitter, receiver, or both have become inoperative, an aircraft should observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower, when landing at a controlled airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because entering on the crosswind is not required and rocking the wings is used to acknowledge light signals during the day. Flashing the lights is used to acknowledge light signals during night, and a fixed gear airplane would not be able to cycle the gear. Answer (C) is incorrect because entering on the crosswind is not required and rocking the wings is used to acknowledge light signals during the day. Flashing the lights is used to acknowledge light signals during night, and a fixed gear airplane would not be able to cycle the gear.
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should
When converting a true course to a true heading, subtract a left wind correction angle or add a right wind correction angle. When converting from a true heading to a magnetic heading, add westerly variation or subtract easterly variation.
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F?
When lifted, unsaturated air cools at approximately 5.4°F per 1,000 feet. The dew point cools at approximately 1°F per 1,000 feet. Therefore, the convergence of the temperature and dew point lapse rates is 4.4°F per 1,000 feet. The base of a cloud (AGL) that is formed by vertical currents can be roughly calculated by dividing the difference between the surface temperature and the dew point by 4.4 and multiplying the rounded result by 1,000. 1. 70°F surface temperature - 48°F dew point = 22°F 2. 22 ÷ 4.4 = 5 3. 5 x 1,000 = 5,000 feet AGL 4. 5,000 feet AGL + 1,000 feet field elevation = 6,000 feet MSL
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
Wind direction always changes across a front. precipitation does not always exist with a front. the stability on both sides of the front may be the same.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
safety alerts, traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
the aircraft identification or the pilot's name.
