Process Flow Questions

In which knowledge area does direct and mange project work reside? A. Project integration management B. Project scope management C. Project cost management D. Project execution

A is correct. Direct and manage project work resides in the project integration management knowledge area.

What tools and techniques is used in the validate scope process? A. Inspection B. Pareto charts C. Root-cause analysis D. Expert judgment

A is correct. Inspection and decision-making techniques are the two tools and techniques used to validate scope.

In the knowledge area of project schedule management, in which process does leads and lags exist? A. Sequence activities B. Develop schedule C. Control schedule D. Plan schedule managment

A is correct. Leads and lags are a tool and technique used with sequence activities.

The collect requirements process generates two outputs. Which of the following is an output of the collect requirements process? A. Requirements documentation B. The requirements management plan C. Scope updates D. The project management plan

A is correct. Requirements documentation and the requirement traceability matrix are the two outputs of the collect requirements process.

Which develop schedule process tool and technique can reveal the float for an individual activity? A. The critical path method B. The critical chain method C. Schedule compression D. Resource leveling

A is correct. The critical path method can reveal the amount of float available for a project activity.

The define activities process creates five outputs. Which one of the following is an output that the define activities process creates? A. The milestone list B. Activity management plan C. The requirements document D. Schedule data

A is correct. The define activities process creates the activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, change requests, and project management plan updates.

The define scope process creates how many outputs? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

A is correct. The define scope process creates just two outputs; the project scope statement and the project document updates.

Of the choices presented, what is the only tool and technique a project manager can use in the monitor and control project work process? A. Expert judgment B. Change control meetings C. The project management information system D. Change requests

A is correct. The only tool and technique presented that's utilized during the monitor and control project work process is expert judgment. There are four actual tools and techniques for monitoring and controlling project work: expert judgment, data analysis, decision-making, and meetings.

There are four tools and techniques for the develop project charter process. Of the following, what tool and technique is used to develop the project charter? A. Expert judgment B. The project management information system C. Organizational process assets D. Root-cause analysis

A is correct. The only tool and technique shown that is used to develop the project charter is expert judgment.

Which tool and technique does control scope use the most? A. Data analysis B. Project-integrated change control C. Root-cause analysis D. The project management information system

A is correct. The only tool and technique that's used for the control scope process is data analysis. The project manager will compare the results of project execution against the requirements and project scope.

The collect requirement process uses seven inputs: the project charter, the project management plan, project documents, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and two other inputs. What are the other two inputs needed for the collect requirements process? A. Business documents and organizational process assets B. The business case and the stakeholder register C. The project scope statement and change requests D. The project scope statement and the feasibility study

A is correct. The other two inputs to the collect requirements process are business documents and organizational process assets.

What plan serves as an input to the control scope process? A. The project management plan B. The scope management plan C. The project cost management plan D. The project requirements management plan

A is correct. The plan that serves as an input to the control scope process is the project management plan.

The develop project charter process takes place during project initiation and in which project management knowledge area? A. Project integration management B. Project scope management C. Project risk management D. Project procurement management

A is correct. The project charter is created during project initiation; it is a process that's part of the project integration management knowledge area.

There are four inputs to the develop project charter process. Which one of the following is not an input of the develop project charter process? A. The project statement of work B. The business case C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Agreements

A is correct. The project statement of work is not an input of the develop project charter process.

Which of the following is an output of the sequence activities process? A. Project schedule network diagrams B. Pareto charts C. Root-cause analysis results D. Leads and lages

A is correct. The sequence activities process creates just two outputs: project schedule network diagram and project document updates.

Which project schedule management process is responsible for creating a project network diagram? A. Sequence activities B. Develop schedule C. Estimate activity resources D. Activity mapping

A is correct. The sequence activities process is responsible for creating the project network diagram. The specific tool and technique this process uses is the precedence diagramming method.

There are three tools and techniques for the direct and manage project work process. One tool and technique will be meetings. What are the other two tools and techniques for directing and managing the project work? A. Expert judgment and the project management information system B. The project management plan and the project management information system C. Expert judgment and change control meetings D. Expert judgment and the project management plan

A is correct. The two other tools and techniques for the direct and manage project work process are expert judgment and the project management information system.

Which of the following is an input to the perform integrated change control process? A. Work performance reports B. Accepted deliverables C. Expert judgment D. Project management plan updates

A is correct. There are six inputs to the perform integrated change control process: the project management plan, project documents, work performance reports, change requests, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

What is the only tool and technique from the following that is used during the close project or phase process? A. Expert judgment B. Earned value management C. Financial audits D. Procurement audits

A is correct. There are three tools and techniques for the close project or phase process: expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings.

What tool(s) and technique(s) can be used to complete the develop project management plan process? A. Expert judgment B. The project management information system, business analysis tasks, and business case creation C. Requirements elicitation, expert judgment, and the project management information system D. Requirements elicitation, brainstorming, expert judgment, and the project management information system

A is correct. There is only one tool and technique shown for the develop project management plan - expert judgment.

The create work breakdown structure process has four inputs. Which of the following is not an input to this process? A. Project documents B. Contract documentation C. The project management paln D. Organizational process assets

B is correct. Contract documentation is not one of the inputs for the create WBS process.

Of the following, which is an example of the control schedule process technique of schedule compression? A. The law of diminishing returns B. Crashing C. Lags D. Resource leveling

B is correct. Crashing is a tool and technique that adds resources to the project in an effort to reduce the overall duration.

Which tool and technique used for the define scope process helps the project manager view many different solutions for the project? A. Expert judgment B. Data analysis C. Product analysis D. Facilitated workshop

B is correct. Data analysis is a tool and technique used in the defining scope process. This tool can help to identify many viable solutions for the project, such as resources.

One of the tools and techniques for the define activities process is the use of decomposition. What is decomposition in project schedule management? A. Software files B. Breakdown of work packages into tasks C. Best practice guidelines for an application area D. Expert judgment

B is correct. Decomposition is the breakdown of work packages into tasks (activity list).

What tool and technique of the develop schedule process can be added to activities to affect their start date? A. The critical path method B. Leads and lags C. Schedule compression D. Resource leveling

B is correct. Leads and lags can be added to activities to change their effective start date.

Which control schedule process tool and technique may cause the project duration to increase by limiting the number of hours per week a project team may work on the project? A. A what-if-scenario analysis B. Resource optimization C. Leads and lags D. Schedule compression

B is correct. Resource optimization techniques - specifically, resource leveling - limit the number of hours a project resource can spend on the project during a given period (for example, 30 hours per week, per resource). the constraint usually causes the project duration to increase.

In what project management knowledge area does the close project or phase process reside? A. Closing process group B. Project integration mangement C. Project execution D. Project scope management

B is correct. The close project or phase process is part of the project integration management process group.

In which knowledge area does the collect requirements process reside? A. Project integration management B. Project scope management C. Project risk management D. Project initiation

B is correct. The collect requirements process is the second of six processes in the project scope management knowledge area. The other processes included in project scope management are plan scope management, collect requirements, define scope, create the work breakdown structure (WBS), validate scope, and control scope.

Which project scope management process creates the project scope statement? A. Collect requirements B. Define scope C. Create WBS D. Control scope

B is correct. The define scope process creates the project scope statement.

In which knowledge area does the develop project management plan process reside? A. Planning B. Project integration management C. Project scope management D. Project initiation

B is correct. The develop project management plan process resides in the project integration management knowledge area.

In what project management knowledge area does the develop schedule process exist? A. Project integration management B. Project schedule management C. Project procurement management D. Project scope management

B is correct. The development of the schedule is a process called develop schedule and exists within the project schedule management knowledge area.

There are seven outputs of the direct and manage project work process. Which one of the following is not an output of this process? A. Project document updates B. Final product, service, or result transition C. Deliverables D. Change requests

B is correct. The direct and mange project work process does not create the final product, service, or result transition as an output of the process.

In what project management knowledge area does the estimate activity resources process reside? A. Project integration management B. Project schedule management C. Project cost management D. Project procurement mangement

B is correct. The estimate activity resources process resides in the project schedule management knowledge area.

Along with expert judgment, what is the only other tool and technique used to create the WBS? A. Meetings B. Decomposition C. Subdivision D. Project management information system

B is correct. The only other tool and technique to create the WBS is decomposition.

Of the following, which is/are an output of the develop project charter? A. Only the project charter B. Project charter and assumption log C. Project charter, initial cost estimates, and milestone list D. Project charter, initial cost estimates, initial constraints, and milestone list

B is correct. The output of the develop project charter process is the project charter and the assumption log.

The estimate activity durations process needs to know when project team members are available. Which calendar can the project manager use to determine when project team members and other resources are available for the project work? A. The project calendar B. The resource calendar C. The human resource calendar D. The staffing management plan and calendars

B is correct. The resource calendar communicates when project resources are available for project work.

The sequence activities process has four inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the sequence activities process? A. Project management plan B. The scope statement C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Organizational process assets

B is correct. The scope statement is not an input to the sequence activities process.

The create WBS process has two outputs. Which of the following is an output of the create WBS process? A. The WBS dictionary B. The scope baseline C. Procurement management plan updates D. Project change requests

B is correct. The two outputs of the process of creating the WBS are the scope baseline and project document updates.

The scope validation process is similar to the control quality process in what way? A. Control quality control can use Pareto charts. B. Control quality relies on inspection. C. Control quality uses root-cause analysis. D. Control quality is a project scope management process.

B is correct. Validate scope and control quality both use inspection as a tool and technique. The primary differences between validate scope and control quality, however, is that the validate scope process is completed with the project customers, while quality control is done before the customers inspect the work deliverables.

There are eight tools and techniques used to collect requirements. Which of the following is not a tool and technique that the collect requirements process will use? A. Data gathering B. Data analysis C. Cross-training D. Prototypes

C is correct. Cross-training is not one of the eight tools and techniques for collecting requirements.

The control schedule process has a technique called schedule compression. Which of the following is an example of schedule compression? A. Must start on requirements B. Must end on requirements C. Fast tracking D. Parkinson's Law

C is correct. Fast tracking allows entire phases of a project to overlap in an effort to reduce the overall duration of the project.

The sequence activities process includes the application of leads and lags as a tool and technique. What is an example of lag time? A. Moving activities closer together B. Moving activities off the critical path C. Moving activities farther apart D. Moving activities onto the critical path

C is correct. Lag moves activities farther apart by delaying the start of the activity.

There are six inputs to the monitor and control project work process, including project documents. Which one of the following project documents is part of an input to this process? A. Expert judgment B. Change control meetings C. Cost forecasts D. Milestone list

C is correct. Of the choices presented, only the cost forecasts answer is correct. The six inputs to monitor and control project work process are the project management plan, project documents (which includes the cost forecasts), work performance information, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are three outputs of the perform integrated change control process. Which of the following is not an output of this process? A. Approved change requests B. Project management plan updates C. Organizational process assets updates D. Project document updates

C is correct. Organizational process assets updates are not one of the outputs of the perform integrated change control process.

Which tool and technique in the define activities process uses iterations of planning to plan for the imminent activities at a detailed level and the future activities at a high level of detail? A. Decomposition B. Progressive elaboration C. Rolling wave planning D. Expert judgment

C is correct. Rolling wave planning creates plans for the most imminent activities in detail, while activities that are distant in the project schedule are planned only at a high level.

The control schedule process has four inputs. Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the control schedule process? A. Cost estimates B. The resource calendar C. Schedule compression D. Schedule data

C is correct. Schedule compression is the only tool and technique listed for the control schedule process.

Which one of the following is not an input to the close project or phase process? A. The project management plan B. Accepted deliverables C. Scope validation D. Organizational process assets

C is correct. Scope validation is not an input to the close project or phase process.

The define scope process requires five inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the define scope process? A. Project charter B. Project management plan C. Business case D. Organizational process assets

C is correct. The business case is not one of the five inputs to the define scope process.

Which of the following project documents is a define activities process output? A. Resource calendars B. The project scope statement C. Activity attributes D. Activity resource requirements

C is correct. The define activities process creates five outputs: activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, change requests, and project management plan updates.

In what project management knowledge area can you find the define activities process? A. Project integration management B. Project scope management C. Project schedule management D. Project cost management

C is correct. The define activities process is situated in the project schedule management knowledge area. The process includes sequencing activities, estimating resources, estimating activity duration, and developing the project schedule.

In what project management knowledge area does the estimate activity durations process reside? A. Project integration management B. Project scope management C. Project schedule management D. Project cost management

C is correct. The estimate activity durations process resides in the project schedule management knowledge area.

Four tools and techniques are used in the sequence activities process. Which of the following is not a tool and technique used to sequence activities? A. The precedence diagramming method B. Dependency determination C. The milestone list D. Leads and lags

C is correct. The milestone list is not a tool and technique used by the sequence activities process.

In what knowledge area will you find the monitor and control project work process? A. Project execution B. Project monitoring and controlling C. Project integration management D. Project scope management

C is correct. The monitor and control project work process is part of the project integration management knowledge area.

What tool and technique for the estimate activity durations process uses an average of the activity duration to predict how long an activity will take to complete? A. PERT B. Parametric estimating C. Three-point estimating D. Analogous estimating

C is correct. The three-point estimate uses an average of the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates to determine how long an activity will take to complete.

What tools and techniques can be used with the perform integrated change control process? A. Expert judgment and earned value management B. Expert judgment and the project management information system C. Expert judgment and change control tools D. Change control meetings and the project management information system

C is correct. The tool and techniques for the perform integrated change control process are expert judgment, change control tools, data analysis, decision-making, and meetings.

What input to the control scope process relies on earned value management? A. The project management plan B. Historical information C. Work performance data D. Organizational process assets

C is correct. The work performance data can use earned value management as part of its input to the control scope process.

What estimating technique relies on historical information to predict the current project's duration as part of the estimate activity durations process? A. PERT B. Parametric estimating C. Three-point estimating D. Analogous estimating

D is correct. Analogous estimating relies on historical information of similar projects to determine how long the current project work should take.

There are three outputs of the manage project knowledge process. Which one is not an output of this process? A. Lessons learned register B. Project management plan updates C. Organizational process assets updates D. Change requests

D is correct. Change requests are not an output of this process.

Which of the following is not an output of the control scope process? A. Project document updates B. Project management plan updates C. Change requests D. Cost estimate updates

D is correct. Cost estimate updates are not an output of the control scope process.

The develop project management plan process has four inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to this process? A. The project charter B. Outputs from the other processes C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Cost estimates

D is correct. Cost estimates are not an input for the develop project management plan process. Cost estimates are created later in the planning process group.

The tools and techniques for the manage project knowledge process include interpersonal and team skills. This tool and technique can use five tools. Which one of the following is not part of the tools and techniques for the interpersonal and team skills of the manage project knowledge process? A. Active listening B. Facilitation C. Political awareness D. Meeting management

D is correct. Interpersonal and team skills for the manage project knowledge process do not include meeting management.

There are four outputs of the monitor and control project work process. Which one of the following is not one of the four outputs? A. Change requests B. Work performance reports C. Project document updates D. Organizational process assets updates

D is correct. Organizational process assets updates are not an output of the monitor and control project work.

Which of the following is not an output of the validate scope process? A. Accepted deliverables B. Change requests C. Project document updates D. Project management plan updates

D is correct. Project management plan updates are not an output of the validate scope process.

Which of the following is not an input to the develop schedule process? A. Project documents B. Project management plan C. Agreements D. WBS

D is correct. The WBS is not an input to the develop schedule process.

What does the develop project management plan process create? A. The project management plan along with eight subsidiary plans B. The scope management plan, the time management plan, the cost management plan, the quality management plan, the process improvement plan, the communication management plan, the risk management plan, and the procurement management plan C. The project management plan, initial cost estimates, initial risk assessment, and milestone list D. The project management plan

D is correct. The develop project management plan creates only one output: the project management plan.

There are five inputs to the direct and manage project work process. Four of them are organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, project documents, and the project management plan. What is the fifth input for this process? A. The project charter B. Accepted deliverables C. Contract(s) D. Approved change requests

D is correct. The fifth input to the direct and manage project work is any approved change request.

There are four outputs of the close project or phase process. Which one of the following is an output of this process? A. Expert judgment B. Accepted deliverables C. Procurement audits D. Final product, service, or result transition

D is correct. The four outputs of the close project or phase process are project documents updates; the final product, service, or result transition; the final report; and the organizational process assets updates.

The manage project knowledge process has five inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to the manage project knowledge process? A. Project management plan B. Project documents C. Organizational process assets D. Networking

D is correct. The manage project knowledge process doesn't include networking as input; networking is a tool and technique of this process.

The define activities process has three inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the define activities process? A. Project management plan B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Organizational process assets D. The project charter

D is correct. The project charter is not an input to defining activities.

Which of the following is not an input to the validate scope process? A. The project management plan B. Project documents C. Verified deliverables D. Project scope statement

D is correct. The project scope statement is not an input to the validate scope process.

The scope baseline is created as part of the create WBS process. What is the scope baseline? A. The scope baseline consists of the project scope statement and the WBS. B. The scope baseline consists of the WBS and the WBS dictionary. C. The scope baseline consists of the WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the project scope management plan. D. The scope baseline consists of the WBS, WBS dictionary, and the project scope statement.

D is correct. The scope baseline is one of the two outputs of the create WBS process. It consists of the WBS, WBS dictionary, and the project scope statement.

How many outputs does the control schedule process create? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

D is correct. There are five outputs of the control schedule process: work performance information, schedule forecasts, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

How many inputs are there for the perform integrated change control process? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six

D is correct. There are six inputs to the perform integrated change control process: the project management plan, project documents, work performance reports, change requests, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

How many project schedule management processes are there? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six

D is correct. There are six project schedule management processes: plan schedule management, define activities, sequence activities, estimate activity durations, develop schedule, and control schedule.

There are seven outputs of the develop schedule process. Which of the following is not a valid output of the develop schedule process? A. The project schedule B. The schedule baseline C. Schedule data D. Work assignments

D is correct. Work assignments are not an output of the develop schedule process.